I.C.S. COLLEGE OF ARTS, COMMERCE AND SCIENCE, KHED

I.C.S. COLLEGE OF ARTS, COMMERCE AND SCIENCE, KHED

BACHELOR OF MANAGEMT STUDIES

T.Y.B.M.S. (SEM VI)

QUESTION BANK

OPERATION RESEARCH

1. Operations Research is a ……………………….. approach to solve problems for

management.

a. Scientific

b. Non-Scientific

c. Holistic

d. logical

2. Operations Research originated in Great Britain during …………….. to bring

mathematical or quantitative approaches to bear on military operations.

a. World War I

b. World War II

c. Civil War

d. Industrial Revolution

3. Operation research analyst do not ………………

a. Predict future operation

b. Build more than one model

c. Collect the relevant data

d. Do not recommend decision

4. The optimization in operation research is to ……………..

a. Maximize

b. Minimize

c. Both a & b

d. Neutralize

5. Operation Research involves …………… attack of complex problems to arrive at

the optimum solution

a. Scientific

b. Systematic

c. Statistical

d. Both A and B

6. Operations Research simply helps in improving the ………..….. of the solution but

does not result in a perfect solution.

a. Quality

b. Clarity

c. Look

d. Quantity

7. Objective of linear programming for an objective function is to …………

a. Maximize or minimize

b. Subset or proper set modelling

c. Row or column modeling

d. Adjacent modelling

8. For a Linear programming equation, convex set of equations is included in region

of ………….

a. Disposed solutions

b. Feasible solutions

c. Profit solutions

d. Loss solution

9. The solution to LPP give below is. Max Z = 30x1 – 15x2 subject to 3x1 + 4x2 ≥ 9

and 5x1 + 3x2 ≥ 10 ; x1, x2 ≥ 0

a. Unbounded Solution

b. Max Z = 14

c. Max Z = 3

d. Infeasible solution

10. In graphical representation the bounded region is known as …………….. region.

a. Solution

b. Feasible solution

c. Basic solution

d. optimal

11. The mathematical model of an LP problem is important because ……………..

a. It helps in converting the verbal description & numerical data into

mathematical expression

b. Decision-makers prefer to work with formal models

c. It captures the relevant relationship among decision factors

d. It enables the use of algebraic technique

12. Which of the following is not characteristic of the LP model?

a. Alternative courses of action

b. An objective function of maximization type

c. Limited amount of resources

d. Non-negativity condition on the value of decision variables

13. The word Linear means that the relationships are represented by …………

a. Diagonal lines

b. Curved lines

c. Straight lines

d. Slanting lines

14. In simplex method, slack, surplus and artificial variables are restricted to be

……………

a. Multiplied

b. Negative

c. Non – Negative

d. Divided

15. In simplex method basic solution set as (n – m), all variables other than basic are

classified as ………………

a. Basic variable

b. Non-Basic variable

c. Constant

d. Non positive

16. In simplex method, feasible basic solution must satisfy the ………………

a. Non – Negativity constraint

b. Negativity constraint

c. Basic constraint

d. Common constraint

17. The tie in replacement ratio indicate the solution is …………….

a. Infeasible

b. Unbounded

c. Alternate

d. Degenerate

18. If there exist an artificial variable in the basis of final simplex table with a positive

value the solution is ……………….

a. Infeasible

b. Unbounded

c. Alternate

d. Degenerate

19. In converting a less-that-or-equal constraint for use in a simplex table, we must

add …………………

a. Slack variable

b. Surplus variable

c. Artificial variable

d. Both A & B

20. In converting a more-than-or-equal constraint for use in a simplex table, we must

subtract ………………..

a. Slack variable

b. Surplus variable

c. Artificial variable

d. Both A & B

21. Condition to solve Assignment problem by Hungarian method is ………………..

a. Unbalanced and minimization

b. Balanced and maximization

c. Minimization and balanced

d. Unbalanced and maximization

22. Opportunity cost matrix is derived by …………………

a. Subtracting all elements from minimum element

b. Adding all elements from minimum element

c. Subtracting all elements from maximum element

d. Adding some elements from minimum element

23. If solution is not optimum, we move to next iteration by considering …………

a. Maximum of uncovered elements

b. Minimum of uncovered elements

c. Minimum of covered elements

d. Maximum of covered elements

24. For maximization in assignment problem, the objective is to maximize the

…………

a. Profit

b. Optimization

c. Cost

d. Time

25. If no. of rows are not equal to number of columns and the Matrix elements are

Profit elements then the problem is ………………………..

a. Balanced and Maximization Transportation Problem

b. Unbalanced and Maximization Transportation Problem

c. Balanced and Maximization Assignment Problem

d. Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment Problem

26. If no. of rows are equal to number of columns and the Matrix elements are Time

elements then the problem is …………………

a. Balanced and maximization Transportation Problem

b. Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment Problem

c. Balanced and Maximization Assignment Problem

d. Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment Problem

27. The purpose of the transportation approach for locational analysis is to minimize

……………………….

a. Total Profit

b. Total shipping costs

c. Total variable costs

d. Total fixed costs

28. The initial solution to a transportation problem can be generated in any manner,

so long as …………………..

a. It minimizes cost

b. It ignores cost

c. All supply and demand are satisfied

d. Degeneracy does not exist

29. In a minimization problem, a negative improvement index (Cell evaluation) in a

cell indicates that the ………………..

a. Total cost will increase if units are reallocated to that cell

b. Total cost will decrease if units are reallocated to that cell

c. Current iteration is worse than the previous one

d. Problem has no feasible solution

30. In a minimization problem, a positive improvement index (Cell evaluation) in cell

indicates that ………………..

a. The solution is optimal

b. The total cost will increase if units are reallocated to that cell

c. The total cost will decrease if units are reallocated to that cell

d. There is degeneracy

31. When the number of shipments in a feasible solution is less than the number of

rows plus the number of columns minus one then ……………

a. The solution is optimal

b. There is degeneracy, and an artificial allocation must be created

c. Dummy source must be created

d. A dummy destination must be created

32. The total cost of the optimal solution to a transportation problem is ………..

a. Cannot be calculated from the information given

b. Can be calculated based only on the entries in the filled cells of the

solution

c. Is calculated by multiplying the total supply (including any dummy values)

by the average cost of the cells

d. Can be calculated based unfilled cells of the solution

33. The critical path refers to …………………

a. Longest path in terms of duration

b. Shortest path in terms of duration

c. Longest path in terms of length

d. Shortest path in terms of length

34. The full form of CPM is ………………

a. Critical Project Method

b. Critical Path Method

c. Critical Path Management

d. Critical Project Management

35. An …………….. is a job or task which will consume time and resource

a. Event

b. Activity

c. Project

d. Time

36. A representation of a project with activities and event in a logical sequence is

known as …………………

a. Event

b. Activity

c. Duration

d. Network diagram

37. In PERT the expected time is …………………….. of optimistic, most likely and

pessimistic duration.

a. Simple average

b. Weighted average

c. Harmonic average

d. Geometric average

38. ………………… use to calculate earliest occurrence of event and ……………….

Is use to calculate latest occurrence of event

a. Forward Pass Method, Backward Pass Method

b. Backward Pass Method, Forward Pass Method

c. Fulkerson rule and Forward Pass Method

d. Fulkerson rule and Backward Pass Method

39. S. M. Johnson’s algorithm derives the minimum completion times for all no passing

cases. No passing means ……………………..

a. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved at

the last facility

b. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved for

the next facility

c. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved

for all subsequent facilities

d. The order of processing jobs though the last facility must be preserved for

the first facility

40. An approach that minimizes the total time for sequencing a group of jobs through

two work centers while minimizing total idle time in the work centers…………

a. Gross Materials Requirement Plan

b. Load Report

c. Lot- for-Lot

d. Johnson’s Rule

41. When a set of jobs must pass through two workstations whose sequence is fixes,

……. Is the rule most commonly applied

a. Johnson’s Rule

b. Earliest Due Date Rule

c. First Come, First Serve Rule

d. Slack Time Remaining

42. Processing time Mij’s are …………………. Of order of processing the jobs

a. Dependent

b. Negligible

c. Independent

d. Interlinked

43. In sequencing I smallest time for a job belongs to machine – 1 then that job has to

placed …………..

a. In the middle

b. In the starting

c. At end

d. Both A & B

44. …………….. operation is carried out on a machine at a time

a. Two

b. At least one

c. Only one

d. At least two

45. Who developed the Game Theory?

a. J. R. Hicks

b. William J. Baumol

c. Neumann Morgenstern

d. Samuelson P. T.

