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    IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

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    7

    A. General

    1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages.

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    PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

    PAPER I

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    PART A : PHYSICS

    SECTION I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has

    4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    1.A gas consisting of diatomic molecules is expanded adiabatically. How many

    times has the gas to be expanded to reduce the root mean square velocity of

    molecules to2

    3of the initial value?

    (A) 7.6 (B) 2.8 (C) 5.2 (D) 1.5

    2. The wavelength of light coming from a distant galaxy is found to be 0.5% more

    than that coming from a source on earth. The velocity of galaxy will be

    (A) 1.5 106

    m/s (B) 3 106

    m/s

    (C) 4.5 106

    m/s (D) 7.5 107

    m/s

    3.A string of finite length L and linear density m hangs from a rigid support. The

    time taken by a transverse wave to travel the full length of the string from its

    free end is

    (A)2

    L

    g (B)2 L g (C)2

    g

    L (D) gL

    4. When thermal neutrons are used to induce the following reaction,

    5B

    10+

    0n

    1

    3Li

    7+

    2He

    4

    alpha particles are emitted with energy 1.83 MeV. The masses of boron, neutron

    and alpha particles are respectively equal to 10.0167 amu, 1.00894 amu,

    4.00386 amu. Calculate the mass of lithium atom.

    (A) 7.0187 amu (B) 7.5 amu (C) 9.01 amu (D) 8.123 amu

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    5.At a given place where the acceleration due to gravity is g, a sphere of lead of

    density d is gently released in a column of liquid of density . If d > , the

    acceleration with which the sphere will fall is

    (A)g d

    d (B)g

    d (C)

    gd

    (D)

    gd

    d

    6. If N is the number of radioactive atoms at time t and if T is its half -life period,

    then the rate of change of N with time is

    (A)log

    e2

    T(B)

    0.693 N

    T(C)

    T

    0.693(D)

    T

    7. One face of a prism is silver polished. A light ray falls at an angle of 45 on the

    other face. After refraction, it is subsequently reflected from silver face and then

    retraverses its path. The angle of the prism is 30. What is its refractive index?

    (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.78

    8.An air-filled parallel plate capacitor is constructed which can store 12 C charge

    when operated at 1200 V. The dielectric strength of air is 3 106V/m. What is

    the minimum area of the plates of the capacitor?

    (A) 1 m2 (B) 0.45 m

    2 (C) 1.5 m

    2 (D) 1.2 m

    2

    9. The orbital period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius r about a spherical

    planet of mass M and mean density for a low altitude orbit (r = rp

    ) will be

    (A)3

    G(B) 3G (C)

    G(D) 2G

    SECTION II

    Assertion-Reason Type

    This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains

    STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices

    (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

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    (A)Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation

    for statement 1.

    (B)Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correctexplanation for Statement 1.

    (C)Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.

    (D)Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.

    10. Statement 1: At a constant voltage, the heat developed in a uniform wire

    varies inversely as the length of wire used.

    because

    Statement 2: The power in an electrical circuit is V2

    Rwhere V is the voltage

    and R is the resistance.

    11. Statement 1: No net force acts on a rectangular coil carrying a steady current

    when suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field.

    because

    Statement 2: The forces on the opposite sides of the coil are equal and opposite.

    12. Statement 1: A filament lamp emits light having a constant phase.

    because

    Statement 2: The filament lamp emits light of different wavelengths andrandom phases.

    13. Statement 1: Rydbergs constant varies with the mass number of the given

    element.

    because

    Statement 2: The reduced mass of the electron, =mM

    m Mdepends on the

    mass of the nucleus (M).

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    SECTION III

    Linked Comprehension Type

    This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

    questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

    which ONLY ONE is correct.

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

    Two bugs each of mass 101

    kg move along a circular track of radius 2 m with

    identical speeds of 10 ms1

    in the same sense. Initially the two bugs start from the two

    ends of a diameter. A thin massless rod is now placed along the diameter of circular

    track.

    14. The angular momentum of the bugs is

    (A) 4 SI units (B) 2 SI units (C) 8 SI units (D) 6 SI units

    15. If the bugs start moving along the rod and reduce their separation to 3 m, then

    the angular speed of the bugs is

    (A) 8.89 rad/s (B) 9 rad/s (C) 10.9 rad/s (D) 12 rad/s

    16. The ratio of the rotational kinetic energy at the start and after bugs have moved

    closer is

    (A) 0.86 (B) 0.56 (C) 0.34 (D) 0.2

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19

    A small mass slides down an inclined plane of induction with the horizontal. The

    coefficient of friction is = 0

    x, where x is the distance through which the mass slides

    down and 0

    is a constant.

    17. The instantaneous acceleration of the mass is

    (A) g(sin 0

    x cos ) (B) g(sin + 0

    x cos )

    (C) g(sin cos2) (D) g(sin + cos

    2)

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    18. The distance covered by the mass before it comes to rest is

    (A)2

    0

    cos (B)2

    0

    sin (C)2

    0

    tan (D)2

    0

    cot

    19. The maximum speed over this distance is

    (A) vmax

    =g

    0

    sin tan (B) vmax

    =g

    0

    cos sin

    (C) vmax

    =g

    0

    cos cot (D) vmax

    =g

    0

    sin2 cos

    SECTION IV

    Matrix-Match Type

    This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

    columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

    matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

    have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

    If the correct matches are A-

    p, A-

    s, B-

    q, B-

    r, C-

    p, C-

    q and D-

    s, then the correctlybubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:

    p q r s

    A p q r s

    B p q r s

    C p q r s

    D p q r s

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    20. Column I Column II

    (Moment of inertia (Expression for

    of bodies) calculating them)

    (A) Rod of length L and mass M about one end (p)

    7

    5 MR

    2

    perpendicular to length

    (B) Sphere of mass M and radius R about (q)3

    2MR

    2

    any tangent plane

    (C) Circular ring of mass M and radius R (r) MR2

    2

    about any tangent in the plane of ring

    (D) Cylinder of mass M, radius R and (s) ML2

    3

    length L about its own axis

    21. Column I Column II

    (A) Energy stored in a capacitor (p)Q

    V

    (B) Capacitance of a body (q) 12

    Q

    2

    C

    (C) Capacitance of a spherical condenser (r)2

    0Kl

    loge

    b

    a

    (D) Capacitance of a cylindrical condenser (s)4

    0Kab

    b a

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    22. Column I gives formulae for calculating the apparent frequency due to Doppler

    effect and Column II gives the different situations for which the formulae will

    fit.

    us

    = Speed of source emitting sound waves

    uo

    = Speed of observer receiving the sound

    n = Original frequency

    v = Speed of sound in medium

    n = Apparent frequency

    Column I Column II

    (A) n = n v

    uo

    v us

    (p) Both source and observer receding from

    each other

    (B) n =n v u

    o

    v us

    (q) Both source and observer approaching each

    other

    (C) n =n v u

    o

    v us

    (r) Source approaching a receding observer

    (D) n =n v u

    o

    v us

    (s) Observer approaching a receding source

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    PART B : CHEMISTRY

    SECTION I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question

    has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    23. 3.92 g ferrous ammonium sulphate crystals are dissolved in 100 mL of water.

    20 mL of this solution requires 18 mL of KMnO4

    during titration for complete

    oxidation. The weight of KMnO4

    present in 500 mL of the solution is

    (A) 1.75 (B) 3.5 (C) 1.23 (D) 12.3

    24. 4.0 g of argon (atomic mass = 40) in a bulb at a temperature of T K had a

    pressure P atm. When the bulb was placed in a bath of temperature 50C more

    than the first one, 0.8 g of the gas had to be removed to get the original pressure.

    T is equal to

    (A) 510 K (B) 200 K (C) 100 K (D) 73 K

    25. Given Hf

    ofor CO

    2(g), CO(g) and H

    2O(g) are 393.5, 110.5 and 241.8 kJ mol

    1

    respectively. The standard enthalpy change for the reaction (in kJ) is.

    CO2

    (g) + H2

    (g) CO (g) + H2O (g) is

    (A) 524.1 (B) 41.2 (C) 262.5 (D) 41.2

    26.Among KO2, AlO

    2

    , BaO2

    and NO2

    , unpaired electron is present in

    (A)NO2

    and BaO2 (B) KO

    2andAlO

    2

    (C) KO2

    only (D) BaO2

    only

    27. Which of the following contains maximum number of unpaired electrons?

    (A) Mn2+

    (B) Co2+

    (C) Co3+

    (D) Fe2+

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    28. Which of the following statements regarding P4O

    10is not correct?

