Immune and Lymphoid System1. Introductiona. What two systems does the lymphatic system use?i. Circulatory and endocrine b. What are the three cell types commonly associated with the lymphatic system?i. Lymphocytes, plasma cells and antigen-presenting cellsc. Where are T-cells derived versus B-cells?i. T cells from the thymus, B-cells from the bone marrow d. What is the function of antigen-presenting cells?i. Present antigens to other immune cells (lymphocytes)e. What is the function of plasma cells?i. Antibody productionf. Which cells are involved in antibody-mediated immunity versus cell-mediated immunity?i. T-cells: cell mediated immunityii. B-cells: antibody-mediated immunityg. What is the primary purpose of the immune system?i. Protection/defense of the bodyh. Explain the interaction between the nervous and endocrine system with the immune system.i. Cytokines from the immune or neural system to the endocrine, feeding back to the neurons for defense and homeostasis.2. Immune Cells/Moleculesa. What are the four functions of thymus derived cells?i. Cytotoxic, helper, suppressor, memoryb. Which cells are potentially problematic as they contribute to anaphylaxis?i. Memory cells- remember antigens and respond to second exposurec. Which T-cells kill irrespective of antibody or antigen?i. Natural Killer Cellsd. By what means do cytotoxic T-cells kill foreign cells?i. Activate cellular apoptosise. What part of the T-cell interacts with the major-histocompatibility complex?i. T-Cell Receptor (TCR)f. What can be used to differentiate between T-cells?i. Cluster of Differentiation (CD) antigensg. What are cytokines?i. Small soluble proteins that elicit some bodily responseh. What do colony stimulating factors cause?i. Haematopoeisis- cell productioni. What do B-cells produce?i. Antibody production j. From what cells are immunoglobulins produced?i. Plasma cells k. What immunoglobulin causes mast cells to degranulate?i. IgE l. What immunoglobulin is found in the highest percentage?i. IgGm. What is the function of IgA?i. Found in saliva, and reports back to body (?)n. What region of an antibody binds to other cells?i. Fc region bind to macrophage/neutrophils o. Which Major Histocompatibility Complex is specific to immune cells?i. MHC IIp. What is the function of MHC-II?i. Bring in antigen and chew up, allowing addition of them to the cell surface/presentation to lymphq. Explain what opsonization is and how it can occur.i. Antibodies binding a foreign particle, and then other antibodies binding to the original antibodies3. Immune Tissues-Thymusa. What are thymic (Hassals) corpuscles?i. Pink centres in the medulla- degenerating cells to support the thymusb. Explain the importance of the blood-thymus barrier.i. Thymocytes develop whats self/what is not; protects thymus c. What is the lifespan of the thymus?i. Decreases after the age of fourd. How does the cortex differ from the medulla?i. Cortex- outer and increased number of T-cells, while the inside medulla has larger T-cells but in less densitye. Are afferent or efferent lymphatics present in the thymus?i. No Afferent lymphatics because its not a filter, only focus on outputf. What are the three thymic-dependent areas of T-cell migration?i. Paracortical zone (lymph nodes), Internodular areas (lymph nodules), periarterial lymphoid sheaths (spleen)4. Immune Tissues-Lymph Nodesa. What is the shape of most lymph nodes?i. Kidney-shaped with hilumb. Where are lymph nodes located?i. Along lymphatic vesselsc. What is cell type is characteristic of the outer cortex of the lymph node?i. B-cells d. In what layer are B-cells versus T-cells mainly found?i. Inner cortex= T-cells; outer cortex= B-cells e. In which layer are lymph nodules not present?i. Inner cortexf. Describe lymph drainage through a lymph node.i. Enters (1) capsule through afferent vessels into the (2) subcapsular sinus; passes through (3) intermediate-cortical sinus into (4) medullary sinuses; exiting through (5) hilum/ efferent vesselsg. Compare lymph drainage to blood supply of a lymph node. i. Opposite directions; entering through hilum and high endothelial venules h. What causes lymphocytes to be trapped inside lymph nodes?i. Selectin slows down lymphocytes causeing them to bind to the endothelial wall.i. What is the epithelium of high endothelial venules and where are they found?i. Simple cuboidal part of blood supplyj. What happens to bacteria in the subcapsular sinus? i. Eaten by macrophagesk. What is marginization?i. Neutrophils binding to walls using selectinl. What is found in the lymph node medulla?i. Medullary cords and sinuses 5. Immune Tissues- Spleena. What is the function of the spleen?i. Blood filter, red blood cell destruction and lymphocyte activationb. What is the primary function of the white pulp?i. Immunological activity c. What cells are found in the marginal zone of the white pulp?i. T and B-cells, with APC cells d. In which layer are primarily T-cells located in the white pulp?i. Periarterial lymphoid sheaths (PALS) e. If searching for B-cells in the white pulp, what layer is appropriate?i. Lymph nodules (germinal centres) f. How does the function of red pulp differ from white pulp?i. Red pulp is cleansing; white pulp is activity g. Describe the blood supply to the spleen. i. (1) Splenic artery branches into (2) trabecular arteries= (3) central arteries passing into the white pulp, terminating as (4) penicillar arteries in red pulp becoming (5) capillaries.h. Explain the drainage of venous blood from the spleen. i. Small pulp veins > trabecular veins > splenic veins i. What happens to penicillar arteries in the red pulp?i. Become capillaries j. What types of fibres are found around the spleen?i. Reticular fibresk. Where does the venous drainage from the spleen go to in the body?i. Liverl. What is the location of the incomplete basal lamina?i. In the splenic sinusoids, due to increased fluid flow m. How is bilirubin produced?i. Macrophages chew up old red blood cells releasing the haem group which is metabolized to bilirubin and excreted. 6. Immune Tissues-Lymph Nodules and Tonsilsa. What are the three types of tonsils?i. Pharyngeal, palatine, lingualb. Differentiate between the three types of tonsils.i. Pharyngeal (no crypts), palatine (10-20 crypts), lingual (1 crypt)c. When are germinal centres present in lymph nodules?i. When actived. What is MALT and the connection between it and GALT/BALT. i. MALT- mucosa associated lymphoid tissue- GALT= GI; BALT= bronchus e. Which cell type is primarily found around the tonsils? i. B-cells 7. Clinical Considerationsa. What is DiGeorge Syndrome?i. Embryological- no T-cells, only B-cells b. Explain what occurs during an auto-immune disease. i. Body is unable to recognize self and treats everything as foreignc. What organ complements production of red blood cells if there is a deficiency in bone marrow?i. Spleen d. Where is the tumour is Hodgkins lymphoma?i. Lymphocytic system Endocrine System1. Overviewa. What type of capillaries are found in the endocrine system?i. Fenestratedb. What chemical structures are secreted by the endocrine system?i. Proteins, steroidshormones c. At what sites does the endocrine system have the ability to act on?i. Target organ at distant site utilizing the circulatory systemd. Do the glands of the endocrine system have ducts?i. Ductless glands secrete stimulatory or inhibitory hormones2. Hypothalamusa. What hormones are released from the hypothalamus? i. Anti-diuretic hormone ii. Oxytocinb. What is the local blood circuit within the hypothalamus? i. Hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system (local blood circuit) to the pituitaryii. Neuronal connection to the posterior pituitaryc. Where are the hormones of the hypothalamus released to?i. Pituitary gland3. Pituitarya. What is the adenohypophysis?i. Anterior pituitaryb. What is the pars distalis?i. Anterior lobec. What composes 50% of the anterior lobe?i. Chromophobes- clear cellsd. What are the two types of chromophils? i. Acidophils (35%)-somatotrophs/mammotrophsii. Basophils (15%)-gonadotrophs/corticotrophs/thyrotrophse. What releases growth hormone?i. Somatotrophsf. What are the two types of acidophils?i. Somatotrophs (GH relealse) ii. Mammotrophs (PRL release)g. What are the three types of basophils?i. Gonadotrophs (FSH/LH release)ii. Corticotrophs (ACTH release)iii. Thyrotrophs (TSH release) h. Where is Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinising Hormone released from?i. Gonadotrophsi. From what cells is melanocyte stimulating hormone released?i. Pars intermedia and corticotrophs j. What is the function of pituicytes?i. Glial-like cells- support axons structurally and provide nourishment k. What is the function of the Herring bodies in the neurohypophysis?i. Storage of ADH/ oxytocinl. Explain the connection between Diabetes insipidus and the pituitary gland i. No ADH release= reduced water reabsorption= watery urine m. It is found that a patient has compression of their optic nerve, how can the pituitary gland be implicated in the blurred vision?i. Pituitary tumour increasing cranial pressure n. What is the function of oxytocin?i. Produced by the hypothalamus, stored by the pituitary to cause uterine contractions 4. Thyroid a. What shape are thyroid follicles found as?i. Sphere of tissueb. What is the epithelium of thyroid follicles?i. Cuboidal cells but may appear squamous of columnar c. What is thyroxine?i. Thyroid hormone bound to 4 iodines d. Explain the function of thyroid hormones T3 and T4.i. Regulate metabolic activitye. What is the function of iodine in the thyroid?i. Facilitates the storage of lipophilic thyroxine so that it cant escape (thyroglobulin)f. What are parafollicular cells?i. Alongside thyroid epithelium g. What is released from C cells and under what stimulus?i. Calcitonin in response to high blood calcium levelsh. What do cretinism, myxedema and Hashimotos disease have in common?i. Hypothyroidism: Cretinism in utero, Myxedema in adult, Hashimotos is autoimmune i. Patient presents with large, protruding eyes, increased heart and metabolic rate- what thyroid condition should appear in the differential diagnosis?i. Hyperthyroidism- Graves Disease 5. Parathyroida. What are the two cell types of parathyroid glands?i. Chief and Oxyphil Cellsb. What hormone secreted from Chief cells have an effect of blood calcium levels?i. Parathyroid hormone- increase blood calcium levelsc. What color do oxyphil cells stain?i. Acidophilic cells- stain red with eosind. Explain how tetany relates to the parathyroid glands.i. Decreased blood calcium, heavy bones and reduced contractione. How will a patient with hyperparathyroidism present?i. Weaker bones, with reduced density. Calcium plaques within the kidney.6. Adrenala. What are the three zones of the adrenal cortex?i. Zona glomerulose (15%)ii. Zona fasiculata (65%)iii. Zona reticularis (10%)b. What is the function of the zona glomerulosa? i. Electrolyte and water balance c. What is found in the largest zone of the adrenal cortex?i. Spongiocytes d. What does and does not stimulate aldosterone?i. Does not respond to ACTH, but does respond to sodium levelse. What is produced within the zona reticularis?i. Cortisol (glucocorticoid) and androgens (DHEA) f. What regulates activity within the zona reticularis?i. ACTH from pituitaryg. Where is the adrenal medulla derived from versus the cortex?i. Neuroectoderm- from neural crest cells , cortex from parenchymah. What cell is found in the adrenal medulla and what compounds do they produce?i. Chromaffin cells, producing epinephrine and norepinephrinei. What is the importance of the medulla releasing compounds directly into the blood supply?i. Large bolus of hormones released that are able to act quicklyj. Describe the three components of the subcapsular plexus of the adrenal gland. i. Arteries of the (1) capsule, (2) cortex and (3) medullak. What is Addisons disease characterized by? What disease is the opposite of it?i. Hypo-adrenal cortical activity- a lack of glucocorticoids 1. Oppositee is Cushings disease which is an excess of glucocorticoidsl. What compound released from the zona reticularis is having increased use by the general public?i. DHEA which is converted to more potent androgens7. Endocrine Pancreasa. What component of the pancreas has an endocrine function?i. Pancreatic islets (of Langerhans)b. What are the 4 cell types in the pancreas?i. Alpha cells- glucagonii. Beta cells- insuliniii. Delta cells- somatostatiniv. F-cells- pancreatic polypeptidec. What is the greatest proportion of cells in the endocrine pancreas?i. Beta cells d. What is the function of somatostatin?i. Regulate growth hormone release from hypothalamuse. What cells are affected by type II diabetes mellitus in adults?i. Beta cells being burnt out due to increased sugar consumptionf. What is the cause of type I diabetes?i. Its juvenile diabetes with a genetic cause. 8. Pineal Glanda. What is produced from pinealocytes?i. Melatonin- sleep/rhythm regulation and free radical scavenging b. What two cell types are found in the pineal gland?i. Glial cells and Concretionsc. What is found to increase as an individual ages? i. Concretionsd. What tasks are the pineal gland involved in regulating?i. Rhythm/sleep regulation, seasonal regulation with respect to metabolism and free radical scavenging 9. Diffuse Neuroendocrine Systems a. What cells of the gastrointestinal system have endocrine properties?i. Enterchromaffin cells b. From what organs is the angiotensin system derived? i. Liver, Kidney and Lungs to control blood pressure c. What endocrine hormone is released from the heart?i. Atrial Natriuretic factor- decrease blood pressure d. Explain the connection between skin, liver, kidney and vitamin D.i. Need vitamin D for calcium uptake, the skin absorbs UV light converting it to vitamin D resulting in an increase in blood calciume. What is produced by the testes?i. Androgensf. What hormones does the placenta release?i. hCG and estrogen/progesteroneg. What metabolic hormones are released from the brain and adipose tissue?i. Leptin/resistin/adiponectin from adipose cellsii. Ghrelin/orexin are appetite hormones 10. Fill in the following chart: HormoneReleased FromTargetActions