46. What is a Saddle Point?

a. Equilibrium point

b. Balanced Growth point

c. Imbalanced Growth point

d. Unstable Equilibrium point

47. In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as

the…………….

a. Payoff

b. Penalty

c. Reward

d. End-game strategy

48. A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called …………

a. First mover advantage

b. A Nash equilibrium strategy

c. Tit-for-tat

d. A dominant strategy

49. In a zero-sum game

a. What one player wins, the other loses

b. The sum of each players winning if the game is played many times must be

zero

c. The game is fair each person has an equal chance of winning

d. Ong run profits must be zero

50. A common assumption about the players in a game is that ………………

a. Neither player knows the payoff matrix

b. The players have different information about the payoff matrix

c. Only one of the players pursues a rational strategy

d. The specific identity of the players is irrelevant t the play of the game

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MARKETING

INTERNATION MARKETING

1. According to Peter Drucker, what is the basic purpose of business?

a. to make income and profit

b. to create and keep customers

c. to find and serve customers

d. to sell products and services

2. Who in a company is not involved in creating customer value?

a. the procurement department

b. the HR department

c. the finance department

d. procurement, HR, finance department create customer value

3. Complete the missing where’d: Marketing needs to be ___

a. anywhere in the organization

b. ubiquitous throughout the organization

c. representative of the organization

d. universal for the organization

4. Three questions are central to strategy. Which is not one of them?

a. When do we compete?

a. With whom do we need to develop key relationships?

b. Where do we compete?

c. How do we compete?

5. According to the textbook, international marketing is "the multinational process

of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of

ideas, goods, and services to create exchanges that satisfy individual and

organizational objectives." The definition fails to recognize

a. Nonprofit marketing

b. Business-to-business marketing

c. Consumer marketing

d. Integration of the 4 Ps

6. The marketing mix (the 4 Ps of marketing) does not include

a. product

b. place

c. practicality

d. promotion

7. To U.S. students, French marketing is

a. domestic marketing

b. foreign marketing

c. comparative marketing

d. international marketing

8. This kind of international marketing study contrasts two or more marketing

systems to identify similarities and differences.

a. domestic marketing

b. foreign marketing

c. comparative marketing

d. extensive marketing

9. For practical purposes, the difference between the concept of international

marketing and the concept of multinational marketing is

a. significant

b. insignificant

c. meaningful

d. adequate

10. Good marketing is no accident, but a result of careful planning and ________.

a. execution

b. selling

c. strategies

d. research

11. The buying process starts when the buyer recognizes a _________.

a. Product

b. an advertisement for the product

c. a salesperson from a previous visit

d. problem or need

12. A cluster of complementary goods and services across diverse set of industries is

called as _____________

a. Market place

b. Meta market

c. Market space

d. Resource Market

13. What explains the importance of a personal visit to potential markets for

expansion?

a. Management likes to travel.

b. Lobbying with local governments is mandatory.

c. Companies need to deal out contracts with competitors in person.

d. A marketing plan for the foreign market usually requires the co-

operation with a local agent or distributor

14. When the Coca-Cola Company conducted focus groups in Europe and Asia to

assess potential market acceptance of a contoured aluminum soft drink can, it

was attempting to collect ___ data.

a. primary

b. secondary

c. incipient

d. quantitative

15. The literature distinguishes between different objectives for market-entry. Which

is not one of them?

a. efficiency seeking

b. information seeking

c. knowledge seeking

d. market seeking

16. Which of the companies listed below is not operating by Franchising?

a. Marriott International

b. Hertz

c. 7-Eleven

d. H&M

17. The level and nature of education in each international market will __________

a. Vary

b. Same

c. Equal

d. Static

18. UAI stands for _______

a. Universal avoidance index

b. Uncertainty avoidance index

c. Uncertainty applicable index

d. Uncertainty avoidance income

19. The international marketing involves a sound assessment of……………. market

a. International

b. Global

c. Foreign

d. Rural

20. A poorly conceived product often leads to ________ failures

a. Strategy

b. Marketing

c. Research

d. Service

21. __________ is one of the most important product related decision

a. Product elimination

b. Product diversification

c. Product standardization

d. Adaptation strategy

22. Labeling has how many values?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 1

23. Rapid growth that fall away just as quick are called _______

a. Fads

b. Calm

c. Standard

d. Tradition

24. Labeling has …………………..value

a. No

b. Informative and educative

c. Educative

d. Informative

25. The ________ market is the collective system of unauthorized cells channel for

products

a. Rural

b. Urban

c. Gray

d. International

26. When companies have to market abroad they use _________ principal

distribution

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

27. Commission or buying agents are finders of which firms?

a. Foreign

b. National

c. International

d. Global

28. What is feed forward control?

a. Control before strategy

b. Control during the strategy

c. Control after the strategy

d. Control over the strategy

29. Need for international business strategy is ___________

a. Business level strategy

b. Culture of the organization

c. Pest

d. Unique competencies

30. _______ are common forms of trade barrier

a. Geocentric

b. Ethnocentric

c. FTA

d. Tariffs

31. _______ is another form of licensing.

a. Franchising

b. Marketing

c. Internationalization

d. IMF

32. FTA stands for __________

a. Free Trade Agreement

b. Free Trade Association

c. Fixed Trade Agreement

d. Fixed Time Agreement

33. NTB stands for _________

a. National Trade Business

b. Non-Tariff Barrier

c. Non-Tariff Bonus

d. National Trade Book

34. Communism is an __________

a. Political

b. Legal

c. Economic

d. Technological

35. The difference between the two prices is called _________

a. Margin of dumping

b. Anti-dumping

c. Normal value dumping

d. Corresponding dumping

36. Economic union is the ________ of integration

a. Lowest level

b. Highest level

c. Middle level

d. Line level

37. ________ helps estimate market size for business planning

a. HR

b. TR

c. MR

d. PR

38. Democracy is the most uncommon form of ________ around the world

a. Public sector

b. Private sector

c. Government

d. International

39. __________ refers to how comfortable are people with changing the way them

work or live.

a. Uncertainty

b. Certainty

c. Common

d. Communism

40. International marketing involves identifying the _______________ customers all

over the world.

a. Potential customer

b. Active customer

c. Impulsive customer

d. Discount customer

41. ________ is the course that goods take between production and the final

consumer.

a. Distribution

b. Marketing

c. Targeting

d. Planning

42. _______ is defined as any form of paid communication or promotion for product,

service and idea.

a. Promotion

b. Strategy

c. Sales

d. Advertising

43. _______ segmentation based on the different personality traits.

a. Product

b. Labeling

c. Psychographic

d. Companies

44. The ______ environment of foreign markets is different from that of the

domestic.

a. Political and Legal

b. Technological

c. Political

d. Legal

45. IFC standards for ______

a. International Finance Corporation

b. Integration foreign currency

c. Investment Fund Customs

d. International frequent concept

46. Channels of distribution is known as _____ in the 4 P’s model of Marketing.

a. Plan

b. Product

c. Place

d. Ports

47. _______ pricing is the part of cost based pricing.

a. Markup

b. Markdown

c. Loss

d. Discounts

48. One of the special modes of carrying out international business is a _________

project.

a. Wholly

b. Turnkey

c. Fads

d. Important

49. The third type of NTV covers _________ regulation.

a. Multilingual

b. Political

c. Technical

d. Environmental

50. CM stands for __________.

a. Common Market

b. Cultural Market

c. Custom Market

d. Central Market

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RETAIL MANAGEMENT

1. Retail is the...... Stage of any economic activity.

a. first

b. last

c. mid

d. side

2. Marketers see the process of retailing as a necessary part of their overall........

Strategy.

a. distribution

b. production

c. purchasing

d. manufacturing

3. McDonalds is an example of....... Franchise.

a. product

b. manufacturing

c. business format

d. selling

4. ....... Retailers purchase manufacturers ' seconds, overruns or off seasons at a deep

discount.

a. off price

b. catalogue

c. franchisee

d. business format

5. A ....... is a large, self - service retail food store offering groceries, meat as well as

some non - food items, such as health and beauty products and general

merchandise.

a. kiraana store

b. hyper market

c. supermarket

d. books store

6. ....... Stock items, ranging from groceries, hardware, and sports equipment to

furniture and appliance to computers and electronics.