    (A) Each P atom is bonded to four O atoms.

    (B) P atoms are arranged tetrahedrally with respect to each other.

    (C) P O bonds have identical bond lengths.

    (D) Each P atom is bonded to one O atom with considerable p-p back bonding.

    29.An aqueous solution of potassium salt of a dibasic acid on electrolysis, forms a

    gas X at anode and decolourises Br2

    water and gives n-butane on hydrogenation

    with one equivalent of H2. Identify the gas X and the dibasic acid respectively.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    30. CH CH + HOCl X (on complete reaction). X is

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

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    31. The acids undergo Schmidt reaction to form a primary amine with one carbon

    atom less than the parent acid.

    The reaction steps involve

    (A) an acyl nitrene intermediate (B) an alkyl isothiocyanate formation

    (C) an intramolecular 1,2-shift (D) all are correct

    SECTION II

    Assertion - Reason Type

    This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question containsSTATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

    choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    (A)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

    explanation for statement 1.

    (B)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

    explanation for statement 1.

    (C)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

    (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

    32. Statement 1: Salicylic acid is a stronger acid than benzoic acid.

    because

    Statement 2: There is intramolecular H bond in salicylic acid.

    33. Statement 1: Noble gases are paramagnetic in nature.

    because

    Statement 2: He and Ne are noble gases.

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    34. Statement 1: K2CrO

    4is yellow due to charge transfer.

    because

    Statement 2: CrO4

    2

    ion is water soluble.

    35. Statement 1: 2Cu+ Cu

    2++ Cu, is an example of disproportionation reaction.

    because

    Statement 2: Cu+

    salts are generally insoluble in water but Cu2+

    salts are

    soluble.

    SECTION III

    Linked Comprehension Type

    This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

    questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

    which ONLY ONE is correct.

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38

    Hyperconjugation or no bond resonance is an important method to stabilise a

    molecule by delocalising and electrons in conjugation. Presence of at least one

    allylic hydrogen is the necessary and sufficient condition to exhibit hyperconjugation.

    In the structure I, there seems to be no bond between C and H+

    but remains intact

    with the negatively charged carbon skeleton, hence this is also called as no bond

    resonance.

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    36. The decreasing order of reactivity of the following compounds towards SE

    reaction is

    (A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I

    (C) II > III > IV > I (D) I = II > III > IV

    37. The increasing order of stability of alkyl carbocations is

    (A) I > II > III > IV (B) I < III < II < IV

    (C) IV < II < III < I (D) II < III < I < IV

    38. In the case of following alkenes, the decreasing order of reactivity is

    (A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) I = II > III (D) III > I > II

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    Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41

    A glass bulb contains 2.24 L of H2

    and 1.12 L of D2

    at S.T.P. It is connected to a

    fully evacuated bulb by a stop cock with a small opening. The stop cock is opened for

    sometime and then closed. The first bulb now contains 0.10 g of D2.

    39.Volume of D2

    diffused is

    (A) 0.56 L (B) 1.4 L (C) 5.6 L (D) 0.14 L

    40. Total amount of gases in the second bulb is

    (A) 0.2 g (B) 0.171 g (C) 2.0 g (D) 1.71 g

    41. Percentage of H2

    and D2

    gases respectively are

    (A) 41.2, 58.8 (B) 58.8, 41.2 (C) 50, 50 (D) 60, 40

    SECTION IV

    Matrix-Match Type

    This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

    columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

    matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

    have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

    If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

    bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:

    p q r s

    A p q r s

    B p q r s

    C p q r s

    D p q r s

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    42. Column I Column II

    (A) ClO (p) Number of lone pair is 1

    (B) Br3

    (q) Linear

    (C) BrF5 (r) Number of lone pair is 3

    (D) NH3 (s) Square pyramidal

    43. Column I Column II

    (A) H2 (p) Z < 1 at low pressures

    (B) CO2 (q) u

    av= 8RT

    M

    (C) CH4 (r) absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol

    (D) O2 (s) Z > 1 at all pressures

    44. Column I Column II

    (A) (p) Functional isomers

    (B) CH3CN and CH

    3NC (q) One of the isomers reacts with

    PCl5

    (C) CH3CH

    2C CH and CH

    3C CCH

    3 (r) Position isomers

    (D) CH3CH

    2OH and CH

    3OCH

    3 (s) One of the isomers responds

    iodoform test

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    PART C : MATHEMATICS

    SECTION I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has

    4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    45. Through the vertex A of the parabola y2

    = 4ax two chords AP, AQ are drawn.

    Circles on AP, AQ as diameters intersect at R. If1,

    2, are the angles made

    with the axis of the parabola by the tangents at P and Q and AR, then 2 tan is

    (A) tan 1

    + tan 2 (B) cot

    1+ cot

    2

    (C) cot 1 cot

    2 (D) 5

    46. Let a sequence z1, z

    2, z

    3, ... of complex numbers be defined by z

    1= 0, z

    n + 1= z

    n

    2+ i,

    then |z1008

    z1005

    | is

    (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5

    47. The number of real solutions of log0.5

    |x| = 2|x| is

    (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3

    48. D, E are the points of trisection of the base BC ofABC, , , are the opposite

    angles, thensin sin

    sin sin is

    (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 1

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    49. x4 1

    x4

    2x6 3x

    4 1

    dx is equal to

    (A)2x

    6 3x

    4 1

    x3

    c (B)2x

    6 3x

    41

    x4

    c

    (C)2x

    63x

    4 1

    3x3

    c (D)2x

    6 3x

    4 1

    x2

    c

    50. If 0 < < 2, the interval in which lies so that 2 cos

    2

    7 cos + 3 > 0 is

    (A) 0 ,

    3(B) 0,

    3

    (C)

    3,

    5

    3(D)

    5

    3, 2

    51.A soldier is firing at a moving target. He fires 4 shots. The probability of hitting thetarget at first, second, third and fourth shots are 0.6, 0.4, 0.2 and 0.1

    respectively. The probability that he hits the target is

    (A)2

    625(B)

    516

    625(C)

    517

    625(D)

    117

    625

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    52. If f(x) = cot1

    3x x

    3

    1 3x2

    and g(x) = cos1

    1 x

    2

    1 x2

    , then Limx a

    f x f a

    g x g a; 0 < a 0 and lm > 1.

    56. Statement 1: A function f : R R satisfies f (x + y) = f (x) f (y), x, y R and

    f(x) 0 for any x R; f(0) = 2, then f(x) = 2f(x) for all x R.

    because

    Statement 2: f x = Limh 0

    f x h f x

    h.

    57. Statement 1: If in ABC, a cos2 B

    2 b cos

    2 A

    2=

    3c

    2, then a, c, b are in AP.

    because

    Statement 2: cos A =b

    2 c

    2 a

    2

    2bc, cos B =

    c2 a

    2 b

    2

    2ca.

    SECTION III

    Linked Comprehension Type

    This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choicequestions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

    which ONLY ONE is correct.

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60

    There are n boxes. Each containing (n + 2) balls, ith

    box contains i green and the

    remaining are blue balls. The probability that second box is chosen and a blue ball is

    drawn from it is1

    8.

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    58. The probability that fourth box is selected and a green ball is drawn is

    (A)2

    9(B)

    1

    9(C)

    1

    3(D)

    1

    2

    59. The probability that a blue ball is drawn either from first box or from fifth box is

    (A)1

    24(B)

    1

    12(C)

    1

    8(D)

    5

    24

    60. Ei

    is the event that ith

    box is chosen and a green ball is drawn from it. Then

    i = 1

    6

    P Ei

    is

    (A)7

    16(B)

    1

    2(C)

    3

    16(D)

    1

    4

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63

    Summation of series

    (1) Method of difference: Each term is expressed as the difference of two terms.

    Then adding vertically certain terms get cancelled, the remaining gives sum to

    n terms.

    (2) If nth

    term = un

    = a(a + d) (a + 2d) ... (a + (n 1) d)

    Then vn

    = a (a + d) ... [a + (n 1) d] (a + nd)

    Then un

    is expressed in terms of vn v

    n 1.

