Important Embedded Questions

7/29/2019 Important Embedded Questions

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6. The 8051 can handle ________ interrupt sources.

A. 3 B. 4

C. 5 D. 6

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

There are five interrupt sources for the 8051, which means that they can recognize 5 different

events that can interrupt regular program execution. Each interrupt can be enabled or disabled by

setting bits of the IE register. Likewise, the whole interrupt system can be disabled by clearing the

EA bit of the same register.

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7. The special function registers are maintained in the next 128 locations after the general-purpose

data storage and stack.

A. True B. False


Answer: Option A

Explanation:

No answer description available for this question.Let us discuss.


8. This statement will set the address of the bit to 1 (8051 Micro-controller):

SETB 01H

A. True B. False


Answer: Option B
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Explanation:



13.When the 8051 is reset and the line is HIGH, the program counter points to the first program

instruction in the:

A. internal code memory

B. external code memory

C. internal data memory

D. external data memory


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



15. Both registers TL0 and TL1 are needed to start Timer 0.

A. True B. False

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Answer: Option B

Explanation:



16. The I/O ports that are used as address and data for external memory are:

A. ports 1 and 2

B. ports 1 and 3

C. ports 0 and 2

D. ports 0 and 3


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



17. The last 96 locations in the internal data memory are reserved for general-purpose data storage

and stack.

A. True B. False


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



18. Microcontrollers often have:

A. CPUs
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B. RAM

C. ROM

D. all of the above


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



19. The 8051 has ________ parallel I/O ports.

A. 2 B. 3

C. 4 D. 5


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



26. This program code will be executed once:

STAT: MOV A, #01H

JNZ STAT

A. True B. False


Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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27. Which of the following instructions will move the contents of register 3 to the accumulator?

A. MOV 3R, A

B. MOV R3, A

C. MOV A, R3

D. MOV A, 3R


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



28. Which of the following statements will add the accumulator and register 3?

A. ADD @R3, @A

B. ADD @A, R3

C. ADD R3, A

D. ADD A, R3


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



29. Data transfer from I/O to external data memory can only be done with the MOV command.

A. True B. False



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Answer: Option B

Explanation:



30. Which of the following commands will move the number 27H into the accumulator?

A. MOV A, P27

B. MOV A, #27H

C. MOV A, 27H

D. MOV A, @27


Answer: Option B

Explanation:


53. An alternate function of port pin P3.0 (RXD) in the 8051 is:

A. serial port input

B. serial port output

C. memory write strobe

D. memory read strobe


Answer: Option A

Explanation:




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2. If 60 J of energy are available for every 15 C of charge, what is the voltage?

A. 4 V

B. 60 V

C. 15 V

D. 0.25 V


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



4. A voltage will influence current only if the circuit is:

A. open

B. insulated

C. high resistance

D. closed


Answer: Option D

Explanation:


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7. What type of switch is this?

A. push button

B. SPST

C. DPDT

D. SPDT


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



9. In practical applications, battery voltage:

A. is restored as soon as disconnect occurs

B. is lowered as the load increases

C. may be stored indefinitely

D. will be reduced to zero as power is drawn


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



11. A voltmeter is used:

A. to measure current


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B. in series with the circuit

C. in parallel with the circuit

D. to measure coulombs


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



12. If the current in a circuit equals 0 A, it is likely that the

A. voltage is too high

B. resistance is too low

C. circuit has a short

D. circuit is open


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



13. Current equals:

A.

B. coulombs time

C.


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D. voltage time


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



36. What is a characteristic of a secondary cell?

A. rechargeability

B. not rechargeable

C. a dry cell

D. non-liquid


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



1. A computerized self-diagnostic for a ROM test uses:

A. the check-sum method


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B. a ROM listing

C. ROM comparisons

D. a checkerboard test


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



2. How many storage locations are available when a memory device has twelve address lines?

A. 144 B. 512

C. 2048 D. 4096


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



3. Which of the following memories uses a MOSFET and a capacitor as its memory cell?

A. SRAM B. DRAM

C. ROM D. DROM


Answer: Option B

Explanation:


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4. Which of the following best describes nonvolatile memory?

