25
A DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI Serial: 202201 GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I GS PCM - TEST – 1 TEST BOOKLET Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 I N S T R U C T I O N S 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for Wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Page 1: GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I TEST BOOKLET T.B.C: P-SIA-D

A

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI

Serial: 202201

GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I

GS PCM - TEST – 1

TEST BOOKLET

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item

comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for Wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Page 2: GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I TEST BOOKLET T.B.C: P-SIA-D

SIA-A-GKN (1-A)

1. Consider the following statements with

respect to Rigvedic period:

1. In the Rigvedic period, battles were fought

for land and to capture cattle.

2. A regular army was maintained for the

war.

3. The wealth obtained during wars was

distributed between the leaders, priests

and the common people.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which of the following scripts and languages

were used in the Ashokan inscriptions found

in Kandahar?

1. Prakrit

2. Greek

3. Aramaic

4. Brahmi

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

3. The book ‘Charak Samhita’ deals with which

of the following subjects?

(a) Astrology

(b) Medicine

(c) Grammar

(d) Mathematics

4. Consider the following statements with

respect to Buddha and his teachings:

1. Buddha delivered his first sermon at a

place called Sarnath, near Varanasi.

2. Buddha used the Prakrit language to

propagate his teachings.

3. Vinaya Pitaka was a book that contained

rules made for the Buddhist Sangha.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. “It is the duty of the State to raise the level of

nutrition and the standard of living and to

improve public health.” This is mentioned in

which part of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Part III

(b) Part IV

(c) Part IV A

(d) Part XII

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SIA-A-GKN (2-A)

6. Consider the following statements:

1. Settling of boundary disputes with a

neighboring country

2. Setting up of a primary school in a village

3. Introduction of a new 1000 rupee note

4. The decision to provide free electricity to

the people.

Which of the following decisions can be taken

only by the central government in India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

7. With reference to steps taken for Women

empowerment, arrange the following in the

correct chronological order:

1. Protection of Women from Domestic

Violence Act

2. Sexual Harassment of Women at

Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and

Redressal) Act

3. Vishaka guidelines of the Supreme Court

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1-2-3

(b) 2-1-3

(c) 3-1-2

(d) 3-2-1

8. Consider the following pairs:

Archaeological sites Present day

State/region

1. Koldihwa - Rajasthan

2. Burzahom - Punjab

3. Bhimbetka - Madhya Pradesh

4. Inamgaon - Maharashtra

Which of the pairs given above are correctly

matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

9. The tropical rainforests in India can be found

in which of the following places?

1. Andaman and Nicobar islands

2. Parts of North-Eastern states.

3. Eastern slope of the Western Ghats

4. Western Himalayas

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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SIA-A-GKN (3-A)

10. ‘Susu’, a species of blind dolphin, is most

likely to be found in which of the following

rivers of India?

1. Ganga

2. Chambal

3. Brahmaputra

4. Narmada

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

11. Consider the following statements with

respect to the cities of Harappa civilization:

1. The western part of the cities was larger but

lower while the eastern part was smaller and

higher.

2. Use of burnt baked bricks for construction

was the unique feature of Harappan cities.

3. The Great bath was a special tank used for

religious purposes and was situated in the

city of Mohenjodaro.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Consider the following statements with respect to Mahajanapadas and their administration:

1. Most of the Mahajanapadas were fortified settlements.

2. Taxes on crops were the most important and it was fixed at one third of the farmers' produce.

3. The craftspeople had to pay taxes in the form of labor.

Which of the above given statements is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the Above

13. Consider the following statements with regard to Jainism:

1. Vardhaman Mahavira advocated strict adherence to the rules of ahimsa and was against the killing of any living creature.

2. Farmers found it very easy to follow the Jainism principles but it was difficult for traders to follow these rules.

3. The rules were written down in the form in which they are presently available at a place called Pawapuri in Bihar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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SIA-A-GKN (4-A)

14. ‘Digha Nikaya’ was a religious textbook

associated with which of the following?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Hinduism

(d) None of these

15. Which of the following is/are Paleolithic

archaeological sites?

1. Bhimbetka

2. Chirand

3. Kurnool caves

4. Mehrgarh

5. Hunsgi

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2 and 5 only

16. The inscriptions of Ashoka have been found

in which of the following places?