Anti-diuretic HormoneHypothalamusPituitaryWater reabsorption

OxytocinHypothalamusPituitaryUterine Contraction

Growth HormonePituitary (Somatotrophs)MultipleGrowth/immune production

ProlactinPituitary (Mammotrophs)Mammary glandsMilk production

FSHPituitary (Gonadotrophs)GonadsFemale- Maturation of Graafian follicles.Male-Enhanced androgen binding protein

LHPituitary (Gonadotrophs)GonadsFemale- surge stimulates ovulationMale-stimulates testosterone production

AdrenocorticotrophinPituitary (Corticotrophs)Adrenal cortexGlucocorticoid release

Thyroid Stimulating HormonePituitary (Thyrotrophs)Thyroid GlandRegulates secrtion of T3/T4

Melanocyte Stimulating HormonePituitary (Corticotrophs/ Pars Intermedia)MelanocytesRelease of melanin

T3/ T4ThyroidMultipleIncrease metabolic rate

CalcitoninThyroid (Parafollicular cell)OsteoblastsIncreased osteoblast/decreased osteoclas activity

Parathyroid HormoneParathyroid (Chief cells)OsteoclastsIncreased osteoclast activity

AldosteroneAdrenal (Z. glomerulosa)KidneyIncrease mineral reabsorption

CortisolAdrenal (Z. reticularis)Depress immune function and regulate glucose levels

Androgens (DHEA)Adrenal (Z. reticularis)

Epinephrine/NorepinephrineAdrenal medulla (chromaffin cells)

GlucagonPancreas (Alpha cells)LiverGlycogen > Glucose

InsulinPancreas (Beta cells)Liver/MuscleGlucose uptake

SomatostatinPancreas (Delta cells)

Pancreatic polypeptidePancreas (F-cells)