A. memory that retains stored information when electrical power is removed

B. memory that loses stored information when electrical power is removed

C. magnetic memory

D. nonmagnetic memory


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



2. What is the difference between mnemonic codes and machine codes?

A. There is no difference.

B. Machine codes are in binary, mnemonic codes are in shorthand English.

C. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are in binary.

D. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are a high-level language.


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



3. Which bus is bidirectional?

A. data bus

B. control bus
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C. address bus

D. multiplexed bus


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



5. A microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit form a:

A. CPU B. compiler

C. microcomputer D. ALU


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



1. Which of the following is a type of error associated with digital-to-analog converters (DACs)?

A. nonmonotonic error

B. incorrect output codes

C. offset error

D. nonmonotonic and offset error


Answer: Option D

Explanation:
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2. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a reference of 5 volts. What is the analog

output for the input code 0101.

A. 0.3125 V

B. 3.125 V

C. 0.78125 V

D. 3.125 V


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



3. A binary-weighted digital-to-analog converter has an input resistor of 100 k . If the resistor is

connected to a 5 V source, the current through the resistor is:

A. 50 A

B. 5 mA

C. 500 A

D. 50 mA


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



4. What is the resolution of a digital-to-analog converter (DAC)?
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A.It is the comparison between the actual output of the converter and its expected

output.

B.It is the deviation between the ideal straight-line output and the actual output of the

converter.

C.It is the smallest analog output change that can occur as a result of an increment in the

digital input.

D.It is its ability to resolve between forward and reverse steps when sequenced over its

entire range.


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



5. The practical use of binary-weighted digital-to-analog converters is limited to:

A. R/2R ladder D/A converters

B. 4-bit D/A converters

C. 8-bit D/A converters

D. op-amp comparators


Answer: Option B

Explanation:


1. A TRIAC:

A. can trigger only on positive gate voltages

B. can trigger only on negative gate voltages
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C. cannot be triggered with gate voltages

D. can be triggered by either a positive or a negative gate voltage


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



2. When checking a good SCR or TRIAC with an ohmmeter it will:

A. show high resistance in both directions

B.show low resistance with positive on anode and negative on cathode, and high

resistance when reversed

C.show high resistance with negative on anode and positive on cathode, and low

resistance when reversed

D. show low resistance in both directions


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



3. What does a hall effect sensor sense?

A. temperature

B. moisture

C. magnetic fields

D. pressure

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Answer: Option C

Explanation:



4. What causes the piezoelectric effect?

A. heat or dissimilar metals

B. pressure on a crystal

C. water running on iron

D. a magnetic field


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



5. Which is the DIAC?

A.

B.

C.

D.
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Answer: Option A

Explanation:

11. The truth table for an S-R flip-flop has how many VALID entries?

A. 3 B. 1

C. 4 D. 2


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



12. What is the significance of the J and K terminals on the J-K flip-flop?
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A. There is no known significance in their designations.

B.The J represents "jump," which is how the Q output reacts whenever the clock goes

HIGH and the J input is also HIGH.

C.The letters represent the initials of Johnson and King, the co-inventors of the J-K flip-

flop.

D. All of the other letters of the alphabet are already in use.


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



13. Which of the following describes the operation of a positive edge-triggered D-type flip-flop?

A. If both inputs are HIGH, the output will toggle.

B. The output will follow the input on the leading edge of the clock.

C. When both inputs are LOW, an invalid state exists.

D.The input is toggled into the flip-flop on the leading edge of the clock and is passed to

the output on the trailing edge of the clock.


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



14. What is one disadvantage of an S-R flip-flop?

A. It has no Enable input.

B. It has a RACE condition.
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C. It has no clock input.

D. It has only a single output.


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



< Prev123

6.

Calculate the magnitude of the impedance in the given circuit.

A. 24.1 M

B. 10 M

C. 26.1 M

D. 0


Answer: Option C

Explanation:


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7.

Calculate thephase angle in the given circuit.

