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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2522 (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017 (Regulations: VCE-R14) SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology) Date: 13 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks Unit I 1. a) Discuss on Barry Boehm critics with the conventional software management performance. 10M b) What are the key practices to improve the software quality? 5M 2. a) Describe the principles for modern software management. 10M b) Explain the five basic parameters of the software cost model. 5M Unit II 3. a) Describe the phases of life-cycle process. 10M b) List the activities involved in the software management team. 5M 4. a) Draw and discuss the workflow of iteration. 10M b) Write a note on primary evaluation criteria of inception phase. 5M Unit III 5. a) How do you classify the joint management reviews? Explain about minor milestones in detail. 10M b) Write a short note on pragmatic planning. 5M 6. a) How the cost and schedule are estimated in the iterative process planning? 8M b) Bring out the significance of periodic status assessments. 7M Unit IV 7. a) Give the differences in artifacts between small and large projects. 10M b) Discuss on the seven core metrics. 5M 8. a) Discuss the role of metrics automation in project control and process instrumentation. 10M b) What is meant by process maturity? Give the process discriminators that result from differences in process maturity. 5M Unit V 9. a) Describe the next generation cost models. 8M b) Discuss on Pragmatic Process improvement. 7M 10. a) Explain the basic difference between problem spaces versus solution space with respect to software cost model. 5M b) Discuss what not to be asked by maturity questionnaire mapping to the CMM. 10M

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Page 1: Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2522 (AUTONOMOUS) B. … · 2018-12-10 · 3. a) List and explain the tips for evaluating SaaS. 7M b) List and explain various cloud services

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2522

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 13 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss on Barry Boehm critics with the conventional software management performance.

10M

b) What are the key practices to improve the software quality?

5M

2. a) Describe the principles for modern software management. 10M b) Explain the five basic parameters of the software cost model.

5M

Unit – II

3. a) Describe the phases of life-cycle process. 10M b) List the activities involved in the software management team.

5M

4. a) Draw and discuss the workflow of iteration. 10M b) Write a note on primary evaluation criteria of inception phase.

5M

Unit – III

5. a) How do you classify the joint management reviews? Explain about minor milestones in detail.

10M

b) Write a short note on pragmatic planning.

5M

6. a) How the cost and schedule are estimated in the iterative process planning? 8M b) Bring out the significance of periodic status assessments.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Give the differences in artifacts between small and large projects. 10M b) Discuss on the seven core metrics.

5M

8. a) Discuss the role of metrics automation in project control and process instrumentation. 10M b) What is meant by process maturity? Give the process discriminators that result from

differences in process maturity.

5M

Unit – V

9. a) Describe the next generation cost models. 8M b) Discuss on Pragmatic Process improvement.

7M

10. a) Explain the basic difference between problem spaces versus solution space with respect to software cost model.

5M

b) Discuss what not to be asked by maturity questionnaire mapping to the CMM. 10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2611

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

CLOUD COMPUTING

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 15 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) List the Components required for Cloud Computing. Explain each in detail. 8M b) Compare Full virtualization and Para virtualization in Cloud Computing.

7M

2. a) What are the security benefits on Cloud Computing? Discuss in brief. 8M b) What does Google offer and how they might benefit your Cloud efforts? Discuss.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) List and explain the tips for evaluating SaaS. 7M b) List and explain various cloud services models.

8M

4. a) List and explain different network options required for cloud computing. 8M b) List and explain various platforms produced by cloud computing environment.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the design requirements of Amazon S3? List and explain its design principles. 8M b) Explain Open Hypervisor standards.

7M

6. a) What is Bigtable Datastore? Explain its working. What are the limitations of Bigtable? 7M b) What is XML? Explain its functionality. What are its benefits?

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the benefits that your organization may pursue if you go for Software as a Service?

7M

b) Enumerate some of the good reasons to use Software plus Services.

8M

8. a) Give the aerial view of some of the Software plus Services offerings that prevalent Companies have.

8M

b) Explain Microsoft online functioning of Cloud Computing.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Why do you need Virtualization? What criteria will you consider during Virtualization? 8M b) Describe the best practices to select a vendor while you decide to move for a Cloud

Solution.

7M

10. a) Describe the features of Bungee Connect. 8M b) Discuss various migration issues of the organization towards Clouds. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2612

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

CYBER SECURITY

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 17 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the triad’s that address the security objectives, that are specific to information and goals common to both physical and cyber security.

8M

b) In context to e-commerce, answer the following questions: i. By late 1990s the speed of Internet connectivity became superior to that provided by

modems and even business users handling customer data wanted to connect over the Internet. How these business users did maintained confidentiality of customer information

ii. During early 2000s more and more security devices such as firewalls, proxy servers, and token servers had to be replicated to keep up with the escalating scale of technology services. How was this challenge handled

7M

2. a) What is Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)? Explain with suitable example. 7M b) Narrate the following cyber attacks and countermeasures:

i. Phishing with respect to email ii. Identity theft

8M

Unit – II

3. a) In cyber security, the terms perpetrator, threat, exploit and vulnerability are terms of the trade. Explain how their meaning is distinct and interrelated.

8M

b) Assume that you have been assigned the task of identifying security goals and cyber security policy statements for your organization. List few security goals and cyber security policy statements based on the identified goals.

7M

4. a) With a suitable example discuss how true security and security theater may have the same requirements.

7M

b) What are the drawbacks of Security programs that are motivated by regulatory compliance? What is the impact of using such security programs on security management?

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Describe the following e-commerce based malvertising activities: i. Click fraud ii. Cupon fraud

9M

b) What are the recent goals of Department of Defense with respect to Cyber war?

6M

6. a) What is Cyber espionage? What are the work uses of it? List few ways for carrying out Cyber espionage.

8M

b) What is cyber sabotage? Discuss the impact of cyber sabotage.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) “Cyber security research issues often center on the efforts of academia to contribute to the growing body of knowledge in cyber security.”-Comment on this statement.

7M

b) Briefly describe the cyber security issues related to health care system. 8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

8. a) Briefly describe the cyber security issues related to Industrial Control Systems. 8M b) What is the effect of security concerns in banking and finance industry? Explain.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Narrate the Cyber Attacks against the United States Air Force, March-May 1994: Targeting the Pentagon.

7M

b) In 2011, US President issued an International Strategy for Cyberspace. As a goal, it was stated that, “The United States will work internationally to promote an open, interoperable, secure, and reliable information and communications infrastructure that supports international trade and commerce, strengthens international security, and fosters free expression and innovation.” The goal was followed by several specific policy statements that reflect national values of United States. List.

8M

10. a) Discuss the raise of Cyber crime in US with some statistics. 10M b) What are the five major initiatives identified by National Strategy for Homeland

Security? 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2523

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DATA MINING AND DATA WAREHOUSING

(Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 20 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Distinguish between the following. For each of these pairs of tasks, how are they similar? i. Discrimination and classification ii. Characterization and clustering iii. Classification and prediction

12M

b) What are the value ranges of the following normalization methods? i. Min-max normalization ii. z-score normalization iii. Normalization by decimal scaling

3M

2. a) List and describe any three primitives for specifying a data mining task. 9M b) In real-world data, tuples with missing values for some attributes are a common

occurrence. Describe various methods for handling this problem.

6M

Unit – II

3. a) How is a data warehouse different from a database? How are they similar? 7M

b) Briefly compare Enterprise warehouse, data mart, and virtual warehouse.

8M

4. Suppose that a data warehouse for Big University consists of the following four dimensions: student, course, semester, and instructor, and two measures count and avg grade. When at the lowest conceptual level (e.g., for a given student, course, semester, and instructor combination), the avg grade measure stores the actual course grade of the student. At higher conceptual levels, avg grade stores the average grade for the given combination: i. Draw a snowflake schema diagram for the data warehouse ii. Starting with the base cuboid [student; course; semester; instructor], what specific OLAP

operations (e.g., roll-up from semester to year) should one perform in order to list the average grade of CS courses for each Big University student

iii. If each dimension has -ve levels (including all), such as “student < major < status < university < all" how many cuboids will this cube contain (including the base and apex cuboids)

15M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain multi level association with example. What are correlation for dependent events and lift of association rule AB?

7M

b) Write any four constraints of constrained based association mining. 8M

Cont…2

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::2::

6. a) Give an outline of Apriori algorithm. 8M b) Consider the following data. Draw the FP-tree corresponding to this data (include counts

and all nodes, even if the nodes are infrequent): i. a, c, d, e ii. b, c, d iii. a, b, d, e iv. a, c, d, e v. b, c, d, e vi. b, d, e vii. c, d viii. a, c, e ix. a, d, e x. b, d

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain briefly about naive Bayesian classification. 7M b) Briefly describe the Rough Set Approach and Fuzzy Set Approaches in classification

methods.

8M

8. a) Explain the k Nearest Neighbor classifier. Compare the advantages and disadvantages of eager classification versus lazy classification.

10M

b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Lazy classification. 5M

Unit – V

9. a) Describe the index-based algorithm and Nested –loop algorithm used in distance-based outlier detection.

6M

b) Given two objects represented by the tuples (22, 1, 42, 10) and (20, 0, 36, 8): i. Compute the Euclidean distance between the two objects ii. Compute the Manhattan distance between the two objects iii. Compute the Minkowski distance between the two objects, using p=3

9M

10. Briefly describe the following approaches to clustering: i. Partitioning methods ii. Hierarchical methods iii. Density based methods iv. Grid based methods

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2616

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

IMAGE PROCESSING AND PATTERN RECOGNITION

(Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 22 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss 1D Walsh Transform and inverse Walsh transform. 7M b) For pixels p, q and z with co-ordinates (x, y), (s, t) and (v, w) respectively how do you

define the following distances between p and q: i. Euclidean distance ii. City-block distance (Based on this, identify the pixels forming) iii. Distance 1 from the centre 0 iv. Distance 2 from the centre 0

8M

2. a) Describe image formation model using mathematical functions. 6M b) Consider a continuous function as shown in Fig.1 below. Derive the equation for discrete

Fourier transform (DFT) with respect to this continuous function:

Fig.1

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the concept of power-law transformations with an example. 7M b) You are given an 5 X 5 image matrix

5 5 5 3 1

0 0 1 3 0

0 0 4 0 2

1 2 4 3 1

5 3 2 5 0

Apply histogram equalization method to the input image by rounding off the outputs to the nearest integers Sketch the histograms of the original image and the histogram equivalent image Do you think that the histograms will change if the pixel locations of the image are shuffled?

