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The Princeton Review IIFT Sample Paper 1

THE PRINCETON REVIEW IIFT SAMPLE PAPER

INSTRUCTIONS – Please read these carefully before attempting the test

1. This test is based on pattern of previous years’ IIFT papers. 2. There are four sections. Each section contains 50 questions.

Section 1- Quantitative Ability Section 2- Logical Reasoning Section 3- General Awareness Section 4- English and Reading Comprehension

3. The total time allotted is 2 hours exactly. Please note your start time and end time on the answer sheet. Do not take more than 2 hours, or you will get a wrong assessment.

4. Please fill all the details, as asked on top of the answer sheet.

5. Please try to maximize your attempt overall, but you need to do well in all

sections.

6. There is 1 mark for every right answer. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

7. There is no sectional time limit.

8. Since it is a time constrained test and you have 2 hours, and all questions carry

equal marks, please do not get stuck on any question, move fast to try and do easier ones.

9. Please do all scratch work on paper only, no extra sheets to be used. Put

all your answers on the answer sheet. 10. Relax. You are competing against yourself.


SECTION I

Number of Questions: 50 DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 50: For the following questions choose the correct option. 1. A pole is broken and the upper part of the pole falls down on the earth inclining at an

angle of 30° with the erect lower part. If the distance between the top and foot of the pole is 10 feet, then the height of the unbroken pole was:

C 30o

A B 10 feet

[1]) 10 + 20¥3 [2] 20 + 10¥3 [3] 5 + 10¥3 [4] None of the above 2. What will be the ratio of area of a square and that of another square drawn taking the

diagonal of the first as its side? [1] 1 : 2 [2] 1 : 3 [3] 1 : 4 [4] 1 : 5

3. 7

1 of

5

3 of

3

1of (a number) = 8. The number is

[1] 280 [2] 250 [3] 300 [4] 150 4. Value of sin2θ + cosec2θ :

[1] Less than 1 [2] More than 1 [3] Between 1 and 2 [4] None of the above

5. f(x) = x

x

−1 and f[h(x)] = x then the value of h(x) is equal to :

[1] x

x−1 � [2]

x

x+1 [3]

x

x

+1 [4] None of the above

6. Manju and Anju solved a quadratic equation. While solving, Manju made a mistake in the

constant term and got the roots as 6 and 2, whereas Anju made a mistake in the coefficient of x only and got the roots as –7 and –1. The correct roots of the equation are [1] 6, –1 [2] 7, 1 [3] –7, –2 [4] –6, 2


7. Height of a cone is 30 m. A new cone has been cut from it by a plane parallel to the base

of big cone, volume of the small cone is 1/27th of the big one. What is the height of small cone?

[1] 7

8 [2]

10

9 [3]

9

10 [4] None of the above

8. There are 20 singers and 60 dancers. 25% of singers are below 25 years of age and 25%

of the whole group is below 25 years of age. What percent of dancers are below 25 years of age? [1] 15% [2] 20% [3] 30% [4] 25%

9. To get 33% profit after allowing 5% discount, what should be the marked price?

[1] 10% more than cost price [2] 40% more than cost price [3] 20% more than cost price [4] 30% more than cost price

10. Rs. 120 is distributed among X, Y, and Z. X is having Rs. 20 less than Y and Rs. 20

more than Z. How much amount does Y have? [1] 20 [2] 40 [3] 60 [4] None of the above

11. Ravi ranks 10th from the front, Rahim is 25th from the back, Reena lies exactly in middle

of the two. What is Reena’s rank from the front? [1] 34th [2] 45th [3] 28th [4] Cannot be determined

12. A man travels from A to B at the speed of 50 kmph while returning from B to A, he

increases his speed by 20%. What is his approximate average speed for the entire trip? [1] 37.5 kmph [2] 55 kmph [3] 40 kmph [4] 54.5 kmph

13. There are 4 bells ringing after every 6, 7, 8 and 10 sec. If they have just rang together

how many more times will they ring together in the next one hour? [1] 2 times [2] 4 times [3] 5 times [4] None of the above

14. A person reduces his speed to 3/4th and reaches 20 minutes late. What is the total time

taken by him at his usual speed? [1] 1 hour s [2] 2 hours [3] 3 hours [4] None of the above

15. Four horses are tied to four corners of a square garden with ropes of equal length such

that they are free only to reach each other. What is the area ungrazed if one side of the garden has length x?

[1] 8

2x [2]

8

)4(2 Π−x [3]

4

)8(2 Π−x [4]

4

)4(2 Π−x

16. Tina’s salary is 20% more than that of Tito and 40% less than that of Tony. If the sum of

their salaries is 6300, then the salary of Tony is ? [1] Rs. 3000 [2] Rs. 2200 [3] Rs. 1500 [4] None of the above

17. Degrees travelled by the minute hand of a clock between 4 : 45 PM to 6: 15 PM is

[1] 540° [2] 270° [3] 360° [4] 720°


18. A person gets a telephone bill. The fixed amount of the bill is Rs. 380 and extra call amount is Rs. 125. A person has to pay only 5% of extra call amount in the total bill. What amount does the person pay for the total bill? [1] Rs. 386.25 [2] Rs. 268.75 [3] Rs. 555.25 [4] Rs. 480.625

19. Five bells begin to toll together at intervals of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12 s, respectively. How many

times will they toll together in next one hour, excluding the one at the start? [1] 7 [2] 9 [3] 3 [4] 5

20. The radius of a circle is increased by 100%. The area of the circle will increases by

[1] 100% [2] 200% [3] 300% [4] 400% 21. What is the least integral value of P for a positive value of expression 4P3 – 7P2 + 5

[1] 2 [2] 4 [3] 5 [4] 1 22. The average of the 3 numbers is 410, one of the number is 185. If the difference between

two other numbers is 25, the smallest number is? [1] 185 [2] 150 [3] 163 [4] None of the above

23. Ratio of the arithmetic mean and the second number of two numbers is 3 : 5, what is the

ratio of the two numbers ? [1] 1/5 [2] 1/8 [3] 1/8 [4] 1/10

24. A sum of Rs. 1,683 is divided among A, B and C so that for every rupee that A has, B has

50 paise and for every rupee that B has, C has 40 paise. What is the share of B? [1] Rs. 495 [2] Rs. 990 [3] Rs. 594 [4] Rs. 198

25. Prahlad takes a cube of 1 m edge-length, and meticulously cuts smaller cubes, each of

edge-length 1mm, from the parent cube. He joins these small cubes end-to-end. Thus, the total length of this ‘cube- rope’ will be [1] 100 km [2] 1 km [3] 1,000 km [4] 10 km

26. The length of a rectangle is increased by 10% and its breadth is decreased by 10%. What

is the percentage change in its area? [1] 21% increase [2] 1% increase [3] 1% decrease [4] No change.

27. There were two candidates in an election for the post of president. 350 of the total votes

polled were invalid. The winner got 72% of the valid votes and was elected by a margin of 440 votes. What was the total number of votes cast? [1] 1,000 [2] 1,350 [3] 1,500 [4] 2,000

28. If the length of each edge of a rectangular solid is an integer, the sum of the lengths of all

the edges of the solid is necessarily divisible by which of the following? [1] 3 [2] 4 [3] 5 [4] 7

29. What is 5% of 10% discount on Rs. 500?

[1] Re. 0.25 [2] Re. 0.125 [3] Rs. 1.25 [4] Rs. 2.5


30. A tank has a leak which can empty it in 6 hours. A tap which admits 2

13 litres per

minute into the tank is turned on and it is now emptied in 10 hours. What is the capacity (volume) of the tank? [1] 1,075 L [2] 2,700 L [3] 3,150 L [4] 6,300 L

31. The smallest positive integer that is both the square root of a number and the cube root of

a number is [1] 8 [2] 64 [3] 32 [4] None of these

32. The ratio of ages of Anna and Beena is 2 : 3. After 4 years, their ages will be in the ratio

3 : 4. Find their present ages. [1] 6 and 9 [2] 12 and 18 [3] 8 and 12 [4] 4 and 6

33. Raghu invests a sum of money with the bank at a certain rate of simple interest. He

receives a sum of Rs. 645 at the end of the fourth year or Rs.690 at the end of the fifth year. Find the principal amount. [1] Rs. 465 [2] Rs. 500 [3] Rs. 555 [4] Rs. 180

34. If 2x + 3y + 4z = 27 and 3x + 2y + z = 33, then what is the average of x, y and z?

[1] 3 [2] 4 [3] 6 [4] 12 35. A starts from a place at 11.00 a.m. and travels at a speed of 4 km/hr, B starts from same

place at 1.00 p.m. and travels with speeds 1 km/hr for 1 hr, 2 km/hr for the next 1 hr, 3 km/hr for the next 1 hr and so on. At what time will B catch up with A? [1] 9.24 p.m. [2] 9.32 p.m. [3] 9.48 p.m. [4] None of these

36. Your horses are tethered at four corners of a square-plot of side 63 m so that they just

cannot reach one another. The area left ungrazed is [1] 675.5 m2 [2] 780.6 m2 [3] 785.8 m2 [4] 850.5 m2

37. Two trains start at the same time, one from A to B and other from B to A. If they arrive at

their destinations in 1 hr and 4 hrs respectively, after passing one another, how much faster is one train running than the other? [1] Two times [2] Four times [3] Eight times [4] None of these

38. 1 + 2

2

12

51

12+=x

, find the value of x.