1. Mansehra

2. Lumbini

3. Rampurwa

4. Sarnath

5. Kaushambi

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 3, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

17. With respect to post-Mauryan rule, arrange

the following foreign invaders in the correct

chronological order of their invasion:

1. Shakas

2. Indo- Greeks

3. Kushanas

4. Indo-Parthian

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 2-1-3-4

(b) 2-1-4-3

(c) 1-2-3-4

(d) 4-2-1-3

18. With reference to the rulers of the Sangam

age, consider the following statements:

1. The Sangam age describes the rule of the

three kingdoms - the Cholas, the Pandyas

and the Satavahanas.

2. Puhar was an important port city of the

Cholas and Madurai was the capital of the

Pandyas.

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SIA-A-GKN (5-A)

3. The chiefs of the three kingdoms collected

regular taxes from the people of the

region.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Consider the following pairs:

Court Poet Ruler

1. Harishena Harshavardhana

2. Kalidasa Chandragupta II

3. Banabhatta Samudragupta

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

20. Consider the following statements with

respect to manuscripts and inscriptions:

1. While manuscripts were written on the

palm leaf or bark of a tree, inscriptions

were written on hard surfaces like stone

and metal.

2. Manuscripts were used only for religious

purposes while inscriptions contained the

sermons given by the king.

3. Sanskrit and Prakrit were the most common languages used to write manuscripts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

21. The famous painting of ‘Padmapani Bodhisattva’ is situated at which of the following places?

(a) Ellora caves

(b) Ajanta caves

(c) Sittanavasal caves

(d) Udayagiri caves

22. With reference to the administration of the southern kingdoms, which of the following pairs is/are correct?

1. Maha-Danda-nayaka - Chief judicial officer

2. Nagara-Shreshthi - Leader of Merchant caravans

3. Sarthavaha - Chief banker or merchant of the city

4. Prathama-kulika - Chief craftsman

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Page 7: GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I TEST BOOKLET T.B.C: P-SIA-D

SIA-A-GKN (6-A)

23. With reference to the architectural features of Stupa, consider the following statements:

1. Stupas generally contain the bodily remains of the Buddha or his followers as well as precious stones and coins.

2. Pradakshina Patha built around the stupa was surrounded by railings, known as ‘Vedika’.

3. The great stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh was started during the Mauryan rule.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

24. The "tripartite struggle" in the medieval period has been described as a long drawn battle for control over ‘Kannauj’. Who among the following were the three parties to the struggle?

1. Rashtrakutas

2. Chalukyas

3. Palas

4. Gurjara-Pratihara

5. Cholas

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 5 only

25. Consider the following statements about the

Chola period and its administration:

1. Cholas were Subordinates of Pallavas and

they built a very strong navy to defend

their territories.

2. ‘Vetti’ was a term used to mean taxes that

were levied in the form of forced labour.

3. Gangaikonda-Cholapuram was a famous

capital city of the Chola Empire and it

was founded by Rajaraja.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

26. With reference to life in ancient India,

consider the following statements:

1. Wheat and Barley were some of the

earliest crops to be grown in the Sulaiman

and Kirthar hills to the northwest.

2. Rice was grown for the first time in the

areas north of the Vindhya hills.

3. Cities for the first time developed on the

banks of the Ganga River and later spread

to areas near the Indus river.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

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SIA-A-GKN (7-A)

27. Consider the following statements regarding

administration of Allaudin Khilji and

Muhammad Tughluq:

1. The reign of both the rulers saw the

attack by Mongols.

2. While Allaudin appointed special officers

for price control in the market, Tughlaq

issued token currency for the exchange of

goods.

3. Alauddin’s administrative measures were

more successful compared to Muhammad

Tughluq’s administrative measures.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

28. Rudrama Devi was a famous ruler of which of

the following dynasties?

(a) Ganga dynasty

(b) Kakatiya dynasty

(c) Hoysala dynasty

(d) Pallava dynasty

29. Consider the following statements with

respect to the Mughal administration:

1. Mansabdars were the bureaucrats who

were appointed only on the basis of merit

by the Mughal rulers.

2. The empire was divided into provinces

called Subas, governed by a Subadar who

carried out both political and military

functions.

3. ‘Zabti’ was a system of revenue collection

during the rule of Akbar.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

30. Consider the following statements regarding

the rule of Akbar:

1. Akbar never carried on the Deccan

campaign during his reign.

2. In the east, Akbar made parts of Bengal,

Bihar and Orissa a part of the Mughal

empire through his military campaign.