8M

4. a) In the image formation model how do you separate the low frequency and high frequency components? How is it applied in homomorphic filtering?

9M

b) What is smoothing filter? Explain 3X3 smoothing filter by taking an example. 6M

Cont…2

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::2::

Unit – III 5. a) What is the difference between lossy and non-lossy image compression. Mention one

application of each type of compression. 6M

b) A binary image is to be coded in blocks of M pixels. The successive pixels are independent from each other and 5% of the pixels are 1. What are the Huffman codes for M=1, 2? Also calculate the compression efficiency of each codebook compared to the theoretical maximum given by the Shannon noiseless coding theorem.

9M

6. a) Explain the working of a general compression system model with the help of diagram. 7M b) Enumerate the working of encoder and decoder in a losses predictive coding model.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) How can you detect boundary using morphological operations? 5M b) What is the result of applying thresholding to an image? How do we choose

thresholding level(s)? Give a specific application of thresholding.

10M

8. a) The input image and the structuring element (with the origin at the first cell) are given below. Find the eroded version of the input image.

7M

b) Consider the image segment:

128 128 128 64 64 32 32 8

64 64 128 128 128 8 32 32

32 8 64 128 128 64 64 64

8 128 128 64 64 8 64 64

128 64 64 64 128 128 8 8

64 64 64 128 128 128 32 32

8 128 32 64 64 128 128 128

8 8 64 64 128 128 64 64

Based on the histogram, segment the image into two regions.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain different stages in pattern recognition. 8M b) Suppose at Laurier, 50% are girl students, 30% are science students, among science

students, 20% are girl students. If one meets a girl student at Laurier, what is the probability that she is a science student?

7M

10. a) i. What is the difference between parametric and non-parametric approaches in pattern recognition

ii. What is Parzen windows in classification

8M

b) Assume that you are on a quiz show. There is a prize behind one of the two doors. The doors are coloured red and blue. A coin will be tossed to decide which door to open. You were told that there is prize behind the red door 10% of the time, and the blue door 20% of the time. If given a choice to make, which door would you open in order to win the prize?

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2614

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPUTER GRAPHICS

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 24 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) List any five areas where we will use computer graphics and explain in detail about the importance of graphics in these areas.

10M

b) Differentiate between raster scan systems and random scan systems with appropriate sketches.

5M

2. a) Justify why CRT is called as Refresh CRT and explain the basic working principles of cathode ray tube along with a neat sketch describe about each component.

9M

b) Consider two raster systems with the resolutions of 640x480, 1280x1024, and 2560x2048.What size frame buffer (in bytes) is needed for each of these systems to store 12 bits/pixel? How much storage is required for each system if 24 bits per pixel are to be stored?

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Illustrate the procedure to draw a line using Digital Differential Algorithm. Write the steps involved in the same.

8M

b) Trace the Bresenham’s algorithm for the endpoints (0, 0) and (8, 4).

7M

4. a) Illustrate the procedure to draw an ellipse using Midpoint Ellipse Algorithm. Write the steps involved in the same.

8M

b) Given a circle radius r=10, demonstrate the midpoint circle algorithm by determining the positions along the circle octant in the first quadrant from x=0 to x=y.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain general two-dimensional pivot point rotation with a suitable example. 8M b) Translate the Rectangle (2, 2), (2, 8), (10, 8), (10, 2), 2 units along x-axis and 3 units along

y-axis.

7M

6. a) Illustrate the procedure to clip a polygon using Sutherland-Hodgeman Algorithm. Write the steps involved in the same.

8M

b) Define the following: i. World Coordinate System ii. World Window iii. Screen Coordinate System iv. Interface window

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Illustrate the steps for obtaining a composite matrix for rotation about an arbitrary axis with the rotation axis projected onto the z-axis.

8M

b) Compare and contrast the difference between perspective projection and parallel projection.

7M

Cont…2

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::2::

8. a) Explain the general three-dimensional viewing transformation pipeline. 8M b) Explain transformation from world to viewing coordinates.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Classify the visible-surface detection algorithms and explain one algorithm from each classification.

8M

b) Illustrate the depth sorting method for solving the hidden surface problem.

7M

10. a) Illustrate and explain the steps for designing animation sequences 8M b) Explain any two computer animation languages. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2527

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DISTRIBUTED OPERATING SYSTEMS

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 24 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss performance and reliability with respect to distributed systems. 8M b) Write a note on bus-based multiprocessor and switched multiprocessor.

7M

2. a) Differentiate between multiprocessor and multicomputer. 7M b) Describe the role of Network Operating Systems in distributed systems.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Describe the layers of OSI model with a neat figure. 10M b) What is ATM? What are the different classes of traffic in ATM?

5M

4. a) Differentiate between connection oriented and connectionless protocol. 5M b) What are the different classes of failures that can occur in RPC systems? Explain.

10M

Unit – III

5. a) Discuss the four essential properties of transactions. 9M b) When a private workspace is used to implement transactions on files, it may happen that

a large number of file indices must be copied back to the parent’s workspace. How can this be done without introducing race conditions?

6M

6. a) For some ultrasensitive applications it is conceivable that stable storage implemented with two disks is not reliable enough. Can the idea be extended to three disks? If so, how would it work? If not, why not?

9M

b) Explain Bully algorithm. 6M

Unit – IV

7. a) With a suitable example, explain how scalability of distributed system has effect on the distributed file system.

8M

b) What is replication? Discuss the need for it. 7M

8. a) What are the reasons for file replication in distributed systems? What is the key issue relating to replication?

8M

b) Write an note on: i. File attributes ii. Immutable files iii. Capability

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss release consistence with reference to distributed shared memory. List out the conditions for entry consistency.

8M

b) Differentiate between NUMA and NORMA.

7M

10. a) How caching is done in shared memory? Explain. 8M b) Define an object, object state and methods. What advantage does object-based

distributed shared memory has over other methods? 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2532

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DISTRIBUTED DATABASES

(Information Technology)

Date: 22 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Compare the features of centralized databases versus distributed databases. 8M b) List out the rules to define operations of relational algebra to qualified relation.

7M

2. a) Explain the reasons for fragmentation. State the rules to be followed while defining the fragments in Distributed Databases.

8M

b) What is a distributed database system? Discuss motivation of the distributed database.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the architecture of query processing with a neat diagram. 8M b) Explain the rule for Reduction of Primary Horizontal Fragmentation with join by taking an

example.

7M

4. a) What is a transaction? How the transaction management is important in Distributed Database system?

8M

b) Explain different characterization of Query Processors.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Illustrate different phases in the process of query optimization. 7M b) Explain the communication structure of distributed two phase locking.

8M

6. a) Illustrate three equivalent join tree for the following query, by exploiting the associativity of binary operators: SELECT ENAME, RESP FROM EMP, ASG, PROJ WHERE EMP.ENO=ASG.ENO AND ASG.PNO=PROJ.PNO

8M

b) Write the DAG representation of a complete history for the following transactions: T1: Read(x) T2: Write(x) T3: Read(x) Write(x) Write(y) Read(y) Commit Read(z) Read(z) Commit Commit

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the General Architecture of a Parallel Database System. 9M b) Briefly discuss principal problems introduced by parallel query execution.

6M

8. a) Give the comparison among inter-operator and intra-operator query parallelism. 8M b) Define the term Extensibility in parallel database systems and compare the metrics of

Extensibility.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain different states of objects during migration of objects. 8M b) Discuss each of the alternatives in the design space and comment on their performance

characteristics.

7M

10. a) Explain the distribution related issues during usage of LOID in distributed object DBMSs. 8M b) Explain requirements for transaction management in object DBMSs. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2613

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE

(Information Technology)

Date: 20 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is software testing? Discuss the model for testing. 8M b) Explain path instrumentation techniques. Discuss the branch testing (P2) criteria for path

testing.

7M

2. a) Define goals for the software testing. Explain terms productivity and quality. 8M b) Define and list Taxonomy for Bugs.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Define and describe about control flow graph versus flow chart. 9M b) Write a simple path selection with an example using block diagram/flow graph.

6M

4. a) Explain simple independent and dependent predicates. 8M b) Discuss various components in date flow model.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Discuss node reduction procedure in path, path expression and regular expression. 8M b) With suitable example explain the role of KV-charts in logic based testing.

7M

6. a) Define the following: i. Path predicate ii. Path expression iii. Loop iv. Path sum

8M

b) List and explain the Properties of Relations.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) List the graphs matrices applications and explain partial ordering relation. 8M b) Explain in details of good and bad state graphs.

7M

8. a) With a graph explain one time ZCZC sequence define state graph. 10M b) Explain equivalent states in detail.

5M

Unit – V

9. a) Describe bug life cycle and list defect template components. 8M b) Write the differences between static and dynamic testing tools.

7M

10. a) What are the guidelines for selecting a testing tool? Discuss. 8M b) Discuss when to use automated testing tool. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2514

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 22 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Differentiate logical data independence and physical data independence. 7M b) What are attributes? What are the different types of attributes? List the cases where to

use Null values appropriately.

8M

2. a) Why would you choose a database system instead of simply storing data in flat files? When would it make sense not to use Database system?

9M

b) Define the following terms with example: i. Weak Entity ii. Cardinality Ratio iii. Participation Constraint

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Employee (empno, name, office, age) Books (isbn, title, authors, publisher) Loan (empno, isbn, date)

Write the following queries in relational algebra:

i. Find the name of all employees who have borrowed a book published by McGraw-Hill

ii. Find the name of all employees who have borrowed all book published by McGraw-Hill

iii. Find the names of employees who have borrowed more than five different books published by McGraw-Hill

iv. For each publisher, find the name of employees who have borrowed more than five books of that publisher

8M

b) SQL allows a foreign-key dependency to refer to the same relation, as in the following example: create table manager (employee_name char(20), manager_name char(20), primary key employee_name, foreign key (manager_name) references manager on delete cascade ) Here the employee_name is a key to the table Manager, each employee has at most one manager. The foreign key clause requires that every manager also be an employee. Explain exactly what happens when a tuple in the relation manager is deleted.

7M

4. a) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the trigger mechanism. Contrast triggers with other integrity constraints supported by SQL.