[1] 5 [2] 1 [3] 4 [4] 2

39. Find the value of x, in the expression – 25 x2 + 50 Rxx ∈∀≥− 0502

[1] 2− [2] 2 [3] 1 [4] None of these 40. If f(x, y) = xy and g(x) = x3 + 2, then what is the value of f[ 3, g(2)]?

[1] 30 [2] 20 [3] 15 [4] 18


41. There are 150 members in a table tennis club. They play a tournament. A member is out of the tournament if he loses a game. If we know that there were no ties, then the number of games to determine the champion will be? [1] 150 [2] 149 [3] 148 [4] 151

42. What is the remainder when 328 is divided by 80?

[1] 0 [2] 1 [3] 3 [4] 4

43.

+−+

−+

57

57

57

57is equal to

[1] 2 7 – 3 5 [2] 2 7 + 3 5 [3] 12 [4] 2 44. A cylindrical pole is 3 ft in circumference and is 16 ft high. An insect climbs the pole

such that its motion is a spiral, and one complete spiral helps it cover 4 ft in height. Thus, when the insect reaches the top, it has covered a total distance of [1] 25 ft [2] 16 ft [3] 20 ft [4] 18 ft

45. The diameter of a wheel is 63 cm. Distance travelled by the wheel in 100 revolutions is

approximately [1] 99 m [2] 198 m [3] 63 m [4] 136 m

46 If 2x– 1 + 2x+1 = 1280, then the value of x is

[1] 8 [2] 9 [3] 5 [4] None of these 47. Six cups of sugar are required to make one batch of biscuits. How many cups of sugar are

needed to make enough biscuits to fill 12 cookies jars, if each cookie jar can hold 1.5 batches of biscuits?

[1] 108 [2] 90 [3] 81 [4] 78 48. A dinner party is to be fixed for a group consisting of 100 persons. In this party, 50

persons do not prefer fish, 60 prefer chicken and 10 do not prefer either chicken or fish. The number of persons who prefer both fish and chicken is:

[1] 10 [2] 20 [3] 30 [4] 50 49. Anil goes to work from his home at an average speed of 5 km an hour. He reaches office

at the correct time. If his average speed is 4 km an hour he reaches office 15 minutes late. Find the distance between his office and home.

[1] 3.0 km [2] 4.0 km [3] 4.5 km [4] 5.0 km 50. If x - (1/x) = 2 then the value of x4 + (1/x4) is: [1] 4 [2] 8 [3] 12 [4] 34


SECTION II

Number of Questions: 50 DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to 53: For each question, choose the best answer from the five choices given. 51. Ram: It is likely that the US will be humiliated in the Osama affair. In case the US fights

the Taliban, it will be defeated in the battle; if it doesn’t fight and lets the Taliban win, it will be humiliated, as it would then seem impotent. Sita: In that case US could always call the British to her aid. Sita attacks Ram’s argument by: [1] Attacking Ram’s method of reasoning [2] Siding with the US [3] Advocating passive resistance [4] Citing an alternative which was overlooked by Ram.

52. Which of the following sentences best completes the passage below?

In a survey of college students, nearly half of them admitted to being at least a little dishonest. However, the survey might have underestimated the proportion of students who are dishonest, because________ [1] Some dishonest people taking the survey might have claimed to be honest on the survey [2] Some generally honest people taking the survey might have claimed to be dishonest on the survey [3] Some people who claimed on the survey to be at least a little dishonest may be very dishonest [4] Some people who claimed on the survey to be dishonest may have been answering honestly

53. Answer the following question based on the following statements: I. In case we assume that Jatin was insane, then Lalit was insane and vice versa. II. But in case neither Jatin nor Lalit were insane, then you can’t believe Anu Malik. III. You can believe Anu Malik.

Taking the above statements into consideration, which among the following cannot be true? I. Both Jatin and Lalit were insane II. Jatin was insane, but not Lalit

III. Lalit was insane, but not Jatin. [1] I only [2] II only [3] III only [4] I and II DIRECTIONS for Questions 54 to 56: The questions are based on the following statement An increasing number of people prefer to retain their own individuality and their own identity. Consequently, this has led to a decline in the marriage rate. 54. Which among the following assumptions are used in the above premises?

I. When a person is married, he or she loses his or her own identity and is no longer accountable to himself or herself II. Married persons do not find contentment as opposed to unmarried people III. There has been a steady increase in the divorce rate.

[1] I only [2] II only [3] III only [4] I and II only


55. Which of the following statements would weaken the above argument? [1] Most people are not mature enough to be married [2] Among most married couples the wife wants to have children

[3] The stability resulting from marriage offsets the negative aspects of the dual responsibilities of husband and wife

[4] Men and women have different sets of values 56. Which of the following statements would strengthen the above argument? [1] Very few people prefer to bring up a family [2] Emotionally, divorce is not an easy procedure [3] Married people have to make a considerable effort to make the marriage last [4] 500 out of 600 surveyed couples complained that they were losing their identity DIRECTIONS for Questions 57 to 59: Mrs. Varma wishes to renovate her house. She tries the services of a plumber, a carpenter, a painter, an electrician, and an interior decorator. The renovation is to be completed in a period of one working week i.e. Monday to Friday. Every worker will be taking one complete day to do his job. Mrs. Verma will allow just one person to work per day: I. The painter can do his work only after the plumber and the carpenter have completed their jobs. II. The interior decorator has to complete his job before that of the electrician. III. The carpenter cannot work on Monday or Tuesday 57. In case the painter works on Thursday, which among the following alternatives is

possible? [1] The electrician works on Tuesday

[2] The interior decorator does his work after the painter [3] The electrician works on Friday

[4] The plumber and the painter work on consecutive days 58. In case the painter works on Friday, which among the following statements must not be

true? [1] The carpenter may work on Wednesday [2] The plumber may work before the electrician does [3] The electrician may work on Tuesday

[4] In case the carpenter works on Thursday, the electrician has to work on the previous day

59. Which arrangement among the following is possible? [1] The carpenter will work on Wednesday and the plumber on Thursday [2] The electrician will work on Tuesday and the interior decorator on Friday [3] The painter will work on Wednesday and the plumber on Thursday [4] The carpenter will work on Tuesday and the painter on Friday DIRECTIONS for Questions 60 to 62: In a row of four houses, each is owned by a different man and each of the men has a car. The houses are owned by Amarnath, Trinath, Dinesh and Bala. The colours of the cars are grey, violet, mauve and orange: I. The grey car is owned by Bala II. Trinath doesn’t stay in any of the end houses. III. The second house from the left is owned by Amarnath IV. The mauve car is owned by Dinesh


60. Which among the following statements cannot be true? [1] The house at the right end belongs to Dinesh

[2] The house at the left end belongs to Dinesh [3] The house at the left end belongs to Bala [4] One of the owners of the houses at the two ends has an orange car 61. In case Amarnath owns the violet car, which car can Trinath own? I. The orange car II. The mauve car III. The grey car [1] I only [2] II only [3] III only [4] I or III only 62. Which among the following statements is not necessarily true? [1] Trinath occupies the third house from the left

[2] There is one house between Bala and Trinath [3] Dinesh and Bala are the ends of the block

[4] Bala is at the end house DIRECTIONS for Questions 63 to 66: Atul has been assigned the task of allotting offices to six faculty members. The offices are numbered 1-6 and arranged in a row. Only a six-foot high divider separates them. So voices, sounds and cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to another: I. Sandhya needs to use the telephone quite often through the day

II. Vikas and Kunal need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often while working. III. Aditi is a senior employee and has to be allotted the office number 5, having the biggest window.

IV. Mahipal requires silence in the offices next to his V. Tejash, Vikas, and Mahipal are all smokers.

VI. Aditi finds tobacco smoke allergic and the offices next to hers have to be occupied by non-smokers. Unless specifically stated, all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence during office hours.