MelatoninPineal (pinealocytes)

Atrial Natriuretic FactorHeartKidneyReduce Na, Water to lower blood pressure

Ghrelin/orexinBrainGrowth hormone release

Leptin/resistin/adiponectinAdipose tissue

hCGPlacentaOvaryPrevent degradation of the corpus luteum

Estrogen/progesteronePlacentaMaintain pregnancy

Integument System1. Epidermis a. What is the epithelium of the epidermis?i. Stratified squamous keratinized epitheliumb. Where is the epidermis embryologically derived from?i. ectodermc. What are the 5 layers of thick skin?i. Stratum Basale: cuboidalii. Stratum Spinosum: polyhedraliii. Stratum Granulosum: flattenediv. Stratum Lucidum: v. Stratum Corneum: flattened/keratinized d. In what layers are many desmosomes and hemidesmosomes found?i. Stratum Basalee. In which layers are cells still dividing?i. Stratum Basaleii. Stratum Spinsoumf. What are tonofilaments? i. Cytokeratin-numerous intermediate filaments that hold desmosomes togetherg. How many cell layers are there in the stratum granulosum?i. 3-5 layers of flattened cellsh. What colour does the keretohyalin granules stain?i. Dark blue- gives skin the toughnessi. From what layer is the waterproof barrier formed? i. Stratum granulosum by lipid-rich granular exocytosisj. What contributes to the waterproof barrier of the skin? i. Exocytosis of lipid-rich granulesk. What layer is found only in thick skin versus thin skin?i. Stratum Luciduml. What is the purpose of keratohyalin granules?Stratum basalei. Keratin filaments and eleidin: protein for waterproofingm. What are keratinocytes?i. Cells of the skin, not including melanocytesn. Where are melanocytes derived from?i. Neural crest cellso. By what process is melanin produced? i. From tyrosine, activated by UV light p. To what layer of epidermis are melanosomes transported? i. To keratinocytes of stratum spinosum by cytocrine secretion q. In what layer are melanocytes found?i. Stratum Basaler. What is the function of melanin?i. Act as a barrier to UV light s. What is a melanin unit?i. Ratio of melanocytes to keratinocytest. Where are Langerhans cells derived from?i. Bone marrow cellsu. What is the function of the Dendritic cells? i. Antigen presenting cellsv. Where are mechanoreceptors located?i. Merkel cells- in the stratum basalew. What cells are found in the stratum basale?i. Merkel Cellsii. Melanocytesiii. Cuboidal cells 2. Dermisa. What type of tissue is the dermis composed of?i. Dense irregular connective tissueb. Where is the dermis derived from? i. Mesoderm c. What is the superficial loose layer in the dermis known as? i. Papillary layerd. Differentiate between the papillary and reticular layer.i. Papillary layer is superficial, reticular layer is deep.e. What is the function of the rich capillary supply?i. Nourishment and temperature regulationf. What is the purpose of Meissners corpuscles? i. Sensitive to light touch g. What senses deep pressure and vibration?i. Pacinian corpusclesh. A surgical incision is often made where to ensure reduced visibility of scar tissue?i. Cleavage (Langers) linesi. What is the purpose of arteriovenous anastomoses? i. Temperature regulationj. Where are sweat glands located?i. Reticular layerk. When a person smiles or frowns, the muscles of expression insert into what layer? i. Dermis (reticular layer)l. What are the purpose of arrector pili muscles and hair follicles?i. Contribute to temperature regulation, arrector pili muscles raise hair follicles.3. Hypodermisa. What type of tissue is the hypodermis?i. Loose connective tissueb. What is the hypodermis primarily composed of? i. Adipose tissue4. Glandsa. What are the three types of glands?i. Sweat glandsii. Apocrine glandsiii. Sebaceous glandsb. Which gland utilizes holocrine secretion?i. Sebaceous glandc. Fill in the chart:Secretion TypeSecretionLocationDrainage

Sweat GlandsMerocrineSweatAll overOnto Skin

Apocrine GlandsApocrineSweat Axilla, groin, analInto/at hair follicle

Sebaceous Glands HolocrineSebum (oily)All over?Into/at hair follicle

5. Functions:a. What are the five functions of skin?i. Protectionii. Receptioniii. Excretioniv. Absorptionv. Temperature regulationb. How is the skin involved in Vitamin D production?i. Need UV light to produce vitamin D- absorbed through skinc. In what way does the skin cause water to be impermeable? i. Protect/lipid soluble barrier through lipid granule excretion d. What parts of the skin are important in temperature regulation?i. Arteriovenous anastomosesii. Papillary layer (with rich capillary supply)iii. Hair follicles/sebaceous glandse. What increases within the skin in areas of increased reception to touch increases? i. Neuronal density 6. Hair a. Where does the hair develop from? i. epidermisb. What type of innervation do arrector pili muscles receive? i. Sympathetic post-ganglionic c. How does hair receive its colour?i. Melanocytes provide melanosomes for hair colourd. Is hair found on thick or thin skin?i. Thin7. Nailsa. What are nails composed of?i. Hard keratinb. Where does the nail grow out from?i. Cuticle (eponychium)c. In what layers of skin is the nail bed located? i. Stratum basale/spinosumd. Differentiate between the eponychium and hyponychium. i. Hyponychium is below the nail, eponychium is on the nail 8. Clinical Considerationsa. What are dermatoglyphs?i. Fingerprints-necessary for grasping b. What contributes to skin colour in darker and lighter skinned individuals? i. Activity of melanocytesc. What disease is characterized by non-functional melanocytes?i. Albinism d. Patient presents with distinctly white patches of skin, what condition is immediately suspected?i. Vitiligoe. What causes freckles?i. Increased melanocyte activity in a specific area f. Differentiate between basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma, with respect to cellular layer. i. Basal cell- stratum basaleii. Squamous cell- squamoid layer/granulosum layeriii. Melanoma- melanocytesg. Explain why melanoma is potentially dangerous. i. Melanocytes located in the basal layer and can easily metastasize awayh. What is psoriasis?i. Excess growth/turnover of skin