8M

b) Suppose that we have a ternary relationship R between entity sets A, B, and C such that A has a key constraint and total participation and B has a key constraint; these are the only constraints. A has attributes a1 and a2, with a1 being the key; B and C are similar. R has no descriptive attributes. Write SQL statements that create tables corresponding to this information so as to capture as many of the constraints as possible. If you cannot capture some constraint, explain why?

7M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) What is functional dependency? Why some functional dependencies are called trivial? 8M b) Suppose we have relation R(A,B,C) with MVD AB. If we know that the tuples

(a,b1,c1), (a,b2,c2), and (a,b3,c3) are in the current instance of R, what other tuples must also be in R?

7M

6. a) What conditions must the multivalued dependencies (if any) satisfy for a relation to be in 4NF? Explain why 4NF is a normal form more desirable than BCNF.

6M

b) Consider the following relation R(A,B,C,D,E) with the following functional dependencies is given: CDE A DE B AB C B E

i. What is/are the candidate key(s) of R? ii. Whether R is in BCNF? If not, which functional dependencies are bad (violate BCNF)? iii. Transform the relational schema into a relational schema that is in BCNF and does not

have any lost dependencies; if this is not possible decompose R into a schema that is in BCNF and has the fewest number of lost functional dependencies

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Bring out the significance of recoverable schedules. 7M b) What are the differences between ARIES and other Recovery algorithms?

8M

8. a) Discuss the three actions that need to be taken by system to recover from deadlock 10M b) In timestamp ordering, W-timestamp(Q) denotes the largest timestamp of any

transaction that executed write(Q) successfully. Suppose that, instead, we defined it to be the timestamp of the most recent transaction to execute write(Q) successfully. Would this change in wording make any difference? Explain your answer.

5M

Unit – V

9. a) Write a brief note on RAID level 0 and RAID level 1. 5M b) Answer the following questions about data on external storage in a DBMS:

i. Why does a DBMS store data on external storage? ii. Why are I/O costs important in a DBMS? iii. What is a record id? If a record id is given, how many I/Os are needed to fetch it into

main memory? iv. What is the role of the buffer manager in a DBMS? What is the role of the disk space

manager? v. How do these layers interact with the file and access methods layer?

10M

10. a) “The choice of appropriate file organization structures for a given data set can have a significant impact upon performance.” Comment.

8M

b) What is the minimum space utilization for a B+ tree index and for an ISAM index? 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2602

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPUTER NETWORKS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 17 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I 1. a) Compare the OSI and TCP/IP Reference Models. 9M b) A cable TV system has 100 commercial channels, all of them alternating programs with

advertising. Is this more like TDM or like FDM?

6M

2. a) What is the essential difference between message switching and packet switching? Explain in detail.

7M

b) What is protocol stack? What are two reasons for using layered protocols? Identify two possible disadvantages of using layered protocols.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) The following Hamming coded (single bit correction) string was received: 010101010111. Is there an error? If yes, in which position?

9M

b) An IP packet to be transmitted by Ethernet is 60 bytes long. Is padding needed in the Ethernet frame, and if so, how many bytes?

6M

4. a) Go-Back-N (GBN) and Selective Repeat (SR) are two reliable transfer protocols. Comment on the major differences between GBN and SR (List at least three).

7M

b) Explain the followings:

i. Piggybacking

ii. Wavelength Division Multiple Access (WDMA)

iii. Hamming Distance

iv. Carrier Sense Protocols

8M

Unit – III

5. a) A large number of consecutive IP addresses are available starting at 198.16.0.0. Suppose that four organizations, A, B, C, and D, request 4000, 2000, 4000, and 8000 addresses, respectively, and in that order. For each of these, give the first IP address assigned, the last IP address assigned, and the mask in the w.x.y.z /s notation.

5M

b) With respect to Network Address Translation answer the following questions: i. Many companies have a policy of having two (or more) routers connecting the

company to the Internet to provide some redundancy in case one of them goes down. Is this policy still possible with NAT? Explain your answer

ii. With NAT, can we still claim that the destination address of IP packets will not be changed end-to-end and every IP address uniquely identities a machine worldwide. Please brief explain and give an example

10M

6. a) Explain the Distance Vector Routing in detail. 8M

b) Describe a way to reassemble IP fragments at the destination.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the TCP Segment Header with diagram. 9M b) Explain the concept of upward multiplexing and downward multiplexing. 6M

8. a) Both UDP and TCP use port numbers to identify the destination entity when delivering a message. Give three reasons for why these protocols invented a new abstract ID (port numbers), instead of using process IDs, which already existed when these protocols were designed.

6M

b) With respect to UDP answer the following questions: i. Why does UDP not provide any flow control, or any error control, or retransmission

if a receiver receives a bad segment ii. What does UDP do besides provide an interface at the transport layer to the IP

protocol of the network layer iii. What services does the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) offer to justify its existence

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Write a brief note on SNMP protocol. 7M b) A large law firm, which has many employees, provides a single email address for each

employee. Each employee’s email address is <login>@lawfirm.com. However, the firm did not explicitly define the format of the login. Thus, some employees use their first names as their login names, some use their last names, some use their initials, etc. The firm now wishes to make a fixed format, for example: [email protected] that can be used for the email addresses of all its employees. How can this be done without rocking the boat too much?

8M

10. a) Explain the DNS resource record type in detail. 7M b) Does Webmail use POP3, IMAP or neither? If one of these, why was that one chosen? If

neither, which one is it closer to in spirit? 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2430

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE- R14)

ELECTRONIC MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 13 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the principle of range extension of an Ammeter. 7M b) Differentiate between Dual Slope and Successive Approximation type Digital Volt Meter.

8M

2. a) Write a brief note on types of Static errors. 6M b) With a neat diagram explain how a Multimeter can be used for Voltage, Current and

Resistance measurements?

9M

Unit – II

3. a) What is Sweep frequency generator? Explain its operation. 7M b) Explain the operation of Digital Storage Oscilloscope with the help of a block diagram.

Mention the advantages.

8M

4. a) Draw a basic block diagram of Simple CRO and explain. 7M b) Explain the principle and operation of Sampling Oscilloscope with a neat block diagram.

What are its advantages and disadvantages?

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Derive the bridge balance equation for the Kelvin’s double bridge. 8M b) An ac bridge was made up as follows: arm ab, a capacitor of 0.8µF in parallel with

1KΩ resistance, bc a resistance of 3KΩ, arm cd an unknown capacitor Cx and Rx in series, arm da a capacitance of 0.4µF. The supply at 1KHz is connected across bd and a detector across ac. Determine the value of unknown capacitance Cx, unknown series resistance Rx and dissipation factor.

7M

6. a) Discuss the need of Wagner’s Ground connection. Explain its operation with a neat circuit diagram.

7M

b) Derive the equation to measure an inductive impedance of a Maxwell’s bridge. Also find the series equivalent of the unknown impedance, if the bridge constants at balance condition are C1=0.01µF, R1=470KΩ, R2=5.1KΩ and R3=100KΩ.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is Gauge Factor? Derive appropriate relation for the same. 8M b) Draw a neat circuit diagram of Instrumentation Amplifier and explain.

7M

8. a) Explain principle and operation of Resistance Thermometer with the help of necessary diagrams.

8M

b) What is a Thermistor? Explain its working principle, advantages and limitations.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Write short notes on the following: i. Data Acquisition System ii. Measurement of sound iii. Measurement of displacement

8M

b) Suggest different methods for measuring the pH of a solution and explain briefly.

7M

10. a) Enumerate the different methods for measuring non electrical quantities like Pressure and Vacuum.

8M

b) Write a brief note on Interfacing and Bus Standards. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2431

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

MICROWAVE ENGINEERING

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 15 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Starting from Maxwell’s equation, Illustrate with expressions the TE field equations propagating inside rectangular wave guide.

6M

b) A rectangular air filled copper waveguide with dimension 0.9 inch * 0.4 inch cross-section and 12״ length is operated at 9.2GHz with a dominant mode. Find: i. Cut off frequency ii. Guide wavelength iii. Phase velocity

9M

2. a) List the properties of TEM modes in a lossless medium. 6M

b) Define Q factor of a cavity resonator. Prove that0

1 1 1.

t extQ Q Q Explain the three types

of coupling coefficients with respect to K factor.

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive the S-parameter of a 3-db directional coupler. 8M b) State and prove the symmetry property of S-parameters.

7M

4. a) Derive the S-parameters of a H-plane TEE junction. 7M b) Derive the S-parameters of a Magic TEE.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the limitations of conventional tubes? Illustrate with mathematical expressions.

8M

b) With neat diagram explain two cavity klystron amplifiers.

7M

6. a) Derive the expression for exit velocity in a two cavity klystron. 10M b) List the difference between TWT and klystron. Mention the characteristics of TWT.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) Derive the Hartree anode voltage equation which is a function on magnetic flux density for a linear magnetron.

9M

b) Explain the two principle modes of operation of Gunn Diodes.

6M

8. a) Discuss Differential Negative Resistance and Two-Valley Model Theory with respect to RWH theory.

7M

b) Explain physical description and avalanche multiplication of IMPATT diode. 8M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the principle of operation of bolometer sensor. 8M b) List the steps involved for the insertion and attenuation measurements.

7M

10. a) What are the possible errors in measurement of Low VSWR? 7M b) Explain double minima method for measurement of high VSWR. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2426

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

VLSI DESIGN (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 13 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the channel length modulation in MOS transistor with neat diagram and equation. 7M b) With necessary diagrams, Derive an expression for current through an nMOS transistor

from basic principles for cut-off, linear and saturation region.

8M

2. a) With the help of neat circuit and transfer characteristics curve, explain the different regions of operation of CMOS inverter.

8M

b) Define and explain the body effect in MOS transistor with necessary equations.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain and compare the following in CMOS fabrication process: i. Ion Implantation ii. Diffusion

8M

b) Define and explain silicon gate process with necessary diagram.

7M

4. a) Define the Latch-up with V-I Characteristics. Discuss the different mechanism to prevent the Latch-up problem.

8M

b) Describe dry and wet oxidation process in MOS fabrication.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Draw the stick diagrams for the following circuits: i. 3-input CMOS NOR gate ii. 3-input nMOS NAND gate

7M

b) Draw the CMOS layout diagram for the given expressions: i. Y = (A +B). C ii. Y = (AB +C)’

8M

6. a) Briefly explain the 2um double metal, double poly CMOS rules. 6M b) What are the scaling factors for the following parameters:

i. Gate Capacitance ii. Power dissipation per gate iii. Gate Delay iv. Gate Area

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the working of nMOS and pMOS pass transistor logic and implement the 4:1 Multiplexer using nMOS pass transistor.