63. The ideal candidate to occupy the office number adjacent to Sandhya would be [1] Aditi [2] Vikas [3] Tejash [4] Mahipal 64. The three employees who are smokers should be seated in the offices [1] 1, 2 and 4 [2] 2, 3 and 6 [3] 1, 2 and 3 [4] 1, 2 and 6 65. The ideal office for Vikas would be [1] 1 [2] 2 [3] 3 [4] 4 66. In the event of what occurrence, within a period of one month since the assignment of the

offices, would a request for a change in office be put forth by one or more employees? [1] Mahipal quitting smoking [2] Tejesh taking over the duties formerly taken care of by Sandhya [3] The installation of a noisy teletype machine by Aditi in her office [4] Sandhya’s needing silence in the office(s) next to her own


DIRECTIONS for Questions 67 to 69: A bus has exactly six stops on its route. The bus first stops at stop one and then at stops two, three, four, five and six respectively. After the bus leaves stop six, the bus turns and returns to stop one and repeats the cycle. The stops are at six buildings that are, in alphabetical order: L, M, N, O, P, and Q. • P is the third stop • M is the sixth stop • The stop O is the stop immediately before Q. • N is the stop immediately before L. 67. In case N is the fourth stop, which among the following must be the stop immediately

before P? [1] O [2] Q [3] N [4] L 68. In case L is the second stop, which among the following must be the stop immediately

before M? [1] N [2] L [3] P [4] Q 69. In case a passenger boards the bus at O, rides past one of the stops, and gets off at P,

which of the following must be true? [1] O is stop one [2] Q is stop three

[3] P is stop four [4] N is stop five DIRECTIONS for Questions 70 to 73: Six geologists A, B, C, D, E, and F are to present a paper each at a one-day conference. Three of them will present their papers in the morning session before the lunch break whereas the other three will present them in the afternoon session. The lectures have to be scheduled in such a way that they comply with the following restrictions: • B should present his paper immediately before C’s presentation; • Their presentations cannot be separated by the lunch break. • D must be either the first or the last geologist to present his paper. 70. In case C is to be the fifth geologist to present his paper, then B must be [1] First [2] Second [3] Third [4] Fourth 71. B could occupy any of the following places in the order of presenters EXCEPT [1] First [2] Second [3] Third [4] Fourth 72. In case F is to present his paper immediately after D presents his paper, C could be

scheduled for which of the following places in order of presenters? [1] First [2] Second [3] Third [4] Fifth 73. In case F and E are the fifth and sixth presenters respectively then which of the following

must be true? [1] A is first in the order of presenters [2] A is third in the order of presenters [3] A is fourth in the order or presenters [4] B is first in the order of presenters


DIRECTIONS for Questions 74 to 76: Three men (Amar, Akbar and Anthony) and three women (Hema, Parveen, Zeenat) are spending a few months at a hill town resort. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her own cottage. There are no other persons staying in the same row of cottages: I. Parveen, Amar and Anthony do not want to stay in any cottage, which is at the end of the row. II. Hema and Parveen are unwilling to stay next to any occupied cottage. III. Zeenat is next to Akbar and Anthony IV. Between Parveen’s and Anthony’s cottage there is just one vacant cottage V. None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages VI. The house occupied by Amar is next to an end cottage 74. Which of the above statements can be said to have been derived from two other

statements? [1] Statement I [2] Statement II [3] Statement III [4] Statement V 75. How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage? [1] 2 [2] 3 [3] 4 [4] 5 76. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

I. Parveen stays between Hema and Anthony II. At the most four persons could have occupied cottages on either side of them III. Amar stays besides Akbar

[1] I only [2] II only [3] I and III only [4] II and III only DIRECTIONS for Questions 77 to 80: Six different runners - Vikas, Tejash, Bharin, Siba, Kunal, and Som - compete in a race. The following statements are all true about the race results: • Tejash finished either immediately before or immediately after Siba. • Kunal finished third. • Vikas did not finish last. • There were no ties. 77. Which of the following is a possible order of the racers at the finish, from first to last? [1] Vikas, Kunal, Tejash, Siba, Som, Bharin

[2] Bharin, Vikas, Kunal, Som, Siba, Tejash [3] Tejash, Siba, Kunal, Som, Bharin, Vikas

[4] Siba, Vikas, Kunal, Tejash, Bharin, Som 78. All of the following are possible orders of the racers at the finish, from first to last,

EXCEPT: [1] Bharin, Som, Kunal, Vikas, Siba, Tejash [2] Som, Vikas, Kunal, Tejash, Siba, Bharin [3] Siba, Tejash, Kunal, Som, Vikas, Bharin [4] Vikas, Tejash, Siba, Kunal, Bharin, Som 79. If Vikas finishes fifth, which of the following must be true? [1] Siba must finish either first or second

[2] Som must finish either first or last [3] Bharin must finish either second or fourth

[4] Tejash must finish either first or fourth


80. If Kunal finishes before Tejash, which of the following must be false? [1] Vikas finishes first [2] Bharin finishes second

[3] Som finishes second [4] Vikas finishes fifth DIRECTIONS for Questions 81 to 85: Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each question using the following instructions. Mark the answer as

[1] if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone. [2] if the question can be answered by using either statement alone. [3] if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone. [4] if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

81. How many eggs did Mr. Henley lay everyday?

I. Mr. Henley lays a one-digit odd number of eggs. II. Mr. Henley lays in the multiples of 3.

82. What is the value of angle A in triangle ABC?

I. ∠B = 60o, AC = 10 cm II. BC = 5 cm

83. Is x > 2

1?

I. x2 > 4

1 II. x3 > 0

84. Who stole the necklace if only one of them speaks the truth?

I. “Raju stole the necklace. I always tell the truth,” says Ravi. II. “Ravi always lies,” says Raju.

85. Who won the race?

I. Raju’s speed is 20% faster than Ravi. II. Raju starts 15 min after Ravi starts. DIRECTIONS for Questions 86 to 88: Answer the questions based on the following information. Priya has agreed to feed a friend’s dog for a full week, running from Monday to Sunday. A total of seven brands of dog food is available, of which exactly five, M, N, O, P and Q are protein-enriched, and exactly two R and S are vitamin enriched. Priya must adhere to the following feeding instructions. On each of the seven days, a different brand of dog food must be fed. Protein-enriched dog food cannot be fed for more than two consecutive days. R must be fed earlier in the week than S. M must be fed earlier in the week than R. M must be fed earlier in the week than Q and exactly four of the other brands must be fed between N and Q. 86. Which of the following brands must be scheduled to be fed on Wednesday?

[1] M [2] O [3] P [4] R


87. If Q is scheduled to be fed on Sunday, which of the following could also be true? [1] R and O are scheduled to be fed on consecutive days. [2] N is scheduled to be fed earlier than M. [3] Two days intervene between the day O is fed and the day P is fed. [4] P is scheduled to be fed on Tuesday.

88. Which of the following pair of brands could be scheduled to be fed on consecutive days?

[1] M and O [2] N and P [3] O and S [4] Q and R Direction for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions based on the data presented below. There are 100 students in a class. They play three games. Not all of them necessarily play a game. Number of people playing A, B and C are 40, 50 and 30, respectively. A B C The number of people playing exactly 2 games is 20. The number of people playing no game is 20. 89. The number of people playing at least 2 games is

[1] 30 [2] 50 [3] 40 [4] Data insufficient 90 The number of people playing exactly 1 game is

[1] 50 [2] 30 [3] 40 [4] Data insufficient 91. The number of people playing at least 1 game is

[1] 80 [2] 60 [3] 20 [4] Data insufficient 92. The number of people playing all the 3 games is

[1] 10 [2] 20 [3] 30 [4] Data insufficient DIRECTIONS for Questions 93 to 97: Answer the questions based on the following information. When they hold a meeting, seven company executives — T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z sit around a rectangular table. Three executives sit along one side of the table, and three sit along the other side, each directly opposite one of the other three. The seventh sits at the head of the table; there is no seat at the foot of the table. U always sits in one of the two seats farthest from the head of the table. Y and V always sit next to each other. V never sits next to Z. If Z does not sit at the head of the table, W sits there. 93. Which of the following is an acceptable seating arrangement of the executives, starting

with U, moving toward the head of the table, and continuing around the table? [1] U, X, T, Z, V, Y, W [2] U, T, X, Z, Y, V, W [3] U, X, Z, Y, V, W, T [4] U, Z, S, X, V, Y, T


94. If W sits directly opposite to T, X must sit next to which of the following executives?

[1] T [2] U [3] V [4] Y 95. If T sits directly opposite to Z and next to V, which executive must sit directly opposite to

U? [1] Y [2] W [3] X [4] V

96. If W sits directly opposite to U and next to T, the two executives immediately on either

side of X must be [1] Y and V [2] Y and W [3] T and Z [4] T and V

97. If Z sits at the head of the table, Y directly opposite to U, and V immediately on X’s left,

what is the total number of possible seating arrangements of the executives? [1] 1 [2] 2 [3] 3 [4] 4

DIRECTIONS for Questions 98 to 100: Answer the questions based on the diagram given below. Boys 6 2 7 1 5 3 Girls

4 Doctors 98. Which of the following represents the girls who are doctors but not boys?

[1] 3 [2] 2 [3] 1 [4] 4 99. Which of the following represents the boys who are doctors but not girls?

[1] 5 [2] 4 [3] 7 [4] 6 100. Which of the following represents the boys who are girls and are doctors as well?