a. kirrana store

b. hypermarket

c. supermarket

d. clothes collection

7. A...... Store stock a particular type of merchandise.

a. convenience

b. specialty

c. department

d. apartment

8. ....... is defined as the exchange of business information, through standard

interfaces, by using computers.

a. Bar coding

b. Electronic label

c. Electronic Data Interchange

d. Mark

9. The....... Has been developed and managed on an international basis enabling

compatibility for imported and exported goods.

a. electronic data interchange

b. European Article Number

c. bar code

d. electronic label

10. .......is fast transforming the way business is being conducted and monitored

across the supply chain.

a. Radio Frequency Identification

b. Electronic label

c. Electronic surveillance

d. Electronic data interchange

11. Radio frequency identification was invented in 1948 by........

a. Henry fayol

b. Harry German

c. Harry Stockman

d. McDonald

12. The........ Owns the trademark /product /service and license the trademark to

another party.

a. franchisor

b. franchisee

c. franchise

d. manufacturer

13. ......has identified various elements that go into the composition of a value chain.

a. Philip Kotler

b. Michael Porter

c. Darwin

d. Harry stockman

14. A....... is a group of customers who are bound together by their loyalty to a

retailer and the activities in which the retailer engages.

a. Focus group

b. Frequent shopper

c. Retail brand community

d. Manager

15. ...... is a clear and definite plan outlined by the retailer to tap the market.

a. Retail Strategy

b. Diversification

c. Retail format

d. Market strategy

16. The.... Provides a clear sense of direction for the organization and distinguishes

the firm from all others.

a. mission statement

b. brand equity

c. penetration

d. focus group

17. The...... Define a series of action that enable businesses to sell their products to

customers.

a. retail value chain

b. retail format

c. brand value

d. store value

18. ........ Include the activities associated with receiving, storing and discriminating

inputs to the product.

a. Inbound logistics

b. Outbound logistics

c. Operations

d. Human resources

19. ...... Include the activities associated with collecting, storing and physically

distributing the product to buyers.

a. Inbound logistics

b. Outbound logistics

c. Operations

d. Human resources

20. Shopping mall is an example of....... Location.

a. free standing

b. destination

c. traditional

d. modern

21. ........ are small selling spaces, typically located in the walkways of enclosed

malls, airport, college campuses, or office building lobbies.

a. Merchandise kiosks

b. Free standing

c. Shopping centres

d. Kiraana shops

22. A....... Is a group of retail and other commercial establishment that are planned,

developed, owned and managed as a single property.

a. shopping Centre

b. merchandise kiosks

c. free standing location

d. malls

23. .......is the process by which a retailer attempts to offer the right quantity of the

right merchandise in the right place at the right time and meet the company's

financial goals.

a. Merchandise management

b. Procurement

c. Distribution

d. Purchasing

24. A.......is the smallest unit available for inventory control.

a. assortment

b. category

c. stock keeping unit

d. production unit

25. Merchandise that has high demand for a relatively short period of time is referred

to as.........

a. staple merchandise

b. fad merchandise

c. fashion merchandise

d. free standing

26. .......enjoy popularity for a limited period of time and usually generate a high

level of sales for a short time.

a. Fads

b. Staples

c. Necessities

d. Fashion

27. ......is the combination of all products made available in a store and a set of

products offered within a product category.

a. Merchandise

b. SKU

c. Assortment

d. Category

28. The.......gives the precise items and quantities that need to be purchased for each

merchandise line.

a. model stock plan

b. category

c. assortment

d. merchandise

29. ........ brands target price sensitive segment by offering no-frills product at a

discount price.

a. Generic

b. Copy cat

c. Premium

d. Assortment

30. ........go from one store to another, buying only items that are on special discount.

a. Cherry pickers

b. Pizza

c. Burger

d. Mango pickers

31. After determining the money available for buying, a decision needs to be taken

on what to buy and in what quantity this result in the creation of a......

a. Model stock plan

b. Range pan

c. Category management

d. Merchandise category

32. The first step in the process of sourcing is to.........

a. Analyzing vendor performance

b. Identifying the sources of supply

c. Evaluating the sources of supply

d. Establishing vendor relation

33. ........ Process is as important as the merchandise purchasing process.

a. Merchandise holding

b. Buying function

c. Buying cycle

d. Retail operation

34. Advertising agency........ developed a model of brand equity called Brand Asset

Valuator.

a. Phillips Kotler

b. Michael Porter

c. Young and Rubicam

d. Darwin

35. ....... and relevance combine to determine brand strength.

a. Esteem

b. Brand equity

c. Knowledge

d. Differentiation

36. Private label brands also called......

a. House brands

b. Brand value

c. Brand stature

d. Brand vitality

37. ...........strategies adopted by the retailer can be cost oriented, demand oriented or

competition oriented pricing.

a. Cost

b. Demand

c. Pricing

d. Competition

38. Retailers using a.........pricing strategy frequently often weekly discount the

initial prices for merchandise through sales promotion.

a. everyday low

b. single/multiple

c. odd/anchor

d. high /low

39. Buyers employ....... to promote merchandise and increase sales.

a. coupons

b. promotional markdowns

c. price bundling

d. multiple unit pricing

40. Retailers often charge different prices to different demographic market segments,

a practice referred to as

a. third degree price discrimination

b. self-selected variable pricing

c. second degree price discrimination

d. individualized variable pricing

41. ........ is opposite of market skimming.

a. Penetration pricing

b. Leader pricing

c. Market skimming pricing

d. Everyday low pricing

42. ...... is a place where customers develop perception, about product, service the

retailer and his staff and so on.

a. Retail store

b. Store design

c. Visual merchandising

d. Mall management

43. The responsibility of store manager are.

a. store operations

b. merchandising

c. holding inventory

d. Supply of information

44. The 5 s' of retail operations was a model presented by pal and Byrom, depicted

by........ Diagram.

a. tree diagram

b. human skeleton

c. pie chart

d. fish bone

45. The........ has parallel aisles with merchandise on shelves on both sides of the

aisles.

a. grid layout

b. race track

c. free form

d. plant layout

46. .......is the presentation of a store and its merchandise in ways that will attract the

attention of potential customers.

a. Impulse goods

b. Visual merchandising

c. Shopping product

d. Specialty goods.

47. ........ Suggests that visual merchanding is one of the visible elements of

positioning strategy.

a. Mc Goldrick

b. Harry stockman

c. Harry German

d. Philip Kotler

48. ......... Includes sign whose visual content is delivered digitally through a

centrally managed and controlled network, distributed to servers in stores, and

displayed on a flat panel screen.

a. Promotional signage

b. Category signage

c. Digital signage

d. Point of sale signage

49. Promotional events that help promote brands are an essential part of.......

a. finance management

b. facility management

c. traffic management

d. mall management

50. .......is the cost effective.

a. Race track

b. Grid layout

c. Freeform

d. Plant layout

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BRAND MANAGEMENT

1. Whisper, Visa, Tropicana, Surf, Limca, Crush, Denim is examples of

a. Descriptive Brand Name

b. Suggestive brand name

c. Free Standing brand name

d. example of product

2. Vaseline- petroleum jelly sold as lip salve and moisturizer, is an example of

a. Benefit related positioning

b. Positioning by usage occasion and time of use

c. Category related positioning

d. Price Quality positioning

3. “Jod jo tootega nahin” tagline is related with brand……

a. M-Seal

b. Fevikwik

c. Fevicol

d. Ambuja cement

4. Lifebuoy – kills the germs you cannot see, is an example of

a. Emotional benefit related to positioning

b. Functional benefit related positioning

c. Usage occasion related to positioning

d. Health-related positioning

5. Which is not an example of Positioning by usage occasion and time of use?

a. Listerine – night time rinse

b. Nescafe – Great start to the morning

c. NIIT (Inspired……life begins at NIIT)

d. Domino’s (When families are having fun)

