Industrial Chemistry MCQ

HKDSE Chemistry – A Modern View Part XIII Industrial Chemistry

©Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2011 1

Multiple Choice Questions

Chemistry: Chapter 52 Importance of industrial processes

Section 52.1

1

Which of the following substances is NOT contained in the mixture left from a

chemical reactor?

A. Desired products

B. Unconverted raw materials

C. Coolant

D. By-products

2

Which of the following substances is NOT a synthetic product?

A. Aspirin

B. Petroleum

C. PVC

D. MTBE

3

Which of the following best explains why an understanding of electrolysis has made a

significant impact on the production of synthetic products?

A. Electrolysis does not require an energy source.

B. Electrolysis can be used to split water into hydrogen and oxygen.

C. Electrolysis provides a way to make non-spontaneous reactions occur.

D. Electrolysis can be used to produce aluminium.

4

Which of the following statements about bulk chemicals is INCORRECT?

A. Bulk chemicals are usually simple and basic chemicals.

B. Bulk chemicals are sold thousands of tonnes per year.



C. Hydrogen is an example of bulk chemical.

D. All bulk chemicals are made from petroleum and natural gas.

5

Which of the following synthetic materials is usually used to make clothes?

A. Polyester

B. Wool

C. Polyethene

D. Cotton

6

Which of the following substances is a bulk chemical?

A. Water

B. Plastic

C. Petroleum

D. Ammonia

7

Which of the following chemicals can be used to produce nitrogenous fertilizers?

(1) Ammonium chloride

(2) Sulphuric acid

(3) Ammonia

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

8

Which of the following combinations concerning the consumer product and the

chemical of which it is made is correct?



Consumer product Chemical

A. Disposable foam food box PVC

B. Wrapping film for food Nylon

C. Shower curtain Polypropene

D. Contact lens Perspex

9

Which of the following is NOT a bulk chemical?

A. Petroleum

B. Ammonia

C. Sulphuric acid

D. Chlorine

10

Which of the following combinations concerning the chemicals and their production

processes are correct?

Chemical Production process

(1) Ammonia Haber process

(2) Sulphuric acid Contact process

(3) Vitamin C Reichstein process

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

11

Which of the following substances is NOT a bulk chemical?

A. Sulphuric acid

B. Sodium chloride

C. Water

D. Methanol



12

Which of the following are the general functions of water which is used in an

industrial process?

(1) Coolant

(2) Solvent

(3) Catalyst

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

Section 52.2

13

Which of the following statements is NOT an advantage of using petrochemical

industry for manufacturing products?

A. It increases job opportunities for the people living near the chemical plant.

B. It improves traffic network around the place where the chemical plant is

built.

C. It makes full use of a particular fraction from petroleum.

D. It produces a wide range of products.

14

Which of the following substances is used to produce ethene in petrochemical

chemistry?

A. Ethanol

B. Glucose

C. Petroleum

D. Polyethene



15

Which of the following substances is NOT made from petrochemicals?

A. Detergent

B. Textile

C. Drug

D. Brine

16

Which of the following statement(s) about petrochemical industry is/are correct?

(1) Petrochemical industry is an industry that produces petrol.

(2) Petrochemical industry produces chemicals from petroleum or natural gas.

(3) Ethene, benzene and chlorine are useful petrochemicals to produce synthetic

products.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

17

Which of the following statements are the advantages of using petrochemical industry

for manufacturing products?

(1) Large-scale production lowers the production cost of each product.

(2) Make full use of natural resources.

(3) A wide variety of products are produced.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

Section 52.3

18

Which of the following statements concerning the production of ascorbic acid is



correct?

A. Reichstein process is the only method for the production of ascorbic acid.

B. Sucrose is used as feedstock.

C. Bacteria are used for fermentation in the production process.

D. Reichstein process is a one-stage process.

19

Which of the following is a method for the manufacturing of vitamin C?

A. Haber process

B. Electrolysis

C. Reichstein process

D. Carbon reduction

20

Which of the following is NOT the symptom caused by the deficiency of vitamin C?

A. Poor wound healing

B. Night blindness

C. Bleeding or inflamed gums

D. Loose teech

21

Which of the following statements about vitamin C is correct?

A. The chemical name for vitamin C is acetic acid.

B. The intermediate compound formed in Reichstein process is called KGA.

C. The overall production cost of vitamin C by two-stage fermentation process

is higher when compared to Reichstein process.

D. The overall yield of vitamin C from glucose in Reichstein process is similar

to that in two-stage fermentation process.



22

Which of the following is the desired product of Reichstein process?

A. KGA

B. Ascorbic acid

C. Sorbitol

D. Sorbose

Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of

the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not

the second statement is a correct explanation of the first statement. Then select

one option from A to D according to the following table:

A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation

of the 1st statement.

B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct

explanation of the 1st statement.

C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

Section 52.1

23

Urea-formaldehyde can be used to

build houses.

Urea-formaldehyde is a man-made

polymer.

24

Calcium carbonate is an example of

natural raw material.

Natural raw materials are substances

that are fed into the chemical reactor

and converted to the desired product.

25

Iron ore is an example of natural raw

material.

Oxides of iron can be obtained from

iron ore.



Section 52.2

26

Plastics are made from petrochemicals

only.

Polyethene, polypropene and polyvinyl

chloride are made from petrochemicals.

Chemistry: Chapter 53 Rate equation

Section 53.1

27

Which of the following is the correct unit of rate constant for an overall first order

reaction?

A. mol1 dm3 s1

B. s1

C. mol dm3 s1

D. mol1 dm3 s1

28

Which of the following statements concerning rate equation is/are INCORRECT?

(1) The orders of reaction with respect to the reactant can be any real numbers.

(2) Rate equation can only be written for irreversible reactions.

(3) Rate equation shows the quantitative relationship between concentration and rate

constant.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

29

What is the overall order of reaction for the following reaction?

2A + B products

A. Zeroth

B. First

H+



C. Second

D. Cannot be determined.

Section 53.2

30

An experiment was carried out to study the following reaction:

A + B C

The following data was recorded from the experiment.

[A] (mol dm3) Rate (mol dm3 s1)

1 × 103 2 × 104

2 × 103 4 × 104

3 × 103 6 × 104

4 × 103 8 × 104

Given that [B] is in largely excess in the reaction mixture. Which of the following

conclusions can be drawn from the above data?