3. The Akbar campaign in the northwest

region was a failure and he was defeated

by the Safavids.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

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SIA-A-GKN (8-A)

31. Which of the following were the salient

features of the architecture developed during

Mughal rule?

1. Pietra dura technique

2. Construction of Bulbous domes

3. Extensive use of red sandstone as a

building material.

4. Use of foreshortening technique

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1,3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. ‘This city is located in the Krishna-

Tungabhadra basin, which formed the

nucleus of the Vijayanagar Empire, founded

in 1336. No mortar or cementing agent was

used in the construction of these walls and

the technique followed was to wedge them

together by interlocking. It is also included in

the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list.’

Which of the following cities of the

Vijayanagar Empire is described above?

(a) Hampi

(b) Ahmednagar

(c) Mahabalipuram

(d) Golkonda

33. The idea of ‘Unity in diversity can be

manifested in India through which of the

following?

1. Faith in Constitutionalism

2. National Anthem

3. National Flag

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Consider the following statements:

1. The term ‘Dalit’ was used for the first time

by Mahatma Gandhi for the lower caste

people who suffer discrimination on basis

of caste.

2. The practice of untouchability is a

criminal offence under the Indian

Constitution and laws.

3. The term Scheduled caste was used for

the first time under the Indian

Constitution to protect the rights of

depressed class people.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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SIA-A-GKN (9-A)

35. Which of the following is/are the mandatory

provisions of the 73rd constitutional

amendment act concerning the local self-

government?

1. Direct elections to all seats in Panchayat

at all levels.

2. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in

Panchayat at all levels.

3. Reservation of seats for backward classes

in the Panchayat at any level.

4. Representation to members of parliament

and state legislature in the Panchayat at

different levels.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

36. Consider the following statements:

1. The right to Equality under the Indian

constitution provides for both equality

before the law as well as equal protection

of the law.

2. While equality before the law is a positive

concept, equal protection of the law is a

negative concept.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements with respect to Midday Meal (MDM) scheme:

1. Tamil Nadu was the first state in India to implement the scheme in the primary schools of the state.

2. It was made mandatory by the Supreme Court in 2001 for all the state governments to implement the scheme in the primary schools within six months,

3. The programme had a significant impact in reducing caste prejudices in society and empowering Dalit women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

38. With reference to the state government, consider the following statements:

1. All the members of a state legislative assembly are elected by the people of that state.

2. The political party which secures more than 50 percent of the total votes polled in the state is invited to form the government by the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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SIA-A-GKN (10-A)

39. With reference to various types of majority,

which of the following pairs is/are correct?

1. Simple majority - More than 50 percent of

the members present and voting.

2. Absolute majority - More than 50 percent

of the total strength of the house.

3. Special majority - More than two-thirds of

the members present and voting.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

40. With reference to the role of media in the

Indian democracy, consider the following

statements:

1. Freedom of the press is a fundamental

right under Article 19 of the Indian

Constitution.

2. The press council of India is the sole

regulatory body for print media, electronic

media and social media in India.

3. When the government prevents either a

news item, or scenes from a movie, or the

lyrics of a song from being shared with

the larger public, this is referred to as

censorship.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Consider the following statements:

1. All the countries which have a

Constitution must be democratic.

2. All democratic countries are likely to have

a constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Which of the following statements is/are

correct with respect to Constituent assembly

in India:

1. The idea of a Constituent assembly was

given for the first time by Jawaharlal

Nehru in 1934.

2. Between December 1946 and November

1949, the Constituent Assembly drafted a

constitution for independent India.

3. Mahatma Gandhi was a prominent

member of the Constituent Assembly.

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SIA-A-GKN (11-A)

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

43. Consider the following statements with respect to fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution:

1. Fundamental rights are absolute and can’t be taken away by the state under any circumstances.

2. Most of the fundamental rights are negative as they put limitations on the power of the government.

3. Some fundamental rights are available only to Indian citizens and not foreigners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

44. With reference to Indian Secularism, consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these.

2. The Indian model of secularism is based on the positive role of the state in religion.

3. The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious minority communities to set up their schools and colleges.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

45. Consider the following statements:

1. The India Parliament consists of the Lok

Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President

2. All the members of the Parliament are

directly elected by the people of India.

3. A bill becomes law if it is approved by the

Parliament and receives the assent of the

President.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

46. Which of the following tools are used by the

Parliament to enforce the accountability of

the executive to the legislature?