6. Plant to make an emotional relationship among product firm and their clients and

constituent are

a. Brand name

b. Brand management

c. Brand image

d. Brand culture

7. Sales advertisement target at as customer are called

a. Attract to Seller

b. Attract to Buyer

c. Consumer sales promotions

d. Trade sales option

8. Services acquired from other state is related to

a. Dumping

b. Bribes

c. Outsourcing

d. Exchanging policy

9. Charge dissembling prices in diverse markets for same product is

a. Marketing mix

b. Psychographic factor

c. Prices discrimination

d. Prices skimming

10. Brand equity related to worth of a

a. Consumer

b. Brand

c. Franchise

d. Buyer

11. Advantages of having diverse brand consist of each of following except

a. Quickly responds to retailers

b. Effective compete in market

c. Save actual brand image

d. Fill all gaps In market

12. Formed by management for customer and for firm through brand is

a. Prices

b. Value

c. Cost

d. Rate

13. A product which uses name of vendor or store where it

a. Co- brand

b. Manufacturer brand

c. Private brand

d. Multi brand

14. Lots of brand names for areas and landmark like cisco and fuji film are case of

brand name category which is

a. Evocative

b. Geography

c. Descriptive

d. Initialize

15. 4p’s are sometime called as the

a. Product life cycle

b. Marketing mix

c. Prices discrimination

d. Parallel mix

16. Ask quote is for

a. Buyer

b. Seller

c. Hedger

d. Speculators

17. A strong brand commands

a. Intense consumer loyalty

b. Intense employer loyalty

c. Intense employee loyalty

d. Instances supplier loyalty

18. "Worldwide Leader in Sports" is the tagline of

a. Star Sports

b. Ten Sports

c. ESPN

d. Sony live

19. …………………refers to a brands objective (functional) attributes in relation to

other brands.

a. Brand position

b. Product relation

c. Brand relationship

d. productivity

20. In strategic brand management, focus is on

a. Brand positioning

b. Brand marketing

c. Brand performance

d. brand strategically work

21. Close up, Doordarshan, Frooti, Babool, Fair and Lovely, Band-aid and Ujala are

the examples of………..

a. Descriptive Brand Name

b. Suggestive brand name

c. Free Standing brand name

d. company

22. Which of the following statement is true?

a. Branding not helps to organize inventory

b. Branding not helps in getting a competitive advantage

c. Brand signals a certain level of quality

d. Brand is human attraction

23. Watches sold as a Jeweler is related to

a. Titan Raga

b. Tanishq

c. Swatch

d. Gold Plus

24. Marketers can apply a branding on

a. Physical good

b. A service

c. A store and organization

d. Tangible and intangible goods and services

26. _________ is the first tourist board in India to register its brands.

a. Kerala tourism

b. Madhya Pradesh Tourism

c. Gujarat Tourism

d. MSRTC

27. Kadak, Xerox, Exxon, Fidji are examples of

a. Products

b. Descriptive Brand Name

c. Suggestive brand name

d. Free standing brand name

28. ___________is the added value endowed on services and products.

a. Brand value

b. Brand strategy

c. Brand equity

d. None of the above

29. There are __________ key elements of customer-based brand equity.

a. Four

b. Five

c. Three

d. Two

30 . Brand equity is a result of

a. Similarity in consumer response

b. Differences in consumer response

c. Similarity in seller response

d. Differences in seller response

31. Differences in response are a result of

a. Consumers loyalty

b. Consumers liking

c. Consumer disliking

d. Consumer knowledge

32. Differential response by consumers resulting in brand equity can be seen in

a. Perceptions

b. Preferences

c. Behavior

d. Attitude

33. What is more important in brand equity?

a. Quality

b. Quantity

c. Customer perception

d. Brand value

34. A ____________ can be defined as the marketers vision of brand and what is

should do for consumers.

a. Brand exploration

b. Brand promise

c. Brand creation

d. brand management

35. In Brand Asset Valuator model, there are _______ components of brand equity.

a. Four

b. Five

c. Three

d. Two

36. In Brand Asset Valuator model, _____________ measures the degree to which a

brand is perceived from others.

a. Promotion

b. Relevance

c. Energy

d. Differentiation

37. In Brand Asset Valuator model, ________measures the brand's sense of

momentum.

a. Promotion

b. Relevance

c. Energy

d. Differentiation

38. In Brand Asset Valuator model, ___________ measures the breadth of a brand's

appeal.

a. Promotion

b. Relevance

c. Energy

d. Differentiation

39. .………………….can be thought of as a perceptual map of in which like

products of the same company (say, toothpaste) are positioned very close to one

another and compete more with one another than with brands of other

companies.

a. Brand Comparison

b. Cannibalization

c. Positioning

d. Brand Associations

40. In Brand Asset Valuator Model, __________measures how well the brand is

respected and regarded.

a. Promotion

b. Relevance

c. Energy

d. Differentiation

41. In Brand asset valuator model, _____________ measures how intimate and

familiar consumers are with the brand.

a. Promotion

b. Relevance

c. Energy

d. Knowledge

42. In Brand Asset valuator model, Energized brand strength is formed of

a. Differentiation, energy and relevance

b. Esteem and knowledge

c. Differentiation and knowledge


43. In Brand Asset valuator model, Brand stature is formed of

a. Energy and relevance

b. Esteem and knowledge

c. Energy and knowledge

d. Esteem and relevance

44. In Brand Asset Valuator model, Brand stature represents

a. Past performance

b. Present strength

c. Future value


45. As per Brand Asset Valuator Model, strong new brands show

a. Higher levels of differentiation

b. Lower levels of differentiation

c. Higher esteem

d. All of above are false

46. …………………..includes two visual signals of a brand – its character (e.g.

Amul girl, Pillsbury doughboy) and its logo. Both are elements of brand

identity.

a. Brand attitude

b. Brand symbol

c. Brand image

d. Brand Positioning

47. As per Brand Asset Valuator Model, leadership brands show

a. High levels on all dimensions

b. Low level on all dimensions

c. High at esteem and knowledge

d. Medium level on all dimensions

48. In Brand Asset Valuator Model, declining brands show

a. High knowledge

b. High energy

c. High level of differentiation

d. Low energy

49. As per BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building sequential steps are

a. Relevance, Presence, Performance, Advantage, Bonding

b. Presence, Relevance, Performance, Advantage, Bonding

c. Bonding, Advantage, Performance, Relevance, Presence

d. Performances, advantage, relevance’s, bonding presence

50. As per AAKER Model, brand management commences with developing

a. Brand identity

b. Brand awareness

c. Brand equity

d. Brand quality

51. …………………includes all that is linked up in memory about the brand. It

could be specific to attributes, features, benefits or looks of the brand.

a. Brand attitude

b. Brand Associations


d. Brand image

52. The _________ emphasizes the duality of brands.

a. Brand resonance model

b. AAKER Model

c. Brand asset valuator model

d. BRANDZ Model

53. Master is an example of

a. Brand resonance model

b. AAKER Model

c. Brand asset valuator model

d. BRANDZ Model

54. _____ can be explained as how easily and how often customers think of brand

under several consumption or purchase situations.

a. Brand salience

b. Brand performance

c. Brand Judgments

d. Brand Imagery

55. ___________ is how well the service or products fulfill customers functional

needs.

a. Brand salience


c. Brand Judgments

d. Brand Imagery

56. …………………includes two aspects of a brand – its associations and its

personality.

a. Brand attitude

b. Brand positioning


d. Brand image

57. _____________ explains the intrinsic properties of the service or product.

a. Brand salience


c. Brand Judgments

d. Brand Imagery

58. _________ lays emphasis on customers own personal evaluations and opinions.

a. Brand salience


c. Brand Judgments

d. Brand Imagery

59. _____________ can be stated as customers' emotional reactions and responses

with respect to the brand.

a. Brand salience


c. Brand feelings

d. Brand Imagery

60. …………defines what the brand thinks about the consumer, as per the

consumer.

a. Brand position

b. Brand attitude


d. Brand image

61. __________indicates the nature of the relationship customers share with the

brand and the limit to which they are in sync with.

a. Brand salience


c. Brand feelings

d. Brand Imagery

@@@@@

MEDIA PLANNING AND

MANAGEMENT

1. The word Media came from the Latin word……….

a. Middle

b. Media

c. Medium

d. Mediator

2. A consumer must plan to act in the desired manner is also known as …………

a. Attention

b. Intention

c. Behaviour

d. Attraction

3. ………….. Research will tell you about your target audience’s local media habits.

a. Qualitative

b. Quantitative

c. Descriptive

d. Subjective

4. ………….. indicates a percentage of target audience who is exposed at least once

in a given period to a particular media vehicle.

a. Reach

b. Frequency

c. Market Coverage

d. Target Market

5. Message weight is expressed in terms of gross impressions or ………… rating

points

a. Gross

b. Net

c. Operational

d. Optional

6. (TRPs) are available in India calculated on the basis of the ……….. method.

a. Panel

b. Polling

c. Opinion

d. Optional

7. ……………… advertising is a type of online advertising that comes in several

forms including banner ads, rich media and more.