A. The rate is directly proportional to [A].

B. The rate is directly proportional to [A]2.

C. The rate is inversely proportional to [A].

D. The rate is inversely proportional to [A]2.

31

The rate equation of a second order reaction was found to be

rate = k[A]2

where k is the rate constant of the reaction. Which of the following statements are

correct?

(1) The rate of reaction increased when the temperature was increased.

(2) When the rate of reaction is plotted against [A]2, a straight line passing through

the origin is obtained.

(3) The half-life of A can be calculated by k

693.0.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only



D. (1), (2) and (3)

32

The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 2010 yr. What is the rate constant of the

decay?

A. 3.45 × 105 yr1

B. 3.45 × 104 yr1

C. 4.98 × 105 yr1

D. 4.98 × 104 yr1

33

Hydrogen iodide gas decomposes on a hot gold surface at high pressures:

2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)

It is found that the reaction rate is independent of the concentration of HI(g). We can

deduce that the reaction is

A. first order with respect to HI(g).

B. zeroth order with respect to I2(g).

C. first order with respect to H2(g).

D. zeroth order with respect to HI(g).

34

Which of the following statements concerning rate constant are correct?

(1) It is temperature dependent.

(2) A smaller value of rate constant indicates a slower reaction.

(3) Its value may be equal to the rate of reaction.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

35



Which of the following statements concerning the rate constant at a certain

temperature is/are correct?

(1) It depends on the temperature of reaction.

(2) It depends on the size of reactants.

(3) It depends on the concentration of reactants.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

36

The rate equation for a reaction was found to be

rate = 3.36 × 102[A]

Which of the following graphs concerning the reaction is correct?

A.

B.

C. D.

37

Rate

[A]

Rate

[A]

Rate

[A]2

Rate

[A]



The decomposition of SO2Cl2(l) to SO2(g) and Cl2(g) is a first order reaction. The

rate constant of the decomposition is 0.169 hr1. What is the half-life of SO2Cl2?

A. 0.2 hr

B. 0.4 hr

C. 4.1 hr

D. 8.2 hr

38

A reaction was found to be a third order reaction. Which of the following is the

correct unit of rate constant?

A. mol dm3 s1

B. dm3 mol1 s1

C. dm6 mol2 s1

D. mol2 dm6 s2

39

For a first order reaction, the half-life of the reactant is found to be 30 min. What is

the rate constant of the reaction?

A. 2.31 × 102 s1

B. 2.31 × 102 hr1

C. 3.85 × 104 s1

D. 3.85 × 104 hr1

40

The rate constant of a second order reaction is found to be 3.78 dm3 mol1 s1 at a

certain temperature. What will be the rate constant if the concentration of one of the

reactants is halved at that temperature?

A. 0.945 dm3 mol1 s1

B. 1.89 dm3 mol1 s1

C. 3.78 dm3 mol1 s1

D. 7.56 dm3 mol1 s1



41


rate = k[H2(g)][NO(g)]2

Which of the following statements concerning this reaction MUST be correct?

A. The chemical equation for the reaction is H2(g) + 2NO(g) products.

B. The reaction is a one-step reaction.

C. The reaction is a second order reaction.

D. The reaction is a third order reaction.

42

The half-life of 214Bi is 19.7 min. If there is 0.001 g of 214Bi initially, what is the mass

of 214Bi after 59.1 min?

A. 1.25 × 104 g

B. 2.50 × 104 g

C. 3.33 × 104 g

D. 5.00 × 104 g

43

The half-life of radioactive 55Cr is 1.8 hr. The delivery of a sample of this isotope

from the reactor to your laboratory requires about 10.8 hr. What is the minimum

amount of such material that should be shipped, so that you can receive 1.0 mg of 55Cr?

A. 128 mg

B. 64 mg

C. 32 mg

D. 11 mg

44

At 100C, nitrogen dioxide decomposes to nitrogen monoxide and oxygen according

to the following equation:



NO2(g) NO(g) +2

1O2(g)

A plot of rate of reaction against [NO2(g)]2 is shown below.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The reaction is a first order reaction.

B. The reaction is a second order reaction.

C. The rate constant can be determined from the slope of the line.

D. The unit of rate constant is mol1 dm3 s1.

45

The rate equation of the reaction, 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2NOCl(g), is

rate = k[NO(g)]2[Cl2(g)]

The value of rate constant can be increased by

(1) increasing the temperature.

(2) increasing the concentration of NO(g).

(3) increasing the concentration of Cl2(g).

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

46

Rate

[NO2(g)]2



The rate equation for a reaction is rate = k[C]2

3

. If the rate of reaction is 0.020 mol

dm3 s1 when [C] = 1.0 mol dm3, what is the rate of reaction when [C] = 0.60 mol

dm3?

A. 0.0093 mol dm3 s1

B. 0.012 mol dm3 s1

C. 0.033 mol dm3 s1

D. 0.040 mol dm3 s1

Section 53.3

47

You are given some information about the following reaction at 298 K:

X + Y products

Initial concentration (mol dm3) Experiment

[X] [Y]

Initial rate

(mol dm3 s1)

1 0.9 0.9 R1

2 0.9 3.6 R2

3 1.8 0.9 R3

4 1.8 1.8 R4

If the rate equation of this reaction is: rate = k[X]2[Y], where k is the rate constant.

Which of the following sequences is correct?

A. R1 < R2 = R4 < R3

B. R1 < R2 = R3 < R4

C. R1 < R4 < R3 < R2

D. R3 < R4 = R2 < R1

48

You are given some information about the following reaction at 298 K:

X + Y products


[X] [Y]

Initial rate

(mol dm3 s1)

1 2.25 2.00 12.0

2 4.00 3.00 54.0



The rate equation of this reaction is: rate = k[X] 2

1

[Y]z, where k is the rate constant.

Deduce the order of reaction with respect to Y.

A. 4

1

B. 3

1

C. 3

D. 4

49

The rate equation for a reaction is found to be:

rate = k[A]x[B]y

Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The overall order of reaction is x + y.

(2) If [A] is largely greater than [B], and if y equals zero, the graph of rate against

[B] will give a horizontal straight line.

(3) If [A] is doubled while [B] is halved, the rate of reaction must remain

unchanged.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

50

The rate equation for a reaction was found to be:

rate = k[A]x

when the concentration of A was doubled, the rate of reaction quadrupled. Deduce the

value of x.

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3



51

Consider the following reactions:

A + B products

The rate equation for the reaction was found to be:

rate = k[A][B]2

Which of the following statements concerning this reaction is INCORRECT?