[1] 3 [2] 5 [3] 1 [4] 4


SECTION III

Number of Questions: 50

DIRECTIONS for Questions 101 to 150: For the following questions, choose the correct option. 101. NASSCOM once carried an ad saying “Copy software you get this hardware absolutely

free”. What was the hardware? [1] A Computer [2] A free modem! [3] A Mouse [4] Handcuffs

102. In the 2nd century, Greek Writer Julius Pollux described a game apoiddraskinda. What is

the modern day equivalent of this game? [1] Hide and Seek [2] 7 stones [3] Polo [4] Housie

103. Which games were funded by a gift from a wealthy architect called Georgios Averoff, of

one million drachmas, and by the sale of Souvenir stamps and medals? [1] 1904 St. Louis [2] 1896 Athens [3] 1900 Paris [4] None

104. Inspired by the original Ancient Olympics, a certain Frenchman conceived the idea of the

modern Olympic games, proposing the idea publicly in 1892, and spending the next three and a half years drumming up support. Who? [1] Louis XVI [2] Napoleon [3] Baron Pierre de Coubertin [4] None of these

105. Who was referred to as "The Milwaukee Meter"?

[1] Milkha Singh [2] Carl Lewis [3] Archie Hahn [4] Ben Johnson

106. The world's largest archipelago is?

[1] The Cyclades Islands, Greece [2] Hawaii [3] Indonesia [4] None of these

107. Which capital city in Europe straddles the Danube and is named after the two sections of the city- one on either bank of the river? [1] Budapest, Hungary [2] Vienna, Austria [3] Bratislava, Slovakia [4] None of these

108. This island in the Indian Ocean was named for the day on which it was first discovered in

1643. An Australian territory, it is famous for the annual migration of millions of red crabs which go right across the island. Which is it? [1] Easter Island [2] Christmas Island [3] Tromelin Island [4] None

109. Which two countries lie completely within the borders of Italy?

[1] The Vatican and San Narino [2] Andorra and Liechtenstein [3] The Vatican and Andorra [4] None of these

110. 'The City of Dreaming Spires'- which is it?

[1] Hong Kong [2] Vienna [3] Oxford [4] London


111. Their first LP featured fullfrontal nude of a duo, resulting in it being sold in a brown paper bag. Which duo? [1] Simon and Garfunkel [2] Bob Dylan and Joan Baez [3] Lennon and Yoko Ono [4] None of these

112. What is the latest estimate of foodgrains in million tones in 2002-2003?

[1] 183.17 [2] 186.43 [3] 189.4 [4] 184.06 113. This band was named after the first synthesizer that Liam Hewlett from the band had.

Which band? [1] Pearl Jam [2] Prodigy [3] Alice in Chains [4] Rolling stone

114. Which group were named after a popular Fifties Hairdo?

[1] Vee Zees [2] B-52s [3] Iron Maiden [4] Spice Girls 115. Roberta Flack wrote the song "Killing Me Softly" about which singer?

[1] Don Henley [2] Elvis Prisley [3] Don Mclean [4] Julio Iglesias 116. Which structure got it's name from the old French word meaning "to build"?

[1] Buttress [2] Bastion [3] Bastille [4] None 117. What was built by General Motors executive John Raskob, in the teeth of the Depression

as a sign of rebirth? [1] White House [2] Empire State Building [3] Twin Towers [4] Statue of Liberty

118. A famous painting by Rubens depicts the birth of a goddess? Which one?

[1] Venus [2] Cassandra [3] Aphrodite [4] None 119. According to legend, what was erected at the point where Muhammed Quli Shah first set

eyes on Queen Baghmati? [1] Red Fort [2] Charminar [3] Shalimar Bagh [4] Qutb Minar

120. The statue, "The Thinker", by Auguste Rodin, is a portrait of which poet?

[1] Homer [2] Dante [3] Virgil [4] None 121. Which country's National Anthem begins with lines that translate to "Thou art the ruler of

minds"? [1] India [2] Sri Lanka [3] Bangladesh [4] Russia

122. Which English word is derived from Latin for "teach"?

[1] Doctor [2] Mentor [3] Engineer [4] Father 123. Which actor lives in a New Jersey mansion called "Bubble Hill"?

[1] Michael Douglas [2] Jullia Robert [3] Eddie Murphy [4] Denzel Washington

124. Who wrote a collection of poems called "Beejak"?

[1] Surdas [2] Kalidas [3] Ravidas [4] Kabir


125. Trishala was the name of whose mother? [1] Buddha [2] Mahavira [3] Ashoka [4] Devadutta

126. Who has been named India's new ambassador to China ?

[1] K. Kasturirangan [2] S.S. Menon [3] Nalin Surie [4] Anna Hazare 127. The Smallest Newspaper in the world is ?

[1] Birmingham News [2] Vossa Senhoria [3] Voice of the hill [4] Challenge

128. Which country won women’s world cup hockey championship in 2002?

[1] Argentina [2] Netherland [3] India [4] Australia 129. Which country is planning to open mobile phone station at the Everest base camp?

[1] US [2] China [3] India [4] Nepal 130. Who is the editor of "The Hindu".

[1] N.Ravi [2] Vinod Mehta [3] Aveek Sarkar [4] Sanjay Narayan 1. 131. Angel, the highest waterfall in the world, is situated in which of the following countries?

[1] Norway [2] USA [3] Venezuela [4] Canada 132. Kanha National Park is in

[1] Uttar Pradesh [2] Maharashtra [3] Madhya Pradesh [4] Karnataka 133. Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in which of the following years?

[1] 1916 [2] 1923 [3] 1929 [4] 1931 134. Which of the following personalities has/have authored ‘Straight from the Gut’?

[1] Bill Gates [2] Richard Branson [3] Jack Welch and John A. Byrne [4] Louis Gerstner Jr.

135. Charak and Sushruta are the famous names in the field of

[1] Astrology [2] Medicine [3] Literature [4] Dance and Drama 136. Who among the following was appointed as the first Governor of Bengal by the East

India Company in 1758? [1] Warren Hastings [2] Lord Cornwallis [3] Lord William Bentick [4] Robert Clive

137. Which of the following days is celebrated as the International Women’s Day?

[1] February 28 [2] March 8 [3] April 3 [4] June 5 138. Who among the following is also called the ‘Light of Asia’?

[1] Swami Vivekananda [2] Mahavira [3] Buddha [4] Confucius 139. First Asian Games were held at

[1] Bangkok [2] Tokyo [3] New Delhi [4] Jakarta 140. The former name of the now famous ‘Idea Cellular’ is

[1] BATATA [2] BT & T [3] Idea AT & T [4] CTAL


141. Where is the headquarters of World Trade Organization (WTO)?

[1] London [2] Washington [3] Geneva [4] Paris 142. Which of the following is NOT a kharif crop?

[1] Mustard [2] Rice [3] Cotton [4] Bajra 143. Which of the following is the capital of Belgium?

[1] Berne [2] Sofia [3] Brussels [4] Vienna 144. How many members are nominated by the President for the Rajya Sabha?

[1] 2 [2] 8 [3] 10 [4] 12 145. Which of the following cricketers has been selected as the Wisden’s Indian Cricketer of

the Century recently? [1] Sachin Tendulkar [2] Kapil Dev [3] Sunil Gavaskar [4] G. Vishwanath

146. EI AI is the airlines of

[1] Qatar [2] Israel [3] Saudi Arabia [4] Algeria 147. ‘N.K. Ranga’, who died in the month of July 2002 was a famous

[1] cricketer [2] actor [3] cartoonist [4] politician 148. Sir Thomas Roe visited the court of which of the following Indian rulers?

[1] Shah Jahan [2] Aurangzeb [3] Akbar [4] Jehangir 149. Which of the following is NOT a watch company?

[1] Roche [2] Tissot [3] Cartier [4] Omega 150. ‘Fish’, is a best selling book authored by

[1] Tom Peters [2] Stephen C Lundin, Harry Paul and John Christ [3] John Humphries [4] Jack Welch and Louis Gerstner


SECTION IV

Number of Questions: 50

DIRECTIONS for Questions 151 to 170: Read each of the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE I

“I see you’re admiring my little box,” the Knight said in a friendly tone. “It’s my own invention -- to keep clothes and sandwiches in. You see I carry it upside down, so that the rain can’t get in.” “But the things can get out,” Alice gently remarked. “Do you know that the lid’s open?” “I didn’t know it,” the Knight said, a shade of vexation passing over his face. “Then all the things must have fallen out! And the box is of no use without them.” “I was wondering what the mousetrap was for,” said Alice. “It isn’t very likely there would be any mice on the horse’s back.” “Not very likely, perhaps,” said the Knight; “but, if they do come, I don’t choose to have them running all about.” “You see,” he went on after a pause, “It’s as well to be provided for everything.” “The great art of riding, as I was saying is to keep your balance properly. Like this, you know…..” He let go of the bridle, and stretched out both his arms to show Alice what he meant, and this time, fell flat on his back, right under the horse’s feet. “Plenty of practice!” he went on repeating, all the time that Alice was getting him on his feet again. “Plenty of practice!” “It’s too ridiculous!” cried Alice, losing all her patience this time. Lewis Carroll’s “Through the Looking-Glass” here takes a shot at Victorian technology and Victorian fascination for new things. (Queen Victoria was born in 1819 shortly after the Industrial Revolution and was the crowned Queen of England until 1901). He mentions in his book, “In science and technology, the Victorians invented the modern idea of invention, the notion that one could create solutions to problems, that man can create new means of bettering himself and his environment.” Alice exposes the futility of the White Knight’s inventions when she notices the mousetrap on the Knight’s horse and remarks: “It isn’t very likely there would be any mice on the horse’s back.” One can say that because Alice’s adventures take place in a fantastic world, there may well be mice on horses’ backs. However, the Knight’s agreement with Alice, “Not very likely, perhaps,” indicates to the reader that Alice’s logic prevails in the Knight’s and Alice’s world. Instead of facilitating life, the Knight’s inventions pose problems; he loses the things he had placed in his own invention, the box: “Then all the things must have fallen out.” However, the flaw lies in the Knight’s lack of logic in using his inventions rather than in the inventions themselves. For example, placing mousetraps on the horse may have been useful if mice did approach horses. However, the Knight did not consider that in the world he lived such an event was unlikely. Likewise, putting the box upside down may have protected its contents from the rain, if the Knight had thought to close the lid. At this point it seems that perhaps Carroll cautions against invention getting out of hand and losing its original purpose: inventing for the sake of inventing, rather than facilitating life. The White Knight’s concern with the art rather than the basics and function of riding parallels his craze for inventing; he loses touch with the original purpose of riding, which was a means of transportation. Alice finally says in exasperation: “It’s too ridiculous!,” as the Knight