    Then method of difference is followed.

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    (3) If un

    =1

    a a d a 2d ... a n 1 d, then v

    n=

    1

    ad a2d ... a n 1 d

    Then un

    is expressed in terms of vn v

    n 1. Then method of difference is

    applied.

    61. If r = 1

    n

    tr

    =1

    12(n + 1) (n + 2) (n + 3), then

    r = 1

    1

    tr

    is

    (A) 2 (B) 1 (C)1

    2(D)

    1

    3

    62. Ifur

    = tan1 2r

    2 r2 r

    4, then S

    is

    (A)

    2(B)

    4(C)

    3(D) 0

    63. If ur

    = (3r + 1) (3r + 4), then S10

    is

    (A) 12001 (B) 12003 (C) 120009 (D) 4330

    SECTION IV

    Matrix-Match Type

    This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

    columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

    matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

    have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

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    If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

    bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:

    p q r s

    A p q r s

    B p q r s

    C p q r s

    D p q r s

    64. Column I Column II

    (A) From any point on the line 2x + y = 1, (p) (3, 4)

    tangents are drawn to x

    2

    + y

    2

    4x 8 = 0,then the chords of contact pass through

    the point

    (B) From P(2, 4) on y2

    = 8x, perpendicular (q) ( 6, 4)

    chords are drawn, then the chords through

    other extremities pass through the point

    (C) From a point on the line x = 3, perpendicular

    tangents are drawn to the ellipse9x

    2+ 16y

    2= 144, then the point is

    (r)3

    2

    , 2

    (D) H and H are the foci of the ellipse (s) (10, 4)

    4x2

    + 9y2

    = 36. P is a point on the ellipse such

    that area ofHPH is 10 sq. units, then P is

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    65. Column I Column II

    (A) If k = 1

    n

    m = 1

    k

    m2

    = An4

    + Bn3

    + Cn2

    + Dn + e, (p)1

    4

    then value of A is

    (B) Let

    x2 3x x 1 x 3

    x 1 2x x 4

    x 3 x 4 3x

    = ax4

    + bx3

    + cx2

    + dx + e (q)1

    12

    is an identity in x and a, b, c, d, e are independent

    of x, then value of e is

    (C) If sin x + sin y = 3(cos y cos x), then value of

    sin 2x + sin 2y is

    (r)1

    8

    (D) If {x} denotes the fractional part of x, then 52n

    8is

    (where n is a positive integer)

    (s) 0

    66. Column I Column II

    (A) The area of the triangle formed by the distinct (p)17

    2

    roots of 1 + z + z3

    + z4

    = 0 is

    (B) The area of the triangle formed by the roots of (q)3 3

    4

    z3

    + iz2

    + 2i = 0 is

    (C) The number of solutions of tan x = 1 + x in

    2, 2 is (r) 3

    (D) The value of cos2

    5 + cos2

    10 + ... + cos2

    90 is (s) 2

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    SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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    SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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    Name: . Enrollment No.:

    Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Qns- 26

    C. Question paper format:

    13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.

    14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

    which only one is correct.

    15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-

    2 (Reason).

    Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of

    STATEMENT-1.

    Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-

    2 is not the correct explanation ofSTATEMENT-1.

    Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

    Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

    16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be

    answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is

    correct.

    17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in

    the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to

    these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given

    at the beginning of the section.

    D. Marking scheme:18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

    corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

    one (1) mark will be awarded.

    19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

    corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

    one (1) mark will be awarded.

    20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble

    corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

    one (1) mark will be awarded.

    21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles

    corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectlybubbled answer.

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    1

    BRILLIANTS

    HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

    FOR OUR STUDENTS

    TOWARDS

    IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

    PART A : PHYSICS

    SECTION I

    1. (A) RMS velocity absolute temperature

    v1 T

    1

    v2 T

    2Q

    v1

    v2

    =3

    2

    T1

    T2

    =3

    2

    2

    But T1v

    1

    1= T

    2v

    2

    1

    T1

    T2

    =v

    2

    v1

    1

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 1

    PAPER I - SOLUTIONS

    PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

    IIT-JEE 2008

    STS VII/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS

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    2

    3

    2

    2

    =v

    2

    v1

    1

    v

    2

    v1

    1.4

    1

    =v

    2

    v1

    25

    v2

    v1

    =3

    2

    25

    2=

    3

    2

    5

    =243

    32= 7.6

    2. (A) Using Doppler shift formula for spectral lines, we get

    =

    0.5

    100=

    v

    c

    Velocity of galaxy v = 1.5 106 m/s.

    3. (A) Velocity of transverse wave in a string =T

    m

    Tension T(x) at a distance x below = weight of string below that point

    T(x) =M

    Lgx = mgx

    Speed of wave =T x

    m= gx

    As the wave travels, its speed changes from point to point.From point x to x + dx, let the wave travel in dt second

    dx = v(x) dt

    t =0

    L

    dx

    v x=

    0

    L

    dx

    gx= 2

    L

    g

    4. (A)5B

    10+

    0n

    1

    5B

    11

    3Li

    7+

    2He

    4+ Q

    The energy Q produced by reaction is in the form of kinetic energy of3Li

    7

    and2He

    4. Since the compound nucleus B

    11is at rest, the product nuclei will

    move in the opposite direction to conserve the momentum. Let v1 and v2 bethe velocity of Li

    7and He

    4respectively.

    7v1

    = 4v2

    Total kinetic energy, Q =1

    2 7v

    1

    2 4v

    2

    2

    =1

    2 4v

    2

    21

    4

    7 Q v

    1=

    4

    7v

    2

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    3

    Kinetic energy of He nuclei = 12 4 v2

    2

    = 1.83 MeV

    Q = 1.83 11

    7MeV =

    1.83 11

    7 931amu = 3.08 10

    3amu

    The reaction can be written as

    10.0167 + 1.00894 Li7

    + 4.00386 + 0.00308

    Mass of Li7

    = 7.0187 amu

    5. (A) If V is the volume of sphere, mass of sphere = Vd

    Net force acting on the sphere = weight upward thrust

    = Vdg Vg

    acceleration =force

    mass=

    Vdg Vg

    Vd=

    g d

    d

    6. (B) Half-life period, T =log

    e2

    =

    0.693

    , where is decay constant.

    =log

    e2

    T

    dN

    dt

    = N

    =log

    e2

    TN =

    0.693 N

    T

    7. (B) Light ray must fall normally at silvered face in order to retraverse the path.

    It is clear from the Figure, the angle

    of refraction at the first surface is 30.

    =sin 45

    sin 30

    =

    1

    2

    2

    1

    = 2

    8. (B) Q = 12 106

    C, V = 1200 V

    Capacitance =Q

    V=

    12 10 6

    1200= 10

    8Farad

    Dielectric strength = 3 106

    V/m

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    4

    If t is thickness and operating voltage is 1200 V and x is the distance betweenplates

    then,1200

    x= 3 10

    6

    x = 4 10 4

    m

    Capacitance =

    0A

    xor A =

    4 104

    10 8

    8.85 1012

    A = 0.45 m2

    9. (A) We have, mv

    2

    r= GMm

    r2

    v =2r

    T

    m4

    2r

    2

    rT2

    =GMm

    r2

    T =2r

    32

    GM

    M =4

    3r

    3 and r = r

    p

    T =2r

    p

    32

    G4

    3 r

    p

    3

    =3

    G

    SECTION II

    10. (A) P = i2R =

    V2

    R. Since R varies directly as the length, the heat produced varies

    inversely as the length of the wire.11. (A)

    12. (D) A filament lamp emits light of different wavelengths and random phases. Thephases change rapidly with time. The phase remains constant only during a

    short time interval of the order of 104

    to 1010

    second.

    13. (A) The reduced mass of electron, =mM

    m Mbeing dependent on the mass of the

    nucleus, the Rydberg constant also varies with mass number of given element.