A. It is a third order reaction.

B. The reaction is first order with respect to [A].

C. A graph of rate against [B] is a straight line passing through the origin.

D. Under the same [A] and the temperature, the reaction rate nonupled (i.e.

increased by nine times) when [B] was tripled.

52


rate = 0.357[A]2[B]3

Assume the unit of reaction rate is mol dm3 s1. Which of the following statements

MUST be correct?

A. The reactant side of the chemical equation is 2A + 3B.

B. The unit of rate constant is mol4 dm12 s1.

C. The reaction rate doubled when [A] was doubled while keeping [B]

constant.

D. The reaction rate remained unchanged when [A] was increased by three

times and that of [B] was decreased by half.

53

The rate equation for a reaction was

rate = 5[X][Y]2

Assume the unit of reaction rate is mol dm3 s1. Which of the following statements

MUST be correct?

A. The half-life of the reaction is 1.39 hr.

B. A plot of [Y] against time is a straight line.

C. The reaction rate increased by six times when both [X] and [Y] were

doubled.



D. The unit of rate constant is mol2 dm6 s1.

54

You are given some information about the following reaction at 298 K.

A + B + C D + E


[A] [B] [C]

Initial rate (× 105

mol dm3 s1)

1 0.10 0.05 0.04 0.48

2 0.20 0.05 0.08 1.92

3 0.10 0.15 0.04 1.44

4 0.20 0.10 0.02 0.24

What is the rate equation for the above reaction?

A. Rate = k[A][B][C]

B. Rate = k[A] 2

1

[B]2[C]

C. Rate = k[A]0[B][C]2

D. Rate = k[A]2[B][C] 2

1

55

An experiment was carried out to study the following reaction.

X(g) + Y(g) Z(g)

The table below lists the results of the experiment.


[X(g)] [Y(g)]

Initial rate

(mol dm3 s1)

1 0.400 2.00 6.20 × 103

2 0.800 2.00 2.48 × 102

3 0.400 4.00 1.24 × 102

4 0.500 1.50 To be calculated

Calculate the initial rate of reaction in Experiment 4.

A. 4.36 × 103 mol dm3 s1

B. 5.81 × 103 mol dm3 s1

C. 7.28 × 103 mol dm3 s1



D. 9.69 × 103 mol dm3 s1

56

The rate equation for the reaction, 2H2(g) + 2NO(g) N2(g) + 2H2O(l), is

rate = k[H2(g)][NO(g)]2

If [H2(g)] is halved and [NO(g)] is doubled, the rate of reaction will

A. increase by four times.

B. remain the same.

C. increase by six times.

D. increase by two times.











Section 53.1

57

The order of reaction with respect to a

reactant must be an integer.

The order of reaction with respect to a

particular reactant is equal to the

stoichiometric coefficient of that

reactant in the chemical equation.

58

The order of reaction with respect to a The overall order of reaction is the sum



reactant can be a fraction. of the orders of reaction with respect to

each reactant in the chemical equation.

Section 53.2

59

Rate constant is inversely proportional

to half-life for the first order reaction.

The half-life is independent of the

initial concentration of reactant for the

first order reaction.

Chemistry: Chapter 54 Activation energy

Section 54.1

60

Which of the following statements about exothermic reaction is/are correct?

(1) Energy is required to break bonds of the reactants and start the reaction.

(2) The energy of the products is greater than that of the reactants.

(3) The activation energy of exothermic reaction is higher than that of endothermic

reaction.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

61

The energy profile for a single step reaction, A B is shown below:

Ene

rgy

Reaction coordinate

A

B



What is the activation energy of the reaction B A?

A. 30 kJ mol1

B. 20 kJ mol1

C. 30 kJ mol1

D. 50 kJ mol1

62

Which of the following is the correct energy profile of an exothermic reaction?

A.

B.

C.

Reaction coordinate

Ene

rgy

Reaction coordinate

Ene

rgy

Ene

rgy

Reaction coordinate



D.

63

Which of the following statements concerning activation energy is/are correct?

(1) It is the maximum energy required for a chemical reaction to occur.

(2) It is the difference in energy between the reactants and the transition state.

(3) It is the difference in energy between the products and the transition state.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

64

Which of the following statements about the species that exists at the point of

maximum energy in the energy profile are correct?

(1) It contains partially broken and completely formed bonds.

(2) It is very unstable and can never be isolated.

(3) It is formed in the transition state of a chemical reaction.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

65

Ene

rgy

Reaction coordinate



Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Activation energy determines the rate of a reaction.

B. When the reactant particles collide at sufficiently high speed, reaction

occurs.

C. A reversible reaction possesses one single value of activation energy.

D. Activation energy determines the amount of energy in breaking and forming

bonds.

66

Which of the following statements concerning an energy profile is INCORRECT?

A. It shows the energy change of chemical species during a reaction.

B. The enthalpy change of the reaction can be obtained from the energy

profile.

C. Only one transition state is observed.

D. The activated complex cannot be isolated.

67

Consider the following reaction,

2SO2(g) O2(g) 2SO3(g) ΔH = 196 kJ mol1


A. The energy of the reactants is less than that of the product.

B. The activation energy of the backward reaction is greater than that of the

forward reaction.

C. The activation energy is lower when the temperature is lower.

D. The rate constant of backward reaction is larger than that of the forward

reaction.

68

Which of the following statements concerning the energy profile is correct?

A. The x-axis represents energy, while the y-axis represents reaction

coordinate.



B. The species that exists at the point of maximum energy is called the

activated complex.

C. The activated complex contains partially broken bonds only.

D. The difference in energy between the reactants and the transition state is the

enthalpy change, ΔH of the reaction.

69

A reaction is endothermic when

A. the energy of the reactants is greater than that of the products.

B. the energy of the reactants is less than that of the products.

C. the activation energy of the reaction is greater than that of the reactants.

D. the activation energy of the reaction is less than that of the reactants.

70

Which of the following are the requirements for a reaction to occur?

(1) The reactant particles have to collide.

(2) The reactant particles must be correctly orientated to one another.

(3) The reactant particles have to posses energy equal to or greater than the

activation energy.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

71

Which of the following statements concerning a one-step exothermic reaction are

correct?

(1) The energy of the products is less than that of the reactants.

(2) The energy of the activated complex is greater than that of the products.

(3) The activation energy is the energy difference between the reactants and the

transition state.

A. (1) and (2) only



B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

Section 54.2

72

Which of the following statements concerning the area under Maxwell‐Boltzmann

distribution curve is correct?