A. 0 B. 90

C. 22.52 D. 67.48


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



8. What is the phase angle for a parallel circuit consisting of a 500 kHz, 5 Vac source with a 47 pF

capacitor, and a 4.7 k resistor in parallel?

A. 55.3 B. 55.3

C. 34.8 D. 34.8


9.
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Which circuit is represented by the frequency response curve in the given figure?

A. High-pass filter

B. Low-pass filter

C. Band-pass filter

D.Band-stop filter


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



10.

What is thephase angle in the given circuit?

A. 14.95 B. 36.88

C. 0 D. 90


Answer: Option A

Explanation:


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< Prev123Next >

11.

What is the current through XC1 in the given circuit?

A. 32.2 mA

B. 16 mA

C. 12 mA

D. 48 mA


12.

What is the total current in the given circuit?

A. 0.28 A

B. 0.399 A

C. 909 A

D. 0.2 A

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13. Which statement about a series RCcircuit is true?

A. The capacitor's voltage drop is in phase with the resistor's voltage drop.

B. The current leads the source voltage.

C. The current lags the source voltage.

D. The resistor voltage lags the current.


14.

If the frequency increases in the given circuit, how would the total current change?

A. The total current would increase.

B. The total current would decrease.

C. The total current would remain the same.

D. More information is needed in order to predict how the total current would change.


15. What is the effect of increasing the resistance in a series RCcircuit?

A. There will be no effect at all.

B. The current will increase.

C. The phase shift will decrease.

D. The input voltage will increase.

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1.

Which circuit is known as a current-to-voltage converter?

A. a B. b

C. c D. d


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



2. When using an OTA in a Schmitt-trigger configuration, the trigger points are controlled by

A. the Iout

B. the IBIAS
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C. the Vout

D. both Iout and IBIAS


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



3.

Refer the given circuits. Which circuit is known as an OTA?

A. a B. b

C. c D. d

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4.

This circuit is a setup for

A. an antilog amplifier

B. a constant-current source

C. an instrumentation amplifier

D. an isolation amplifier


Answer: Option C

Explanation:


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5.

Which circuit is known as a voltage-to-current converter?

A. a B. b

C. c D. d


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



123Next >

6. The primary function of the oscillator in an isolation amplifier is to

A. convert dc to high-frequency ac
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B. convert dc to low-frequency ac

C. rectify high-frequency ac to dc

D. produce dual-polarity dc voltages for the input to the demodulator


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



7.

Refer to Figure 20-2. This circuit is a setup for






Answer: Option B

Explanation:



8. An instrumentation amplifier has a high

A. output impedance

B. power gain
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C. CMRR

D. supply voltage


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



9.

This circuit is a setup for






Answer: Option D

Explanation:



10. Circuits that shift the dc level of a signal are called
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A. limiters

B. clampers

C. peak detectors

D. dc converters


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



11. The voltage gain of an OTA can be calculated using the formula

A.

B.

C.

D.


Answer: Option B

Explanation:


1. The primary function of the bias circuit is to

A. hold the circuit stable at VCC
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B. hold the circuit stable at vin

C. ensure proper gain is achieved

D. hold the circuit stable at the designed Q-point


2. A JFET

A. is a current-controlled device

B. has a low input resistance

C. is a voltage-controlled device

D. is always forward-biased


3. A source follower has a voltage gain (Av) of

A. AV = gmRd

B. AV = gmRS

C.

D.


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



4. The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a(n)
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A. coupling capacitor

B. dc open

C. bypass capacitor

D. ac open


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



5. The formula used to calculate the approximate ac resistance of the base-emitter diode (re) is

A.

B. re 25 mV IC

C.

D.


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



123Next >

1. When does maximum power transferhappen from the source to the load?
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A. When the source resistance is greater than the load resistance

B. When the source resistance is less than the load resistance

C. When there is negligible source resistance

D. When the source resistance equals the load resistance


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



2. A transformer is plugged into a 120 V rms source and has a primary current of 300 mA rms. The

secondary is providing 18 V across a 10 load. What is the efficiency of the transformer?