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    5

    SECTION III

    14. (A) If I is the moment of inertia of the two bugs about an axis passing throughcentre, then

    I = (101

    ) 22

    + (101

    ) 22

    = 0.8 kg-m2

    The angular momentum of system = I = 0.8 5 = 4 SI units

    15. (A) When the bugs reduce the separation between them to 3 m, the moment ofinertia of system,

    I = 2 101

    (1.5)2

    = 4.5 101

    kg-m2

    = 0.45 kg-m2

    As the bugs move along the rod, the torque applied to the system is zero and

    hence the angular momentum should be conserved.L = L

    =I

    I =

    0.8 5

    0.45rad s

    1= 8.89 rad s

    1

    16. (B) Ratio of rotational kinetic energy,K

    K=

    I2

    I 2

    =0.8 5

    2

    0.45 8.892

    = 0.56

    17. (A) We consider the mass at the instant whenit has slide down a distance x along theinclined plane.

    Net downward force at this instant

    = mg sin F

    = mg sin R

    = mg sin (0

    x) mg cos

    = mg (sin 0

    x cos )

    The instantaneous acceleration =mg sin

    0x cos

    m

    = g (sin 0 x cos )

    18. (C) a =dv

    dt=

    dv

    dx

    dx

    dt= v

    dv

    dx=

    1

    2

    d

    dxv

    2

    1

    2

    d

    dxv

    2= g sin

    0x cos

    d(v2) = 2g (sin

    0x cos ) dx

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    6

    Let S be the distance covered by the mass before its stops again

    0

    0

    d v2

    =0

    S

    2g sin 0

    x cos dx

    0 = 2g sin x0

    S 2g

    0cos

    x2

    20

    S

    2g sin S 2g 0

    (cos )S

    2

    2= 0

    Since S 0, 2 sin = 0

    cos S

    S =2

    0

    tan

    19. (A) The maximum velocity is attained at the instant, the instantaneousacceleration becomes zero.

    This happens for a value x0

    of x for which, g (sin 0

    x cos ) = 0.

    x0

    =1

    0

    sin

    cos

    =tan

    0

    0

    vmax

    d v2

    =0

    x0

    2g sin 0

    x cos dx

    vmax

    2= 2g sin x

    0 g

    0cos x

    0

    2

    Substituting the value of x0

    =tan

    0

    , we get

    vmax

    = g

    0

    sin tan

    SECTION IV

    20. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r)

    21. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r)

    22. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (q); (D) (p)

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    7

    PART B : CHEMISTRY

    SECTION I

    23. (A) Equivalent weight of FeSO4 (NH

    4)2

    SO4 6H

    2O = 392

    Normality =3.92

    392

    1000

    100= 0.1 N

    20 0.1 = 18 NKMnO

    4

    NKMnO

    4

    =20 0.1

    18=

    1

    9N

    Equivalent weight of KMnO4

    (in acid medium) = Equivalent mass

    5

    = 31.6

    Amount of KMnO4

    in 500 mL =1

    9

    31.6

    2= 1.755 g 1.75 g

    24. (B) PV =4

    40RT

    PV =4 0.8

    40R T 50

    4

    40RT =

    3.2

    40R T 50

    0.1T = 0.08T + 4

    T = 200 K

    25. (B) Hreaction

    = Hf

    CO H

    f

    H

    2O H

    f

    CO

    2 H

    f

    H

    2

    = 110.5 + ( 241.8) [ 393.5 + 0]

    = 41.2 kJ

    26. (C) NO2

    contains three electron bond and in NO2 odd (unpaired) electron is

    removed.

    Peroxides O2

    2do not have unpaired electron, as the antibonding

    molecular orbitals acquired one more electron each for pairing.

    AlO2

    is obtained by the interaction of Al3+

    (2s22p

    6) and O

    2ions each of

    which does not contain unpaired electron.

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    8

    Superoxide O2

    has one unpaired electron in antibonding molecular

    orbital and is hence paramagnetic.

    27. (A) Mn2+

    (25): 3d5, 4s

    0(5 unpaired e

    )

    Co2+

    (27): 3d7, 4s

    0(3 unpaired e

    )

    Co3+

    (27): 3d6, 4s

    0(4 unpaired e

    )

    Fe2+

    (26): 3d6, 4s

    0(4 unpaired e

    )

    28. (C)

    29. (A) Since gas X decolourises Br2

    water, it indicates that it has a double bond. On

    reduction, it takes up one equivalent of H2

    which indicates that there is only

    one double bond (C = C). Gas X on reduction gives n-butane, X is either

    butene-1 or butene-2.

    So X is butene-2 and dibasic acid is

    30. (C)

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    9

    31. (D)

    SECTION II

    32. (A)o-

    substituted benzoic acids are usually stronger acids than benzoic acidsregardless of nature of substituent. This is called ortho effect. IntramolecularH-bonding stabilises the o-substituted benzoate ion thereby increasing the K

    a

    value, i.e., salicylic acid is stronger than benzoic acid.

    33. (D) Noble gases are diamagnetic in nature since they contain completed shells.

    34. (B)35. (B) In the reaction, the same element is present in different oxidation states +1

    and +2, and hence it is a disproportionation reaction.

    SECTION III

    36. (A)

    37. (B) Increasing order of stability of alkyl cations

    In alkyl carbocations, C-atoms adjacent to positively charged carbon can be

    stabilised via hyperconjugation.

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    38. (B)

    Since cis > trans, trans-2-butene (II) is more stable than cis-2-butene (I).

    cis-2-butene gives 2 carbocation (less stable) while isobutylene (III) gives

    a 3 carbocation (more stable).

    Hence III is more stable than I and II.

    the correct order of stability is

    39. (A) 22.4 L g of H2

    at STP weighs = 2 g

    2.24 L of H2

    at STP weighs = 2 2.24

    22.4= 0.2 g

    Similarly, amount of D2

    = 1.12 4

    22.4= 0.2 g

    Amount of D2

    present after opening the stop cock = 0.10 g

    Amount of D2

    diffused = 0.2 0.10 = 0.1 g

    Volume of D2

    diffused = 0.1 22.4

    4

    = 0.56 L

    40. (B) Let the volume of H2

    diffused from first bulb be x L.

    According to Grahams law,

    Rate, r =v

    t

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    11

    r H2 = xtand r D2 = 0.56t

    r H2

    r D2

    =

    x

    t

    0.56

    t

    r H2

    r D2

    =M D

    2

    M H2

    =4

    2

    x

    t

    0.56

    t

    =4

    2= 2

    x = 0.56 2 = 0.792 L

    Amount of D2

    in the second bulb = 0.1 g

    Amount of H2

    in the second bulb =0.792 2

    22.4

    = 0.0707 g

    Total amount of gases = 0.1 + 0.0707 = 0.1707 g

    0.171 g

    41. (A) Percentage of H2

    gas =0.0707 100

    0.1707

    = 41.2

    Percentage of D2

    gas = 100 41.2

    = 58.8

    SECTION IV

    42. (A) (q), (r); (B) (q), (r); (C) (p), (s); (D) (p)

    43. (A) (q), (s); (B) (p), (q); (C) (p), (q), (r); (D) (q), (r), (s)

    44. (A) (p), (q); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (p), (q), (s)

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    12

    PART C : MATHEMATICS

    SECTION I

    45. (B) The circle on AP and AQ as diameters are

    x x at1

    2 y y 2at

    1= 0

    and x x at2

    2 y y 2at

    2= 0

    where t1

    and t2

    are parameters of P and Q

    chord AR is x (t1

    + t2) + 2y = 0

    Slope of AR = t1 t2

    2= tan

    Slope of the tangent at t1

    = 1

    t1

    = tan 1

    Slope of the tangent at t2

    = 1

    t2

    = tan 2

    cot 1

    + cot 2

    = (t1

    + t2) = 2 tan

    46. (D) z2

    = z1

    2+ i = 0 + i = i

    z3

    = i2

    + i = 1 + i

    z4

    = ( 1 + i)2

    + i = i

    z5

    = ( i)2

    + i = 1 + i

    z2n

    = i ; n > 1

    z2n + 1

    = 1 + i

    |z1008

    z1005

    | = | i ( 1 + i)| = | i + 1 i| = |1 2i|

    = 12 2

    2

    = 5

    47. (B) The equation is1

    2

    2 x

    = x

    The graphs of1

    2

    2x

    and1

    2

    2x

    are shown in the next page.

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    13

    The line y = x cuts the curve

    y =1

    2

    2x

    at x = 1

    2

    The line y = x cuts the curve

    y =1

    2

    2x

    at x =1

    2

    The number of solutions is 2.

    x =1

    2 and x = 1

    2 satisfy the equation.