A. It is equal to the total number of particles in the system.

B. It is equal to the total energy of particles in the system.

C. It is equal to the average number of particles in the system.

D. It is equal to the average energy of particles in the system.

73

Which of the following statements concerning the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution

curves at different temperatures, i.e. T1 > T2 is INCORRECT?

A. The areas under the two curves are the same.

B. The most probable kinetic energy at T2 is higher than that at T1.

C. The average kinetic energy is on the right of the maximum point of both

curves.

D. The maximum kinetic energy of particles at T1 is higher than that at T2.

74

What is the activation energy of the following backward reaction?

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)

(Given: ΔH = +54.0 kJ mol1 and Ea = 57.2 kJ mol1)

A. 3.2 kJ mol1

B. 54.0 kJ mol1

C. 57.2 kJ mol1

D. 111.2 kJ mol1



75

Which of the following statements about the Maxwell‐Boltzmann distribution curve

is/are correct when temperature rises?

(1) The area under the curve increases.

(2) The curve is flattened.

(3) The number of particles with the most probable kinetic energy increases.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

76

Which of the following statements concerning the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution

curve is correct?

A. The most probable kinetic energy is on the right of the average kinetic

energy.

B. The curve can be symmetric.

C. The area under the curve represents the total energy of the particles.

D. The maximum point of the curve is shifted to the left and gets higher when

temperature decreases.

77


A. Activation energy of an endothermic reaction becomes lower when

temperature decreases.

B. The area under the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve increases at a

higher temperature.

C. The lower the activation energy, the faster the reaction.

D. An increase in reaction rate with a rise in temperature is mainly due to the

increase in chance of collisions between particles.



78

When temperature increases, the rate of reaction increases because

A. the chance of collisions between the reactant particles increases.

B. the number of reactant particles possessing energy equal to or greater than

the activation energy increases.

C. the reaction is endothermic.

D. the reaction is exothermic.

79

Which of the following statements about the following Maxwell-Boltzmann

distribution curve is INCORRECT?

A. T2 is higher than T1.

B. The activation energy of the reaction at T1 is different from that at T2.

C. More reactant particles have energy equal to or greater than the activation

energy at T2.

D. The areas under the curves at T1 and T2 are the same.

80

Consider the following Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curves at T1 and T2

respectively, where T1 < T2.

Kinetic energy

Num

ber

of p

arti

cles

T1

T2



Which of the following statements about the curve are correct?

(1) The most probable kinetic energy at T1 is smaller than that at T2.

(2) More particles have energy equal to or greater than Ea at T2.

(3) The area under the curve at T2 is larger than that at T1.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

81

Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) At a higher temperature, the activation energy of a reaction decreases.

(2) The energy profile provides information about the enthalpy change of a reaction.

(3) The activated complex is formed in the transition state of a reaction.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

82

Which of the following statements concerning the Maxwell-Boltzman distribution

curve is INCORRECT?

A. It shows the number of particles with energy equal to or greater than the

activation energy of the reaction.

T1

T2

Kinetic energy

Num

ber

of p

arti

cles

Ea



B. The average kinetic energy is at the maximum point of the curve.

C. The area under the curve remains unchanged at any temperatures.

D. It is a plot of the number of particles having a particular amount of energy.

Section 54.3

83

Consider the following reaction:

X2 2X

The rate constants for the above reaction at 30C and 100C are 0.5 × 1010 s1 and 22 × 1010 s1 respectively.

Calculate the activation energy of the reaction.

(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. 318.0 kJ mol1

B. 50.7 kJ mol1

C. 22.1 kJ mol1

D. 6.10 kJ mol1

84

For a chemical reaction at 30C, the rate constant and the activation energy are 0.5 × 1010 s1 and 50.8 kJ mol1 respectively.

Calculate the corresponding Arrhenius constant.

(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. 0.0286

B. 0.0375

C. 0.0497

D. 0.0608

85


A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)

A series of experiments were carried out to study the reaction rates at different

temperatures. The experimental results are shown in the table below:



Temperature (K) Rate constant (mol dm3 s1)

5000 5.49 × 106

10 000 9.86 × 108

15 000 5.57 × 109

18 000 9.92 × 109

What is the activation energy of the reaction?

(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. 25.9 kJ mol1

B. 51.8 kJ mol1

C. 187.4 kJ mol1

D. 431.1 kJ mol1

86

What is the activation energy for a particular reaction if the rate doubles when the

temperature is raised from 25C to 35C? (Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. 6.35 kJ mol1

B. 23.0 kJ mol1

C. 34.7 kJ mol1

D. 52.8 kJ mol1

87

The Arrhenius equation, RT

E

Aeka

shows the relationship between temperature and

reaction rate. Which of the following conditions will lead to the slowest reaction?

A. high T and large Ea

B. high T and small Ea

C. low T and large Ea

D. low T and small Ea



88

The activation energy of a certain reaction is 87 kJ mol1. What is the ratio of the rate

constants for the reaction when the temperature is decreased from 37°C to 15°C?

(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. k37C : k15C = 1.00 : 1

B. k37C : k15C = 1.12 : 1

C. k37C : k15C = 13.2 : 1

D. k37C : k15C = 379 : 1

89


2N2O(g) 2N2(g) + O2(g)

The rate constants of the above reaction at 270C and 350C are 1.3 × 1011 s1 and

4.5 × 1010 s1 respectively. What is the activation energy of the reaction?

(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. 15.0 kJ mol1

B. 54.1 kJ mol1

C. 68.0 kJ mol1

D. 124.5 kJ mol1

90

Many reactions occur more rapidly at high temperatures than at low temperatures.

Which of the following statements concerning the above phenomenon is/are correct?

(1) At lower temperature, the activation energy of the reaction decreases.

(2) At lower temperature, the rate constant of the reaction decreases.

(3) At lower temperature, less reactant particles have energy equal to or greater than

the activation energy.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only



91

It is known that Arrhenius equation relates temperature, rate constant and activation

energy together. By plotting a graph of log k against T

1, activation energy and

Arrhenius constant can be determined from the graph. Which of the following

combinations is correct?

slope of the graph is equal to y‐intercept is equal to

A. Ea A

B. R

Ea A

C. R

Ea log A

D. R

E

3.2a log A

92

Use the following data to determine the activation energy for the reaction below:

A + B C

Temperature (C) Rate constant (mol dm3 s1)

350 0.096

400 0.400

(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. 5.20 kJ mol1

B. 11.95 kJ mol1

C. 43.21 kJ mol1

D. 99.38 kJ mol1

93

The rate of a reaction at 120C is five times faster than that at 80C. What is the

activation energy of the reaction?