Male Reproductive System1. Introductiona. What hormones are necessary for sperm production and maintenance?i. LH and FSHb. What are the two routes of sperm transport?i. Intratesticular and extratesticularc. What structures are involved in intratesticular transport?i. Seminiferous tubulesii. Tubuli rectiiii. Rete testisiv. Ductuli efferentesd. What structures are involved in extratesticular transport?i. Ductus epididymisii. Ductus (vas) deferensiii. Ejaculatory ductiv. Urethra (prostatic, membranous, penile)e. What are the three supportive glands?i. Seminal vesicleii. Prostate iii. Bulbourethral2. Testesa. What are the three histological structures?i. Capsuleii. Germinal (seminiferous) epitheliumiii. Tunica propriab. Differentiate between the types of connective tissue found in the capsule.i. Tunica albuginea- dense irregular connective tissue ii. Tunica vasculosa- loose connective tissue/vesselsc. What type of epithelium is found?i. Germinal epithelium- stratifiedd. What is the function of Sertoli cells?i. Supporting/nurse cells with a large nucleus/nucleoluse. What are spermatogonia and what do they produce?i. Developing sperm which produce more spermatogoniaf. Which structure allows the testes to be rotatable in scrotal skin?i. Tunica vaginalis g. What type of fibres compose the tunica propria?i. Collagen fibres with fibroblasts and myoid cells h. What is spermatocytogenesis?i. Mitotically dividing spermatogoniai. How does type A and B spermatogonia differ?i. Type A- produce more spermatogoniaii. Type B- produce primary spermatocytes j. What do secondary spermatocytes and spermatids have in common? i. The number of chromosomes- 23, however spermatids are 1N while secondary spermatocytes are 2N. k. Explain the trend in number of chromosomes and copies from primary spermatocytes to spermatids.i. Primary > secondary > spermatidsii. Chromosomes: 46 > 23 > 23iii. Chromosomal copies: 4N > 2N > 1Nl. During what phase in the cell cycle are primary spermatocytes found?i. 16-20 days in prophase m. Using terms such as diploid and haploid, describe the genetic composition of chromosomes.i. The secondary spermatocyte is diploid while the spermatid is haploidn. What is the process of morphological changes known as?i. Spermiogenesiso. What are the three phases of spermiogenesis?i. Golgi phaseii. Acrosomal phaseiii. Maturation phasep. What is the acrosomal phase?i. Cap and detonator of lysosomal enzymes to penetrate the zona pellucida and get to ovum.q. How long does it take sperm to form?i. 64 days, however there are waves of sperm formation to allow for continuity r. Which cells phagocytosize residual bodies?i. Sertoli cellss. What compounds do Sertoli cells synthesize?i. Androgen binding protein (by FSH stimulation), which binds testosterone and diffuse across the membrane ii. Inhibin- feedback to the pituitary to make more or less FSHt. What does the occluding junctions between Sertoli cells form?i. Blood-testis barrier because the developing sperm are genetically different and suspectible to auto-immune attack.u. What is the pampiniform plexus and its purpose?i. Counter current heat exchanger- venous blood near testes to keep the temperature lowv. What are the components of interstitial tissues?i. Nerves, blood vessels, lymphatics and connective tissueii. Interstitial (Leydig) cellsw. What are the interstitial cells also known as and what do they produce?i. Leydig cells- produce testosterone; large Smooth endoplasmic reticulumx. Where are fenesterated capillaries found? i. In the interstitial tissue3. Sperm Conducting Ductsa. What type of epithelium is found in the tubuli recti?i. Straight tubules b. What is the anastomotic network known as?i. Rete testisc. Where is a ciliated or non-ciliated epithelium found in the sperm conducting ducts?i. Ductuli efferentesd. Which duct contains pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia?i. Ductus epididymise. What surrounds the ductus epididymis and what is its function?i. Smooth muscle for peristaltic contractionf. Describe the function of the stereocilia in the ductus epididymis.i. Non-motile; used for fluid absorptiong. What type of epithelium is found in the ductus deferens?i. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereociliah. Describe the muscular wall of the ductus deferens.i. Thick: inner, middle and outer longitudinali. Where does the ductus deferens dilate? i. Ampulla- prior to prostatej. What type of fibres are found within the lamina propria of the ductus deferens?i. Elastic fibresk. Describe the course or sperm out of the testes to the epididymis.i. Tubuli recti > rete testis > ductuli efferentes > ductus epididymis < ductus deferens > ejaculatory duct > urethra (prostatic, membranous, penile)l. What type of epithelium is found in the ejaculatory duct?i. Simple columnarm. Where does the ejaculatory duct pass through and end?i. Prostate glandii. End of seminal colliculus (verumontanum)n. What are the three parts of the urethra?i. Prostatic, membranous, penileo. Compare the epithelium in the prostatic portion to that of the membranous and penile.i. Prostatic- transitional epitheliumii. Membranous/penile- pseudostratified/ stratified columnar epitheliump. What is secreted from the glands of littre?i. Mucous lubricationq. What is the fossa navicularis?i. Stratified squamous epithelium at the tip and is non-keratinized4. Associated Reproductive Glandsa. What is secreted from the seminal vesicle glands and for what purpose?i. Seminal fluid (fructose, citrate) to support the spermb. What is the epithelium in the seminal vesicle glands?i. Pseudostratified columnar epitheliumc. Where are the glandular cells of the prostate located?i. Most of the glands in the peripheryd. What is the organization of the layers in the prostate?i. Mucosal, submucosal and main prostatic glands e. What are corpora amylacea?i. Prostatic concretions- concretion of calcium carbonate that increases with agef. What compound composes prostatic concretions?i. Calcium carbonateg. What is the fluid secreted from the prostate?i. Thin white fluid- acid phosphotases to change the vaginal pH and stimulate sperm motilityh. What gland is found in the membranous portion of the perineum?i. Bulbourethral (Cowpers) glandi. What is the epithelium of the Cowpers glands?i. Simple cuboidal j. What is secreted from Cowpers glands?i. Mucous to lubricate prior to ejaculation5. Penisa. What is the thick fibrous capsule known as?i. Tunica albugineab. What are the two type of erectile tissue in the penis?i. Corpora cavernosaii. Corpus spongiosumc. In which tissue is the urethra located?i. Corpus spongiosumd. What is the epithelium of the urethra?i. Pseudostratified columnar epitheliume. Describe the arterial and capillary structure within the penis.i. Helical arteries, with continuous capillariesf. What is the autonomic innervation of the penis?i. Parasympathetic regulates (Point and Shoot- parasympathetic and sympathetic)6. Clinical Considerationa. What is Kartagener Syndome and what effect will it have on sperm?i. Immotile flagella due to decreased dynein.b. Describe cryptochidism.i. Testes not in the scrotum but in the body and results in abnormal sperm productionc. What cells are compromised in testicular autoimmunity?i. Sertoli typically prevent immune access creating the blood-testis barrierd. Why are testicular tumours so dangerous?i. Lymph drainage to the abdomen so a metastatic tumour can go far e. What is the result of prostatic hypertrophy?i. Shuts down the urethra and can lead to cancer development