9M

b) With circuit diagram explain the operation of pseudo nMOS NOR and NAND gates. 6M

8. a) Explain the dynamic CMOS logic structure. Draw and explain the operation of 3-input dynamic CMOS NOR gate.

8M

b) With an example, explain the working of Clocked CMOS logic circuits.

7M

Cont…2

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::2::

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the following fault models with an example: i. Stuck-At Faults ii. Short circuit and open circuit faults

9M

b) Explain the bus-oriented test technique and multiplexer based testing technique with suitable examples.

6M

10. a) Draw the schematic for a typical CMOS Scan-Register and explain serial scan and partial serial scan for testing.

8M

b) What are the self-test and built in test techniques used. Briefly explain memory self-test technique.

7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2425

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(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 17 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the characteristics of Embedded computing applications? Explain. 7M b) With an example, explain how Unified Modeling Language allows to define one class in

terms of another and also describe multiple inheritance in UML.

8M

2. a) Explain the requirements analysis needed for a GPS moving map system. And also mention the specifications required for GPS system.

8M

b) Explain the behavioral descriptions in embedded system design with an example in detail.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) What are semaphores? Explain the problems that occur when semaphore is used in embedded system design.

7M

b) Explain the significant factors to reduce memory and power consumption in Real Time operating system.

8M

4. a) Briefly explain the interrupt routines in an RTOS environment. 8M b) Explain the following:

i. Message Queues ii. Mail Boxes and Pipes

7M

Unit – III

5. a) With a neat diagram, explain the following: i. PROM programs ii. ROM emulators

8M

b) Draw and explain briefly Motorola S-Record format.

7M

6. a) Describe the logical analyzer in timing mode. 8M b) Write the advantage of logic analyzer over emulator.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain with diagram state transition graph for an I2c bus master. 7M b) Describe Ethernet CSMA/CD algorithm with flowchart.

8M

8. a) Define the following: i. Message delay ii. Single hop Network iii. Multiple Hop networks

6M

b) With a neat diagram explain architecture and specification of elevator. 9M

Unit – V

9. a) With a block diagram illustrates an accelerator with read/write units that can supply higher volumes of data without CPU intervention.

7M

b) Briefly explain the evaluating system speedup in a single-threaded and multithreaded implementation.

8M

10. a) With an example explain the performance effects of scheduling and allocation in multiprocessor system.

7M

b) Write a sequence diagram for taking a picture with a digital still camera and explain. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2432

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

CELLULAR AND MOBILE COMMUNICATIONS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 20 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the concept of frequency Reuse channels. 9M b) During a busy hour, the number of calls per hour Qi for each of 10 cells is 2000, 1500,

3000, 500, 1000, 1200, 1800, 2500, 2800, 900. Assume that 60% of the car phones will be used during this period (η=0.6) and that one call is made per car phone. Find the total number of calls per hour. Also find the number of customers in the system.

6M

2. a) Describe co-channel interference reduction factor. Illustrate with mathematical equations.

9M

b) What is the motivation behind cell splitting? Describe two kinds of cell splitting techniques.

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Illustrate how the concept of lowering the antenna height affect the co-channel interference for different cases with relevant equations and figure.

7M

b) Illustrate the design of a directional antenna system for K=7 and K=4. Also compare both their performance.

8M

4. a) Explain the interference between systems in scenarios of one city and adjacent cities and how it can be reduced.

8M

b) Interpret the need of channel combiner. Illustrate is features and the different kinds of channel combiner with a neat figure.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the propagation over water or flat open area and derive an expression for the received power and phase difference. Also examine the different conditions for different values of the received power.

9M

b) Describe and illustrate the following: i. Ground incident angle and ground elevation angle ii. In a mobile radio environment, the average cell-site antenna height is about 50m,

the mobile antenna height is about 3m, and the communication path length is 5km. Compute the incident and elevation angle.

Fig.1

6M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

6. a) Explain the different antennas and their configurations used for coverage at the cell

site and interference reduction with examples. 10M

b) Explain the patterns of any two Mobile antennas.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) Describe the different non fixed channel assignment algorithms. 6M b) Illustrate the following techniques with respect to Fixed channel Assignment:

i. Adjacent-channel assignment ii. Channel sharing and borrowing iii. Sectorization iv. Underlay-overlay arrangement

9M

8. a) Explain the MAHO, soft handoff and Intersystem handoff. 7M b) Explain the Queuing of Handoffs, its parameters and the various cases to see the

improvement with relevant expression.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Illustrate the need and working of Radio resource management in GSM. 5M b) Explain the different channels and channel modes of GSM with relevant figures of

their structures.

10M

10. a) Explain the Mobility management of cellular systems and its steps in GSM with relevant figures and expressions.

10M

b) Explain the following terms related to CDMA: i. Code channel ii. Frame offset iii. Dim-and-burst iv. Hard HO v. Soft HO

5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2435

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 24 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Interpret the various fundamental steps in digital image processing with a neat figure. 10M b) Illustrate the simple Image formation model with relevant expressions for the same.

5M

2. a) Illustrate the concepts of image sampling and quantization with relevant figure. 8M b) Demonstrate the following relationships between pixels with relevant expressions and

examples: i. Neighbors of a Pixel ii. Adjacency, Connectivity, Regions, and Boundaries

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Define Cosine Transform with relevant expressions and list out any Four properties of Cosine Transform.

7M

b) Define and Illustrate the use of Hotelling transform in image processing with the mathematical analysis and relevant expressions. Also describe any one application of Hotelling transform with an example.

8M

4. a) Illustrate the Walsh transform, its functionalities, properties and examples with relevant expressions.

7M

b) Define Slant transform and list out the properties of Slant transform.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Write a short note on sharpening spatial filter. 5M b) Perform histogram equalization of the image shown below:

4 4 4 4 4

3 4 5 4 3

3 5 5 5 3

3 4 5 4 3

4 4 4 4 4

10M

6. a) With the help of diagram, derive the expression for homomorphic filtering. 6M b) Define the following:

i. Logarithmic Transformation ii. Gamma Correction iii. Image negative

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the model of image degradation/restoration model with relevant expression. 7M b) Write a short note on inverse filtering. 8M

Cont…2

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::2::

8. a) What is the difference between image restoration and image enhancement? What do

they have in common? 7M

b) Explain the concept of pseudo-colour image processing.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) State and prove noiseless coding theorem. 7M b) Define the following:

i. Statistical Redundancy ii. Coding Redundancy iii. Psychovisual Redundancy

8M

10. a) Discuss about edge detection and edge linking methods. 7M b) Explain in detail about segmentation methods by morphological water sheds. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2225

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

POWER SYSTEM SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 13 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the construction and working of a SF6 circuit breaker. Also enumerate the properties of SF6 gas which make it a good dielectric and arc quenching medium.

10M

b) In a short circuit test on a circuit breaker, the following readings obtained on a frequency transient: i. Time to reach the peak restriking voltage 70µ-sec ii. The peak restriking voltage 100kV Calculate the average rate of rise of restriking voltage and the natural frequency of the circuit.

5M

2. a) With a neat sketch, explain the construction and working of vacuum circuit breaker. 10M b) A 3 phase circuit breaker is rated at 1250A, 2000MVA, 33kV, 4 seconds. Find the rated

symmetrical breaking current, making current and short time rating.

5M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the construction and principle of operation of an induction cup armature type relay.

7M

b) With torque equations, describe the operating principle of an impedance relay. Plot the Characteristics on V-I and R-X diagrams.

8M

4. a) What are differential relays? With a circuit diagram, explain the operation of a basic differential relay under normal and various fault conditions.

8M

b) How is a static relay different from electromechanical relay? List the merits and demerits of a static relay.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) With a neat sketch explain inter-turn protection for generators using zero sequence voltage.

8M

b) With a neat sketch briefly explain the scheme for earth fault protection of a power transformer.

7M

6. a) With a neat sketch explain the working of percentage differential protection scheme for a star-delta transformer.

7M

b) The neutral point of a three phase 20MVA, 11KV alternator is earthed through a resistance of 5Ω, the relay is set to operate when there is an out of balance current of 1.5A. The CTs have a ratio of 1000/5. What percentage of winding is protected against an earth fault and what should be the minimum value of earthing resistance to protect 90% of the winding?

8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) Draw the Lattice diagram for an open circuited line fed from an ideal source and explain. 7M b) A surge of 100kV travelling in a line of neutral impedance 600Ω arrives at a junction of

two lines of impedance 800Ω and 200Ω respectively. Find the surge voltages and currents transmitted into each of the branch lines.

8M

8. a) Explain with a Bewley’s lattice diagram how terminating a line with a resistance influences the nature of travelling waves on the line.

8M

b) A line of surge impedance 400Ω is charged from a battery of constant voltage 135V. The line is 300m long and is terminated in a resistance of 200Ω. Plot the reflection lattice and the voltage across the terminating resistor.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) With a neat sketch explain valve type lightning arrester. 10M b) Briefly discuss solidly grounded system.

5M

10. a) What are the causes for over-voltages in a power system? 7M b) Describe with a neat diagram, the construction and operation of a zinc oxide lightning

arrestor. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2224

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

HIGH VOLTAGE ENGINEERING

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 15 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is Electrolytic Method? Give the outline of this method for solving the field problems.

10M

b) Give the temperature classification for solid insulating materials.

5M

2. a) Define field factor. With suitable pictorial representation and equations explain how it varies in simple geometries.

7M

b) Give the application of gases and gases mixtures as insulating medium in: i. High voltage switchgear ii. High Voltage power cables

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive Paschen’s law. Obtain the expression for (pd)min and the corresponding Vmin. 9M b) List and briefly explain any two ionization processes taking place in a gaseous dielectric

medium subjected to an electric stress.

6M

4. a) Briefly explain two theories for the mechanism of breakdown in liquid dielectrics. 10M b) For a certain gap with uniform field electrodes, α was 7.5 /cm with a gap distance of

6mm before breakdown. What will be the secondary ionization co-efficient?