falls off his horse. Alice’s cry can apply to the Knight’s entire mentality concerning inventions, riding, and the impractical way in which he thinks in general. The Knight’s numerous plans and inventions may reflect Victorian England’s “new technical epoch.” A learned reader and friend of Lewis Carroll lightheartedly comments, “If invention was a sign of modernization and industrialization in Victorian England, perhaps Carroll, through the passage, suggests that the surge of modernization is not the key to bettering oneself and the environment.” 151. What is the central theme of the passage? [1] Commentary on the modern idea of inventions. [2] Parody of the Victorian technology and Victorian fascination with inventions. [3] The surge of modernization is not the key to bettering oneself and the environment. [4] All of the above. 152. What do you think the author would like you to believe in? [1] Art can override the utility of an invention.

[2] Utility can override the art of an invention. [3] Invention can create solutions. [4] Invention can create problems. 153. From your reading of the narrative, whose judgment do you think triumphs?

[1] Alice [2] The Knight [3] Lewis Carroll [4] Both Alice and the Knight

154. What is your understanding of England’s “new technical epoch?” [1] Modernization of the world [2] Industrialization in England [3] An era of inventions in England [4] The Knight was an idealist 155. Alice showed her level headedness with her opinion that [1] Utility outweighs form in an invention [2] Form outweighs utility in an invention [3] Utility and form were equally important in an invention [4] Utility and form were not at all important for a successful invention 156. Which of the following describes the “Victorian Era” beast? [1] Dogmatic [2] Informal [3] Prevailing [4] Lithe 157. From the passage it can be inferred that “The Victorian Era” lasted from [1] 1819-1901 [2] 1837-1901

[3] 1819-1861 [4] 19th to 20th century 158. Which of the following statements do you think is the most plausible? [1] The Victorian era had the remnants of the Industrial Revolution of Britain

[2] The Industrial Revolution of Britain was result of the shortcomings of the Victorian era

[3] The Industrial Revolution in now way effected the Victorian era. [4] Lewis Carroll is strongly against the highhandedness of the aristocracy


159. Adam Smith’s The Wealth of Nations proposed that the only legitimate goal of national government and human activity is the steady increase in the overall wealth of the nation. His theory would be more congruous with:

[1] The Victorian era [2] The era of industrial revolution

[3] Neither the Victorian era nor the period of the revolution. [4] Post modernization era 160. Suggest an appropriate title for the passage: [1] Inventions for the sake of inventions

[2] Art and Utility of Inventions: a Victorian view [3] Technical epoch in Victorian England

[4] The invention of problems in England

PASSAGE II Advertising agencies across the world have found a pot of gold. Millions of rupees are being spent for creating advertisements for dotcoms springing up by the day. The big question is whether this money is going down the drain or being well spent. The primary and immediate objective of advertising of most dotcoms is to make sure that their site name is top-of-mind. For, familiarity with the site name is what determines whether a person goes straight to a particular site or uses the search engines, where the probability of someone clicking on a particular site is much lower. What should the name of the site be? The craze seems to be getting a name that is as close to the generic name of the category/need as possible. So in the process, every site belonging to a certain category seems to have similar sounding names. For example, some of the sites that deal with the Indian stock market are Equitymaster.com, Sharekhan.com, Investsmartindia.com, Rrfinance.com and so on -- all generic, similar-sounding names. Every site that has missed out on getting the exact category name as the domain name should resist the temptation of ‘at least trying to be close to’ the category name. The dotcoms should choose name that is distinct, and make effort to popularize it. All the dotcoms, at the core, are providing a service, an intangible entity, to the consumer. So as in marketing of all successful service brands, providing a tangible cue about the service always helps. So instead of spending large sums of money to make people remember a domain name, a tangible image of the site can be engraved in consumer mind space with a much lesser amount. How should one choose a tangible image for a site? The site marketer should identify a single most important benefit that is sought by a consumer for coming to the site. This benefit should ideally translate into the tangible image of the site, as the bull logo of Merrill Lynch epitomises the core benefit from a financial services company. Today a surfer expects certain services from every site. For example, a site offering a chat service is an expected level of service. So it does not excite anyone. A site offering only expected or even augmented level services won’t have any competitive advantage. A site can attract new traffic and build loyalty among the existing users of the site only by offering services from the Unexpected Positive level. Care should be taken to advertise a site on its UPS. (Unexpected Positive Service) In Internet business there is absolutely no personal interaction between the buyer and the seller. This, no doubt increases the buyers’ anxiety during the buying transaction. This might be the most important factor that influences the very future of e-commerce.


The dotcoms have to compensate for their lack of personal interaction. One way to compensate for this lack of personal interaction is through an ideal advertising strategy. The advertisements for any dotcom are possibly the only piece of communication that the buyer gets from the seller before she signs her cheque. So it should be in spirit, seen as a letter of contract that the seller sends to the buyer for her signature. Having created a visibility in the online world, companies should make sure they pay due diligence to the traditional media as well. In India, while ad spending is reportedly being slashed across all categories, outdoors has always remained a cheaper option compared to other media. But suddenly billboards, hitherto filled largely with dotcom and public issue ads, also seem to be going blank across metros. While the dotcom bust and the stock market crash may be responsible for billboard sites appearing vacant, there could be a demand-supply mismatch, which has resulted in blank sites. With no fixed rules for owning and setting up such sites, sanctions are usually obtained from the municipal corporations and collectorates, which give permission for hoardings to be put up without any fixed limit, mostly in a bid to fill empty coffers. This has resulted in an overcrowded marketplace where supply is more than demand. According to J C Giri, Managing Consultant, Outdoor, a division of Ogilvy & Mather, “Although the slump in the market is temporary, now there is excess supply compared to the demand in the market. Prices are already coming down by almost 20 percent from the days of the dotcoms when the rates did go up”. While it is doubtful whether prices will actually go down since strategically located sites will continue to command a premium, there might just be some elasticity built over a period of time to get prices down. Estimated at Rs. 650 crore, the outdoor media business now comprises about 10 percent of the total revenue spent on advertising. With the rate of growth hovering between 15 percent and 20 percent, it is mainly industries such as media, FMCG, textiles and private insurance companies, which continue to use hoardings extensively in spite of the existing slowdown in their business. The dotcoms too were responsible for hiking the hoarding rates when they wanted more visibility. Today site owners do not want to compromise on clients who want to slash their budgets. Although they know they cannot hold on to unrealistic rates and that prices are bound to fall, some of the site owners may be just holding on to these ‘unrealistic’ rates hoping to get business at the earlier rates. Besides, most corporates realize that today television is the best medium to get visibility considering its increasing penetration. The clutter of channels has led to increased airtime inventory, with prices dropping drastically in spite of what is printed in rate cards. This obviously would not apply to the leading premium channels such as Star and Sony, which can command steep rates, but smaller channels with lesser revenues have emerged as an option for advertisers looking for quicker and cheaper visibility with hoardings taking a back seat in their media strategy. At the same time, corporates prefer more options within outdoors itself. As S Yesudas, Vice-President, Initiative Media, says, “The market is not particularly down. It is just that clients are looking beyond billboards at other options.” Considering there has been advancement in technology to facilitate some innovation in this medium, the big moon floating on Marine Drive may just be an indication of things to come within this industry. For instance, Initiative Media, the media buying division of AP Lintas, is exploring more options within outdoors such as ‘street furniture’ which includes public utilities, dustbins and kiosks to give outdoor advertising a new dimension. Meanwhile the pioneers of the outdoor medium since 1945, Selvel Publicity & Consultants Ltd. are not too pleased about the present condition of their industry. States Nitin A Kshirsagar, Manager-Sales, Selvel Publicity & Consultants Ltd. “At the moment we are holding on to goodwill. Profits are just about average.” If the dotcoms truly raised the hopes of the outdoor industry last year, today it is just a matter of supply surpassing demand. Summing up the present situation, Mike Khanna, Chief