Female Reproductive System1. Ovariesa. What is the epithelium of the ovaries?i. Germinal epithelium- low cuboidal cells b. What structure has a white appearance in the ovaries?i. Tunica albugineac. Differentiate between the cortex and medulla with respect to function.i. Cortex has cells, medulla has connective tissued. List the maturation order of ovarian follicles.i. Oogoniaii. Primary oocytesiii. Primary folliclesiv. Secondary folliclesv. Mature (Graafian) folliclese. At what stage of the cell cycle do the oocytes arrest?i. Meiosis I f. Primary oocytes are also known as what?i. Primordial follicleg. What is the significance of oocytes arresting at prophase I?i. All the chromosomes unwound and can be read, there is twice the DNA available to build necessary proteins for the oocytesii. Not immunologically dangerous because the DNA isnt significantly different h. When do primary follicles appear?i. At pubertyi. Differentiate between uni and multilaminar primary follicles.i. Unilaminar- follicle cells (first layer of granulosa cells)ii. Multilaminar- granulosa cells (more than one layer)j. What is the function of the zona pelucida and when does it begin to develop?i. Thick proteinacous material to block sperm, developed in primary follicles k. What are the two types of stromal cells?i. Theca interna and Theca external. What hormones are produced from primary follicles and from what cells?i. Theca interna and granulosa cells produce estradiolm. What signifies the passage of a primary follicle to a secondary one?i. The presence of an antrumn. What is the hill of granulosa cells known as?i. Cumulus oophoruso. What layer surrounds the oocyte that is a secondary follicle and what type of cell is it?i. Corona radiata- granulosa cells p. Which cells continue hormonal production around secondary follicles.i. Granulosa cellsq. What are mature follicles also known as?i. Graafian follicesr. What features are distinct in a Graafian follicle?i. Very large antrumii. Well developed culumus oophorus iii. Membrana granulosa s. What induces oocytes to complete meiosis I?i. LH hormone surget. What causes the production of the polar body?i. Ovulation/LH hormone surgeu. At what cell cycle stage does the secondary oocytes arrest at?i. Metaphase IIv. What structure does the Graafian follicle press against during ovulation?i. Tunica albuginea (lose of blood supply)w. What are released into the peritoneum during ovulation?i. Secondary oocytes, corona radiata and Graafian folliclex. Differentiate between the corpus hemorrhagicum and corpus luteum.i. Corpus hemorrhagicum- blood filled regionii. Corpus luteum- temporary endocrine gland that removes C. hemorrhagicumy. What hormone is secreted from the corpus luteum and what effect does it have?i. Progesterone- endometrial growth in preparation for implantationz. Explain what happens to granulosa and theca cells in the corpus luteum.i. Granulosa lutein cells- granulosa remnant: produce progesteroneii. Theca lutein cells- theca interna remnant: produce progesterone, estrongenaa. What happens to follicles that did not fully develop?i. Atretic follicles not shedab. What are the two phases of the ovarian cycle?i. Follicular and luteal phase ac. Which hormones increase during the luteal phase?i. Progesterone and estrogenad. What happens to the corpus luteum if there is no pregnancy?i. Corpus albicans forms which is not shed but is the degenerated corpus luteumae. What hormone maintains the corpus luteum?i. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)2. Oviductsa. What are the four regions of the uterine tubes?i. Infundibulum- fimbriaeii. Ampullaiii. Isthmusiv. Intramural region (inside uterus)b. What is the epithelium of the uterine tube?i. Simple columnar c. What is produced from peg cells?i. Seromucous compound d. What cells are found in the mucosa epithelium of the oviducts?i. Ciliated and peg cells e. What are the three histological layers of the uterine tubes?i. Mucosa, muscularis (2 layers of smooth muscle), serosaf. What part of the uterine tube does fertilization typically occur in?i. Ampulla3. Uterusa. What is the epithelium of the endometrium?i. Simple columnar, ciliated b. What is found in the lamina propria of the endometrium?i. Stratum functionalis ii. Stratum basalis c. Which layer of the endometrium is lost during menses and which is retained?i. Retain stratum basalis ii. Lose stratum functionalisd. Describe the changes that occur within the uterine glands from a proliferative to secretory phase. i. Proliferative phase- endometrium grows and proliferatesii. Secretory phase- glands grow out and fill with glycogen, providing energy for zygotee. Describe the vasculature of the endometrium.i. Straight arteries in the stratum basalis that coil in the stratum functionalisf. How many layers of smooth muscles are in the uterus and what layer are they found in?i. 3 layers(inner, middle, outer) in the myometrium g. What controls the myometrium?i. Neural/hormonal (estrogen, oxytocin, prostaglandins)h. Describe the serosal coverings of the uterus. i. Lower 1/8 = adventitiaii. Upper 7/8 = serosal i. Compare the epithelium of the endocervix to the ectocervix.i. Endocervix- simple columnar ii. Ectocervix- non-keratinized, stratified squamous epitheliumj. Where are the cervical glands located?i. Uterine cervix k. What is the purpose of the mucous plug?i. Prevent micro-organisms from enteringl. Describe the epithelium change that occurs within the cervical region.i. From simple columnar to non-keratinized, stratified squamous epitheliumm. What occurs during the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle?i. Stratum functionalis, tubular glands and helical arteries developn. What occurs during the secretory phase of the uterine cycle?i. Stratum functionalis thickensii. Tubular glands and helical arteries coilo. When is follicle stimulating hormone high?i. Proliferative phasep. Which hormones increase during the secretory phase? i. Progesterone and estrogen4. Vaginaa. Describe the epithelium of the vagina.i. Non-keratinized, stratified squamous epitheliumb. What is the significance of the bacterial flora within the vagina?i. Convert glycogen to lactic acid to lower vaginal pHc. What is found in the lamina propria of the vagina?i. Fibroelastic connective tissue and lymphocytesd. Which layer of the vagina has neural and vascular supply?i. Adventitia e. What glands are found in the vagina?i. Nonef. Differentiate between the labia majora and labia minora.i. Labia majora- skin with hair, adipose tissue and smooth muscleii. Labia minora- skin without hair, subcutaneous elastic fibresg. What secretes mucous in the female external genitalia?i. Greater vestibular glands 5. Mammary Glandsa. What type of glands are found in the mammary glands?i. Radial glands b. What is the arrangement of the lobes within the mammary gland?i. 15-20 lobes, circularly arranged that converge on ducts to a single lactiferous ductc. What is the purpose of the lactiferous sinus.i. Priming bulb, vacuum mechanism to pull milk to the nippled. Which substance is secreted by merocine secretion versus apocrine secretion?i. Merocrine- proteinsii. Apocrine- lipidse. What cells are found in alveoli?i. Myoepithelial cells to facilitate secretionf. What cells facilitate and aid in protein and lipid secretion?i. Myoepithelial cells g. How does the epithelia of larger ducts compare to smaller ducts?i. Large- stratified cuboidal epitheliumii. Small- columnar epithelium h. Compare the mammary glands in a resting versus lactating state. i. Resting: ducts, few alveoli, rich connective tissueii. Lactating: ducts, numerous alveoli, poor connective tissuei. What is colostrum?i. 1st secretion from the mammary glands, high in protein and IgA j. What hormone activates the mammary glands?i. Estrogen/progesterone k. What hormone initiates mammary gland development? i. Estrogen, progesterone, glucocorticoids and somatotropinl. After birth, which hormones activate and stimulate milk ejection?i. Oxytocinm. What hormone maintains milk production?i. Prolactin6. Pregnancya. What is the acrosome reaction?i. Penetration of the zona pellucidab. How is polyspermy prevented?i. Cortical reactionc. When does the oocytes complete meiosis?i. Upon fertilizationd. What is implantation?i. Blastocyst implanting into the uterine walle. What are the two cellular layers of the outer cells of the blastocyst?i. Cytotrophoblast cells ii. Synchytiotrophoblast cells f. Which cells form the embryo?i. Inner cells of the blastocystg. What are the three layers of the decidua?i. Basalis, capsularis, parietalis h. What are the two layers of the fetal placenta?i. Frondosum and laevei. What is found in the placental lacunae?i. Maternal blood j. Describe maternal-fetal blood circulationi. Maternal blood enters into the intervillous space in the placenta where chorionic villi (free and anchored) enter fetus through umbilical cordk. In the umbilical cord how many arteries and veins are found?i. 2 arteries, 1 vein7. Clinical Considerationsa. What is a Pap smear testing for?i. Testing at transitional zone for cellular change to cancerb. What hormone is a pregnancy test detecting?i. hCG: human chorionic gonadotropinc. What is endometriosis?i. Cyst of the endometrium

Urinary System1. Kidney-Generala. Where in peritoneum are the kidneys located?i. Retroperitonealb. What is the orientation of the kidney hilum?i. Faces mediallyc. What structures are found within the renal sinus?i. Renal artery, vein and ureterd. What is found within the kindeys cortex?i. Medullary rays e. Describe urine flow out of the kidney.i. Renal pyramid > columns > papilla > minor calyx > major calyx > renal pelvis