5M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain how sphere gap can be used to measure the peak value of voltages. 5M b) A Tesla coil has a primary winding rated for 10kV. If L1, L2 and coefficient of coupling K

are 10mH, 200mH and 0.6 respectively, find the peak value of the output voltage if the

capacitance in the primary side is 2.0F and that on the secondary side is 1nF. Neglect the winding resistance. Find also the highest resonant frequency produced with rated voltage applied.

10M

6. a) With a neat sketch explain the working of Cockcroft-Walton circuit. Also explain why it is preferred for voltage multiplier circuits.

9M

b) A 12 stage impulse generator has 0.126F capacitors. The wave front and the wave tail resistances connected are 800Ω and 5000Ω respectively. If the load capacitor is 1000pF, find the front and tail times of the impulse wave produced.

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) Write short notes on: i. Rod gap used as protective devices ii. Ground wires for protection of overhead lines

10M

b) A transmission line of surge impedance 500Ω is connected to a cable of surge impedance 60Ω at the other end. If a surge of 500kV travels along the line to the junction point. Find the voltage build up at the junction.

5M

8. a) Define insulation coordination. What are the ideal requirements needs to be satisfied for insulation coordination?

7M

b) How the over voltages can be controlled due to switching? 8M

Cont…2

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::2::

Unit – V

9. a) Briefly explain the methods used for calibrating the partial discharge detectors. 8M b) What are the different impulse frequency tests done on insulator? Mention the

procedure for testing.

7M

10. Write a note on: i. Schering bridge ii. Measurement of Direct current resistivity iii. Dielectric constant

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2226

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 17 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Classify electric drive, stating advantages and disadvantages. 7M b) In a certain machine the temperature rise is 25ᵒC after one hour and 37.5ᵒC after two

hours starting from cold conditions. Calculate the final steady state temperature rise and the heating time constant. If the machine temperature falls from the final steady state value to 40ᵒC in 1.5hrs when disconnected, calculate its cooling time constant. The ambient temperature is 30ᵒC.

8M

2. a) Draw the nature of plots for continuous, intermittent and variable loads. 7M b) Draw and explain torque-current and torque-speed characteristics of a separately excited

DC motor with relevant equations.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain dielectric heating. 7M b) A low frequency induction furnace whose secondary voltage is maintained constant at

10V, takes 400kW at 0.6 power factor when the hearth is full. Assuming the resistance of the secondary circuit to vary inversely as the height of the charge and reactance to remain constant, find the height up to which the hearth should be filled to obtain maximum heat.

8M

4. a) Explain electric arc welding. 7M b) Explain Ajax Wyatt furnace with a neat diagram. 8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the laws of illumination with necessary expressions. 7M b) Define mean spherical candle power (MSCP). A lamp of 500W having m.s.c.p of 1000 is

suspended 2.7 meters above the working plane. Calculate: i. The illumination directly below the lamp at the working plane ii. Lamp efficiency iii. Illumination at a point 2.5 meters away on the horizontal plane from vertically below

the lamp

8M

6. a) Explain any one gaseous discharge type lamp with a neat figure. 7M b) Two lamp posts are 16m apart and are fitted with a 100C.P lamp each at a height of 6m

above ground. Calculate the illumination on the ground: i. Under each lamp ii. Midway between the lamps

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Which are the various systems of track electrification? Briefly explain. 7M b) What are the desirable characteristics of traction motors? Which are the motors used in

traction.

8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

8. a) Compare between AC and DC systems applied to traction. 7M b) Explain the following:

i. Rheostatic braking ii. Regenerative braking

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the various factors affecting the energy consumption in propelling the train. 6M b) A train is required to run between two stations 1.6km apart at an average speed of

40km/h. The acceleration, retardation during coasting and breaking are 2Km/h/s, 0.16km/h/s and 3.2km/h/s respectively. Assuming quadrilateral approximation of speed–time curve, determine the duration acceleration, coasting and breaking periods.

9M

10. a) Clearly explain the tractive effort for propulsion of train. 7M b) A 500tonne goods train is to be hauled by a locomotive up a gradient of 2.5% with

acceleration of 1.5kmphps. Coefficient of adhesion is 0.31%, track resistance 45N/tonne and effective rotating masses 10% of the dead weight. Find the weight of the locomotive and number of axles if the axle load is not to increase beyond 24tonnes.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2227

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

POWER SEMICONDUCTOR DRIVES

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 20 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive an expression to express torque of a separately excited dc motor in terms of speed and other machine parameters.

7M

b) A 230V, 500rpm, 100A, separately excited motor has an armature resistance of 0.1Ω. The motor is driving, under rated conditions, a load whose torque is constant and independent of speed. The speed below the rated speed are obtained with armature voltage control and speed above the rated speed are obtained by field control. By what amount should the flux be reduced to get a motor speed of 800rpm? Neglect motor rotational losses.

8M

2. a) With appropriate diagrams, explain the multiquadrant operation of a separately excited dc motor when controlled by a three phase semiconverter.

8M

b) A DC separately excited motor is running at 800rpm driving a load whose torque is constant. Motor armature current is 500A. The armature resistance drop and rotational losses are negligible. Magnetic circuit can be assumed to be linear. Calculate motor speed and armature current if terminal voltage is reduced to 50% and field current is reduced to 80%.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Draw the block diagram of a closed loop controlled chopper fed dc drive and briefly explain the function of each block.

7M

b) A 220V, 970rpm, 100A DC separately excited motor has an armature resistance of 0.05Ω. It is braked by plugging from an initial speed of 1000rpm. Find: Resistance to be place in armature circuit to limit braking current to twice the full load value: i. Braking torque ii. Torque when the speed has fallen to zero

8M

4. a) In your opinion, which of the braking method is efficient for controlling a dc motor? Justify your opinion with arguments.

7M

b) A 500V DC shunt motor taking an armature current of 240A while running at 800rpm is braked by disconnecting the armature from the supply and closing it on a resistance of 2.02Ω. The field excitation remains constant. The armature resistance is 0.5Ω. Find: i. The initial braking current ii. The torque at 600rpm as a percentage of torque at 800rpm

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Compare CSI fed drives with VSI fed drives. 7M b) With a neat circuit diagram and waveform, discuss about the stepped wave voltage

source inverter (VSI) fed induction motor drive. 8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

6. a) Explain how the speed of an induction motor changes when the stator voltage is varied. 7M b) A star connected squirrel cage induction motor has the following ratings and parameters:

400V, 50Hz, 4-pole, 1370rpm, Rs=2Ω, Rr’=3Ω, Xs=Xr’=3.5Ω. Motor is controlled by a voltage source inverter at constant V/f ratio. Inverter allows frequency variation from 10 to 50Hz. Calculate starting torque and current of this drive as a ratio of their values when motor is started at rated voltage and frequency.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What do you understand by slip power recovery scheme in induction motor drive? Draw the drive circuit for static Kramer drive of field control with diode bridge rectifier.

8M

b) A three phase, 400V, 6-pole, 50Hz delta connected slip ring induction motor has rotor resistance of 0.2Ω and leakage reactance of 1Ω per phase referred to stator. When driving a fan load it runs at full load at 4% slip. What resistance must be inserted in the rotor circuit to obtain a speed of 850rpm? Neglect stator impedance and magnetizing branch. Stator to rotor turns ratio is 2.2.

7M

8. a) Mention the advantages of rotor side control methods over stator control methods for an induction motor drive. Draw and explain the N/T curves of rotor resistance control of 3-phase induction motor.

7M

b) A 440V, 50Hz, 970RPM, 6-pole, Y-connected, 3-phase wound rotor induction motor has following parameters referred to the stator: Rs=0.1Ω, Rr’=0.08Ω, Xs=0.3Ω, Xr’=0.4Ω. The stator to rotor turns ratio is 2. Motor speed is controlled by Static Scherbius Drive. Drive is designed for a speed range of 25% below the synchronous speed. Maximum value of firing angle is 165o. Calculate: i. Transformer turns ratio ii. DC link current Id for a speed of 780RPM and firing angle 1400

8M

Unit – V

9. a) With a neat block diagram, explain the operation of self-controlled synchronous motor drive employing a load commutated thyristor inverters.

7M

b) A 3-Phase, 230V, 60Hz, 4-pole, Star connected reluctance motor has Xd=22.5Ω and Xq=3.5Ω. The armature resistance is negligible. The load torque is 12.5N-Mt. The voltage to frequency ratio is maintained constant at the rated value. If the supply frequency is 60Hz, determine: i. The torque angle ii. Line current 'Ia'

8M

10. a) Draw and explain the block diagram of VSI fed synchronous motor drive. 7M b) A 6MW, 3-phase, 11kV, Y-connected, 6-pole, 50Hz, 0.9pf (leading) synchronous motor has

Xs=9Ω and Rs=0. Rated field current is 50A. Machine is controlled by variable frequency control at constant V/f ratio up to the base speed and at constant voltage above base speed. Find the torque and field current for the rated armature current, 750rpm and 0.8 pf(leading).

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2234

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 24 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the obstacles to the implementation of renewable energy? 8M b) Write concise notes on Solar Physics.

7M

2. a) Discuss about solar constant. Mention standard value for the solar constant. 8M b) Write about Flat-Plate Collector and its two main classifications.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain solar heating and cooling techniques. 8M b) Explain the principle of solar ponds. Mention their applications.

7M

4. a) Write short notes on solar distillation and drying 8M b) Explain the following:

i. Photo voltaic energy conversion ii. Latent heating

7M

Unit – III

5. a) “Wind energy is an indirect form of solar energy”- Justify this statement. 8M b) Discuss what horizontal and vertical axis wind turbine is and writes briefly about their

advantages and disadvantages.

7M

6. a) Write comprehensive notes on Thermo-chemical conversion as a form of biomass conversion.

8M

b) Explain the dome and the drum type of biogas manufacturing plant.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain OTEC technology and Open Cycle OTEC plant. 10M b) Explain wave energy conversion.

5M

8. a) What is geothermal energy? Write briefly about harnessing geothermal energy from dry steam plants.

8M

b) Explain geo-pressurised Systems. 7M

Unit – V

9. a) Write short notes on energy conversion. 7M b) Discuss the Principle, Construction and working of Thermionic power generator (TPG) as

a device of direct energy conversion.

8M

10. a) Explain the following: i. Working principle of DEC ii. Need of DEC

10M

b) Explain the applications and limitations of direct conversion of energy. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2334

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE- R14)

CAD/CAM

(Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 13 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the product cycle for design and manufacturing with a diagram. 7M b) Discuss the relationship between Automation and CAD/CAM.