    48. (B) In ABE,sin

    BE=

    sin B

    AE

    In ADC,sin

    DC=

    sin C

    AD

    sin ( + ) sin ( + )

    =sin B sin CBEDC

    AEAD... (1)

    From ABD,sin

    BD=

    sin B

    AD

    From AEC,sin

    EC=

    sin C

    AE

    sin sin =sin B sin CBDEC

    ADAE... (2)

    1

    2gives

    sin sin

    sin sin =

    BEDC

    BDEC=

    2BD2BD

    BDBD= 4

    49. (C) I = x4 1

    x7

    2 3

    x2

    1

    x6

    dx = x3 x7

    2 3x2

    x 6

    dx

    Put u = 2 3x2

    + x6

    du = (6x 3

    6x 7

    ) dx

    = 6(x 3

    x7

    ) dx

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 13

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    I =du6

    u=

    1

    6 du

    u=

    1

    3u c

    =1

    32 3x

    2 x

    6 c

    =1

    32

    3

    x2

    1

    x6 c

    =1

    3x3

    2x6 3x

    4 1 c

    50. (C) (2 cos 1) (cos 3) > 0

    cos > 3 or cos 3 is not possible

    3,

    5

    3

    51. (C) Required probability = 1 P {he hits at none of the four shots}

    = 1 16

    101

    4

    101

    2

    101

    1

    10

    = 14 6 8 9

    10000= 1

    1728

    10000

    =4136

    5000

    =517

    625

    52. (C) f(x) =

    2 3 tan

    1x; g(x) = 2 tan

    1x

    Ltx a

    f x f ag x g a

    = 00

    form 3 tan1

    x 3 tan1

    a

    2 tan1

    x 2 tan1

    a

    By L Hospital rule, required limit =

    3

    1 a2

    2

    1 a2

    =3

    2

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 14

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    15

    53. (C)

    n2

    2a n 1 d

    n

    22a n 1 d

    =n 1

    n 3

    a n 1

    2d

    a n 1

    2d

    =n 1

    n 3

    Puttingn 1

    2

    = 6

    T7

    T7

    =a 6d

    a 6d =

    13 1

    13 3=

    14

    16=

    7

    8

    SECTION II

    54. (A) Because of statement 2, PA

    B=

    1

    4=

    P A B

    P B

    PB

    A=

    1

    2=

    P A B

    P A

    Dividing 1

    2= P A

    P B

    55. (B) tan1

    x + tan1

    (1 x) = tan1

    9

    7

    Here x > 0, 1 x > 0 and x(1 x) < 1

    we get, tan1

    x 1 x

    1 x 1 x= tan

    1 9

    7

    tan 1

    1

    1 x x2

    = tan1 9

    7

    9x2 9x + 9 7 = 0

    9x2 9x +2 = 0

    (3x 1) (3x 2) = 0

    x =1

    3,

    2

    3

    x1 x

    2=

    1

    3

    2

    3= 1

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 15

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    16

    56. (A) f x = Lth 0

    f x

    h

    f xh

    = Lt

    h 0

    f x f h f x

    hbecause of the rule

    = Lt

    h 0

    f xf h 1

    h

    = f x Lt

    h 0

    f h f 0

    h

    = f(x) f(0)

    = f(x) 2

    = 2f(x)

    S2 S

    1

    57. (B) The equation is a1 cos B

    2 b

    1 cos A

    2=

    3c

    2

    a + b + (a cos B + b cos A) = 3c

    a + b + c = 3c [By projection formula, a cos B + b cos A = c]

    a + b = 2c

    a, c, b are in A.P.

    S1

    is true and S2

    is true but S2

    does not necessarily imply S1.

    SECTION III

    58. (B) Probability (second box is selected and a blue ball drawn from it)

    =1

    n

    n 2 2

    n 2=

    1

    n

    n

    n 2=

    1

    8

    n = 6

    probability (fourth box is selected and a green ball drawn) =1

    6

    4

    6=

    1

    9

    59. (D) Required probability =1

    6

    7

    8

    1

    6

    3

    8=

    10

    48=

    5

    24

    60. (A) Required probability =1

    6

    1

    8

    2

    8

    3

    8

    4

    8

    5

    8

    6

    8

    =1

    6

    21

    8=

    7

    16

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 16

    Q by rule, f(0 + 0) = f(0) f(0)

    f(0) {f(0) 1} = 0

    f(0) 0 , f(0) = 1

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    17

    61. (C) tr = Sr Sr 1 = 112(r + 1) (r + 2) [r + 3 r] = 1

    4r 1 r 2

    1

    tr

    =4

    r 1 r 2

    Let it be ur,

    vr

    =4

    r 2

    vr v

    r 1= 4

    r 1 r 2

    r 1 r 2= ( 4) u

    r

    ur

    = 1

    4[v

    r v

    r 1]

    u1

    = 1

    4[v

    1 v

    0]

    u2

    = 1

    4[v

    2 v

    1]

    un

    = 1

    4[u

    n u

    n 1]

    Sn

    =1

    4v

    n v

    0=

    1

    4

    4

    n 2

    4

    2

    = 4

    4

    2 n 2

    2 n 2

    S

    = Lt

    n 0

    1

    2 4n

    =1

    2

    62. (B) ur= tan

    1 2r

    1 r2 1 r r

    2 1 r

    = tan1 r

    2 1 r r

    2 1 r

    1 r2 1 r r

    2 1 r

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 17

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    18

    = tan

    1

    (r

    2

    + 1 + r) tan

    1

    (r

    2

    + 1 r)u

    1= tan

    13 tan

    11

    u2

    = tan 1

    7 tan 1

    3

    un

    = tan 1

    (n2

    + 1 + n) tan 1

    (n2

    + 1 n)

    Sn

    = tan 1

    (n2

    + 1 + n) tan 1

    1

    S

    =

    2

    4=

    4

    63. (D) vr

    = (3r + 1) (3r + 4) (3r + 7)

    vr v

    r 1= (3r + 1) (3r + 4) (3r + 7) (3r 2) (3r + 1) (3r + 4)

    = (3r + 1) (3r + 4) (9)

    = 9ur

    ur

    =1

    9[v

    r v

    r 1]

    u1 =1

    9[v1 v0]

    u2

    =1

    9[v

    2 v

    1]

    u3

    =1

    9[v

    3 v

    2]

    u10 =1

    9[v10 v9]

    S10

    =1

    9[v

    10 v

    0]

    =1

    9313437 28

    = 4330

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 18

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    SECTION IV

    64. (A) (q); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (r)

    (A) Any point on the line 2x + y = 1 is (x1, 1 2x

    1).

    Equation of the chord of contact of the circle is

    xx1

    + y(1 2x1) 2(x + x

    1) 8 = 0

    x1

    (x 2y 2) + (y 2x 8) = 0

    It passes through the intersection of x 2y = 2, 2x y = 8

    Solving, the point is ( 6, 4)

    (B) PQ, PR are perpendicular chords through P(2, 4).

    Let Q and R be [2 t1

    2, 4t

    1] [2t

    2

    2, 4t

    2]

    Slope of PQ Slope of PR = 1

    4 4t1

    2 2t1

    2

    4 4t2

    2 2t2

    2= 1

    2

    1 t1

    2

    1 t2

    = 1

    (1 t1) (1 t2) = 4

    1 (t1

    + t2) + t

    1t2

    = 4

    t1t2

    = 5 + (t1

    + t2) ... (1)

    QR is the chord through the other extremities.