2. Kidney-Renal Corpusclea. What is the function of the renal corpuscle?i. Filters the bloodb. What type of epithelium is found in the parietal layer of Bowmans capsule?i. Simple Squamous epitheliumc. What cells are found on top of the visceral layer in the renal corpuscle and what is their function?i. Podocytes- surround the capillaries forcing filtrate to pass throughd. Where are filtration slits located?i. Space between the pedicles of the podocytese. Differentiate between the vascular pole and the urinary pole.i. Vascular pole- capillary entersii. Urinary pole- filtrate to the convoluted tubulef. What serves as a filtration barrier in the Bowmans capsule?i. Thick basement membraneg. What is Bowmans space?i. Urinary space between the capillary tuft and the capsuleh. What substance is found in the thick basement membrane and what is its significance?i. Large quantity of heparin sulphate preventing negatively charged particles to passi. What is the capillary tuft?i. Glomerulus j. What types of capillaries are found in the renal corpuscle?i. Type II- fenestrated k. State the characteristics of the particles able to pass through the renal corpuscle.i. Less than 72,000 MW and positively charged (amino acids, ions, glucose)l. What are mesangial cells? i. Macrophage-like with angiotensin II/atrial natriuretic factor receptors m. If a substance was to enter the corpuscle and be filtered, what structures would it have to pass through?i. Fenestrated capillaries > Basement membrane > Filtration slits n. How do the fenestrated capillaries of the glomerulus differ from those elsewhere in the body?i. Do not have diaphragmso. What structures in the renal corpuscle do posses a diaphragm?i. Filtration slits- small membrane to connect filtration slit from pediclesp. What effect does the inability of proteins to pass through the renal corpuscle have on osmotic pressure?i. Decreases the osmotic pressure 3. Kidney-Proximal Convoluted Tubule a. What type of epithelium is found in the proximal convoluted tubule?i. Simple cuboidal b. How does the proximal convoluted tubule appear with an H&E stain?i. Intensely eosinophilicc. Describe the ratio between the brush border and the lumen.i. Prominent brush border with a narrow lumend. What is absorbed within the thick descending tubule?i. Na, Cl, as a result water, Glucose, amino acids, most proteinse. What is excreted into the proximal convoluted tubule?i. Organic solutes, toxins, drugs f. What compound is used as a measure of urinary flow?i. Creatine g. Where are the fold and striations located?i. Lateral folds and basal striations 4. Kidney-Thin Loop (of Henle)a. What type of epithelium is found here?i. Simple squamousb. Describe the nuclei within the thin loop.i. Bulge into the lumenc. What substances are permeable in the loop?i. Water, urea, ionsd. What effect does an increased loop length have?i. Increases urine concentratione. What are the two types of nephrons and how do they differ from each other?i. Cortical nephrons- not used for concentration ii. Juxtamedullary nephrons- concentrate urine: loops into the medulla 5. Kidney-Distal Convoluted Tubulea. What type of epithelium is found in the distal convoluted tubule?i. Simple cuboidal b. Compare cell size between the distal and proximal convoluted tubules.i. Smaller cells than proximal convoluted tubule c. Describe the brush border to lumen ratio.i. Low brush border to wide lumend. In its unaffected state, what is distal convoluted tubule impermeable to?i. Water/ureae. What hormone regulates activity within the thick ascending tubule and in what capacity?i. Aldosterone pumps sodium and chloride out of cellf. Explain the counter-current concentration gradient.i. Deeper into cortex the concentration is greater externally thus causing water to leave nephron, however in the medullary region there is a reduced external concentration thus not drawing fluid from the tubule. g. What is the specialized region of cells and why are they so named?i. Macula densa- cells are close with nuclei lined up and have an influence on the juxtaglomerular apparatus. 6. Kidney-Collecting tubules/ductsa. What is the function of the collecting tubules?i. Concentrate urine by removing waterb. What type of epithelium is found in the collecting tubules?i. Simple cuboidalc. What are the regions of the tubule?i. Cortical, medullary, papillaryd. Describe the cellular structure of the ducts.i. Pale cytoplasm with prominent lateral cell boundariese. What are aquaporins and how are they regulated?i. Allow water to leave system, regulated by antidiuretic hormone 7. Kidney-Juxtaglomerular Apparatusa. What are the three parts of the apparatus?i. Macula densa, juxtaglomerular cells, extraglomerular mesangial cells b. What are produced by the juxtaglomerular cells?i. Renin c. What affect will increased sodium levels have?i. Macula densa measures sodium levels and stimulates renin production d. Explain the signal communication between organs.i. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I which is converted in the lung by ACE to angiotensin II causing a stabilization in blood pressure e. What are lacis cells? i. Extraglomerular mesangial cells which support the complex8. Kidney-Blood supply/Venous Drainage/Lymphatics/Nervesa. Describe the flow of blood into and out of the kidney.i. Renal > segmental > lobar > interlobar > arcuate > interlobular > afferent arterioles > glomerular capillaries > efferent arterioles > peritubular capillary network/vasa recta b. What is the corticomedullary junction?i. Arcuate arteries- spot of distributionc. What is the function of the vasa recta?i. Pick up ionsd. Where does erythropoietin production occur and what affect does it have?i. In the arterioles and capillaries, conversion of vitamin De. Describe venous drainage from within the kidney out.i. In the cortex- stellate > interlobular > arcuate > (now in medulla) interlobar > lobar > segmental > renal f. What two areas of the kidney have lymphatic drainage?i. Cortical and medullaryg. What affect does sympathetic innervation have on the kidney?i. Vasoconstriction h. Is neural control necessary for kidney function?i. No9. Kidney-Urinary Drainagea. Describe the path of urine formation from the renal corpuscle to the renal pelvis.i. Renal corpuscle > proximal convoluted tubule > thick descending limb > thin loop (of Henle ) > thick ascending limb > distal convoluted tubule > cortical collective tubule > medullary collecting ducts > papillary collecting ducts (of Bellini) > renal papilla > minor calyx > major calyx > renal pelvis b. What is the area cribrosa?i. Papillary collecting ducts- lots of ducts present that criss-cross c. Where does the transitional epithelium begin?i. At the minor calyx d. How does the concentration of urine differ at the renal corpuscle, the minor calyx and renal pelvis.i. Watery at renal corpuscle, but full concentrated at minor calyx 10. Uretersa. What type of epithelium lines the mucosa?i. Transitional b. What type of connective tissue is found?i. Dense irregular c. What is the permeability of the ureters?i. Impermeable to water and saltsd. How many layers of muscle is present and what is its type?i. 2- inner longitudinal and outer circular e. How does the upper 2/3 differ from the lower 1/3 of the ureter?i. Lower 1/3 has a third outer longitudinal layer f. How does the ureter compare to the seminal vesicle?i. There are only two layers of smooth muscle in the ureter and a transitional epithelium11. Bladdera. Describe the mucosa of the bladder.i. Folded like an accordion b. What is the epithelium of the bladder i. Transitionalc. Describe the muscularis layer of the bladder.i. 2 obliquely, interlaced layers of smooth muscle d. What type of sphincter is present at the bladder? i. Internal involuntary sphincter of smooth muscle (located at trigone base) e. What is micturition?i. Urinationf. Which fibres sense bladder distension? i. Sensory fibresg. Which fibres are involved in urination?i. Parasympathetic (S2-S4)12. Urethraa. Describe the sexual dimorphism that exists between male and female urethras.i. Female is 4-5 cm, while male is 15-20 cmb. What is the epithelium within the female urethra?i. Transitional or non-keratinized stratified squamous c. What glands are found in the female urethral lamina propria?i. Mucous urethral glands (of Littre) d. What type of muscle composes the external urinary sphincter? i. Skeletal e. What are the three sections of the male urethra?i. Prostatic, membranous, penile f. What is the epithelium of the male prostatic urethra?i. Transitional g. What structures are found in the male prostatic urethra?i. Prostatic and ejaculatory ducts, with prostatic utricle h. Where is the membranous urethra located?i. Within the urogenital diaphragm i. What type of epithelium is found in the membranous urethra?i. Stratified columnar/ pseudostratified columnar j. Describe the musculature of the membranous urethra.i. Skeletal muscle sphincter k. Where is the penile urethra located?i. Within the corpus spongiosum l. Compare the epithelium in the proximal and distal penile spongy urethra.i. Proximal- stratified pseudostratified columnar ii. Distal- non-keratinized stratified squamous m. What is the navicular fossa?i. Anatomical groove right before urethral orifice of penisn. Where are the male mucous urethral glands of Littre located?i. In the lamina propria13. Clinical Considerationsa. What is glomerulonephritis?i. Inflammation of the glomerulus, leads to protein and red blood cells in the urine b. What are kidney stones and what are the three points of constriction?i. Calcium oxalate stones: renal pelvis, trigone (internal sphincter), external sphincter c. Where can a transplanted kidney be placed in the recipient? i. Anywhere with a localized blood supply and venous drainage