A. 3.21 kJ mol1

B. 5.58 kJ mol1

C. 20.2 kJ mol1



D. 46.4 kJ mol1

94


A B

If the rate of the above reaction at 520 K was four times faster than that at 500 K,

what is the activation energy of the reaction?

(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. 7.8 kJ mol1

B. 18.0 kJ mol1

C. 65.1 kJ mol1

D. 149.7 kJ mol1

95

At 25C, the rate constant for the reaction

A B + C

is 0.0503 s1. At 60C, the rate constant is 6.71 s1. Determine the activation energy,

Ea for this reaction.

(Given: R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

A. 6.0 kJ mol1

B. 13.9 kJ mol1

C. 50.1 kJ mol1

D. 115.2 kJ mol1

96

Which of the following statements concerning the Arrhenius equation are correct?

(1) It relates temperature, rate constant and activation energy together.

(2) It is used to explain the effect of change in temperature on reaction rate.

(3) It is used to determine the activation energy of a reaction.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only



C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)











Sections 54.154.3

97

An increase in temperature increases

reaction rate.

Where there is an increase in

temperature, the exponential factor of

the Arrhenius equation increases.

98

An increase in temperature increases

reaction rate.

At higher temperatures, the number of

particles with energy equal to or greater

than the activation energy increases.

99

The Arrhenius equation is applicable to

either exothermic or endothermic

reactions.

The Arrhenius equation indicates that

an increase in temperature increases

reaction rate.



Chemistry: Chapter 55 Catalysis and industrial processes

Section 55.1

100

Which of the following statements concerning catalysts is INCORRECT?

A. They do not affect the yield of products.

B. They provide an alternative reaction pathway with a different activation

energy.

C. All catalysts can increase the rate of reaction.

D. The reaction rate increases with increasing amount of catalyst until a limit is

reached where larger amounts of catalyst have no further effect on the

reaction rate.

101

Which of the following statements concerning a catalyst is/are correct?

(1) It reacts with one of the reactants to form a product.

(2) The amount of catalyst remains unchanged at the end of the reaction.

(3) The greater the amount of catalyst used, the faster the reaction.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

102

Which of the following combinations concerning the energy profile of an endothermic

reaction is correct?

Species with the highest energy Species with the lowest energy

A. The activated complex The products

B. The activated complex The reactants

C. The reactants The products

D. The intermediate The reactants



Section 55.2

103

The diagram below is the energy profile of a reaction in the absence of a catalyst.

Which of the following quantities indicated in the diagram are NOT affected by the

presence of a catalyst?

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

104

Which of the following statements about catalysts is INCORRECT?

A. They are needed in very small amounts.

B. They are very specific in action.

C. They increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy of the

reaction.

D. They remain chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction.

105

Which of the following species is the one at the trough between two transition states

in an energy profile of a reaction?

A. Reactant

B. Activated complex

C. Intermediate

D. Product

I III

II

Reaction coordinate

Ene

rgy



106

Which of the following statements concerning a reaction in the presence of a catalyst

is correct?

A. The most probable kinetic energy on the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution

curve shifts to the right if a catalyst is used in the reaction.

B. The activation energy of the uncatalysed reaction is lowered.

C. The yield of the reaction increases.

D. The reaction proceeds through a different pathway.

107

Which of the following statements concerning catalysts is/are correct?

(1) They can increase the yield of a reaction.

(2) They do not affect the enthalpy change of a reaction.

(3) They are in solid phase only.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

Section 55.3

108

Which of the following curves represents the effect of positive catalyst on the

equilibrium reaction?



109

Which of the following are the effects of catalyst on an exothermic reaction?

(1) It speeds up the reaction.

(2) It slows down the reaction.

(3) It increases the yield of products.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

110

Which of the following quantities of an equilibrium reaction are NOT changed in the

presence of a catalyst at constant temperature?

(1) The activation energy of the reaction without the presence of the catalyst.

(2) The equilibrium concentrations of the products.

(3) The enthalpy change of the reaction.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

Reaction without catalyst

A

B

C

D

Time

Con

cent

rati

on o

f pr

oduc

t



111

Consider an exothermic reversible reaction. After adding a catalyst to the reaction,

A. the rate of forward reaction is increased by a larger extent.

B. the reaction becomes more exothermic.

C. the equilibrium concentrations of the reactants remain unchanged.

D. the rate of backward reaction rate is decreased.

112

Which of the following statements concerning a catalyst is INCORRECT?

A. It increases the rates of both forward and backward reactions in an

equilibrium to the same extent.

B. It shortens the time for the reaction to reach equilibrium.

C. It does not affect the enthalpy change of the reaction.

D. It lowers the activation energy of the reaction.

113

Which of the following statements concerning the catalysts is/are correct?

(1) They remain chemically unchanged during a reaction.

(2) They increase the rates of forward and backward reactions in an equilibrium to

the same extent.

(3) They do not affect the equilibrium position.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

Section 55.4

114

Which of the following statements concerning homogeneous catalysts are correct?

(1) They are in the same phase with the solvent.



(2) Concentrated sulphuric acid used in the esterification is one of the examples of

homogeneous catalysts.

(3) They can alter the rate of reaction by providing alternative reaction pathway with

a different activation energy.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

115

In a catalytic converter, the poisonous gaseous pollutants are converted to harmless

gases. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT?

(1) Platinum is used as a homogeneous catalyst in the conversion.

(2) The catalyst provides a surface for the absorption of the reactants.

(3) The harmless gases are carbon dioxide and nitrogen.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

116

Propan-1-ol can be converted to propene by passing its vapour over a heated catalyst

at around 350C. Which of the following statements concerning the heated catalyst

are correct?

(1) It is an aluminium oxide.

(2) It acts as a heterogeneous catalyst in the reaction.

(3) It provides a surface area for the adsorption of the reactants.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)



117

Which of the following statements about the reaction below is correct?

S2O82(aq) + 2I(aq) 2SO4

2(aq) + I2(aq)

A. Fe2+(aq) is oxidized to Fe3+(aq) at the end of the reaction.

B. Fe2+(aq) is a heterogeneous catalyst.

C. Fe2+(aq) is reduced by S2O82(aq) to Fe(s).

D. Fe2+(aq) is regenerated at the end of the reaction.

118

Which of the following statements about a catalytic converter are correct?

(1) It converts gaseous pollutant, nitrogen monoxide to nitrogen.

(2) It contains platinum which is a heterogeneous catalyst.