1. Question hour

2. No-confidence motion

3. Censure motion

4. Adjournment motion

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SIA-A-GKN (12-A)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

47. In the context of parliamentary proceedings, the idea of ‘Zero hour’ finds its origin in?

(a) Indian Constitution

(b) British Parliamentary conventions

(c) Rule of Procedure of Lok Sabha

(d) Indian Parliamentary innovation

48. With respect to the Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Dispute Resolution is a mechanism for resolving disputes between citizens, between citizens and the government, between two state governments and between the centre and state governments.

2. A citizen has to first approach the high court if his/her fundamental rights are violated by the state.

3. Article 21 which provides every citizen the Fundamental Right to Life also includes the Right to Health.

Which of the above-given statements is not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

49. The India Constitution adopted the system of

integrated judiciary unlike the system which

exists in the American Constitution. Which of

the following statements signify this?

1. The decision made by the higher court is

binding on all the lower courts of the

country.

2. A person can appeal to a higher court if

they believe that the judgment passed by

the lower court is not just.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. Which of the following planets have rings

around them?

1. Jupiter

2. Neptune

3. Saturn

4. Uranus

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

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51. Which of the following statements is/are

correct in context of the solar system?

1. All the planets of the solar system are

made up of rocks.

2. The Asteroid belt is present between Mars

and Jupiter in the solar system.

3. Meteoroids are small pieces of rocks that

move around the sun and are called

meteors when they enter the earth’s

atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

52. Consider the following statements:

1. Latitude of a point is the angular distance

of the point from the plane of the equator.

2. The distance between two parallels keeps

on decreasing as we move away from the

equator.

3. The Indian mainland extends between

latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

53. Which of the following statements is/are

correct with respect to heat zones of the

earth:

1. The Torrid Zone of the earth receives the

maximum heat from the sun.

2. The midday sun never shines overhead on

any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer

and the Tropic of Capricorn.

3. The angle of sun rays keep on increasing

towards the poles.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

54. Consider the following statements with

respect to the International Dateline (IDL):

1. It is an imaginary line agreed

internationally which follows a meridian

of 180 degrees with some deviations to

accommodate certain land areas.

2. There is a gain of one day if a traveler

crosses the IDL from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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55. India shares land boundaries with which of

the following countries?

1. Afghanistan

2. Nepal

3. Bhutan

4. Myanmar

5. Thailand

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 3, 4 and 5 only

56. Which of the following capital cities lie to the

south of the Tropic of cancer?

1. Gandhi Nagar

2. Bhopal

3. Agartala

4. Aizawl

5. Kolkata

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 2, 3 and 5 only

57. With respect to the peninsular rivers, arrange

the following rivers from north to south:

1. Tapi

2. Narmada

3. Krishna

4. Godavari

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1-2-4-3

(b) 2-1-4-3

(c) 2-1-3-4

(d) 1-2-3-4

58. Consider the following statements:

1. The states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil

Nadu receive a great amount of rainfall

during the season of retreating monsoon.

2. Gir forest in Gujarat is the only home of

Asiatic Lions in India.

3. Siberian cranes are migratory birds that

arrive in India in the summer season

every year.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

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59. With reference to the earth’s interior, consider

the following statements:

1. The continental crust is mainly granitic

while the oceanic crust is mainly basaltic.

2. The average thickness of the continental

crust is lesser than the thickness of the

oceanic crust.

3. Iron and nickel are the main constituents

of the earth’s inner core.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

60. Consider the following statements regarding

Earth movements:

1. Weathering, erosion and mass movements

are examples of exogenic forces.

2. Diastrophic movements are very slow

movements and include folding and

faulting.

3. Epeirogenetic movements are caused by

the action of radial forces inside the earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

61. Which part of the Earth’s interior forms the

maximum volume of the earth?

(a) Crust

(b) Mantle

(c) Core

(d) All have an equal volume

62. ‘Sal’, ‘Teak’, ‘Peepal’, ‘Neem’ and ‘Shisham’ are

important trees of which of the following

forests are found in India?

(a) Tropical rain forests

(b) Tropical deciduous forests

(c) Thorny bushes

(d) Temperate forests

63. Consider the following statements with

respect to the layers of the atmosphere:

1. The temperature decreases with the

increasing height in all the layers except

the stratosphere.

2. The Stratosphere is the most suitable

layer for the flying of aero planes.