Respiratory System1. Introductiona. What are the two portions of the respiratory system?i. Conducting and respiratoryb. What structures compose the conducting portion of the respiratory system?i. Nasal cavity > nasopharynx > larynx > trachea > bronchi > bronchioles > terminal bronchioles c. What structures compose the respiratory portion of the system?i. Respiratory bronchioles > alveolar ducts > alveolid. What are the five functions of the respiratory system?i. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide ii. Acid-base balaceiii. Body temperature regulationiv. Olfaction v. Filtration and immune defense2. Respiratory Epitheliuma. What type of epithelium is found is found in the respiratory system?i. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cellsb. What are the five types of cells found in the epithelium?i. Ciliated columnar, goblet, brush, basal and small granule c. Describe the quantity of goblet cells from the nasal cavity through to the respiratory bronchioles.i. Decreasingd. Describe the trend in elastic fibres, glands, goblet cells and smooth muscle throughout the system.i. Elastic fibres: increaseii. Glands: decreaseiii. Goblet cells: decreaseiv. Smooth muscle: increasing e. What is the trend in epithelium throughout the respiratory system?i. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar (to bronchioles), ciliated simple columnar to ciliated simple cuboidal 3. Conducting Portiona. What type of epithelium is found in the nasal cavity?i. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar b. By what means does the nasal cavity warm and humidify the air?i. Counter current heat exchanger c. What are swell bodies?i. Large vascular spaces that will swell and shut down half the nasal cavity allowing for regenerationd. Explain the function of the glandular matrix.i. Catches molecules and washes off or clean cells to allow for new smells e. What is the purpose of the paranasal sinuses?i. Air filled sinus with respiratory epithelium that increases in mucous production when sickf. Differentiate between conchae and turbinates.i. Conchae- bone ii. Turbinates- bone and epithelium g. What are the false vocal folds?i. Vestibular folds and have a respiratory epitheliumh. What type of epithelium is found on the vocal folds and why?i. Stratified squamous epithelium due to the increase amount of air passing through the foldsi. What type of epithelium is found in the trachea?i. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar j. What type of cartilage and collagen is located in the trachea?i. Hyaline cartilage with type II collagenk. Differentiate between primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi.i. Primary (2)- each long; Secondary (5)-lobar; Tertiary (18)-segmentall. How do brochioles differ from bronchi?i. No cartilage present in bronchiolesm. Where is a changing epithelium observed?i. Bronchioles n. Which level of bronchi segmentation supplies the bronchopulmonary segments?i. Tertiary o. What is BALT? i. Bronchus-Associated Lymphoid Tissue: diffuse lymph nodules for lymph activityp. State the function and location of Clara cells.i. Simple cuboidal epithelium; primarily involved with protection 4. Respiratory Portiona. What is characteristic of the respiratory bronchioles?i. Alveoli are presentb. In what tissue are sticks with smooth muscle and alveolar out-pocketings found?i. Alveolar ducts- ring of smooth muscle c. What types of fibres assist the lungs in recoil and with volume changes?i. Reticular and elastic fibres d. What cells predominate the alveolar surface?i. Type I (squamous alveolar) cells e. What is found on the lateral border between type I cells?i. Desmosomes and occluding junctions f. What cells are found in the alveoli?i. Type I (squamous alveolar), type II (septal/great alveolar), capillary endothelial, alveolar macrophages, fibroblasts and macrophages g. What is the function of alveoli?i. Communication of blood with airh. What is the function of type II cells?i. Precursor for type I and type II cellsii. Make lung surfactant to keep alveoli openi. Where surfactant produced and what is its purpose?i. Vesicular foamy cytoplasm of lamellar bodies in type II cells to keep alveoli open j. In what regard are alveolar macrophages indicative of heart failure?i. Have red blood cells moving backward into the lung and see iron accumulation= hemisideron k. From what cells are type I and type II cells produced?i. Type II cells l. Which cells are characterized by a foamy cytoplasm?i. Type II cells m. What types of capillaries are found within alveoli?i. Type I capillaries n. How is debris removed from the lung alveoli?i. Phagocytize by alveolar macrophages o. What is the predominant cell in the alveoli?i. Fibroblasts and mast cells 5. Accessory Tissuea. How many types of pleura are present with the respiratory system and what is its function?i. 2 types and allow two surfaces to rub over one another b. Which arteries supply the lung with nutritional blood?i. Bronchial arteries c. What is BALT and how does it differ from a lymph node?i. Bronchus- Associated Lymphatic Tissue- not directly connected to lymphatic system 6. Clinical Considerationsa. Which structures constrict in an asthmatic attack?i. Bronchi/bronchioles- limiting the air into the systemb. Describe the sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation of the lung.i. Sympathetic causes dilation, parasympathetic causes constrictionc. What is the deficiency in Respiratory Distress Syndrome?i. Inability to produce surfactant d. What is the alveolar detriment present in an individual with emphysema?i. Loss of alpha-1 trypsin that regulates elastic compounds. There is a break down of alveolar walls reducing the surface area. e. What effect does smoking have on the epithelium, cilia and mucous production? i. Reduces cilia, increases mucous and goblet cells and a change in epithelium to stratified squamous f. A patient with Kartagener syndrome has what loss of function?i. Immotile cilia syndrome, mucous movement away from alveoli impaired with the dynein arms non-functional.