Executive Officer, Hindustan Thompson Associates, says, “It was the dotcoms who strongly believed in this medium. Today it is just a case of excess supply in the market.” 161. What is the immediate objective of advertising for dotcom? [1] To create awareness of the site [2] To increase sales through e-commerce [3] To increase click-through [4] To educate customers 162. How should companies choose a site name? [1] Choose a name similar to the product category [2] Choose a name that is similar to the competitors. [3] Choose a distinct name with a cue to the service provided [4] Use the company’s name 163. How should one choose an image for the site? [1] The image should be based on the most important benefit sought by a consumer [2] The image should be based on the company’s goals [3] Image should be based on the intangible services provided. [4] Image is based on the advertisements 164. A site can attract and retain customers [1] By offering the commonly expected services [2] By advertising the site name [3] By offering not only augmented but also unexpected positive services [4] By giving customers freebies 165. Why are ad spends on billboards going down? [1] Stock market crash [2] Demand-supply mismatch [3] All of the above [4] None of the above 166. What are the factors responsible for increase in the number of hoardings? [1] Municipal Corporations are giving permission to set up more hoardings [2] Dot-com boom [3] Increasing ad budgets of FMCGs [4] Hoarding owners demand higher profits 167. How have the outdoor advertising companies fared? [1] These are growing very fast [2] They are making average profits [3] They are making losses [4] Not enough information given in the passage 168. What other advertising media are commonly used? [1] Radio [2] Television [3] Street furniture [4] All of the above 169. The article suggests that [1] Prices of hoardings will go up drastically

[2] Prices of hoardings will come down sharply [3] Prices of hoardings will be stable [4] None of the above 170. The most suitable title for this passage is [1] Advertising for dotcoms [2] Attracting customers

[3] Building an online brand [4] www.online&offline.com


DIRECTIONS for Questions 171 to 175: From the list of given alternatives choose the one that best describes the meaning of the given word: 171. Antipode

[1] Ancient [2] Head [3] An exact opposite [4] Irony 172. Moribund

[1] Pessimistic [2] Malingering [3] Delaying [4] Dying 173. Pristine

[1] Unspoilt [2] Delicate [3] Unforgettable [4] Antiquated 174. Insidious

[1] Objectionable [2] Unsettled [3] Frightening [4] Wily 175. Ingenuity

[1] Naivete [2] Inventiveness [3] Scheme [4] Natural wisdom DIRECTIONS for Questions 176 to 178: From the list of given alternatives, select the one that is the “opposite” of the given word: 176. Bacchanalian

[1] Orgiastic [2] Carnivalesque [3] Epicurean [4] Intemperate 177. Genuflection

[1] Submission [2] Subjection [3] Subordination [4] Servitude 178. Exacerbate

[1] To incite [2] To eject [3] To assuage [4] To stimulate DIRECTIONS for Questions 179 to 183: Each of the questions below consists of two words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by five pairs of related words. Select the lettered pair of words that has the same relationship as the given pair. 179. Lurk : Wait

[1] Boost : damage [2] Replenish : drain [3] Abscond : depart [4] Balk : cheat

180. Exhort : Suggest

[1] Conspire : plan [2] Tamper : adjust [3] Crave : accept [4] Goad : direct

181. Angle : Degree

[1] Area : square inch [2] Milk : quart [3] Society : Classes [4] Letter : alphabet


182. Needle : Knit [1] Bait : fish [2] Match : fire [3] Loom : weave [4] Soap : wash

183. Zoology : Animals

[1] Archeology : earth [2] Botany : plants [3] Chemistry : atoms [4] Geology : people

DIRECTIONS for Questions 184 to 188: Replace the underlined portion of the sentence by substituting the right alternative from among the given choices. 184. The rude shock unhinged him and upset his state of perfect balance.

[1] peace [2] rest [3] equilibrium [4] mentality 185. I told them to prepare a summary of the general view of the subject.

[1] paraphrase [2] synopsis [3] education [4] comment 186. The taking sides attitude of the police in the communal disturbances is under scrutiny.

[1] strong [2] partisan [3] wrong [4] clear-cut 187. The complete transformation of the Indian industry is quite an interesting phenomenon to

observe – a result of liberalisation and globalisation. [1] change [2] death [3] metamorphosis [4] coalition

188. The role of childhood experiences in shaping the personality has been the fundamental

tendency to seem opposite in nature of Freudian psychoanalysis. [1] cornerstone [2] tenet [3] controversy [4] hypothesis

DIRECTIONS for Questions 189 to 200: Each of the sentences below has one or two blank spaces indicating that something has been omitted. Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 189. Geneticist Olivia M. Pereira-Smith has published her findings on “immortal” cells, that

is, cells that reproduce by dividing ……….. [1] indefinitely [2] occasionally [3] conclusively [4] periodically 190. Ironically, the same executives who brought bankruptcy to the coal fields were ……. by

their contemporaries, who …….. the notion that these people were industrial heroes. [1] celebrated…cherished [2] respected…doubted [3] ignored…belied [4] condemned…rejected 191. Even though some people feel historians have an exclusive right to act as the interpreters

of bygone eras, most historians insist their profession has no………..interpreting the past. [1] interest in [2] responsibility in [3] consensus for [4] monopoly on 192. Fenster schemed and plotted for weeks and these……..were rewarded when Griswold

was fired and Fenster was promoted. [1] circumlocutions [2] affiliations [3] gibberings [4] machinations


193. The success of the project was attributed to team effort rather than any individual………..

[1] Compendium [2] Perfidy [3] Felicity [4] Accomplishment

194. He believes in getting value for money, and it would be inappropriate to interpret his

…………. as penury. [1] Lassitude [2] Diffidence 3] Frugality [4] Indolence

195. She is certain to alienate her colleagues in a short period of time because of her overall

……. attitude. [1] Amiable [2] Gregarious [3] Amicable [4] Munificent 196. A person should not be ………… as being either very shy or over aggressive. [1] Categorized [2] Instructed [3] Intoned [4] Distracted 197. After having ……….. arguments virtually every other day, the couple agreed that it was

best for them to separate. [1] Acerbic [2] Astringent [3] Effulgent [4] Saturnine 198. Although there was hardly any scope to find fault with the minister’s cautiously worded

response, several members of the opposition took …… it. [1] Liking for [2] Pleasure in [3] Exception to [4] Liberties with 199. Though the region was prone to hurricanes, the ferocity of the tornado last year was

……… . [1] Unprecedented [2] Poignant [3] Mercurial [4] Portentous 200. Having obtained definite information about drugs being smuggled in, the customs

officials decided to switch from a …… checking of the passenger baggage to a rigorous inspection.

[1] Specious [2] Cursory [3] Mellifluous [4] Meticulous


ANSWER KEY

SECTION I 1. [2] 2. [1] 3. [1] 4. [2] 5. [3] 6. [2] 7. [3] 8. [4] 9. [2] 10. [3] 11. [4] 12. [4] 13. [2] 14. [1] 15. [4] 16. [1] 17. [1] 18. [1] 19. [1] 20. [3] 21. [4] 22. [1] 23. [1] 24. [1] 25. [3] 26. [3] 27. [2] 28. [2] 29. [4] 30. [3] 31. [4] 32. [3] 33. [1] 34. [2] 35. [3] 36. [4] 37. [1] 38. [2] 39. [2] 40. [1] 41. [2] 42. [2] 43. [3] 44. [3] 45. [2] 46. [2] 47. [1] 48. [2] 49. [4] 50. [4]

SECTION II

51. [4] 52. [1] 53. [1] 54. [1] 55. [3] 56. [4] 57. [3] 58. [4] 59. [1] 60. [4] 61. [1] 62. [2] 63. [1] 64. [3] 65. [3] 66. [2] 67. [2] 68. [4] 69. [1] 70. [4] 71. [3] 72. [4] 73. [3] 74. [4] 75. [3] 76. [3] 77. [2] 78. [4] 79. [1] 80. [4] 81. [4] 82. [3] 83. [3] 84. [4] 85. [4] 86. [3] 87. [1] 88. [3] 89. [1] 90. [1] 91. [1] 92. [1] 93. [2] 94. [1] 95. [3] 96. [3] 97. [2] 98. [1] 99. [3] 100. [3]

SECTION III

101. [4] 102. [1] 103. [2] 104. [3] 105. [3] 106. [3] 107. [1] 108. [2] 109. [1] 110. [3] 111. [3] 112. [1] 113. [2] 114. [2] 115. [3] 116. [3] 117. [2] 118. [3] 119. [4] 120. [2] 121. [1] 122. [1] 123. [3] 124. [4] 125. [2] 126. [3] 127. [2] 128. [1] 129. [2] 130. [1] 131. [3] 132. [3] 133. [4] 134. [3] 135. [2] 136. [4] 137. [2] 138. [3] 139. [3] 140. [1] 141. [3] 142. [1] 143. [3] 144. [4] 145. [2] 146. [2] 147. [3] 148. [4] 149. [1] 150. [2]

SECTION IV

151. [2] 152. [2] 153. [3] 154. [3] 155. [1] 156. [1] 157. [1] 158. [2] 159. [2] 160. [2] 161. [1] 162. [3] 163. [1] 164. [3] 165. [4] 166. [1] 167. [2] 168. [2] 169. [4] 170. [4] 171. [3] 172. [4] 173. [1] 174. [4] 175. [2] 176. [3] 177. [1] 178. [3] 179. [3] 180. [4] 181. [1] 182. [3] 183. [2] 184. [3] 185. [2] 186. [2] 187. [3] 188. [3] 189. [1] 190. [1] 191. [4] 192. [4] 193. [4] 194. [3] 195. [4] 196. [1] 197. [1] 198. [3] 199. [1] 200. [2]


SOULUTIONS

SECTION I

1. We know that the height of the pole = AC + BC. Let BC = x, then in right triangle

ABC tan 60° = 1010

=⇒ xx

√3.