    Equation of QR is y(t1

    + t2) = 2x + 4(t

    1t2)

    Substituting equation (1), y(t1

    + t2) = 2x + 4 [ 5 + (t

    1+ t

    2)]

    (t1

    + t2) [y 4] 2x + 20 = 0

    It passes through the intersection of y 4 = 0 2x + 20 = 0y = 4 2x = 20

    x = 10

    Point is (10, 4)

    (C) Any point on the line is (3, y1) ... (1)

    The director circle x2

    + y2

    = 25 ... (2)

    Q (3, y1) lies on the circle

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 19

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    20

    9 + y1

    2

    = 25

    y1

    2= 16

    y1

    = 4

    One point is (3, 4)

    (D)x

    2

    9

    y2

    4= 1

    4 = 9(1 e2)

    1 e2 = 49

    e2

    =5

    9

    e =5

    3

    H is [ 5, 0] and H = [ 5, 0]

    Let P be (x1, y

    1)

    Area ofHPH = 1

    2[x

    1(0 0) + 5 (0 y

    1) 5 (y

    1 0)] = 10

    5 y1

    = 10

    y1

    =10

    5= 2

    4x1

    2+ 9 2 = 36

    4x1

    2= 18

    x1

    2=

    9

    2

    x1=

    3

    2

    Point is3

    2, 2

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 20

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    65. (A) (q); (B) (s); (C) (s); (D) (r)

    (A) k = 1

    n

    m = 1

    k

    m2

    = k = 1

    nk k 1 2k 1

    6

    = k = 1

    nk 2k

    2 3k 2

    6

    =1

    3k = 1

    n

    k3

    1

    2k = 1

    n

    k2

    1

    3k = 1

    n

    k

    =1

    3

    n2

    n 12

    4 1

    2

    n n 1 2n 1

    6 1

    3

    n n 1

    2

    = n4 1

    12

    n3

    3

    3n2

    6

    n

    4

    A =1

    12

    (B) This is an identity in x.

    Put x = 0

    0 1 3

    1 0 43 4 0

    = e

    1( 12) + 3(4) = e

    0 = e

    e = 0

    (C) 3 cos x + sin x = 3 cos y sin y

    LHS Put r cos = 3; r sin = 1

    r2

    = 10; r = 10

    10 cos (x ), where tan = 3

    RHS r cos = 3; r sin = 1

    r2

    = 10; r = 10

    10 cos (y + ) = 10 cos (y + )

    cos (x ) = cos (y + )

    x = (y + )

    x = (y + ) x = y ; x = y

    x = y + 2

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 21

    tan = 3

    =

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    22

    x = y satisfies the given relation, 2x = 2y

    sin 2x = sin ( 2y) = sin 2y

    sin 2x + sin 2y = 0

    (D) 52n

    = (52)n

    = (25)n

    = (1 + 24)n

    = 1 +nC

    1(24) +

    nC

    2(24)

    2+ ... +

    nC

    n(24)

    n

    = 1 +nC

    1 8 3 +

    nC

    28

    23

    2+ ... +

    nC

    n8

    n3

    n

    52n

    8=

    1

    8+ integer

    52n

    8=

    1

    8

    66. (A) (q); (B) (s); (C) (s); (D) (p)

    (A) (1 + z) (1 + z3) = 0

    Roots are 1, 1,1 3i

    2

    Distinct roots are 1,1

    2

    3

    2i ,

    1

    2

    3

    2i

    1, 2, ( is a cube roots of unity)

    Length of a side = |1 2| = |2|| 1| = | 1|

    II side = |2| = ||| 1| = | 1|

    III side = | 1|

    Equilateral triangle of side is 1

    2

    3

    2i 1 = 3

    Area = 33

    4=

    3 3

    4

    (B) (z i) (z2

    + 2iz 2) = 0

    z = i, 2i 4i2 8

    2

    i, 1 i, 1 i

    Points are (0, 1) (1, 1) ( 1, 1)

    Area = 2 sq. units

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 22

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    (C) Solutions of the equations are the points of intersection of the curves y = tan xand y = x + 1.

    There are two points of intersections. There are two solutions.

    (D) cos2

    45 =1

    2

    2

    =1

    2

    cos2

    90 = 0

    5, 10, ..., 40, 50, ..., 85

    cos2

    5 + cos2

    85 = cos2

    5 + sin2

    5 = 1

    cos2

    10 + cos2

    80 = cos2

    10 + sin2

    10 = 1

    There are eight such pairs.

    Required value = 8 +1

    2= 8

    1

    2=

    17

    2

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(I)/Solns- 23

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    BRILLIANTS

    HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

    FOR OUR STUDENTS

    TOWARDS

    IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

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    Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243

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    INSTRUCTIONS:

    Name: . Enrollment No.:

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Qns- 1

    A. General

    1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 24 pages.

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    4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic

    gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

    5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the

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    6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS.

    7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

    B. Filling the ORS

    8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and

    Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.

    9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS.

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    PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

    PAPER II

    7

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    2

    PART A : PHYSICS

    SECTION I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains questions 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and

    (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    1.A resistance is in the form of a truncated cone.

    The end radii are a and b and the altitude is l.

    If the taper is small and its specific resistance is

    , what is its resistance between plane surface?

    (A)l

    ab(B)

    l

    b a

    (C) l b

    (D) l b a

    2.A copper wire of resistivity 1

    and an iron wire of resistivity 2

    have the same

    length and same potential difference is applied to their ends. If the current in

    them are to be equal, what should be the ratio of their radii?

    (A)r

    1

    r2

    =

    1

    2

    (B)

    r1

    r2

    = 1

    2

    (C)r

    1

    r2

    =

    2

    1

    (D)r

    1

    r2

    = 1

    2

    3.A mass m is fastened to one end of a massless spring of natural length a and

    spring constant k. Holding the other end, a person whirls the apparatus in a

    horizontal circle at an angular velocity . The radius of the circle is

    (A)k

    k 2

    (B) k m2

    ka(C)

    ka

    k m2

    (D)ka

    m2 k

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Qns- 2

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    3

    4.A body of density is released from rest at a height h into a lake of water

    (density ) where > . Neglecting all dissipative forces, calculate the maximum

    depth to which the body sinks before returning to float on the surface.

    (A)h

    (B)

    h

    (C)

    h

    (D)

    h

    5. In a coil having an inductance, a change in current from 5 to 10 amp taking place

    is 0.1 second induces a voltage of 10 volts. The change in the magnetic energy of

    the coil will be

    (A) 15 J (B) 7.5 J (C) 10 J (D) 20 J

    6.An equilateral triangle of side a is formed from a piece of uniform resistancewire. The current enters in one corner and leaves out of the other. The magneticfield at the centre O due to current in the loop will be

    (A)3

    0i

    4a(B)

    0

    i

    2a(C) zero (D)

    30

    i

    2a

    7. When a bright source is placed 30 cms in front of a lens, there is an erect image7.5 cm from lens. Find the focal length of the lens.

    (A) 30 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 30 cm

    8. 12 g of a gas is occupying a volume 4 103

    m3

    at a temperature of 7C. After the

    gas is heated at constant pressure, its density becomes equal to 6 104

    g/cm3.

    The temperature to which the gas has been heated will be equal to

    (A) 1127C (B) 300 K (C) 1157 K (D) 2000 K

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Qns- 3

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    4

    9.A wire shaped to a regular hexagon of side 2 cm carries a current of 2 amp. The

    magnetic induction at the centre of the hexagon is

    (A) 2.93 105

    Wb/m2 (B) 6.93 10

    5Wb/m

    2

    (C) 4 105

    Wb/m2 (D) 12 10

    5Wb/m

    2

    SECTION II

    Assertion and Reason Type

    This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains

    STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices

    (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    (A)Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation

    for statement 1.(B)Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct

    explanation for Statement 1.

    (C)Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.

    (D)Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.

    10. Statement 1: During -decay of a nucleus we get the product nucleus the

    -particle and another particle which may be a neutrino or an

    anti-neutrino.

    because

    Statement 2: This is in accordance with the principle of conservation of energy

    and momentum.

    11. Statement 1: The kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted by a photoelectric

    surface depends on the intensity of radiation.

    because

    Statement 2: The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons changes only with the

    change in frequency of the incident radiation.

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Qns- 4

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    5

    12. Statement 1: The e.m.f of a cell is greater than the potential difference

    between its terminals as measured by a voltmeter.

    because

    Statement 2: When current is drawn from the cell the potential differenceacross the internal resistance is to be taken into account and the

    e.m.f will be greater than the potential difference measured by

    voltmeter.

    13. Statement 1: One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with one mole of a

    diatomic ideal gas. The molar specific heat at constant volume is

    2R, where R is molar gas constant.

    because

    Statement 2: For a monoatomic gas Cv= 3

    2R and for a diatomic gas C

    v= 5

    2R.

    SECTION III

    Linked Comprehension Type

    This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

    questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

    which ONLY ONE is correct.

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

    A metal sphere of mass one kg is heated by means of a heater of capacity 20 W in a

    room at 20C. The temperature of the sphere becomes steady at 50C.