Sensory System:1. Introductiona. What are the components of the light pathway?i. Cornea, Anterior chamber, pupil, lens, vitreous body, retinab. What are the four aspects of the middle ear?i. Malleus, incus, stapes and tensor tympani/stapedius musclesc. What glands are located in the external auditory meatus?i. Ceruminous glandsd. What is the tympanic membrane?i. Thin membranous structure that receives sound wavese. What are the two types of photoreceptors?i. Rods and cones f. What composes the vestibular apparatus?i. Semicircular ducts and maculag. What is found in the cochlea?i. Fluid Sensory System: Eye2. Fibrous Tunica. What are the two components of the fibrous tunic?i. Sclera and Cornea b. What type of collagen is found in the sclera?i. Type Ic. Where does the dura mater extend to in the eye?i. In the sclera onto the optic nerve d. Describe the vasculature of the cornea.i. Avasculare. What type of epithelium is found in the cornea?i. Corneal- stratified squamous, non-keratinizedf. What is the thickest layer of the cornea?i. Stromag. Where are type I collagen fibres found?i. Bowmans membrane, stroma, sclerah. What is corneal endothelium?i. Simple squamousi. State the name of the thick basement membrane in the cornea.i. Descemets membrane j. During laser eye surgery, what component of the eye is altered?i. Stroma lasered to affect light diffractionk. What is the purpose of the fibrous tunic?i. Support l. What is the conjunct terra?i. Clear film over eyem. Where is the fibrillar lamina?i. Bowmans membranen. What is the function of the corneal endothelium?i. Dehydrate the stroma3. Vascular Tunica. Where is the choroid located?i. Beneath the sclerab. What is Bruchs membrane?i. Separate choroid from retinac. Describe the cause of the pigmentation in the choroid.i. Melanocytes d. What is the ciliary body?i. Ring of muscle e. What are the suspensory ligaments of the lens?i. Ciliary processesf. Where is the aqueous humor produced?i. In the ciliary body drained into the canal of Schlemmg. What type of muscle is the ciliary muscle?i. Smooth muscle h. What type of fibres support the lens?i. Zonule fibres i. What increases in glaucoma?i. Intraocular pressure j. What type of cells form the pupil?i. Heavily pigmented cells k. Differentiate between the parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation of the iris.i. Parasympathetic constrict pupillae; sympathetic dilate pupillael. How is eye colour determined?i. Melanocyte densitym. What is the shape of the lens?i. Biconvex discn. What type of collagen is found in the lens capsule?i. Type IV collageno. What type of epithelium is found subcapsularly?i. Simple cuboidalp. State the function of crystallins.i. Refract light appropriatelyq. Where is the refractile gel located?i. Vitreous bodyr. What are the 4 spaces in the vascular tunic?i. Anterior and posterior chamber, pupil, vitreous space 4. Neural Tunica. What are the ten distinct layers of the neural tunic?i. Inner limiting membrane, optic nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, inner plexiform layer, inner nuclear layer, outer plexiform layer, outer nuclear layer, outer limiting membrane, layer of rods and cones, pigment epithelium.b. In which layer is the light sensitive end found?i. 9- layer of rods and conesc. Where are the ganglion cell nuclei located?i. 3-Ganglion cell layerd. Where is the support layer?i. 10-pigment epitheliume. Where are the nuclei of the rods and cones?i. 7- outer nuclear layerf. What is the function of the amacrine nuclei?i. Interact between rods and cones-integrative. g. Explain the role of vitamin A in the retina. i. Nutrition h. Differentiate between rods and cones.i. Cones are located in the centre and detect colours; rods are on the periphery and detect colour.i. What is in the macula lutea?i. Cone central; highest density of conesj. What are the neuroglial supporting cells?i. Muller cells, define internal to external limiting membrane k. Where is the blind spot?i. Where the nerve fibres converge at the optic disc l. Explain the orientation of rods and cones in the retina.i. Rods on the periphery, cones on the centre5. Accessory Structuresa. What is the conjunctiva?i. Clear, fluid-like area; keep the inside of the eyelid moist b. What allows the eyelids to open and close?i. Tarsal plates and muscles attached to itc. What type of epithelium is found in the conjunctiva?i. Stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cellsd. What is the lacrimal apparatus?i. Tear production; lacrimal gland > cannaliculi > sac > nasolacrimal duct e. Where are the tarsal plates?i. Cartilage that gives the eyelid its shape

Sensory System-Ear1. External Eara. What is the tympanic membrane composed of?i. 2 layers of epithelium with dense connective tissue b. What is produces ear wax?i. Ceruminous glands2. Middle Eara. What are the three ossicles?i. Malleus, incus, stapesb. Explain the dual innervation of the ear.i. Tensor tympani (CN V3), Stapedius (CNVII)c. Differentiate between the oval window and the round window.i. Oval window- Location of the stapes; wave starts at oval window and ends at round windowd. What is the Eustachian tube?i. Auditory tube-connects the pharynx with the middle ear e. What is the function of the stapedius muscle?i. Smallest muscle in the body, protects from very loud sounds3. Internal Eara. Differentiate between the bony and membranous labyrinth.i. Bony- perilymphatic space/ membranous- endolymphatic space b. What are the three components of the bony labyrinth?i. Semicircular canals, vestibule, cochleac. What is the function of the semicircular canals?i. Balanced. What is the purpose of the semicircular ducts?i. Head movement (shaking)e. Differentiate between the round and the oval window.i. Oval= in; round = out f. What are neuroepithelial cells?i. Hair cells that sense head movement when fluid causes them to bend g. What is the scala vestibule/ scala tympani?i. Filled with perilymph meet at the helicotrema (scala vestibule up, scala tympani out) h. What is the cochlear duct filled with?i. Endolymphi. What is the helicotrema?i. The tip of the cochleaj. What is Reissners membrane?i. Vestibular membrane in the cochlear ductk. Where is the endolymph made?i. Stria vascularis l. What is the organ of Corti?i. Neuroepithelial (hair) cells; supporting cells m. What is the cristae ampullares?i. Inner hill of hair in the semicircular ductsn. Where are keratin filaments and proteoglycan found?i. Tectorial membrane o. What is the function of the macula?i. Open space, gelatinous layer involved in detecting acceleration p. How does high pitch differ from low pitch in terms of location on the cochlea?i. High pitch reaches higher in the cochlea; low pitch is not as far in the cochlea4. Clinical Considerationsa. What is glaucoma?i. Increased intraocular pressure b. What are cataracts and how are they treated?i. Thickening of the lens= blurry vision, replaced with a plastic lensc. What is conductive deafness? i. Muscle or bone blown out= mechanical problem

Cell Biology: Cell Cycle and Its Control1. The Cell Cyclea. How long does interphase last?i. ~23 hoursb. What phase are cells not in the cell cycle said to be in?i. G0c. What occurs in G1 phase?i. Presynthesis, 1st check point d. In which phase does DNA synthesis occur?i. S phasee. Where is the 2nd check point found?i. G2 phase f. What is M-phase?i. 1 hr, metaphase checkpoint g. When do the chromatin coil?i. Prophaseh. What is the metaphase plate?i. The chromosomes lining up along the centre of the celli. When is the nuclear envelope and nucleolus lost?i. Metaphasej. What is cytokinesis?i. Division of cytoplasm/organellesk. What filaments constrict around the cells?i. Actinl. What are the sister chromatid moving towards?i. Centrioles at the poles2. Cell Cycle and Controla. What is checked at the 1st check point? i. If the cell is able to divideb. What is checked at the 2nd check point?i. DNA replication correctly occurredc. How is the cell cycle regulated?i. Phosphorylationd. What types of molecules are associated with intrinsic factors?i. Cylins (cyclically activated kinases), dependent and independent kinasese. What are cyclins?i. Cyclically activated kinases- present at various times in the cyclef. How do CDKs differ from CKIs?i. CDKs are dependent on cyclin, while CKI are independent and act on CDKsg. Explain the significance of p21.i. Inhibits all CDKsh. How are CKIs broken down?i. Ubiquitinationi. What are the 6 extrinsic factors that regulate cell cycle?i. Environment, Serum growth factors, Retinoblastoma, p53, Damage sensors, Senescence j. Give an example of serum growth factors.i. Erythropoietin, PDGF, EGF, NGF, TGF-betak. At what point does p53 stop division?i. G1l. What is cellular senescence?i. Cellular aging, loss of telomeres m. What is the effect of phosphorylation of Rb?i. Inactivates Rb, releasing its ability to stop the cell cycle3. Cell Deatha. Differentiate between necrosis and apoptosis.i. Necrosis is pathological death-wounds/tissue damage; apoptosis is cell suicideb. What induces inflammation in necrosis?i. Influx of macrophages engulfing the debris c. Differentiate between the external and internal signal of apoptosis. i. External: Fas ligand binding to Fas protein. Internal: Cytochrome C from mitochondriad. Where is phosphatidylserine found in an apoptotic cell?i. On the outer leaflet of the cell membranee. Describe the blebs found in an apoptotic cell.i. Membrane bound cellular fragments 4. Clinical Considerationsa. Why is cancer referred to as a multi-step disease?i. Takes more than one assault to cause the onset of cancerb. Explain the effect of human papilloma virus on the genome. i. Inactivates p53 and Rb= stimulating the host to divide, forcing the cell to keep taking the virus with it during the divisions. Produces E6 to bind p53 causing its degradation, produces E7 to bind Rb and prevent its ability to bind to transcription factor E2F-DP.