Now let AC = y, then cos 60° = ⇒y

10y = 20. The height of the pole = 20 + 10¥3.

Ans. [2] 2. Let the side of the square = a units. Then the diagonal of the square = ¥2a units.

Hence, the ratio of the areas of both the squares = 2

2

)2( a

a = 1 : 2

Ans [1] 3. Let the number be x. Then,

87

1

5

3

3

1 =××× x

⇒ x = 8× 35 = 280 4. Ans. [2]

5. Given f(x) = x

x

−1. Therefore, f[h(x)] = x ⇒

x

xxhx

xh

xh

+=⇒=

− 1)(

)(1

)(.

Ans. [3] 6. x2 + ax + b = 0

For Manju, x2 + ax + b1 = 0 Sum of roots = –a 6 + 2 = –a ⇒ �a = –8 For Anju, x2 + a1 x + b = 0 Multiplication of roots = b (– 7) × (– 1) = b ⇒ �b = 7 ∴�(TXDWLRQ LV [2 – 8x + 7 = 0 ⇒ �x2 – 7x – x + 7 = 0 or (x – 7) (x – 1) = 0 ⇒ x = 7 or 1

7. Let the height of the small cone = h units. Then by the condition given in the question :

HRhr 22

3

1

27

1

3

1 ππ ×= and 2

2

2

2

H

h

R

r =

.103

30

3=== H

h


Ans[4], none of these.

8. Given 5 singers are below the age of 25 years and total 20 members are below the age of

25 years. So, the number of Dancers below 25 years = 20 – 5 = 15. Required Percentage = 15 × 100/60 = 25 %. Ans. [4]

9. Let the cost price = Rs. x and marked price = Rs. y. Then by the condition given in

question:

1.33x = 0.95y 7

5

133

95 ⇒=⇒y

x. Hence, Marked Price should be

5

10057 ×− hc = 40%

more than cost price. Ans [2]

10. Let Y get Rs. y and Z get Rs. z. Then by the condition given in the question y – 20 = z + 20 = x...(1) Again x + y + z = 120...(2) by equation (1) and (2) we get x = 40, y = 60, z = 20. Ans [3]

11. Since, it is not given that how many students are between Ravi and Reena we cannot

determine the Reena’s Rank from the front. Ans. [4] 12. While returning the speed of the traveller = 50 × 120/100 = 60 kmph. Average speed

during the whole journey = 2 × 50 × 60/(50 + 60) = 54.5 kmph. Ans. [4]

13. In an hour the bells ring = 10 8, 7, 6, of LCM

6060× = 4.28 = 4 times. Ans [2]

14. Let the usual speed of the person = x kmph and the distance = d km. Then time = d/x

hours. Again by the condition given in question 4d/3x = d/x + 1/3 ⇒ �d/x = 1 hour. Ans. [1]

15. B C

A D

Let, the side of the square garden = x units. Then the length of the rope = 2

x units. Then,

the area ungrazed = 4

22 x

xπ− = units

x

4

)4(2 π−.

Ans. [4]

Ungrazed Area


16. Let the Tony’s salary = Rs. x. Then, Tina’s salary = 0.6x and the salary of Tito = 2.1

6.0x =

0.5x. Now by the condition given in the question : x + 0.6x + 0.5x = 6300 ⇒ �2.1x = 6300 ⇒ �x = 3000. Hence Tony’s salary = Rs. 3000. Ans. [1]

17. Degrees travel by minute hand between 4 : 45 to 5 : 45 = 360° and degrees travel by

minute hand between 5 : 45 and 6 : 15 = 180°. Hence, total degrees traveled = 540°. Ans. [1]

18. Total amount of bill = 380 + 5% of 125 = 380 + 6.25 = Rs. 386.25. Ans. [1] 19. 1 hr = 3,600 s

LCM of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12

2 6, 7, 8, 9, 12 2 3, 7, 4, 9, 6 3 3, 7, 2, 9, 3 1, 7, 2, 3,1

= 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 2 × 3 = 504

∴�1XPEHU RI WLPHV 7504

3600=

20. Let radius of circle be R1 = r.

∴�$UHD RI FLUFOH A1 = πr2 Radius is increased by 100%

∴R2 = 2r A2 = π×(2r)2

Area of the circle increased = 1001

12 ×−A

AA

1004

2

22

×Π

Π−Πr

rr

= 300% 21. For P = 1, the value of expression 4 – 7 + 5 = 2 which is a the positive value. Ans. [4] 22. Since the average of the three numbers is 410, hence the total of the three numbers = 410

× 3 = 1230. Let the other two number are x and x + 25. Then, by the condition given in question : 2x + 25 = 1230 – 185 ⇒ �x = 510. Hence the smallest number = 185. Ans. [1]

23. Let the numbers are x and y. Then by the condition given in the question x + y/ 2y = 3/5

⇒ �x/y = 1/5. Ans. [1] 24. 104. Ratio of shares = A : B : C

A : B = 100 : 50


B : C = 100 : 40 ⇒ �A : B : C = 200 : 100 : 40 = 10 : 5 : 2

∴B’s share = ×17

51683 = Rs. 495

25. Length of the smaller cube = 1 mm

Length of the bigger cube = 1 m = 1,000 mm

So number of cubes = cubesmaller theof Volume

cubebigger theof Volume

= =××

××111

1000100010001,00,00,00,000

Since each smaller cube is having a side of 1 mm, while coining these small cubes end-to-end, total length of this cube-rope will be 1 × 1,00,00,00,000 mm = 1,000 km.

26. Use a + b + 100

ab

%1100

10101010 −=×−−⇒

27. Total number of valid votes

= ×difference Percentage

Difference100

= 1002872

440 ×−

= 10044

440×

= 1,000 ∴Total number of voters = 1000 + 350 = 1,350 28. A rectangular solid has 12 edges in which 4 edges represent length, 4 represent breadth

and 4 represent height. Sum of all edges = 4l + 4b + 4h = 4 x (l + b + h) �a multiple of 4.

29. 10% of Rs. 500 = Rs. 50 and 5% of Rs. 50 = Rs. 2.5

30. 1 hour work of the leak = 6

1

1 hour work of the tap = 10

1

The tap can fill the tank in 610

106

10

1

6

11

−×=

− = 15 hr

∴�&DSDFLW\ RI WKH WDQN �� î �� î �2

1 = 3,150 L


31. The smallest such number is 1. 32. Work with choices 33. Simple interest on Rs. 645 for 1 year = 690 – 645

= Rs. 45 Simple interest for 4 years = 45 × 4 = Rs. 180 ∴Principal = 645 – 180 = Rs. 465

34. 2x + 3y + 4z = 27 … (i)

and 3x + 2y + z = 33 … (ii) Adding (i) and (ii), we get 5(x + y + z) = 60 ⇒ �(x + y + z) = 12

∴�$YHUDJH ( )

3

12

3=++ zyx

= 4

35. Time Relative speed Distance between A and B

1 p.m. 0 km/hr 8 km 2 p.m. –3 km/hr 11 km 3 p.m. –2 km/hr 13 km 4 p.m. –1 km/hr 14 km 5 p.m. 0 km/hr 14 km 6 p.m. +1 km/hr 13 km 7 p.m. +2 km/hr 11 km 8 p.m. +3 km/hr 8 km 9 p.m. +4 km/hr 4 km Hence, between 9 p.m. and 10 p.m. the relative speed is 5 km/hr. As distance between

them is 4 km, the time required is 605

4 × = 48 min.

36. Area grazed by one horse = 4

2rΠ

D C

A B | a a | | 2 2 |

Area grazed by four horses = πr2

Here, r = 2

63.

a


When a is side of square ABCD. ∴�$UHD OHIW XQJUD]HG D2 – πr2

= 632 – π× 2

2

63

= 632

×−×

4

1

7

221

= 63228

663

28

2228 2 ×=

−×

= 632 14

3×

= 2

3963 ×× = 850.5 m2

37. A | | B

=B of Speed

A of Speed

meetingafter dis. remaining thecomplete A toby taken Time

meetingafter dis. remaining teh complete toBby taken Time

21

4 ==

Speed of A = 2 × Speed of B. So, the first train is twice as fast as the second train.

38. 1 + 12

13

144

169

12==x

112

1

12

112

13

12

=⇒

=⇒

−=⇒

x

x

x

39. -25 (x2 – 2 2 x + 2) ≥ 0

⇒ x2 - 2 2 x + 2≤ 0

⇒ (x - 2 )2 = 0 As square of real number cannot be –ve.