3. The meteorites coming from space begin

to burn as soon as they reach the

thermosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

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64. Consider the following statements:

1. The incident radiation on the earth from

the sun is of a shorter wavelength while

the terrestrial radiation is of a longer

wavelength.

2. The uneven distribution of heat from the

sun is the primary cause of planetary

winds on the earth.

3. As the air gets warmer, the capacity to

hold the moisture increases.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

65. Consider the following statements with

respect to Spring tides:

1. Spring tides occur when the sun, moon

and the earth are all on the same line.

2. Spring tides occur only on the full moon

day.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. Consider the following statements with

respect to Mediterranean vegetation:

1. Mediterranean vegetation is found in the

regions which are marked by hot dry

summers and mild rainy winters.

2. The eastern and southeastern margins of

the continents have such types of

vegetation.

3. Mediterranean regions are known as

‘Orchards of the world’ for their fruit

cultivation.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

67. Consider the following statements regarding

‘CITES’ in the context of biodiversity

conservation:

1. It is an international agreement between

governments which aims to ensure that

international trade in specimens of wild

animals and plants does not threaten

their survival.

2. CITES is legally binding on the parties to

the convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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68. With respect to extraction of minerals from

the earth, which of the following statements

is/are correct?

1. Opencast mining is the process of

extracting the minerals which lie at

shallow depth inside the earth.

2. Petroleum and natural gas are extracted

by the process of Quarrying.

3. Fracking is an oil and gas well

development process that involves

injecting water, sand, and chemicals

under high pressure into a bedrock

formation via the well.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

69. Consider the following statements with

respect to the Population pyramid:

1. The population pyramid of a country in

which birth and death rates are high is

broad at the base and rapidly narrows

towards the top.

2. In India, the pyramid is broad in the

younger age groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. Consider the following pairs:

Hills Location 1. Garo hills - North East

2. Vindhyas - Central India

3. Kirthar hills - South India

4. Sulaiman - Northwest

Which of the pairs given above are correctly

matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

71. ‘Maitri’ and ‘Dakshin Gangotri’, India’s

research stations are located in?

(a) Antarctica

(b) Sikkim

(c) Ladakh

(d) Arctic Circle

72. Consider the following pairs:

1. Alps - Fold Mountains

2. Mt.Kilimanjaro – Volcanic mountains

3. Vosges – Block Mountains

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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73. Consider the following pairs:

Indian State Bordering country

1. Assam- Nepal

2. West Bengal – Bhutan

3. Mizoram– Bangladesh

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

74. Which of the following is/are among the

Endogenic forces that cause the earth

movements?

1. Earthquake

2. Sea waves

3. Volcano

4. Glaciers

5. Landslides

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

75. Which of the following species of trees do not

fall under Tropical Deciduous Forests?

(a) Peepal

(b) Shisham

(c) Sal

(d) Sundari

76. Which of the following species of Migratory

birds migrate to India in the winter season in

every year?

1. Pintail Duck

2. Curlews

3. Flamingo

4. Osprey

5. Little Stint

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 2 and 5 only

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

77. Consider the following statements about the

Himalayas:

1. The northernmost range of the Himalayas

is the Great Himalayas or Himadri.

2. The world’s highest peaks are located in

the Himadri range.

2. The Shiwalik is the southernmost range.

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Which of the statements given above is not correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

78. Consider the following statements about Coasts of India:

1. The number of rivers draining into the Eastern Coast of India is greater than those draining into Western Coast.

2. The western Coastal plains are much broader than the eastern coastal plains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

79. Consider the following statements about Tides:

1. Neap tides are formed when the Sun, Moon and the Earth are in the same line.

2. Spring tides are formed when the moon is in its first and last quarter.

3. High tides help in navigation and fishing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

80. Which of the following are the Tropical

Grasslands?

1. Savanna

2. Veld

3. Campos

4. Llanos

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

81. Consider the following pairs with respect to

location of cities of Indus Valley Civilization

near the banks of rivers:

City River

1. Chanhudaro - Indus

2. Harappa – Ravi

3. Ganweriwala – Chenab

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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82. Consider the following statements

1. Elephants, zebras, giraffes, deer, leopards

are common in tropical grasslands.

2. Wild buffaloes, bison, antelopes are not

found in the temperate region.

3. Only mosses, lichens and very small

shrubs grow in Tundra Region.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

83. Which of the following is not a right bank

tributary of River Ganga?