a. Display

b. Indoor

c. Outdoor

d. Primary

8. Currently ads are regulated by a non-statutory body ………

a. Advertising Standards Council of India.

b. Advertising Service Council of India.

c. Advertising Standard Corporation of India.

d. Advertising Service Corporation of India

9. The …………. Measures the sales strength of brand in a particular area

a. Brand Development Index

b. Broad Development Index

c. Brand Developed Index

d. Broad Developed Index

10. Media Strategy is based upon market ……………….

a. Coverage

b. Persuasion

c. Interaction

d. Target Area

11. ……….Target are those who have the power to affect the changes the campaign

calls for.

a. Primary

b. Secondary

c. Tertiary

d. Research

12. The cost factor becomes a matter of the relative cost of the individual media, in

case of newspapers, this relationship is determined as per ………. Per column.

a. Centimetre

b. Metre

c. Word

d. Line

13. Frequency is defined as?

a. All possible exposures to a target audience

b. The number of times a reader is exposed to a message

c. Three exposures to the target audience

d. The total number of duplicated exposures

14. ……… refers to specific methods of media used by companies to deliver

advertising messages to targeted customers.

a. Media Vehicle

b. Media Mix

c. Media Methodology

d. Media Strategy

15. …………... is the ability to aim a radio or TV program or programming at a

specific, limited audience or consumer market.

a. Narrow casting

b. Media concentration

c. Media Mix

d. Media Methodology

16. A…………. is a publication that mostly covers one main topic.

a. Newsletter

b. Newspaper

c. Magazine

d. Media

17. Television has been used as an advertising medium nearly since the day the

device was introduced at the New York World’s Fair in ……….

a. 1939

b. 1940

c. 1942

d. 1945

18. Cable Television Amendment Bill ……….. mandates digitization of TV

broadcasts pan India 2014.

a. 2011

b. 2012

c. 2013

d. 2014

19. ………….. is the use of a remote control device (RCD) to avoid commercials by

switching to another channel.

a. Planning

b. Zipping

c. Forwarding

d. Zapping

20. In the year 1957, All India Radio was renamed ……………., which is

controlled by the Ministry of information and Broadcasting.

a. Doordarshan

b. Dhwani

c. Akashvani

d. Television

21. In …………. Advertising messages are proved either with or without the

consent of the mobile owner.

a. Pull

b. Broad

c. Push

d. Narrow

22. A…………….. is an estimation of a company’s promotional expenditures over a

period of time.

a. Media Planning

b. Media Buying

c. Media Budget

d. Media Scheduling

23. ………… method is a ‘let’s not rock the boat’, or, ‘If something’s going well,

why fix it’ way of setting budgets.

a. Status Quo

b. Inflation adjusted

c. Case Rate

d. Forwarding

24. ………… method is slightly modified version of the ‘status-quo’ method.

a. Media Budget

b. Inflation Adjusted

c. Case rate to advertising

d. Media Planning

25. ………… method is identical to the A-S method expect that the budgeting is

linked to the number of cases or units sold, and not to sales revenue.

a. Media Budget

b. Inflation Adjusted

c. Case rate to advertising

d. Media Planning

26. ………… is the process of strategizing, negotiating, and purchasing ad

placements, or “inventory”.

a. Media budgeting

b. Media buying

c. Media planning and buying

d. Media scheduling

27. …………. refers to the pattern of timing of an advertising which is represented

as plots on a flowchart on a yearly basis.

a. Media buying

b. Media planning and buying

c. Media Scheduling

d. Media Strategy

28. ……………. scheduling involves advertising the message evenly throughout a

given period.

a. Pulsing

b. Fighting

c. Continuity

d. Concentrated advertising

29. ……………… scheduling involves giving all the advertisement in a single

period.

a. Pulsing

b. Fighting

c. Continuity


30. …………… scheduling involves giving advertisement at specific intervals.

Company advertises for some period, followed by break of no advertisement,

followed by the second flight of advertisement and likewise.

a. Pulsing

b. Fighting advertising

c. Continuity


31. …………… scheduling is the combination of both continuous and fighting

advertisements. It includes continuous advertising at low-weight level,

reinforced periodically by waves of heavier activity.

a. Pulsing advertising

b. Fighting advertising

c. Continuity


32. …………… is a count up of all the people of the total base or defined Target

Grass (TG) who are actually exposed to or ‘reached’ by communication used.

a. Reach

b. Frequency

c. Cumulative reach

d. Cumulative frequency

33. …………. number of unduplicated individuals or households reached by (or

exposed to) an advertising medium (broadcast or print) over a particular period.

a. Reach

b. Frequency

c. Cumulative reach

d. Cumulative frequency

34. …………… is the average number of exposures amongst those who have been

reached or, in other terms, have seen the ad at least once. Therefore it can be in

decimals as it is a derived number.

a. AOTS

b. AIR

c. Circulation

d. TRP

35. In the ……………… , a diary with quarter hour times slots across the rows, and

channels across the columns is given to a panel.

a. peoplemeter

b. dairy system

c. stickiness index

d. AIR

36. The …………… comprises of two units-a remote to register the viewer details,

and a channel monitoring device attached to the TV which records the channel

being watched.

a. peoplemeter

b. dairy system

c. stickiness index

d. AIR

37. A measure called …………….. actually helps look beyond the TRP it looks at

the quality of viewing.

a. stickiness index

b. Circulation

c. AIR

d. AOTS

38. …………… is the average number of copies of a publication that are sold. Print

order is the number of copies of a publication that are printed.

a. AIR

b. Circulation

c. Stickiness index

d. AOTS

39. …………… is defined as the number of people who have read or looked at the

publication in the time span equal to the periodicity of the publication.

a. AIR

b. Total readers

c. Solus readers

d. Group readers

40. ……………. are readers of a publication who read only that publication with

dedication and none other of the same frequency.

a. Total or Claimed Readers

b. Sole or Solus Readers

c. No Readers

d. Group Readers

41. ……………. Is used to get a sense of media weights in a competitive context. It

is the share of GRP’s for a brand within a particular product category or

competitive set.

a. GRP

b. SOV

c. GI

d. TRP

42. …………….. is standard measure in advertising, it measures advertising

impact.

a. GRP

b. SOV

c. GI

d. TRP

43. The media plan is the guide for ………………….

a. Media Selection

b. Media Strategy

c. Media Scheduling

d. Media Weights

44. …………… is a integral part of media planning

a. Target Market

b. Local Market

c. Global Market

d. Media

45. A Combination of Media types is known as the ………………

a. Media Selection

b. Media Strategy

c. Media Planning

d. Media Mix

46. The audience can be differentiated into different ………………

a. Target Audience

b. Primary Audience

c. Secondary Audience

d. Audience Segments.

47. Which of the following would not be involved in setting media objectives?

a. Target Audience

b. Reach

c. Low involvement purchase decision

d. Frequency

48. Which of the following is not a valid statement?

a. The media environment has become fiercely competitive

b. Independent media buying services specialize in media planning

c. Media planning is less important than creative

d. It is necessary to plan for out-of-home media

49. All Media Objective should be based on …………………

a. Media Planning

b. Research

c. Media Scheduling

d. Media Strategy

50. Good objectives should be quantifiable and usually use the verb tense “……”

a. to be

b. to the

c. to work

d. to do

@@@@@

FINANCE

PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1. Private sector makes investment in