8M

2. a) Explain in detail the different types of Memory with a suitable example. 8M b) Explain briefly the 2-dimensional transformations with examples.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the role of Geometric Modeling in a CAD System. 7M b) Explain Wireframe and solid model.

8M

4. a) Write general data structure for boundary modelling. 5M b) Explain the various display control commands used in modelling.

10M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the Basic elements of NC system. 7M b) List the difference between NC and CNC machine/system.

8M

6. a) State the advantages of CAPP. 5M b) Explain the generative type computer aided process planning.

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is quality control? Explain Contact inspection methods with an example. 8M b) Explain briefly Non-contact inspection methods-optical.

7M

8. a) Explain the integration of CAQC with CAD/CAM. 8M b) What are the benefits of Computer-aided quality control?

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss the role of computer programmes in a computer aided manufacturing systems. 10M b) State the major elements of CIM systems.

5M

10. a) Explain the different types of manufacturing systems. 10M b) State the components of manufacturing systems. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2335

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPUTATIONAL FLUID DYNAMICS

(Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 15 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Differentiate between FDM, FEM and FVM. 9M b) Define CFD. Discuss the applications of CFD.

6M

2. a) Discuss the types of boundary condition used in Finite Volume Method.

7M

b) Write Navier-Stoke equation for 3D flow in Cartesian coordinate in tensor form and expand them, explain each term in the equation.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) What are the advantages and limitations of Explicit and Implicit approach? 6M b) Develop an expression for forward finite difference equation using Taylor series

approximation.

9M

4. a) Explain different types of discretization techniques. 7M

b) Using Taylor’s series, develop first order backward difference .u

y

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain Jacobian transformation. 8M b) Differentiate between adaptive grids and over set grids.

7M

6. a) Explain the principle of grid generation. 8M b) Consider steady state heat conduction in a slab of thickness l in which energy is

generated at a constant rate of g w/m3. The boundary surface at 0x is maintained at

constant temperature to while the boundary surface x l . Dissipate heat by

convection with heat transfer coefficient h into an ambient temperatureT . Dividing

the region into three equal subdivisions. Develop the finite difference formulation of this heat condition problem. Compute the temperate at this node by finite difference

for h=200w/m20C, K=18w/m0C, T =1200C, 0T =600C and g=7.2x104Kw/m3.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain briefly the control volume method for the representation of pressure gradient term.

8M

b) Describe how PISO algorithm is used for solving incompressible viscous flow problems.

7M

8. a) Explain pressure and velocity corrections used for the incompressible flows. 8M b) Show that the applied boundary conditions are consistent with philosophy of pressure

correction method.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain mixing length model. 8M b) With suitable example Explain the generation of two dimensional grid.

7M

10. a) State and discuss high and low Reynolds number models. 7M b) Analyze two equation (K-) model for turbulence flow. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2336

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 17 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain Air refrigeration system working on Bell-Coleman cycle with P-V and T-S diagrams.

6M

b) A Bell-Coleman refrigerator operates between pressure limits of 1 bar and 8 bar. Air is drawn from the cold chamber at 90C, Compressed and then it is cooled to 290C before entering the expansion cylinder. Expansion and compression follows the law

PV1.35=constant. Calculate the theoretical COP of the system. For air take =1.4, Cp=1.003kJ/kg.K.

9M

2. a) List the advantages and disadvantages of air refrigeration system. 6M b) An air refrigeration open system operating between 1Mpa and 100kpa is required to

produce a cooling effect of 2000 kJ/min. Temperature of the air leaving the cold chamber is -5oC and at leaving the cooler is 300C. Neglect losses and clearance in the compressor and expander. Determine: i. Mass of air circulated per minute ii. Compressor work, expander work, cycle work iii. C.O.P and power in kW required

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Distinguish between vapour compression refrigeration system and vapour absorption refrigeration system.

6M

b) A simple vapour compression plant produces 5 tonnes of refrigeration. The enthalpy values at inlet to compressor, at exit from the compressor and at exit from the condenser are 183.19, 209.41 and 74.59kJ/kg respectively. Estimate: i. The refrigerant flow rate ii. The C.O.P. iii. The power required to drive the compressor iv. The rate of heat rejection to the condenser

9M

4. a) Explain with a flow diagram, the working of vapour absorption refrigeration system. 7M b) Explain the effect of sub cooling and superheating on the performance of vapour

compression refrigeration system.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Classify the Evaporators used in refrigeration system and explain the working of flooded type Evaporator with a neat diagram.

7M

b) List the different types of expansion devices and explain constant pressure expansion valve with a sketch.

8M

6. a) Explain with a sketch, the working of steam jet refrigeration system. 8M b) List the commonly used refrigerants in practice and explain in detail desirable chemical

properties of refrigerants. 7M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) Sketch the psychrometric chart and represent the different psychrometric properties on the same.

6M

b) Calculate the following when the DBT is 350C, WBT is 230C and the barometer reads 750mm Hg: i. Relative humidity ii. Humidity ratio iii. DPT iv. Density v. Enthalpy of atmospheric air

9M

8. a) Define the following: i. WBT ii. Absolute humidity iii. Degree of saturation iv. Adiabatic saturation temperature v. Saturated air

5M

b) Atmospheric air having DBT=160C and RH=25% is passed through a furnace and then through a humidifier to maintain a final DBT of 300C and 50% R.H. Find the heat and moisture added to the air during the process. Also calculate the sensible heat factor of the process.

10M

Unit – V

9. a) Briefly explain the requirements of comfort air conditioning. 10M b) What is meant by Effective temperature? List the factors governing optimum

effective temperature.

5M

10. a) What do you understand by Grills and Registers? Explain any two factors which affect Grill performance.

7M

b) Classify the heat pump circuits and explain air-air heat pump circuit with a neat diagram.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2333

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

OPERATIONS RESEARCH (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 20 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the characteristics of operations research? Discuss. 7M b) A company produces two products A and B which possess raw materials 400 quintals

and 450 labour hours. It is known that 1 unit of product A requires 5 quintals of raw materials and 10 man hours and yields a profit of Rs 45. Product B requires 20 quintals of raw materials, 15 man hours and yields a profit of Rs 80. Formulate the LPP.

8M

2. a) State the advantages of Linear Programming Techniques. 3M b) Solve by using graphical method:

Max 1 23 2Z x x

Subject to

1 2

1 2

1 2

1

3

0, 0

x x

x x

x x

12M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the Hungarian method of solving assignment problems. 5M b) For the following assignment problem, determine the optimum assignment:

I II III IV V

1 11 17 8 16 20

2 9 7 12 6 15

3 13 16 15 12 16

4 21 24 17 28 26

5 14 10 12 11 15

10M

4. A company has three plants supplying the same product to the five distribution centers. Due to peculiarities inherent in the set of cost of manufacturing, the cost/unit will vary from plant to plant, which is given below. There are restrictions in the monthly capacity of each plant, each distribution center has a specific sales requirement, capacity requirement and the cost of transportation is given below:

Factories W1 W2 W3 W4 W5 Supply

F1 5 3 3 6 4 200

F2 4 5 6 3 7 125

F3 2 3 5 2 3 175

Demand 60 80 85 105 70

The cost of manufacturing a product at the different plants is Fixed cost is Rs.7x105, 4x105 and 5x105. Whereas the variable cost per unit is Rs.13/-, 15/- and 14/- respectively. Determine the quantity to be dispatched from each plant to different distribution centers, satisfying the requirements at minimum cost.

15M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III 5. a) Differentiate between sequencing problem and assignment problem. 5M b) Consider two machines and six jobs flow shop scheduling problem. Using Johnson’s

algorithm, obtain the optimal sequence which will minimize the make span:

Job Time taken by machines

1 2

1 5 4

2 2 3

3 13 14

4 10 1

5 8 9

6 12 11

Sum 50 42

10M

6. a) Explain the Kendall and Lee notation of a queuing system. 5M b) A departmental Secretary receives an average of 8 jobs/hr. Many are short jobs, while

other are quite long. Assume however, that the time to perform a job has an exponentially distributed mean of 6mins, determine: i. The average elapsed time from the time the secretary receives a job, until it is

completed ii. Average number of jobs in a system iii. The probability that the time in the system is greater than ½hr iv. Probability of more than 5 jobs in the system

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) State the reasons for replacement. 3M b) The cost of the machine is Rs.6100 and its scrap value is Rs.100 at the end of every

year. The M.C. found from experience are as follows:

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

M.C 100 250 400 600 900 1200 1600 2000

When should the machine be replaced?

12M

8. a) State the limitations of EOQ Formula. 5M b) A Fleet owner finds from this past experience that the cost/year of running the truck

whose purchase price rises to Rs 60000/- are given below Solutions; given C=Rs.60000:

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Maintenance 10000 12000 14000 18000 23000 28000 34000 40000

Depreciation 30000 45000 52500 56250 58000 58000 58000 58000

At what age the truck is to be replaced?

10M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the principle of dominance with an example. 5M b) Solve the following game by odds method:

Player B

Strategy B1 B2

Player A A1 1 5

A2 4 2

10M

10. a) Explain the capital budgeting problem of DPP using an example. 10M b) Differentiate between forward and backward recursion in Dynamic programming. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2333

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

OPERATIONS RESEARCH

(Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 22 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the limitations of OR? How can you overcome these limitations? 5M b) A student has 2 final exams to prepare for. Each hour of study he devotes to OR is

expected a return of 600 in terms of long range job benefits. Each hour devoted to SQC is expected a return of Rs.300 in terms of long range job benefits. The shops are all closed and the student has only 15 cigarettes. He needs 1 cigarette for every 20min while studying SQC and for every 12min while studying OR. Time is running short and only 4hr remain to prepare for the exams. It’s necessary that the student must devote at least 2hr for studying. The student would like to maximize his returns and for the effort he puts. Formulate this problem as LPP.

10M

2. a) What are the steps involved to solve an operations research problem? 5M b) Solve the given LPP by graphical method.