(3) It is installed in the exhaust system of the cars.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

119

Which of the following reactions involves the use of a homogeneous catalyst?

A. Contact process

B. Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide solution into water and oxygen

C. Reaction between peroxodisulphate ions and iodide ions

D. Reaction between hydrogen and propene

120

A two-step reaction is shown below:

Step 1: X + Y Z

Step 2: Y + Z W + X + V

Which of the following are correct?

(1) X is a catalyst.

Fe2+(aq)



(2) Z is an intermediate.

(3) The overall chemical equation is 2Y W + V.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

121

Which of the following reactions involve(s) the use of homogeneous catalysts?

(1) S2O82(aq) + 2I(aq) 2SO4

2(aq) + I2(aq)

(2) CH2=CH2(g) + H2(g) CH3CH3(g)

(3) CH3COOH(l) + CH3CH2OH(l) CH3COOCH2CH3(l) + H2O(l)

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

122

Which of the following species can catalyse the reaction between iron(III) ions and

vanadium(III) ions in aqueous solution?

Fe3+(aq) + V3+(aq) Fe2+(aq) + V4+(aq)

(1) Cu+(aq)

(2) Cu2+(aq)

(3) Cu(s)

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

123

Which of the following reactions can be speeded up in the presence of iron(II) ions?

(1) S2O82(aq) +2I(aq) 2SO4

2(aq) + I2(aq)



(2) CH2=CH2(g) + H2(g) CH3CH3(g)

(3) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

124

Which of the following chemical bonds is/are broken during the hydrogenation of

ethene in the presence of nickel?

(1) HH bonds

(2) C=C bonds

(3) CH bonds

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

Section 55.5

125

Which of the following processes involves the use of homogeneous catalysts?

A. Haber process

B. Contact process

C. Esterification

D. Hydrogenation of ethene

126

Which of the following equations represents the catalytic cracking of a petroleum

fraction?

A. C16H34(l) C16H34(g)2 3

)

B. nC2H4(g) [ CH2CH2 ]n

C. C16H34(l) C7H16(l) + 3C2H4(g) + C3H6(g

Al O

Al2O3

Al2O3



D. C7H16(l) + 3C2H4(g) + C3H6(g) C16H34(l)

127

Which of the following statements about Haber process is INCORRECT?

A. Finely divided iron is used as a homogeneous catalyst.

B. Adsorption of N2 and H2 molecules onto the surface of the iron catalyst

helps weaken those strong covalent bonds within the molecules.

C. The product, ammonia NH3, is the raw material for producing nitrogenous

fertilizers.

D. The volume of N2 : H2 is 1 : 3 in proportion.

128

Which of the following chemicals is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of

unsaturated oils to make margarine?

A. Rh

B. V2O5

C. Ni

D. Fe

129


N2(g) 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)


A. The catalyst used is platinum.

B. The kinetic energy of molecules increases after a catalyst is used.

C. The equilibrium constant remains unchanged after a catalyst is used.

D. The equilibrium position shifts to the right after a catalyst is used.



130

Which of the following species are used as the catalysts in a catalytic converter?

(1) Rh

(2) Pt

(3) VO2

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

131

Which of the following reactions involve the use of heterogeneous catalysts?

(1) The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide

(2) The conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide in the Contact process

(3) The production of ammonia in the Haber process

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

132

Which of the following reactions involves the use of a homogeneous catalyst?

A. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide

B. Esterification

C. Haber Process

D. Hydrogenation of ethene

133

Which of the following reactions involve the use of transition metals or their

compounds as heterogeneous catalysts?

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)



(2) 2CO(g) + 2NO(g) 2CO2(g) + N2(g)

(3) CH3COOH(l) + CH3CH2OH(l) CH3COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l)

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

134

Which of the following statements concerning Haber process are correct?

(1) It involves a heterogeneous catalyst.

(2) It produces raw materials for the production of nitrogenous fertilizers.

(3) The catalyst should be finely divided to increase its catalytic effect.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)











Sections 55.155.2

135



The catalysts speed up the reaction by

providing an alternative reaction

pathway with lower activation energy.

Since the activation energy of catalysed

reaction is lower, the number of

particles with sufficient energy to react

increases.

Section 55.3

136

The catalysts remain chemically

unchanged during a reaction.

The catalysts can shorten the time for

the reaction to reach equilibrium.

Section 55.4

137

In hydrogenation, the hydrogen and

alkene molecules are absorbed on the

surface of the catalyst.

The carbon-carbon double bonds of

alkene are weakened and the hydrogen

molecules are broken.

Chemistry: Chapter 56 Industrial processes

Section 56.1

138

Which of the following are the aims of applying a high pressure for the Haber

process?

(1) Shifting the equilibrium position towards the product side

(2) Increasing the rate of reaction

(3) Liquefying the product ammonia gas

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)



139

A urea fertilizer has to be produced with the equivalent of 25.0 kg of nitrogen N. How

much urea, CON2H4, should be used?

A. 46.7 kg

B. 53.6 kg

C. 107 kg

D. 127 kg

140

Which of the following graphs correctly shows how pressure and temperature affect

the yield of ammonia produced by the Haber process?

A.

B.

% y

ield

of

amm

onia

Pressure (atm)

% y

ield

of

amm

onia

Pressure (atm)



% y

ield

of

amm

onia

Pressure (atm)

C.

D.

141

The Haber process for producing ammonia was developed early in the twentieth

century. What was the major advantage of its development?

A. A government sold the process to other governments.

B. The inventor sold the process for a great deal of money.

C. It provided a source of nitrogen for farming and industry.

D. It provided jobs for many who were unemployed.

142

Four students analysed a sample of fertilizer to determine its percentage of sulphate.

Each student:

• weighed a certain amount of fertilizer;

• dissolved this amount in 100 cm3 of water;

• added aqueous barium nitrate to the solution;

• filtered, dried and weighed the barium sulphate precipitate.

Their results and calculations are shown in the table below.

% y

ield

of

amm

onia

Pressure (atm)



Student Mass of fertilizer

used (g)

Mass of BaSO4(s)

weighed (g)

Percentage of sulphate in

fertilizer (%)

A 11.6 19.5 69.2

B 10.4 16.9 66.9

C 10.27 22.61 90.6

D 11.1 18.2 67.5

The percentage of sulphate calculated by Student C was significantly higher than that

of the other students. Which is the most likely reason for this?

A. Student C did not dry the sample enough.

B. Student C added more Ba(NO3)2(aq) than the other students.

C. Student C used a balance capable of measuring weight to more decimal

places.