a. BOT Project

b. BOO Project

c. LROT Project

d. EPC Contract

2. PERT was established as planning tool in

a. 1960s

b. 1970s

c. 1980s

d. 1990s

3. Project type of organizational was used by the company

a. Bechtel

b. Del

c. US Navy

d. Remigtion Rand

4. Project Management was established as a profession by project management

associations in

a. America

b. Canada

c. England

d. London

5. In functional type of structure decisions are

a. Delayed

b. Prompt

c. Wise

d. Unwise

6. Matrix type of structure is

a. Flexible

b. Rigid

c. Temporary

d. Permanent

7. In matrix structure there is a violation of

a. Unity of command

b. Discipline

c. Authority

d. Span of control

8. Training requirement is a

a. Financial Factor

b. HR Factor

c. Marketing Factor

d. Administrative Factor

9. The method which uses accrual accounting

a. Payback

b. ARR

c. NPV

d. IRR

10. The method which does not consider investment profitability is

a. Payback

b. ARR

c. NPV

d. IRR

11. The most reliable method of financing capital budget decisions

a. NPV

b. ARR

c. Payback

d. Post audit method

12. PV of cash inflow of a project is ₹2,38,000 and investment is ₹2,00,000. The PI

is

a. 1.19

b. 1.20

c. 1.21

d. 1.40

13. Following is not applicable to project planning

a. It does not facilitates scheduling

b. It minimizes risk

c. It facilitates controlling

d. It facilitates coordination

14. Following is not applicable as function of project planning

a. It does not define the work

b. It provides a means of communication

c. It improves efficiency of operation

d. It coordinates the activities involved in project

15. Project is implemented at

a. Initiation phase

b. Development phase

c. Construction phase

d. Handover phase

16. Personality conflict arises at

a. Project formation

b. Programme phase

c. During the main programme

d. At all the stages

17. Following is not true about feasibility study

a. It does not come out with overall outcome of the project proposal

b. It estimates cost

c. It analyses cash flow profile

d. It assesses impact of the project

18. Technological resources are examined by

a. Economic feasibility

b. Technical feasibility

c. Legal feasibility

d. Operational feasibility

19. Cultural implications of the project are examined by

a. Economic feasibility

b. Cultural feasibility

c. Technical feasibility

d. Marketing feasibility

20. All the aspects of the project are examined in

a. Comprehensive feasibility

b. Technical feasibility

c. Marketing feasibility

d. Legal feasibility

21. Market trend is decided by

a. Customer analysis

b. Product Description

c. Manpower Analysis

d. Technical Analysis

22. Following is not a product mix

a. Mix of debt and equity

b. Expansion of products

c. Development of new uses of products

d. Addition of new prestigious product

23. Technology choice is affected by

a. Plant capacity

b. Sources of material

c. Customer type

d. Investments cost

24. Capacity decisions are affected by

a. Technological requirements

b. Utilities

c. Manpower

d. Customer type

25. Strategic decisions are taken by

a. Senior management

b. Middle management

c. Lower management

d. Shop floor Employees

26. Operational decisions are taken by

a. Jr. Manager

b. Sr. Manager

c. M.D.

d. Shop floor employees

27. Purchase of right quantity of material is the objective of

a. Production Management

b. Material Management

c. H.R. Management

d. Marketing Management

28. Following is not the benefit of material management

a. Ensures effective manpower management

b. Reduces cost

c. Avoids loss of labour

d. Prompt delivery of material

29. The objective of work study is

a. To analyze the method of doing the job

b. To recruit the right people

c. To purchase right machinery

d. To train people

30. The security on which the rate of dividend is not fixed is

a. Equity Shares

b. Preferences Shares

c. Debentures

d. Public Deposits

31. The security which is last claimant is

a. Equity Shares

b. Preference Shares

c. Debentures

d. Public deposit

32. Capital expenditure budget is

a. A budget for long term investment

b. A budget for short term investment

c. A budget for future expenditure

d. A budget for personal expenditure

33. The budget which helps to control plan and control cash is

a. Production budget

b. Cash budget

c. Sales budget

d. Flexible budget

34. The budget which is dynamic is

a. Fixed Budget

b. Flexible Budget

c. Cash Budget

d. Sales Budget

35. The budget which covers all the functional budget is

a. Master Budget

b. Sales Budget

c. Production Budget

d. Cost Budget

36. Production Cost budget shows

a. Budgeted costs of production

b. Budgeted costs of sales

c. Budgeted purchases

d. Budgeted Capacity

37. High Gearing will increase

a. Financial Risk

b. Business Risk

c. Cost of Final

d. Shareholders equity

38. A high geared company exposes to

a. Business Risk

b. Financial Risk

c. Inflation Risk

d. Interest Rate Risk

39. Interest on debentures ₹4,00,000 preference dividend ₹2,00,000 Tax rate is 4% if

EBIT is 15,00,000 the financial leverage is

a. 1.75

b. 2.88

c. 1.96

d. 3.75

40. Financial Leverage is

a. EBIT/EBT

b. EBT/EBIT

c. C/EBT

d. C/EBIT

41. Operating leverage is 1.26 and financial leverage is 1.02 the combined leverage

is

a. 2.9 %

b. 1.29%

c. 3.29%

d. 4.50%

42. The source of capital use to get financial leverage is

a. Debentures

b. Equity Capital

c. Debt capital

d. Short term loans

43. Effective use of leverage reduces the overall cost of

a. Capital

b. Money

c. Production

d. Sales

44. Financial Leverage implies application of debt capital for maximizing

a. EBIT

b. PBT

c. Debt

d. EPS

45. Leverage help in

a. Long term loans

b. Designing capital structure

c. Raising short term loans

d. Raising medium term loans

46. Leverage analyses relation between

a. Equity and debt

b. Debentures and loans

c. Financial and operating leverage

d. Short term loan and equity

47. Favourable D.FL should be

a. More than 1

b. Equal to 1

c. Equal to 0

d. Less than 1

48. Operating leverage is used to measure

a. Financial Risk

b. Business Risk

c. Market Risk

d. Economic risk

49. The limitation operating leverage is

a. Higher Risk

b. Profitability

c. Liquidity

d. cost effective

50. The leverage having combined effect on financial and operating leverage is

a. Capital Gearing

b. Financial Leverage

c. Operating Leverage

d. Combined Leverage

@@@@@

STRATEGIC FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT

1. Part of income distributed to shareholders

a. Profit

b. Loss

c. Dividend

d. Retained Profit

2. Dividends are payments which are

a. Voluntary

b. Non obligatory

c. Obligatory

d. Occasional

3. The irrelevance theory of dividend supported by

a. Walter

b. MM

c. Gordon

d. Fayol

4. The relevance theory of dividend was supported by

a. Walter

b. MM

c. Gordon

d. Walter and Gordon

5. The most common form of Dividend Payment is

a. Stock Dividend

b. Cash Dividend

c. Stock split

d. Bonus issue

6. Constant Payout Ratio means

a. Stable Dividend Policy

b. Long term dividend Policy

c. Regular Dividend Policy

d. Irregular Dividend Policy

7. XBRL stands for

a. Extra business regulations Ltd.

b. Excursive Business reporting law

c. Extra Ordinary business reporting language

d. Extensible business reporting language

8. The First Taxonomy for financial reporting was released on

a. 30th June 2003

b. 31st July 2000

c. 26th January 2003

d. 15th August 2009

9. The institute of authorizing to develop XBRL + agronomies in India is

a. ICAI

b. MCA

c. SEBI

d. IDRA

10. XBRL taxonomy for commercial and industrial undertaking developed by ICAI

are adopted by

a. Ministry of Finance

b. SBI

c. RBI

d. M.C.A.

11. XBRL India is formed as one of the following

a. Registered company

b. Government Corporation

c. Trust

d. Partnership with XBRL international

12. EVA concept is postulated by

a. Stewart

b. Stern

c. Terry

d. Stern Stewart & Co.

13. EVA is a corporate surplus which is shared by

a. Employee and management

b. Employee and Shareholders

c. Shareholders only

d. Employees , Management.