Maximize 1 23 5Z x x

STC

1

2

1 2

1 2

4

2 12

3 2 18

, 0

x

x

x x

x x

10M

Unit – II

3. a) State the different Types of Transportation Problems. 5M b) Solve the following transportation problem using:

i. North-west corner method ii. Least cost method iii. Vogel’s approximation method

Factories W1 W2 W3 W4 Supply

F1 6 4 1 5 14

F2 8 9 2 7 16

F3 4 3 6 2 5

Demand 6 10 15 4

10M

4. a) State the difference between Transportation and Assignment problems. 7M b) Using the following cost matrix, determine:

i. Optimal job assignment ii. The cost of assignments

JOB

MECHINES

1 2 3 4 5

A 10 3 3 2 8

B 9 7 8 2 7

C 7 5 6 2 4

D 3 5 8 2 4

E 9 10 9 6 10

8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the steps involved in Sequencing of n jobs through 2 machines. 7M b) An Export House has to process five items through three stages of production, viz,

cutting, sewing & pressing. Processing times are given in the following table:

Item Cutting (Ai)

Sewing (Bi)

Pressing (Ci)

1 3 3 5

2 8 4 8

3 7 2 10

4 5 1 7

5 2 5 6

Determine an order in which these items should be processed so as to minimize the total processing time.

8M

6. a) State the Characteristics of the queuing system. 3M b) In a self-service store with one cashier, 8 customers arrive on an average of every

5mins and the cashier can serve 10 in 5mins. If both arrival and service time are exponentially distributed, then determine: i. Average number of customer waiting in the queue for average ii. Expected waiting time in the queue iii. What is the probability of having more than 6 customers in the system

12M

Unit – IV

7. a) State the Reasons for replacement. 3M b) A fleet owner finds from his past experience records that the cost of the machine is Rs

6000/- and the running cost are given below. At what age the replacement is due:

Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Maintenance Cost 1000 1200 1400 1800 2300 2800 3400 4000

Resale Value 3000 1500 750 375 200 200 200 200

12M

8. a) State the cost involved in inventory. 3M b) A dealer supplies you the following information with regard to a product dealt in by

him: Annual demand = 5,000 units, ordering cost = Rs.25.00 per order, inventory carrying cost is 30% per unit per year of purchase cost Rs.100 per unit. The dealer is considering the possibility of allowing some back-orders to occur for the product. He has estimated that the annual cost of back-ordering the product will be Rs.10.00 per unit. i. What should be the optimum number of units of the product he should buy in

one lot ii. What quantity of the product should he allow to be back-ordered iii. How much additional cost will he have to incur on inventory if he does not permit

back ordering

12M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the types of Strategy. 4M b) Using the dominance property obtain the optimal strategies for both the players and

determine the value of the game. The payoff matrix for player A is given:

Player B

Player A

I II III IV V

I 2 4 3 8 4

II 5 6 3 7 8

III 6 7 9 8 7

IV 4 2 8 4 3

11M

10. a) Explain the Characteristics of Dynamic Programming Problems. 10M b) State the steps involved in dynamic programming. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2337

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 24 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Explain briefly the structure of passenger car with a neat sketch.

15M

2. a) Explain the working principle of super charging. 7M b) Explain the working principle of pressure lubrication system.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Describe the functional requirements of an injection system. 8M b) Provide the classification and description of nozzles.

7M

4. a) With neat sketches, explain air and fuel movement for two types of combustion chambers.

7M

b) Explain the details of a fuel injector. Draw a neat diagram of the same.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Differentiate between air cooling and water cooling. 5M b) Explain the working of battery ignition system used in automobiles.

10M

6. a) Explain the working of thermostat cooling. 7M b) Discuss the working of electronic ignition using triggers.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the requirements of a transmission system? 7M b) With a neat sketch, explain the working of a cone clutch.

8M

8. With a neat diagram, explain the working of a centrifugally operated friction clutch.

15M

Unit – V

9. a) With a neat sketch, explain the working of torsion bar. 8M b) With a neat sketch, explain the working of rear independent suspension system.

7M

10. With a neat sketch, explain steering geometry. 15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2130

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

REMOTE SENSING AND GIS APPLICATIONS (Civil Engineering)

Date: 13 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define photogrammetry. List the applications of photogrammetry. 7M b) Distinguish between Map and aerial Photographs.

8M

2. a) Explain the overlap in aerial photography. Enumerate the reasons for overlap in aerial photogrammetry.

7M

b) Assume that a vertical photography was taken at flying height of 5000m above sea level using a camera with 152mm focal length lens. i. Determine the photo scale at points A and B which lie at elevation of 1200m and

1960m ii. What ground distance corresponds to a 20.1mm photo distance measured at each of

this elevation?

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss electromagnetic spectrum with a neat sketch. 7M b) Energy interactions between with earth surface features.

8M

4. a) What are basic characteristics of image interpretation? 8M b) What do you mean by Rayleigh scattering? A blue sky is manifestations of Rayleigh

scattering explain.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) What is the importance of map projections in GIS? Explain. 7M b) List fundamental operations of GIS. Explain about fundamental operations in GIS.

8M

6. a) Explain workflow process of GIS. 7M b) Define spatial data and attribute data. How does data exploration differ from data

analysis?

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) The georelational data model uses a split system to store vector data. What does “split system“ mean?

7M

b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of vector model?

8M

8. a) Explain vector data analysis in detail. 8M b) Explain the difference between the georealtional data model and the object based data

model. 7M

Unit – V

9. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of raster model? 8M b) How can we convert vector data to raster data?

7M

10. a) Explain raster data analysis in detail. 7M b) Explain the steps for data inputs in GIS project. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2131

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DESIGN AND DRAWING OF HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering)

Date: 15 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Design and provide a detailed drawing of Siphon well drop for the following hydraulic particulars:

Channel details Upstream side Downstream side

Discharge 0.3m3/s 0.3m3/s

Bed width 1.25m 1.25m

Bed level +12.00 +11.00

Full supply depth 0.6m 0.6m

Width of top of bank 1m 1m

Top level of bank +13.60 +12.60

Both at upstream and downstream, there are one meter wide beams at ground level inside canal section. Slopes of channel section is 1½:1 on both sides. The cart track is 5m wide at level +12.50 and this may be assumed as general ground level. Good soil for foundation is available below +11.00. Assume any values if required.

45M

2. Design a sluice taking off from a tank irrigating 150Ha at 800 duty. Tank bund through which the sluice is taking off has a top width of 2m with 2:1 side slopes. The top level of bank is +30.00m above MSL and ground level at site is +24.50. Good hard soil for foundation is available at +23.50. The sill of sluice at off take is +24.00. The maximum water level in tank is +28.00. Full tank level is +27.00. average low water level of tank is +25.00 Bed level of channel below the sluice is +24.00. Full supply level in channel +24.50. Bed width of channel is 1.25 m. the side slopes is 1½:1 with top of bank at +25.50. Sketch the hydraulic structures and mark salient dimensions. Assume any values if required.

45M

Unit – II

2. Design a canal regulator with the following data:

Hydraulic particulars of canal Upstream Downstream

Full supply discharge 20m3/s 16m3/s

Bed width 15m 15m

Bed level +12.00 +12.00

Full supply depth 2m 1.75m

Full supply level +14.00 +13.75

Top level of bank +15.00 +14.75

Top width of left bank 2m 2m

Top width of right bank 5m 5m

Provide a clear free board of one meter above FSL for road bridge over it. Good foundation soil is available at +11.00. Assume the ground level at site as +14.00. Assume any values if required.

30M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

4. Design a Type III Siphon aqueduct for the following hydraulic particulars:

Canal: Discharge=35m3/s Bed width 20m Bed level +20.00 Full supply level=+22.00 Ultimate bed level=+19.75 Ultimate Full supply level=+22.50 Average velocity in canal=0.83m/s Left bank top width=5m Right bank top width=2m Canal side slopes both inside and outside are 2:1 in embankment with a minimum cover of 1m over hydraulic gradient. Top of canal bank=+23.50 Average ground level on flanks of drain=+18.00 and be level of drains may also be noted as +18.00 at the point of crossing. Drain: Catchment area=8km2 Maximum computed discharge is worked out as 60m3/s using a coefficient of C=15 in Ryve’s formula. Maximum flood level of drain at site of crossing is +19.75 Average bed level of drain at site of crossing is +18.00. Hard soil suitable for foundation is met at +17.00. Assume any values if required.

30M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2132

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 17 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Differentiate primary and secondary air pollutants giving examples. 7M b) Differentiate point source, area source and line source of air pollutants giving examples.

8M

2. a) What are emission standards? Explain briefly their utility for air pollution control. 7M b) Identify the sources of noise pollution and suggest the noise pollution control measures.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) List methods of defluoridation? Explain any one method of defluoridation. 7M b) With a sketch explain the reverse osmosis process giving salient points of the process.

8M

4. a) Discuss the application of ion exchange process giving the advantages and disadvantages. 7M b) What are the objectives of using adsorption process in water treatment? List the

disadvantages of the adsorption process.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is meant by strength reduction of waste water? Explain different methods of strength reduction of industrial waste water.

7M

b) Explain different methods of neutralization of industrial waste water.

8M

6. a) What is proportioning of waste water? Why should it be practiced in waste water treatment?

7M

b) Discuss the nitrification process practiced in waste water treatment giving equations.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain determination of density and moisture content of solid waste and state their applications.

7M

b) With a sketch explain disposal of solid waste in landfill.

8M

8. a) Enumerate the factors influencing composting of solid waste and explain two methods of composting practiced.

7M

b) Discuss the use of incineration technology for treatment of solid waste.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write notes on the following: i. Intermediate and low level of nuclear wastes ii. Disposal of nuclear waste

8M

b) Write about the risk involved in biological or biomedical waste and their treatment.

7M

10. a) How to dispose hazardous waste? 8M b) What is the clear meaning of chemical hazardous waste? How we dispose chemical

wastes? 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2133

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

REHABILITATION AND RETROFITTING STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering)

Date: 20 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the causes for distress in RC members? Discuss about the elements that catalyze the distress in RC structural elements.

9M

b) List and explain briefly about types of damages.

6M

2. a) Discuss about the construction errors leading to deterioration of a structure. 10M b) What is carbonation? Explain the various factors which affect the rate of carbonation.

5M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain any five preventive measures to avoid corrosion of steel reinforcing bars. 10M b) What is fire rating? Briefly explain the importance of fire rating of structures.

5M

4. a) With chemical equation explain in detail about the mechanism of corrosion. Also discuss the factors influencing the corrosion.

10M

b) What are the principal types of damages due to fire on concrete? List the preventive measures used in thermal movement of concrete.