D. Student C waited longer than the other students for the Ba(NO3)2(aq) to

react completely with the sulphate.

143

Which of the following does NOT exist in steam-methane reforming in the production

of syngas?

A. CO

B. H2

C. CH4

D. C2H4

144

Which of the following elements are particularly important nutrients provided by

fertilizers?

A. Calcium, phosphorus and nitrogen

B. Calcium, sulphur and nitrogen

C. Potassium, phosphorus and nitrogen

D. Potassium, phosphorus and oxygen



145

Syngas contains

A. water vapour and carbon dioxide.

B. methane and hydrogen.

C. hydrogen and carbon monoxide.

D. hydrogen and carbon dioxide.

146

What are the optimum conditions for the manufacture of ammonia?

Atmosphere Temperature Catalyst

A. 1 atm 100C Pt

B. 100 atm 25C Pt

C. 150 atm 200C Fe

D. 200 atm 450C Fe

147

Haber process is used to synthesize ammonia.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ΔH = 92 kJ mol1

Which of the following conditions/actions has NOT complied with Le Châtelier’s

Principle in order to increase the yield of ammonia?

A. Using a high pressure of 200 atm

B. Using a high temperature of 500C

C. Adding nitrogen and hydrogen continuously to the catalytic chamber

D. Removing the ammonia as soon as it is produced in the catalytic chamber

148

The flow diagram of the Haber process is shown below:



What is/are the substance(s) used in Route X?

A. N2, H2

B. Catalyst

C. N2

D. H2

149

Methane is used to synthesize ammonia gas according to the following equations:

CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g)

CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The percentage yield of NH3 is 75%. If 5.6 × 107 L of methane are used, how much

ammonia is synthesized?

A. 1.4 × 107 L

B. 2.1 × 107 L

C. 5.6 × 107 L

D. 1.1 × 108 L

150

Which of the following statements explain why ammonium nitrate is a more suitable

nitrogenous fertilizer than aqueous ammonia?

(1) Aqueous ammonia is volatile.

(2) Ammonia is alkaline.

(3) Ammonia has an unpleasant odour.



A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

151

Which of the following is an intermediate of the ammonium nitrate manufacturing

process?

A. NO2

B. NH4+

C. HNO3

D. NH2

152

Which of the following statements concerning the nitrogen fixation process of

nitrogen and hydrogen gas is INCORRECT?

A. Product of reaction can be used directly as fertilizers.

B. Hydrogen gas used in the process is produced in steam-methane reforming.

C. Unreacted N2 and H2 in the set-up are reused by recycling pump.

D. Catalyst in the set-up is used to speed up the chemical reaction.

Section 56.2

153

Which of the following half equations correctly shows the reaction occurring at the

cathode of a flowing mercury cell?

A. Na+(aq) + e Na(s)

B. 2Cl(aq) Cl2(g) + 2e

C. 2H+(aq) + 2e H2(g)

D. 4OH(aq) 2H2O(l) + 4e + O2(g)



154

Which of the following is the major potential hazard of using flowing mercury cell?

A. Algal bloom

B. Heavy metal leakage

C. Acid rain

D. Smog

155

Which of the following is NOT a problem that arises when electrolysis of brine is

carried out in a simple container?

A. Chlorine and hydrogen would mix together.

B. Chlorine would react directly with sodium hydroxide solution.

C. Hydrogen and oxygen would react explosively.

D. The oxygen produced would contaminate chlorine.

156

In the chlor-alkali industry, if an aqueous sodium chloride solution is electrolysed

using a membrane cell, which of the following does NOT happen?

A. The concentration of Na+(aq) ions decreases.

B. Cl2(g) is produced at the anode.

C. The solution becomes more alkaline.

D. H2(g) is produced at the cathode.

157

Why is chlorine used to treat local water supplies?

A. To make water suitable for swimming.

B. To kill micro-organisms living in the water.

C. To promote sedimentation of finely suspended solids.

D. To precipitate heavy metal ions such as lead and mercury.



158

Which of the following about the design of the electrolytic cell for the chlor-alkali

industry is INCORRECT?

A. To separate the anode and cathode reactions of the electrolysis.

B. To prevent the products at the electrodes from mixing together.

C. To allow the anode and cathode reactions to proceed at different time.

D. To let NaOH(aq) formed flow out of the cell continuously.

159

Which of the following is an application of sodium hydroxide?

A. Used as drain cleaner

B. To make margarine

C. To make fertilizer

D. To sanitize swimming pool water

160

What are the materials commonly used as the anode and cathode of a diaphragm cell?

Anode Cathode

A. Titanium Mercury

B. Titanium Steel

C. Nickel Titanium

D. Graphite Titanium

161

Electrolysis of brine will produce several chemicals and the following is the related

equation:

Brine NaOH(aq) + H2(g) + Cl2(g)

(The equation has not been balanced.)

If the gases produced are used to manufacture 1000 kg of 36.5% concentrated

hydrochloric acid, how much brine is needed?

electrolysis



A. 10 kg

B. 585 kg

C. 36 500 kg

D. 63 500 kg

162

Which of the following combinations is correct for describing the reactions at the

anode and cathode of a flowing mercury cell?

Anode Cathode

A. 2Cl(aq) Cl2(g) + 2e 2H2O(l) + 2e H2(g) + 2OH(aq)

B. Na(s) Na+(aq) + e 2H+(aq) + 2e H2(g)

C. 2Cl(aq) Cl2(g) + 2e Na+(aq) + e Na(s)

D. Na(s) Na+(aq) + e 2H2O(l) + 2e H2(g) + 2OH(aq)

163

Which of the following products is made from hydrogen in chlor-alkali industry?

A. Soaps

B. Pesticides

C. Bleach

D. Margarine

Section 56.3

164

Which of the following about methanol is correct?

A. It is added to beer.

B. It is a colourless gas.

C. It has a molecular formula of CH2O.

D. It can be used as a solvent.



165

Which of the following is NOT a common use of methanol?

A. Production of acetic acid

B. Manufacture of petrol additive

C. Industrial solvent

D. Production of polyethylene

166

Which of the following species are the catalysts used in the production of methanol?

(1) NiO

(2) ZnO/Cr2O3

(3) Cu/ZnO/Al2O3

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

167

Which of the following is the correct descending order of the percentage by mass of

different components in natural gas?

A. Methane > Carbon dioxide > Oxygen > Noble gases

B. Oxygen > Methane > Carbon dioxide > Noble gases

C. Methane > Oxygen > Noble gases > Carbon dioxide

D. Carbon dioxide > Oxygen > Methane > Noble gases

168

Which of the following compounds CANNOT be derived from methanol?