A. 88% B. 90%

C. 92% D. 95%


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



3. The coefficient of coupling between two coils is 0.45. The first coil has an inductance of 75 mH and

the second coil has an inductance of 105 mH. What is the mutual inductance between the coils?

A. 3.54 mH

B. 7.88 mH

C. 39.9 mH

D. 189.3 mH

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Answer: Option C

Explanation:



4. Increasing the number of turns of wire on the secondary of a transformer will

A. increase the secondary current

B. decrease the secondary current

C. have no effect on the secondary current

D. increase the primary current


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



5. What is the turns ratio of the transformer needed to match a 1 k source resistance to a 160

load?

A. 2.5:1 B. 0.4:1

C. 6.25:1 D. 16:1


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



123Next >
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6.

What is the secondary voltage in the given circuit?

A. 13.3 V rms in phase with the primary

B. 120 V rms in phase with the primary

C. 13.3 V rms out of phase with the primary

D. 120 V rms out of phase with the primary


Answer: Option C

Explanation:



7.The transformer turns ratio determines

A. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages

B. the ratio of primary and secondary currents

C. the reflected impedance

D. all of the above


Answer: Option D

Explanation:




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8. Mutual induction is dependent on

A. winding ratios

B. output polarities

C. dc voltage levels

D. current changes


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



9.

What is the current through the load in the given circuit?

A. 500 A

B. 10 mA

C. 250 mA

D. 1.25 A


Answer: Option C

Explanation:




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10.

What is the power dissipated in the primary of the transformer in the given circuit?

A. 25 mW

B. 500 mW

C. 12.5 W

D. 62.5 W


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



11. A special transformer used to convert unbalanced signals to balanced signals is the

A. balun

B. autotransformer

C. center-tapped transformer

D. step-across transformer


Answer: Option A

Explanation:




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12.

If the load doubled in value in the given circuit, what reflected resistance would the source see?

A. 80

B. 400

C. 2 k

D. 10 k


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



13. If the primary power of an ideal transformer having a 2:1 voltage ratio is 100 W, the secondary

power is

A. 100 W

B. 50 W

C. 75 W

D. 200 W


Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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14. A transformer has

A. primary and secondary windings, both of which are considered inputs

B. primary and secondary windings, both of which are considered outputs

C. a primary winding used as an output and a secondary winding used as an input

D. a primary winding used as an input and a secondary winding used as an output


Answer: Option D

Explanation:



< Prev123

1. Electricity may be generated by a wire:

A. carrying current

B. wrapped as a coil

C. that has neutral domains

D. passing through a flux field


Answer: Option D

Explanation:


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2.

In the given circuit, what will the voltage be across R3 25 s after the switch is moved to position

2?

A. 2.88 V

B. 5.9 V

C. 8.34 V

D. 14 V


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



3. The electrical energy consumed by a coil is stored in the form of:

A. an electrical field

B. a force field

C. an electrostatic field

D. a magnetic field


Answer: Option D
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Explanation:



4. What is magnetic flux?

A. the number of lines of force in webers

B. the number of lines of force in maxwells

C. the number of lines of force in teslas

D. the number of lines of force in flux density


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



5. As current travels within a conductor:

A. the magnetic field aids the current

B. a magnetic field is developed around it

C. the wire tries to point north

D. an electrostatic field opposes the current


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



6. What type of device consists of a coil with a moveable iron core?
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A. solenoid

B. reed switch

C. relay

D. armature


Answer: Option A

Explanation:



7. What is hysteresis?

A. lead between cause and effect

B. lag between cause and effect

C. lead between voltage and current

D. lag between voltage and current


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



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64. You could decrease the time constant of an RL circuit by

A. adding a resistor in parallel with the circuit resistance

B. adding an inductor in series with the circuit inductance
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C. decreasing the amplitude of the input voltage

D. exchanging the position of the resistor and inductor in the circuit


Answer: Option B

Explanation:



65. Indication of transformer primary and secondary voltage relationships is accomplished by:

A. color-coded wires

B. dot notation

C. black, rather than gray, casings

D. winding ratios


Answer: Option B

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