    14. What is the rate of loss of heat of the surrounding, when the ball is at 50C?

    (A) 20 W (B)15

    3W (C)

    50

    3W (D)

    40

    3W

    Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/PCM/P(II)/Qns- 5

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    6

    15.Assuming Newtons law of cooling, calculate the rate of loss of heat to the

    surroundings, when the ball is at 30C.

    (A)20

    3

    W (B)10

    3

    W (C)20

    7

    W (D)10

    7

    W

    16. What is the specific heat capacity of the metal sphere? Assuming that the

    temperature of ball rises uniformly from 20C to 30C in five minutes.

    (A) 500 J/kg-K (B) 250 J/kg-K

    (C) 400 J/kg-K (D) 200 J/kg-K

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19

    Blocks A and B shown in the Figure are connected with a bar of negligible weight.

    A and B each weighs 170 kg, the coefficient of friction between A and the plane is 0.2

    and that between B and the plane is 0.4 (g = 10 m/sec2)

    17. What is the total force of friction between the blocks and plane?

    (A) 900 N (B) 700 N (C) 600 N (D) 300 N

    18. What is the acceleration of the system?

    (A)35

    17m sec

    2(B)

    25

    17m sec

    2(C)

    15

    17m sec

    2(D)

    5

    17m sec

    2

    19. What is the force acting on the connecting bar?

    (A) 150 N (B) 100 N (C) 75 N (D) 95 N

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    SECTION IV

    Matrix-Match Type

    This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

    columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

    matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

    have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

    If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

    bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:

    p q r s

    A p q r s

    B p q r sC p q r s

    D p q r s

    20. Column I gives statements regarding the placement and combination andColumn II gives the corresponding changes in behaviour and focal length.

    Column I Column II

    (A) A lens is placed in a medium for which (p) The intensity of image is

    is less than that of the lens decreased

    (B) A lens is placed in a medium for which (q) Focal length increases

    is equal to that of the lens and power decreases

    (C) A convex lens and concave lens of (r) Focal length becomes infinity

    equal focal length are combined and power becomes zero

    (D) A lens of focal length f is cut into two (s) It acts like a glass state

    equal halves parallel to the principal

    axis

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    21. Column I gives the different conductors carrying current and Column II gives the

    magnetic induction due to current passing through them. Match them.

    Column I Column II

    (A) Infinitely long straight conductor at adistance r from the wire

    (p)0

    4

    2 Ni

    r

    (B) At a point x >> r on the axis of acircular coil carrying current wherenumber of turns is N, area of crosssection is A

    (q)

    0

    4

    2 Ni A

    x3

    (C) At the centre of a circular coil carrying

    current

    (r)

    0i

    4r

    (D) A long wire with semi-circular loop of

    radius r(s)

    0

    4

    2i

    r

    22. Column I lists the series observed in Hydrogen spectrum and Column II lists theposition in the spectrum. Match them.

    Column I Column II

    (A) Lyman series (p)Visible region

    (B) Balmer series (q) Ultraviolet region

    (C) Pfund series (r) Infrared region

    (D) Paschan series (s) Far-infrared region

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    SECTION I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each

    question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    23. Calculate the energy in the reaction

    21

    1H 2

    0

    1n

    2

    4He

    (Given H = 1.00813 amu; n = 1.00897 amu; He = 4.00388 amu)

    (A) 931 Mev (B) 28.2 MeV (C) 100 MeV (D) 92 MeV

    24. Ligands in a complex salt are

    (A)anions linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion.

    (B)cations linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion.

    (C)molecules linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion.

    (D)ions or molecules linked to a central atom or ion by coordinate bonds.

    25. PbBr4

    and PbI4

    do not exist because

    (A)they are of high molecular masses.

    (B)they are not soluble in water.

    (C)Pb4+ is a strong oxidising agent and Br and I are strong reducing agents.

    (D)all the above.

    26. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of logx

    mVs log p is linear with the

    slope equal to

    (A) k (B) log k (C) n (D)1

    n

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    27.An exothermic reaction X Y, has Ea

    = 30 kJ mol1

    . If energy change E during

    the reaction is 20 kJ, then the activation energy for the reverse reaction is

    (A) 30 kJ (B) 20 kJ (C) 50 kJ (D) 10 kJ

    28. Which statement about Na2S

    4O

    6is correct?

    (A)Oxidation state of all the atoms is 2.5.

    (B)Two S atoms have oxidation state + 2, while the other two have oxidationstate + 3.

    (C)Three S atoms have oxidation state + 3, the fourth S atom has oxidation state+ 4.

    (D)Two S atoms have oxidation state + 5, while the other two S atoms haveoxidation state zero.

    29. Compound X, C8H

    8O can be oxidised with KMnO

    4to Y having molecular formula

    C8H

    6O

    4. Y is dicarboxylic acid but does not give an anhydride on heating. Y gives

    only one monobromide (Z) with Fe/Br2, Z has the formula C

    8H

    5BrO

    4. Compound X is

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D) B and C

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    30. Following are two reactions

    (i) (CH3)3CBr + NaOEt (ii) C

    2H

    5Br + NaO t-Bu

    To prepare methyl-t-butyl ether, the correct method is

    (A) (i) (B) (ii)

    (C) both (i) and (ii) (D) none

    31. . Y is

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    SECTION II

    Assertion Reason Type

    This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains

    STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    (A)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

    explanation for statement 1.

    (B)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

    explanation for statement 1.

    (C)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

    (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

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    32. Statement 1: CH3 O C

    2H

    5boils at low temperature than its isomer C

    3H

    7OH.

    because

    Statement 2: CH3

    O C2

    H5

    is less miscible with water than C3

    H7

    OH.

    33. Statement 1: Benzaldehyde undergoes aldol condensation with dilute alkali.

    because

    Statement 2: Benzaldehyde has no -hydrogen atom.

    34. Statement 1: Lead (Pb2+

    ) is placed in the first as well as second group of

    qualitative analysis.

    because

    Statement 2: Both PbCl2

    and PbS are not very much soluble in water.

    35. Statement 1: When HCl gas is passed through a saturated solution of common

    salt, pure NaCl is precipitated.

    because

    Statement 2: NaCl is insoluble in water.

    SECTION III

    Linked Comprehension TypeThis section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple

    choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

    (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38

    When 1-pentyne (X) is treated with strong alcoholic KOH at 175C, it is converted

    into an equilibrium mixture of 1.3% of 1-pentyne (X) and 95.2% of 2-pentyne (Y) and

    3.5% of 1, 2-pentadiene (Z). The equilibrium is maintained at 175C.

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    36. G1

    ofor the equilibrium Y X, is

    (A) 16.0 kJ mol1

    (B) 16.0 kJ mol1

    (C) 12.3 kJ mol1 (D) 12.3 kJ mol

    1

    37. G2

    ofor the equilibrium Y Z, is

    (A) 12.3 kJ mol1

    (B) 16.0 kJ mol1

    (C) 16.0 kJ mol1

    (D) 12.3 kJ mol1

    38. Stability order of X, Y and Z is

    (A) X > Y > Z (B) Y > Z > X (C) Z > X > Y (D) Y > X > Z

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41

    Oxidation states of elements of group-13: According to electronic configuration of

    valence shell, ns2

    p1

    of these elements these should show +1 and +3 oxidation states.

    Boron shows only + 3 state but other elements show +1 to +3 states. The + 1 oxidation

    state becomes more and more stable on moving down the group from B to Tl. Thus

    Tl(I) compounds are more stable than that of Tl(II).

    39. The wrong statement about boric acid is

    (A) It is a very weak acid.

    (B)It is a tribasic acid since formula of boric acid is H3BO3.

    (C)It is not a proton donor but behaves as a Lewis acid.

    (D)When heated with ethanol, it forms highly volatile ethyl borate.

    40. Which of the following statements about aluminium is not correct?

    (A) It liberates hydrogen from acids as well as alkalies.

    (B)It liberates hydrogen from acids and not from alkalies.

    (C)It liberates hydrogen from hot alkali solution.

    (D)It liberates hydrogen from boiling water.

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    41. BX3

    are known but BH3

    is not known because

    (A) in BH3, hydrogen atoms have no free electrons.

    (B)boron hydrides are covalent in nature and chances of p-p back bonding are

    least.

    (C)boron has incomplete octet and hence BH3

    dimerizes to form B2H

    6.

    (D)all the above.