(a) Yamuna

(b) Mahananda

(c) Tamsa

(d) Damodar

84. Consider the following pairs regarding

categories of land during Chola

Administration:

1. Vellanvagai - land of non-Brahmana

peasant proprietors

2. Brahmadeya - land gifted to temples

3. Shalabhoga - land for the maintenance of

a school

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

85. Which of the following statements is/are

correct with respect to Fundamental Rights

guaranteed to every arrested person under

Article 22 of the Constitution and criminal

law?

1. The Right to be informed at the time of

arrest of the offence for which the person

is being arrested.

2. Confessions made in police custody

cannot be used as evidence against the

accused.

3. A boy under 15 years of age and a woman

cannot be called to the police station only

for questioning.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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86. Consider the following statements:

1. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi and his

Afghan supporters at Panipat.

2. Humayun defeated Rana Sanga, Rajput

rulers and allies at Khanna.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. Consider the following statements about Zabt

revenue System:

1. Tax was fixed on each crop in cash based

on careful survey.

2. Each province was divided into revenue

circles with its schedule of revenue rates

for individual crops.

3. This revenue system was prevalent in the

provinces of Gujarat and Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

88. Consider the following statements:

1. The famous “Char bhag Style” of architecture was introduced in India by the Mughals.

2. The central towering dome and the tall gateway (pishtaq) were important aspects of the Slave dynasty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. Consider the following pairs regarding the towns of medieval India that emerged around temples:

Town Present State 1. Bhillasvamin - Karnataka

2. Thanjavur - Tamil Nadu

3. Tirupati - Andhra Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

90. “oru jati, oru matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (one caste, one religion, one god for humankind) was a phrase given by which Indian social reformer?

(a) Jyotirao Phule

(b) E.V. Ramaswamy

(c) Narayana Guru

(d) Ghasidas

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91. Consider the following statements:

1. Sedimentary rock formations of plains

and young fold mountains contain non-

metallic minerals like limestone.

2. Metallic minerals are found in igneous

and metamorphic rock formations that

form large plateaus.

3. Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum

are also found in the sedimentary strata.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Which of the following are the methods of soil

conservation?

1. Mulching

2. Contour barriers

3. Rock dam

4. Mono cropping

5. Terrace farming

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

93. Consider the following statements:

1. In India Rajasthan and Jharkhand have

large deposits of Uranium.

2. Thorium is found in large quantities in

the Monazite sands of Kerala.

3. Kolar gold mines in Karnataka are among

the deepest in the world

Which of the statements given above is/are

not correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) None of the above

94. Consider the following statements:

1. Macaulay’s minute supported the

promotion of Oriental institutions like the

Calcutta Madarasa and Benaras Sanskrit

College.

2. Wood’s Despatch emphasised the

practical benefits of a system of European

learning, as opposed to Oriental

knowledge.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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95. Consider the following statements about

Indian social reformers:

1. Rammohan Roy founded a reform

association known as the Brahma Sabha.

2. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar used the

ancient texts to suggest that widows could

remarry.

3. Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an

association for widow remarriage in areas

of Madras presidency.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

96. Consider the following statements about

Rowlatt Satyagraha:

1. The Rowlatt Satyagraha turned out to be

the first all-India struggle against the

British government.

2. Beginning in cities, struggle soon reached

villages.

3. Satyagraha Sabhas were set up to launch

the movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are

not correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) None of the above

97. Well-versed in many languages, he was a

scholar of Islam and an exponent of the

notion of wahadat-i-deen, the essential

oneness of all religions. An active participant

in Gandhian movements and a staunch

advocate of Hindu-Muslim unity, he was

opposed to Jinnah’s two-nation theory. He

was:

(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(b) Maulana Azad

(c) Asaf Ali

(d) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

98. Consider the following statements:

1. Mohammad Ali Jinnah never supported

the cause of Hindu Muslim unity.

2. Abdul Ghaffar Khan criticised his

Congress colleagues for agreeing to the

1947 division.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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99. Consider the following pairs:

1. E.V. Ramaswamy - Self Respect

Movement

2. Jyotirao Phule – Mahad Satyagraha

3. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio – Young

Bengal Movement

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

100. Paintings in Ajanta caves belong to which

of the following phases?

(a) Hinayana only

(b) Mahayana only

(c) Mahayana and Vajrayana

(d) Hinayana and Mahayana