14. Net Profit for calculation of EVA is

a. NPAT

b. NPBT

c. NOPAT

d. NOP

15. Amalgamation is governed by

a. AS 14

b. AS 3

c. AS 21

d. AS 32

16. In Amalgamation all the assets and liabilities of the transferor company are

pooled into the books of transferee company at

a. Market Value

b. Book Value

c. Fair Value

d. Realizable Value

17. Discounted bills are shown under

a. Advances

b. Loans

c. Current Assets

d. Other Assets

18. The % of provisions required on standard asset

a. 40 %

b. 40%

c. 60%

d. 100%

19. The % of Provisions required on sub standard asset on secured portion is

a. 15 %

b. 12 %

c. 10 %

d. 5 %

20. The % provisions on unsecured portion of sub standard asset is

a. 25 %

b. 15 %

c. 100 %

d. 75 %

21. The % of provision on unsecured portion of doubtful asset is

a. 125 %

b. 100 %

c. 75 %

d. 25 %

22. The % of provision on doubtful asset up to 1 year is

a. 25 %

b. 30 %

c. 5 %

d. 40 %

23. The % of provision on doubtful asset exceeding 1 year but not exceeding 3 years

is

a. 10 %

b. 25 %

c. 40 %

d. 45 %

24. The % of provision on doubtful asset exceeding 3 years is

a. 25 %

b. 100 %

c. 50 %

d. 30 %

25. The % of provisions on loss asset is

a. 30 %

b. 50 %

c. 75 %

d. 100 %

26. Bills purchased and discounted is treated as NPA when they remain unpaid for

more than

a. 40 days

b. 90 days

c. 45 days

d. 25 days

27. Cash Credit and overdraft is considered as NPA when it remains out of order for

more than

a. 90 days

b. 30 days

c. 60 days

d. 45 days

28. MPBF refers to

a. Maximum Permissible Bank Finance

b. Minimum Permissible Bank Finance

c. Bank Overdraft

d. Cash Credit

29. Public Deposits are accepted for a maximum of

a. 2 years

b. 3 years

c. 5 years

d. 1 year

30. Interest on debenture is

a. Paid out of income

b. Paid out of profit

c. Paid out of debentures

d. Paid out of loans

31. Guidelines for issue of bonus shares are issued by

a. SEBI

b. RBI

c. Income Tax act

d. Company law

32. Constant payout ratio means

a. Stable dividend policy

b. Regular dividend policy

c. Irregular dividend policy

d. Long term dividend policy

33. Dividend is payable to

a. Shareholders

b. Creditors

c. Stock holders

d. Managers

34. Ploughing back of profit means

a. Declaration of Dividend

b. Retaining Profits

c. Re investing Profits

d. Building Reserves

35. The models known as birds in the hand argument

a. Gordon’s Model

b. Walter’s Model

c. Fayol Model

d. Henry Model

36. The factor not considered for determination of dividend policy is

a. Liquidity

b. Consistently of earning

c. Government Policies

d. GDP of the country

37. The approvable to dividend policy are

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

38. The profit which is distributed as dividend is known as

a. Isolating Profit

b. Divisible Profit

c. Net Profit

d. Gross Profit

39. Payment of Fixed Dividend is known as

a. Constant Payout

b. Fluctuating Dividend

c. Cash Dividend

d. Stock Dividend

40. The policy in which less dividend is paid is

a. Liberal dividend policy

b. Conservative Dividend Policy

c. Stable Dividend Policy

d. Fluctuating dividend policy

41. Dividend which is declared before declaration of final dividend is called as

a. Final Dividend

b. Interims Dividend

c. Advoc Dividend

d. Temporary Dividend

42. Relationship Between Dividend per share and earning per share is known as

a. Dividend Payout

b. Dividend Yield

c. Dividend Per share

d. E.P.S

43. Provision of Standard Asset in respect of advances to commercial real estate

sector is

a. 1 %

b. 15 %

c. 10 %

d. 40 %

44. Provision for sub standard asset is respect of unsecured infrastructure loan A/c

where ESCROW A/c is available is

a. 15 %

b. 20 %

c. 15 %

d. 1 %

45. Term Loan becomes NPA when interest/ principle remains over due for a period

of more than

a. 90 days

b. 180 days

c. 30 days

d. 45 days

46. Bills purchased as discounted becomes NPA when it is remain unpaid for a

period more than

a. 50 days

b. 130 days

c. 90 days

d. 120 days

47. Banks in India have to achieve CA ratio of

a. 9 %

b. 15 %

c. 5 %

d. 10 %

48. Cash in Hand is an asset carrying % risk

a. 10 %

b. 0 %

c. 100 %

d. 50 %

49. Claims on Banks other than RBI carries % risk

a. 20 %

b. 30 %

c. 90 %

d. 100 %

50. Loans up to ₹1,00,000 against gold and silver ornaments carry risk

a. 50 %

b. 10 %

c. 100 %

d. 20 %

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INNOVATIVE FINANCIAL SERVICES

1. The term ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refers financial investment in a highly risky and

growth oriented venture with the objective of earning a high rate of

return.

a. Venture capital

b. Merchant banking

c. Leasing

d. banking.

2. V C Fs of specialized financial institution promoted by ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.

a. Central government

b. RBI

c. State government

d. Merchant banking.

3. Write the example of V C Fs of state financial institution.

a. K S I D C

b. T D I C I

c. C V C F

d. ICICI.

4. Which of the following is a V C F promoted by

specialized financial institution.

a. Indus venture capital fund

b. I L & FS Venture corporation ltd.

c. I D B I venture capital fund

d. Merchant banking

5. Off shore VCFs are promoted by ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ & financial institution.

a. Foreign banks

b. Private banks

c. State banks

d. Merchant banking

6. High risk is an outstanding feature of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.

a. Mutual fund

b. Venture capital

c. Debenture finance

d. Govt. bonds.

7. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is needed for developing a product in the initial stages.

a. Seed capital

b. Startup capital

c. Second round financing

d. STAR CAPITAL .

8. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ capital is needed for product development and initial marketing.

a. Seed capital

b. Startup capital

c. First round financing

d. OWN .

9. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ provided at a stage when product has been launched in the

market but has not earned enough profits to meet future capital needs.

a. First round financing

b. Second round financing

c. Startup capital

d. Third round

10. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ capital is provided for early manufacturing and marketing expense.

a. Startup capital

b. Seed capital

c. First round financing

d. Second round financing

11. The additional finance provided by VCFs to overcome fledging stage is called

‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. a. second round financing

b. first round financing

c. seed capital

d. third round

12. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ stage is called fledging stage.

a. First round financing

b. Second round financing

c. Startup capital

d. Last

13. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is known as bridge finance.

a. Development financing

b. Expansion financing

c. Replacement finance

d. NEW

14. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refers to transfer of management control.

a. Bridging

b. Buyout

c. Buyin

d. WAY.

15. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refer to the process of acquiring an existing product line by the

current operating management.

a. MBDs

b. MBIs

c. CVCF

d. IMF.

16. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ means buying the control of a sick company.

a. Turn around

b. Buyout

c. Bridge

d. Way

17. Venture capital organized in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. a. 1995

b. 1954

c. 1952

d. 1950.

18. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ types of valuation

method can be adopted by VCFs.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

19. VCFs can be structured as an investment trust under

the Indian act ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.

a. 1882

b. 1883

c. 1884

d. 1885

20. There are ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ VCFs registered with SEBI.

a. 157

b. 158

c. 159

d. 160

21. IDBI venture capital fund was starts in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.

a. 1987

b. 1988

c. 1989

d. 1990

22. The first nationalized bank in India to start a VCF ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. a. Canara bank

b. SBI

c. Bank of India

d. ICICI

23. A ……………….. Is an investment that enable holder to buy goods and avail

services intermediate & pay later at on extra cost.

a. Credit card

b. Debit card

c. Add-on card

d. Smart card

24. …………………… is also called as an electronic cheque.

a. Credit card

b. Debit card

c. Add-on card

d. Smart card

25. ……………….. Business portfolio includes credit rating grading credit

analysis, record, risk assuming & securing.

a. ONICRA

b. ICRA

c. Equity MAX

d. CARE

26. ……………………… is combination of banking and consulting services.

a. Financial services

b. Merchant banking

c. Financial instituting

d. Issues management

27. For registration of merchant bankers of various category ……………….. Has

presubscribed capital adequacy norms.

a. RBI

b. SEBI

c. Central government

d. Privet bank

28. ………………………. Safeguard success of the projected issue of shares

since it provide insurance again the risk.

a. Brokerage

b. Underwriting

c. Merchant banking

d. Stock broking

29. ……………………… is a service which gives retail and institution the

opportunity to buy and sale equity.

a. Stock broking

b. Stock tending

c. Derivatives trading

d. Underwriting

30. A ………………..can operate only on behalf of registries FITs.

a. Sub broker

b. Stock broker

c. Foreign broker

d. All types of brokers

31. ………………….. are financial contract that derive their value from an

.underlying assets

a. Derivatives

b. Stock trading

c. Security

d. Clearing account

32. ……………………. Is the process in which certain types of assets are the

pooled so that they can be repackaged into interest broking security?

a. Derivatives

b. Factoring

c. Securitization

d. Forecasting

33. In ……………………… securities interest received from the receivable is not

passed to holder of the unit.

a. Pass through security

b. Trenched security

c. Interest payable securities

d. Pay through security

34. A ………………………. Is a supplement credit card offered to closed

relatives of primary card holder?

a. Smart card

b. Debit card

c. Add on card

d. Credit card

35. Full form of PIN.

a. Personal index no.

b. Permanent index no.

c. Personal identification no.

d. Personal integer no.

36. The fist financial instituted establish in India.

a. IDBI

b. ICICI

c. IRBI

d. IIFCI

37. Which fund does not have a fixed date of redemption?

a. Open ended fund

b. Closed ended fund

c. Diversified fund

d. Open and closed both types of fund.