∴(x - 2 ) = 0 ⇒ x = 2 40. g(x) = x3 + 2 ⇒ �g(2) = 23 + 2 = 10

f(x, y) = xy ⇒ �f(3, 10) = 3 × 10 = 30 41. To calculate the number of games, it will be (n –1), i.e. 150 – 1 = 149.


Alternative method: As there are 150 members, so in order to decide the champion there has to be one less than the total number of members, i.e. 149 games.

42. 328 = (34)7 = (81)7 = (80 + 1)7

When divided by 80, remainder is 1.

43. ( ) ( )

−−++=

+−+

−+

57

5757

57

57

57

5722

= 57

5725757257

−−++++

= 122

24 =

44. In ∆A �BC, BC is the circumference of a cylindrical pole.

When the insect climbs the pole in spiral, it will be covering AC = 22 43 + = 5ft. A 4 B 3 C

For every 5 ft of spiral distance, effective height covered by the insect = 4 ft

Hence, if the height of this pole is 16 ft, the insect will travel = 164

5× = 20 ft

45. Circumference of wheel = π�d

Distance travelled by wheel in n revolutions = nπ�d

= 100 × 637

22×

= 19,800 cm = 198 m

46. 222

2 −+ xx

= 1280

9

225122

5125

212802

12802

52

9

=⇒=⇒=⇒

=×=⇒

=

⇒

x

xx

x

x

47. [1] No of batches = 12 symbol 180 × 1.5 = 18; no. of sugar cups = 18 × 6 = 108.


48. [2] No. of people who do not prefer chicken or fish = 50 + 60 - 90 = 20. 49. [4] We get x/4 - x/5 = ¼; solving we get x = 5. [x is the distance]. 50. [4] Squaring, (x - 1/x)² = x² + 1/x² - 2 = 4. Squaring once again,

36211

44

2

22 =++=

+

xx

xx

Hence 341

44 =+

xx .

SECTION II

51. [4] Ram says that only 2 alternatives are possible but Sita gives a third one. 52. [1] The survey could have underestimated dishonest students if they claimed that

they were honest 53. [1] If you believe Anu Malik, then J or L are insane. But from statement I, both must

be insane together. 54. [1] It is assumed that a married person loses his identity. Statements II & III are not

in the statement. 55. [3] If some other benefit is obtained, then the disadvantage of marriage can be

overcome, hence [3]. 56. [4] If a majority of people complained about losing their identity, then the statement

would be strengthened. 57. [3] If painter works on Thursday, then carpenter and plumber have come before him

and D must also be before E. This leaves E for Friday. 58. [4] If painter is on Friday, all others are before him. but E can work on Wednesday

or Tuesday, hence [4] is wrong. 59. [1] We get : I, E, C, PL, P, Hence [1]. 60. [4] T and A do not live in any of the end houses, hence B and D live there. They own

grey and mauve cars, hence e) is wrong. 61. [1] If A owns violet, only one colour (orange) is left for T. 62. [2] B is at the extreme, so T can be adjacent to him, hence 2 is not necessarily true. 63. [1] Since A is at 5, places 4 and 6 must not have smokers. Hence TVM can occupy

1, 2 or 3 places only and S and K can occupy 4 or 6. As K is not an answer choice, we can say that A must be next to S.


64. [3] From Q. 63. 65. [3] V and K must be together, hence V must be at 3 66. [2] If T takes over the duties of S, then he must talk on the phone and therefore he

cannot be next to M, who requires silence. Thus T or M must ask for a change in seating plan.

67. [2] We get OQPNLM. Hence Q is before P. 68. [4] NLPOQM. Then Q is immediately before M. 69. [1] From Q. 67 70. [4] B must precede C, hence must be at 4. 71. [3] B cannot be at 3 because it would mean then C must come after lunch, which is

not allowed. 72. [4] D must be at 1, F at 2; then B and C must come after lunch, which means that c

must be at 5. 73. [3] We get DBCAFE from this condition. 74. [4] Zeenat is between Akbar and Anthony while Parveen is unwilling to stay next to

any occupied cottage, hence statement V can be derived. 75. [3] We get - Amar Akbar Zeenat Anthony - Parveen - Hema. There are 4 people next

to vacant cottages. 76. [3] From Q. 75. 77. [2] It is given that S and T must be together and K is at 3. Only b) satisfies all the

conditions. 78. [4] In this choice, K is not at 3, which is a required condition. 79. [1] If V is at 5 and K is at 3 then the only positions for S and T are 1 and 2 since they

have to be together. 80. [4] KTS are at positions 3, 4 and 5. Hence V cannot be at 5. 81. From statement I, we get 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.

From statement II, all numbers which is multiple of 3. Combining both, we get the numbers 3 and 9. Hence, we cannot decide.

82. Both the statements are needed.

Apply B

b

A

a

sinsin=


83. Both the statements are needed.

First statement says x > 2

1 or x <

2

1− ;

Second statement indicates x > 0.

84. Cannot be determined. The second statement indicates that Raju can be a liar or can be truthful.

85. Cannot be determined. The length of the race has to be known.[4] For questions 86 to 88: The possible combinations that meet all the conditions

Mon Tue Wed Thurs Fri Sat Sun a) N M R O/P S Q P/O b) M N R O/P S P/O Q On the basis of these possibilities, we can solve the questions easily. 86. [4] 87. [1] 88. [3] For questions 89 to 92: For solving these questions, we use the diagram given below: A B x b a y d z C c A = 40, B = 50 and C = 30 A + B + C = 120 n(A∪B∪C) = 100 – 20 = 80 Number that play exactly two games (x + y + z = 20) Thus, we get the following equations (a + b + c) + d = 80 – 20 = 60 (a + b + c) + 3d = 120 – 2 (20) = 80 ∴ d = 10 = n (A∩C) 89. Number of students playing at least 2 games = 20 + 10 = 30. [1]

C


90. Number of students playing exactly one game = 80 – 30 = 50. [1] 91. Number of students playing exactly one game = 100 – 20 = 80 [1] 92. Number of students playing all 3 games =d = 10. [1] 93. In alternative [1], V and Z are not supposed to sit together.

Alternative [2], is correct. In alternative [3], Y sits at the head of table. In alternative [4], X sits at the head of table.

94. Since V and Y sit together W and T sit near Z leaving X next to T. [1] 95. U X Z W [1] Y V T 96. U V Y Z [3] W T X 97. U 1 2 Z [2] Y V X For questions 98 to 100: Use diagram to arrive at the correct answers. 98. [1] 99. [3] 100. [3]

SECTION IV 151. [2] The passage is about Victorians idea of invention, but which resulted in a number of

useless inventions. 152. [2] It is stated that inventions should facilitate life, i.e. ntility shunre over-ride the mere act of

in venting. 153. [3] It is the author’s new of inventions that triumphs


154. [3] “numerous plans and inventions” 155. [1] The discussion about the mouslg shows that slice regards whlity more important. 156. [1] The knight wants to do things in a particular way even if they are useless and serve no

purpose. Hence the best choice to describe victiorian era is a). 157. [1] a see brackets in the passage. 158. [2] From Victorian era, when same inventions did not serve any purpose, it moved ot

Industrial Revolution, during which all inventions were put to commercial use 159. [2] It was industrial era that produced wealth 160. [2] The passage talks about art and whlity of inventions, hence the best choice is b). 161. [1] “is to make sure that their site name is top-of-mind”, i.e. awareness. 162. [3] Third para: “providing a tangible are about the service always helps. 163. [1] Fourth para: “simple most important benefit that is sought by a consumer” 164. [3] Fifth para: unexpected positive service 165. [4] Spends or billboards are going down because advertsers are looking at other options,

according to the passage. 166. [1] In a bid to fill up empty coffers, municipal corporations are giving permissions to put up

boardings without any limit. 167. [2] The companies are holding out and are making average profits, as stated. 168. [2] Only telension is mentioned in the passage 169. [4] The article does not make any future predictions. 170. [4] The article is about dotcom advertising but later talks of boardings and outdoor

advertising. Only e) reflects both these themes. 171. [3] Antipode: an exact opposite. 172. [4] Moribund: dying, stagnant, obsolescent 173. [1] Pristine: immaculate, unspoiled, original state. 174. [4] insidious: gradual and harmful 175. [2] Ingenuity: inventiveness 176. [3]


177. [1] 178. [3] 179. [3] Lurk and wait are synonyms, so are abscond and depart. 180. [4] Exhort is to urge; goad is to prod. 181. [1] Look for units of measurement 182. [3] We use needle to knit, loom to weave. 183. [2] Zoology is the study of animals, botany is study of plants. 184. ‘Equilibrium’ means a state of composure. 185. Synopsis is a brief review of a subject. 186. Partisan is to take parts or sides. 187. Metamorphosis is to change form completely. 188. Controversy is a dispute, argument or debate. 189. [1] 190. [1] 191. [4] 192. [4] 193. [4] success….. accomplishment 194. [3] finagle: economical in manner 195. [4] truculent - fierce or cruel. A ferocious manner will alienate her colleagues 196. [1] A person should not be categorized, or labelled as…… 197. [1] acerbic - bitter 198. [3] to take exception to - were in opposition to 199. [1] unprecedented - without precedence 200. [2] cursory- careless or without details

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