    SECTION IV

    Matrix-Match Type

    This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

    columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to bematched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

    have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

    If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

    bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:

    p q r s

    A p q r s

    B p q r s

    C p q r sD p q r s

    42. Column I Column II

    (A) Carbon (p) group 14 element

    (B) Lead (q) sp3

    hybridisation

    (C) Silicon (r) allotropy

    (D) Germanium (s) strong catenation

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    43. Column I Column II

    (A) (p) Litmus test

    (B) (q) Effervescence with NaHCO3

    (C) (r) Reaction with NaOH solution

    (D) (s) Anhydrous ZnCl2

    /HCl (conc)

    44. Column I Column II

    (A) KCN solution (p)h =K

    w

    Kb c

    (B) 0.01 M NaOH (q) pH < 7

    (C) (CH3COOH + CH3COONa) (r) Buffer

    (D) BaSO4solution (s) pH > 7

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    PART C : MATHEMATICS

    SECTION I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each

    question has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    45. Let f(x) be a function whose domain is [ 3, 9]. Let g(x) = |2x + 7|. Then the domain

    of fg(x) is

    (A) [0, 1] (B) [ 6, 1] (C) [ 8, 1] (D) [3, 4]

    46. If the line joining (0, 4) and (7, 3) is a tangent to y =k

    x 2, then the value of k is

    (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 9

    47. Let f(n) = 10n

    + 3 4n + 2

    + 5, n N. The greatest value of the integer which divides

    f(n) for all n is

    (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 9 (D) 27

    48. If a, b, c, d are real numbers andA =a b

    c d

    and A2 (a + d)A + I = 0, then is

    (A) 2ad (B) 2bc (C) ad bc (D) ad + bc

    49. The area bounded by the circles x2 + y2 = 1 and x2 + y2 = 4 and the rays given by

    2x2 3xy 2y

    2= 0, y > 0 is

    (A) (B)

    2 (C)

    3

    4(D) 2

    50. In ABC if A =4

    9, B =

    2

    9, then a

    2 b

    2is

    (A) ab (B) bc (C) ca (D) a2

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    51. The position vector of 3 points are 3 i j 2 k , i j 3 k , 4 i 3 j k

    respectively. ABC is equilateral, then R is such that

    (A) it is equal to 3 (B) it is equal to 1

    (C) it is equal to27

    2 (D) it has no value

    52. The value of12

    21

    xcot

    7x

    1

    xdx is

    (A)

    2(B)

    4(C) 2 (D) 0

    53. The intercept made by a variable line on |x| = a, subtends a right angle at (2a, 0).

    Then the line is a tangent to a fixed

    (A) circle (B) parabola (C) ellipse (D) hyperbola

    SECTION II

    Assertion and Reason Type

    This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains

    STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

    choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    (A)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correctexplanation for statement 1.

    (B)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

    explanation for statement 1.

    (C)Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

    (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

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    54. Statement 1: 0

    sin4 x

    2dx =

    3

    8

    because

    Statement 2: 0

    2

    sinn

    x dx =n 1

    n

    1

    2

    2. where n is even

    55. Statement 1: The value ofcos 4 i sin 4 cos 5 i sin 5

    cos 3 i sin 3 cos 2 i sin 2is

    (cos + i sin )

    because

    Statement 2: If n is an integer, (cos + i sin )n = cos n + i sin n

    56. Statement 1: Ifa, b , c are non-zero vectors such that they are pairwise non-

    collinear and a 2b is collinear with c and b 3c is collinear

    with a, then a 2b 6c = 0

    because

    Statement 2: Ifx and y are collinear, then x = t y where t is a scalar.

    57. Statement 1: Solution to sin4

    x + cos4

    y + 2 = 4 sin x cos y is sin x = cos y

    because

    Statement 2: If a2

    + b2

    + c2

    = 0, then each of a, b, c is zero.

    SECTION III

    Linked Comprehension Type

    This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

    questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

    which ONLY ONE is correct.

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    Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60

    If n is an integer, then (cos + i sin )n

    = cos n + i sin n

    All the values of (cos + i sin )

    1/n

    are given by cos

    2k

    n i sin

    2k

    n ,

    where k = 0, 1, 2, 3, . . . , n 1

    58. The product of all the values of (1 + i)1/5

    is

    (A) 1 (B) 25 (C) 1 + i (D) 1 i

    59. If z3 1 = 0 has , as non-real roots, then the value of (1 + 3 + )

    3 (5 + 5 + 7)

    3

    is

    (A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 5 (D) 7

    60. The amplitude of1

    3 i

    8is

    (A)

    6(B)

    3(C)

    2

    3(D)

    2

    3

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63

    ax2

    + bx + c is a quadratic expression.

    Case I: a > 0 and D > 0

    Then ax2

    + bx + c > 0 if and only if x lies outside the interval [, ] where , are

    the roots of ax2

    + bx + c = 0, ax2

    + bx + c < 0 if and only if x lies between the roots of

    ax2

    + bx + c = 0

    Case II: D < 0

    If a is positive, ax2

    + bx + c > 0 for all real x if discriminant D = b2 4ac < 0.

    If a is negative, then ax2

    + bx + c < 0 for all real x, if D = b2 4ac < 0

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    61. The number of integral values of x for which 5x 1 < (x + 1)2

    < 7x 3 is

    (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) infinite

    62. The solution set of log1/3

    (x2

    + x + 1) > 1 is

    (A) R, set of reals (B) [ 1, 2)

    (C) ( 2, 1) (D) ( , 1) (1, )

    63. Ifx

    2 kx 1

    x2 x 1

    < 2 holds for all real x, then k belongs to

    (A) (0, 4) (B) (7, 8) (C) (8, 10) (D) ( 2, 0)

    SECTION IV

    Matrix - Match Type

    This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

    columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

    matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

    have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

    If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

    bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:

    p q r s

    A p q r s

    B p q r s

    C p q r s

    D p q r s

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    64. Column I Column II

    (A) If, are the roots of x2 2x + 3 = 0, then the

    equation whose roots are 3 3

    2+ 5 2 and

    3

    2

    + + 5 is

    (p) x2 2x + 49 = 0

    (B) The roots of the quadratic equation

    8x2 10x + 3 = 0 are and

    2,

    2>

    1

    2. Then

    the equation whose roots are ( + i )100

    and ( i )100

    is

    (q) x2 52x + 576 = 0

    (C) If , are the roots of x2

    + 6x + 5 = 0, then the

    equation whose roots are ( + )2

    and( )

    2is

    (r) x2

    + x + 1 = 0

    (D) The quadratic equation whose one root is square

    root of47 8 3 is

    (s) x2 3x + 2 = 0

    65. Column I Column II

    (A) The value of 1 +10

    C1

    +11

    C2

    +12

    C3

    +13

    C4

    is (p) 495

    (B) The number of positive integral solutions of

    x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 13 is

    (q) 1001

    (C) ABCD is a convex quadrilateral and 2, 3, 4, 5points are marked on the sides AB, BC, CD, DArespectively. The number of triangles with verticeson different sides excluding A, B, C, D is

    (r) 420

    (D) There are 7 alphabets out of which A is repeatedtwice, and B is repeated thrice (and the other twoare distinct). Then the number of arrangements ofthem is

    (s) 154

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    66. Column I Column II

    (A) The maximum value of

    1 sin

    4

    cos

    4

    is

    (p) 2 3

    (B) The numerical value of sec2

    (tan1

    2)

    + cosec2

    (cot1

    3) is

    (q) 6

    (C) If in ABC, a = 5, b = 4 and

    tanA B

    2=

    1

    3 7, then c is

    (r) 15

    (D) The area of the triangle formed by thepositive x-axis, the normal and the tangent to

    the circle x2

    + y2

    = 4 at 1, 3 is

    (s) 3

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    Name: . Enrollment No.:

    Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

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    C. Question paper format:

    13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.

    14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

    which only one is correct.

    15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-

    2 (Reason).

    Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of

    STATEMENT-1.

    Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-

    2 is not the correct explanation ofSTATEMENT-1.

    Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

    Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

    16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be

    answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is

    correct.

    17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in

    the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to

    these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given

    at the beginning of the section.

    D. Marking scheme:18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

    corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

    one (1) mark will be awarded.

    19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

    corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

    one (1) mark will be awarded.

    20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble

    corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

    one (1) mark will be awarded.

    21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles

    corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectlybubbled answer.

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