38. “Ask” means the

a. Buyers prices

b. Seller prices

c. Market prices

d. Traded price

39. Nifty index is used in.

a. Derivatives

b. Stock

c. Furniture

d. Assets

40. Stock exchange deal with

a. Second hand securities

b. Issuing capital

c. Fist hand capital

d. Authorized capital

41. The fist stock exchange of India was established in.

a. Delhi

b. Mumbai

c. Calcutta

d. Madras

42. SEBI is

a. Regulator authority

b. Depository

c. Banking firm

d. NBFI

43. Which of the following is required for investing in mutual funds?

a. KYC

b. Passport

c. Voter ID

d. De-mat account

44. FDI is stand for

a. Foreign derived income

b. Foreign direct investment

c. Foreign derivatives investment

d. Foreign deposit investment

45. LBMA stand for

a. London bullion member association

b. London bond market association

c. London bond member association

d. London bullion market association

46. TDS stand for

a. Tax deducted at services

b. Tax deducted at sources

c. Tax deposit at services

d. Tax deposit at source

47. Which of the following speculator expected the price of security is fall in the

near future

a. Bull

b. Bear

c. Stag

d. Broker

48. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a service offered by a stock broker ie; buying and selling or

dealing in shares on behalf of the customers.

a. Lease finance

b. Venture capital

c. Merchant banker

d. Stock broking

49. N H B stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.

a. National house banker

b. National house bank

c. National house building

d. New housing bank.

50. N.B F C stands for ……………..

a. Non banking finance companies

b. Non banking financial corporation

c. Non bulk finance companies

d. Banking Services

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INDIRECT TAXES

1. Which one of the following are defined as sources of ‘customs and excise’

revenue?

a. Petroleum Revenue Tax

b. VAT

c. Inheritance Tax

d. Capital gains Tax

2. Central taxes to be subsumed under GST included…………..

a. Vat

b. Petroleum tax

c. Manufacturing tax

d. Services tax

3. Which two of the following are the most accurate indicators of the government’s

budgetary situation (fiscal stance) in any given year?

a. Public Sector Net Cash Requirement

b. Public Sector Receipts

c. Income Tax Schedules

d. Public Sector Net Borrowing

4. State taxes to be subsumed under GST included………………

a. Excise duty

b. Central sales tax

c. Central service tax

d. State VAT

5. The concept of Goods and Services Tax (GST) is originated in………..

a. Canada

b. USA

c. Britain

d. Germany

http://www.jagranjosh.com/general-knowledge/what-is-gst-bill-all-about-goods-and-services-tax-and-benefits-1470918086-1

6. Which of the following is statement is not correct about GST?

a. GST is like a last-point retail tax. GST is going to be collected at point

of Sale.

b. GST will abolish all the direct tax levied in India

c. It will be implemented from 1 July, 2017 throughout the country.

d. It will unified the tax structure in India

7. Which of the following tax will be abolished by the GST?

a. Service Tax

b. Corporation tax

c. Income Tax

d. Wealth Tax

8. Which of the following tax rate is not applicable under the GST?

a. 5

b. 12

c. 18

d. 25

9. GST will be levied on………………..

a. Manufacturers

b. Retailers

c. Consumers

d. Individual

10. What kind of Tax is GST?

a. Direct Tax

b. Indirect Tax

c. Depends on the type of goods and services


11. Who is the head of the GST council?

a. Shashi Kant Das

b. Amit Mitra

c. Arun Jaitley

d. Hasmukh Adhia

12. Which constitutional amendment is done to pass the GST bill?

a. 101st

b. 120th

c. 122nd

d. 115th

14. Which of the following good will not be covered under the GST bill?

a. Cooking gas

b. Liquor

c. Petrol

d. Sugary

15. Which of the following is the main motive of the government behind the

introduction of the Goods and Services Tax

a. To bring tax uniformity in the country

b. To increase government revenue

c. To replace all the indirect tax

d. To work with relation

16. Chair person of GST council is ………………….

a. Union minister of state in charge of revenue

b. Union finance minister

c. One elected person amongst the state finance minister

d. Minister in charge of finance

17. The vice chairman of GST council is……………

a. Union minister of state in charge of revenue

b. Union finance minister

c. One elected person amongst the state finance minister

d. Minister in charge of finance

18. …………….. is levied on inter-state supplies of goods and services

a. CGST

b. SGST

c. IGST

d. UT GST

19. IGST shall be levied on ……….. with effort from the date notified by the

government

a. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption

b. Petroleum product

c. Natural gas

d. Motor spirit

20. What is the full form of GST?

a. Goods and Supply Tax

b. Goods and Services Tax

c. General Sales Tax

d. Government Sales Tax

21. GST was implemented in India from

a. 1st January 2017

b. 1st April 2017

c. 1st March 2017

d. 1st July 2017

22. In India, the GST is a dual model of

a. UK

b. Canada

c. USA

d. Japan

e. China

23. GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on

a. Development

b. Dividend

c. Destiny

d. Destination

24. India’s GST structure are based on how many structures?

a. 6

b. 4

c. 3

d. 5

25. The maximum rate for CGST is?

a. 28

b. 12

c. 18

d. 20

26. The maximum rate for SGST/UTGST is?

a. 28

b. 14

c. 20

d. 30

27. The maximum rate for SGST/UTGST is?

a. 28

b. 14

c. 20

d. 30

28. Which code is used to classify goods and services under GST?

a. HSN Code

b. SAC/HSN Code

c. GST Code

d. SAC Code

29. What does “I” in IGST stands stand for?

a. Internal

b. Integrated

c. Internal

d. Intra

30. Supplier means a person supplying ……………..

a. Goods

b. Services

c. Goods and services both at time

d. Goods or services or together

31. Place of business includes……………………

a. Warehouse

b. Godown

c. Any place where taxable person store his goods

d. Any place from trading or business activity are done.

32. ……………. Is a tax that is shifted from one tax payer to another tax payer?

a. Direct tax

b. Indirect tax

c. Entry tax

d. GST

33. Inter-state supplies means location of supplies and place of supply are in ……..

a. Two different state

b. Within a union territories

c. A state and an union territories

d. With in a state supply

34. M/s. ABC. Of Gujarat supplied goods to m/s. XYZ of Delhi this will classify as

……………….

a. Intra state supply

b. Export supply

c. Inter-state supply

d. Deemed supply

35. For banking and finance services, place of supply are ……………..

a. Location of branch

b. Location of receiver

c. Location of head office

d. Location of recipient in record of supply

36. The liability to pay tax on goods shall arise at the………………

a. Dispatch of goods

b. Removal of goods

c. Time of goods

d. Delivery of goods

37. ………… of supply is the amount upon which tax is levied and collected

a. Value

b. Cost

c. Turn over

d. Gross value

38. Transaction value of supply excludes……..

a. Taxes, duties, cases

b. Incidental charges

c. Subsidies

d. Value of supply

39. Exempt supply of any goods services or both which attracted …….……rate of

tax.

a. Nil

b. Zero

c. Subsidize

d. Exempted

40. …………….. indicted non taxable supply

a. Aggregate turn over

b. Exempt supply

c. Inward supply

d. Export supply

41. The …….. needs to compulsory get registration under GST

a. Farmer

b. Individual

c. Ecommerce operator

d. Shop keeper turn over less than 600000

42. The input tax credit of ……………..cannot be utilized for making payment of

CGST.

a. SGST & UTGST

b. UTGST

c. IGST

d. GST

43. A person is liable to register under GST law where his aggregate turn our

exceeds……..

a. Rs 10 lakhs

b. Rs 20 lakhs

c. Rs 20 lakh exceeds

d. 15 lakhs

44. Every person shall have ………. In order to be eligible for of registration

a. Aadhar card

b. TAN card

c. VAT. Number

d. PAN card

45. GST identification no. is of ………..digits

a. 20

b. 15

c. 10

d. 27

46. The first 2 digits of GSTIN represented………………

a. Entity code

b. Country code

c. State code

d. Checksum character

47. CPIN stand for………

a. Common PAN Identification NO.

b. Challan paid identification NO.

c. Common portal identification no.

d. Challan portal identification NO.

48. The proper office issue from GST-08 for………..

a. Description in furnished of return

b. Grant of registration

c. Cancellation of registration

d. Detail of registration

49. ………… adopted first time GST.

a. France

b. UAE

c. USA

d. Spain

50. When did GST act come in the FORCE.

a. 2016

b. 2017

c. 2018

d. 2019

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Documents

I.C.S. COLLEGE OF ARTS, COMMERCE AND SCIENCE, KHED