5M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain Rebound hammer test conducted on concrete. List advantages and disadvantages of using it.

8M

b) Explain in detail about crack repairs techniques for concrete structures.

7M

6. a) List water proofing materials used in constructions. Explain any two methods. 7M b) What are the various testing systems used in assessment of distress in concrete?

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Give reasons for need of strengthening of concrete structures. 5M b) Explain briefly about all strengthening techniques with external reinforcement.

10M

8. a) What is jacketing? What are the different types of jacketing? Explain them briefly. 8M b) Differentiate structural repair and structural strengthening.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) What is Structural Health Monitoring? What are the objectives of Structural Health Monitoring?

7M

b) Explain briefly about sensors used in structural health monitoring.

8M

10. a) What are the various instrumentations used for structural health monitoring of structures?

7M

b) Explain the process of structural health monitoring. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2136

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

PAVEMENT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN (Civil Engineering)

Date: 24 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Describe the factors affecting design and performance of pavements 10M b) Explain Burmister's two layer theory.

5M

2. a) With a neat sketch explain the cross-section of a flexible pavement and mentioning the function of each layer.

7M

b) The plate bearing test was conducted with 30cm plate diameter on soil subgrade and over 15cm base course. The pressures yielded at 0.5cm deflection are 4 kg/cm2 and 6.25 kg/cm2 respectively. Design the pavement section for 4100kg wheel load with tyre pressure of 5kg/cm2 for an allowable deflection of 0.5cm using Burmister's theory. (Assume missing data within permissible limits).

8M

Fig.1

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss about the critical combination of stresses in rigid pavements. 10M b) Write a note on determination of warping stresses in rigid pavements.

5M

4. a) Explain the frictional stresses occurring in CC pavement. 5M b) Using the data given below , calculate the wheel load stresses at interior, edge and

corner regions of a cement concrete pavement using Westergaard’s stress equations. (Assume missing data within permissible limits).

Wheel load, P =5100 kg Modulus of elasticity of cement concrete, E =3X105 kg/cm2

Pavement Thickness, h =18 cm Poisson’s ratio of concrete, u =0.15 Modulus of Subgrade reaction, K =6 kg/cm3 Radius of contact area, a =15 cm

10M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) Briefly explain the design of rigid pavement as per the IRC Method. 10M b) Explain the use of tie bar and dowel bar in cement concrete pavement.

5M

6. a) Explain the principle, scope and factors affecting the properties of soil-cement stabilization

10M

b) Explain about the need for correction and corrective measure applied in CBR test.

5M

Unit – IV

7. a) Describe penetration test on bitumen with neat sketch. 8M b) Write the detailed procedure of construction of WBM roads.

7M

8. a) Write the detailed procedure of construction of reinforced concrete pavements. 7M b) Explain Marshall's method of mix design for bitumen.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Enumerate with proper justification the different types of overlays that can be provided on flexible pavement.

10M

b) What are the objectives of highway maintenance?

5M

10. a) Explain in details about the following stages in Benkelman Beam Deflection method: i. Preliminary study ii. Field data collection iii. Calculation of rebound deflection values

10M

b) List atleast five different types distress in rigid pavement and explain one in detail. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2154

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL METHODOLOGIES (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 22 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define Primary and Secondary Air Pollutants and give a few examples for both primary and secondary class of air pollutants.

8M

b) What are Point and areal sources of air pollutants? List out the principal sources under Point and areal sources.

7M

2. a) Comprehensively write about the global effects of air pollution. 8M b) Write short notes on:

i. Ozone holes ii. Urban Heat Island and its causes

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Write about Air-Fuel Ratio. 8M b) Write about the horizontal dispersion of air-pollutants.

7M

4. a) Explain different methods of reducing NOx emissions. 7M b) What is dry deposition? What factors contribute to increased deposition rates?

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Define the following terms: Mole, Pressure, Mass concentration, Density. 8M b) Explain the mixing process that results a Gaussian concentration distribution both in

crosswind and in vertical direction, centered at the line downwind from the source.

7M

6. a) Briefly discuss the feature of Gaussian dispersion models. 8M b) What is Wind Rose Diagram? Discuss the Steps to develop a wind rose diagram from

hourly observations.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Narrate how equipment modification or replacement could minimize air-pollutant emissions at sources.

8M

b) Draw diagram of Electrostatic Precipitator and mention its working principle in control of particulate pollution.

7M

8. a) Explain with a diagram how a simple conventional spary tower functions and write the equation for its overall collection efficiency.

8M

b) With the help of a neat labeled diagram write briefly about Horizontal flow settling chamber as a method of separation of particles from pollutant gases.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Briefly discuss Indian Air Quality standards for residential and industrial areas. 8M b) Give the classification of Air quality indices and write the equation for calculating the

index, in case, there being four pollutants, namely S02, NOx, PM 10 and SPM.

7M

10. a) List and briefly discuss ambient air quality standards by central pollution control board of India.

8M

b) List and briefly discuss different parameters used for calculating air pollution index. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2015

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 15 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Write comprehensive notes on variety of moral issues and approaches to engineering ethics.

8M

b) Write critical notes on Carol Gilligan argument in her theory of moral levels.

7M

2. a) Summarize Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory on moral autonomy. 8M b) Write concise notes on descriptive Inquiries.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the similarities and differences between engineering experiments and other standard experiments.

8M

b) Write critical notes on ‘balanced outlook on law’.

7M

4. a) “If engineering is a social experimentation, engineers are guardians of public interest”. Discuss.

7M

b) Elaborate on the ‘O’ ring concerns in Challengers Case Study.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) List out points indicating how to reduce risk. 8M b) What is collegiality? Briefly narrate how sociologists and organization view collegiality.

7M

6. a) Narrate the Chernobyle accident and what happened including the after effects. 8M b) Write notes on Employee Rights.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the rationale for protection of intellectual property. 8M b) Discuss the functions of World Intellectual Property Organization.

7M

8. a) What are the objectives of Madrid agreement? Who may use the Madrid system? 7M b) What is a trademark? Explain the process of trademark registration.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) What is patent searching? Explain various patent searching methods. 8M b) Explain how commercialization could be an issue of copyright.

7M

10. a) What is an Intellectual property audit? Explain why it is needed. 8M b) Why Trade Secret Law is gaining significance? 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2017

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ENTREPRENEURSHIP

(Common to Electrical and Electronics Engineering & Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 22 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the Role of Entrepreneurship in economic development. 8M b) What is Entrepreneurship? Explain the characteristics of dntrepreneur.

7M

2. a) List and explain the qualities of an entrepreneur. 8M b) With example explain the barriers of entrepreneurship.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain briefly about the role of government in providing institutional support to entrepreneurs in development of economy.

8M

b) What is the role of Industrial development bank of India in development of entrepreneurship?

7M

4. a) What is the role of MSMEs in development of entrepreneurship? 8M b) What are the objectives of SIDO? Discuss the services offered by SIDO.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Discuss the Functions of women entrepreneurs. 8M b) Explain the Role and Importance of women entrepreneurship.

7M

6. a) Why women entrepreneurs are important to the Indian economy? 8M b) List and explain the problems of women entrepreneurs.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the concept of project identification. 8M b) Highlight the Importance of project management for organizations.

7M

8. a) What is financial appraisal? List and explain the components of financial appraisal. 8M b) What is social cost-benefit analysis and write about the result of a social cost benefit

analysis.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss the importance of feedback and performance of trainees. 8M b) Write the importance of training for new and existing entrepreneurs.

7M

10. a) Explain how training is an effective instrument which can be applied to entrepreneurship in developing their skills?

8M

b) Discuss the significance of entrepreneurial training. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2019

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech VII Semester Regular Examinations, November - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

PROJECT PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT (Civil Engineering)

Date: 22 November, 2017 AN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the steps involved in Project Management by PERT/CPM networks? 7M b) What is Milestone Chart? What are its advantages and disadvantages?

8M

2. a) What is Dummy activity? Why do we use Dummy activity while constructing project networks? Show it in a project network.

7M

b) Explain the terms Network, Activity, Event, Merge and Burst events, preceding, succeeding and concurrent activities.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Develop the Network for the following Project and determine the following: i. Critical Path ii. ES,EF,LS,LF iii. TF,FF

Activity Duration

1-2 14

1-4 3

2-3 7

2-4 0

3-5 4

4-5 3

5-6 10

8M

b) Build the Network for the following project and calculate the probability of completing the project in 25 days.

Activity to tm tp

1-2 2 6 10

1-3 4 8 12

2-3 2 4 6

2-4 2 3 4

3-4 0 0 0

3-5 3 6 9

4-6 6 10 14

5-6 1 3 5

7M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

4. a) Characterize all types of floats, earliest start time and latest start time. Give its relationship with respect to each other.

7M

b) Suppose a robot building firm plans the following project. Draw the network and find the Critical path.

Project Activity Immediate predecessor Activity duration

In days

a Design a new robot - 20

b Build prototype units a 10

c Test prototypes b 8

d Estimate material costs a 11

e Refine Robot design c, d 7

f Demonstrate Robot to customer e 6

g Estimate labor costs d 12

h Prepare technical proposal e 13

i Deliver proposal to customer g, h 5

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is resource levelling in a Project? State its importance. 7M b) Differentiate resource levelling and smoothing.

8M

6. a) What is Crashing in Project? Discuss common methods of crashing. 7M b) Define “Normal Time, Crash Time, Normal Cost and Crash cost” in a project and define

cost slope. For the project schedule given below, determine the cost slope, normal duration and cost and least duration and the cost. Assume ONLY ONE day’s crash is allowed.

Activity Normal Time days

Normal Cost Rs.

Crash Time Rs.

Crash Cost Rs.

1-2 5 500 4 600

2-3 10 1200 6 2000

3-4 13 3600 11 4800

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Characterize construction management. Explain the scope of construction management. 8M b) Register and explain the principles of scientific management with an example.

7M

8. a) Categorize different characteristics of a good project manager. Substantiate your answer with examples.

8M

b) Evaluate the importance of “delegation, responsibility and accountability” needed for the project manager. Give illustrations.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Depict with a block diagram and Elucidate the concept of Matrix organization in project Management.

8M

b) Distinguish between recruitment and selection process. Discuss briefly with examples. 7M

10. a) Emphasize various approaches of training process with examples. 8M b) Substantiate with examples that Safety aspect in construction site is paramount. 7M