A. Acetic acid

B. Dimethyl ether

C. Formaldehyde

D. Diethyl ether



Section 56.4

169

Which of the following considerations are needed for choosing a site for building a

chemical plant?

(1) Supply of raw materials to the site

(2) Climate condition around the site

(3) Demand for the product in nearby regions

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

170

Which of the following should be considered when choosing a site to set up a plant

that manufactures methanol?

(1) An oil field nearby

(2) A lake nearby

(3) A residential area with several thousands of people nearby

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

Section 56.5

171

Glucose (C6H12O6) is a monomer that can form naturally occurring polymers.

Glucose is also a raw material used in certain industrial processes. There are industrial

processes combining several numbers of glucose molecules to form a polymer with

desired length.

The approximate relative atomic masses for the elements which make up glucose are

shown in the table.



Element Approximate relative atomic mass

Carbon 12.0

Hydrogen 1.0

Oxygen 16.0

Using the data from the table, what would be the approximate relative molecular mass

of a polymer made from five glucose monomers?

A. 810

B. 828

C. 882

D. 900

172

Which of the following methods CANNOT be used to reduce the cost of the Haber

process or to reduce the environmental pollution caused by the Haber process?

A. Use low‐NOx burner.

B. Use ZnO as the new catalyst.

C. Recycle the carbon dioxide produced.

D. Use natural gas instead of petroleum as the source to produce hydrogen.











Section 56.1



173

The absence of impurities in the set-up

of Haber process enhances the product

yield.

The impurities in the Haber process

destroy the reactants (N2 and H2) used.

Section 56.2

174

Electrolysis of brine using a flowing

mercury cell forms sodium amalgam.

Sodium amalgam is a liquid.

Section 56.3

175

Methanol is drinkable. Methanol is one of the ingredients in

wine.

Chemistry: Chapter 57 Green chemistry for industrial processes

Section 57.1

176

Which of the following statements show that biosynthesis of adipic acid adopts green

chemistry practices?

(1) Glucose is used as the starting material.

(2) It does not generate any by-products.

(3) It uses cobalt to catalyse the reaction.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)



177

Which of the following statements concerning carbon dioxide are correct?

(1) It is a greener blowing agent than CFCs.

(2) It does not deplete the ozone layer.

(3) It is non-flammable.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

178

Which of the following are green chemistry practices?

(1) Using TAMLTM catalysts to treat wastewater.

(2) Applying real-time monitoring system in industries.

(3) Using natural gas to produce synthesis gas.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

179

Which of the following are NOT green chemistry practices?

(1) Using DDT as the pesticide to increase the crop yield.

(2) Using solar energy to generate electricity.

(3) Using CFCs as the blowing agent for molded plastic foams.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

180

Which of the following statements concerning atom economy are correct?



(1) It indicates how well a reaction converts the reactant atoms to the desired

product.

(2) The greater the atom economy, the greener is the reaction.

(3) A reaction with 100% atom economy must have 100% product yield.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

181

Which of the following statements concerning biodegradable plastics is/are correct?

(1) They can be decomposed in natural environment.

(2) They do not emit any pollutants to the environment during the decomposition.

(3) Some of them are made of renewable raw materials.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

182

Which of the following are volatile organic compounds (VOCs)?

(1) Benzene

(2) Chloroform

(3) Carbon tetrachloride

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

183

Which of the following is NOT a green chemistry principle?

A. Maximizing atom economy



B. Using catalysts

C. Producing safer chemical products

D. Producing derivatives

184

Which of the following is NOT the principle of green chemistry?

A. Maximizing atom economy

B. Increasing by-products

C. Designing degradable chemical products

D. Using catalysts

185


C6H12O6(aq) 2C2H5OH(aq) 2CO2(g)

If CO2(g) is considered as the side product, the atom economy of the reaction is

A. 25.56%.

B. 48.89%.

C. 51.11%.

D. 72.21%.

186

What is the atom economy for the production of aspirin?

A. 90.7%

B. 90.9%

C. 92.8%

D. 100%



187

Which of the following shows that Haber process adopts green chemistry practices?

(1) It uses iron catalysts.

(2) It produces ammonia which is the raw material for producing nitrogenous

fertilizers.

(3) It makes use of heat exchanger.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

188

Which of the following statements concerning TAMLTM catalyst is INCORRECT?

A. They catalyse the oxidation of organic substances in wastewater.

B. They are applied in the paper industry.

C. They are not degradable.

D. They can reduce water usage.

189

Which of the following are the disadvantages of using benzene as the starting material

for synthesizing adipic acid?

(1) Benzene is carcinogenic.

(2) The synthesis may cause the disposal of a heavy metal to the environment.

(3) The synthesis produces a greenhouse gas.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

190

In the Haber process, a heat exchanger is used. Which of the following statements



concerning the heat exchanger are correct?

(1) It can reduce energy used by heating up the nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas

before they enter the catalytic chamber.

(2) The application of the heat exchanger is a green chemistry practice.

(3) It can either heat up or cool down the substances.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

191

Which of the following is NOT the principle of green chemistry?

A. Producing safer chemical products

B. Using less expensive chemical syntheses

C. Using renewable raw materials

D. Using safer solvents and auxiliaries

192

TAMLTM catalysts are commonly used in the pulp and paper industry to treat

wastewater. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) They provide an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy.

(2) They are non-toxic iron-based catalysts.

(3) They catalyse the oxidation of chlorinated organic substances in wastewater.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

193

Chloroform is a common solvent used in chemical industry. Which of the following

statements concerning chloroform are correct?



(1) It is a volatile organic compound.

(2) It can deplete the ozone layer.

(3) It may cause photochemical smog.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

Section 57.2

194

Which of the following about CATIVA process is INCORRECT?

A. Iridium metal is used as a catalyst.

B. Water is required in the process.

C. It produces carbon dioxide and hydrogen as the by-products.

D. It is the industrial process for manufacturing ethanoic acid.

195

Which of the following chemicals can be the starting materials for manufacturing

ethanoic acid?

(1) Butane

(2) Methanol

(3) Naphtha

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

196

Which of the following statements concerning carbonylation of methanol is

INCORRECT?

A. It has an atom economy of 100%.

B. It is a fast reaction.



C. It is greener than naphtha oxidation.

D. It is a way to manufacture methanoic acid.

197

Which of the following statements about the Wacker process is/are correct?

(1) Ethane is used as the feedstock.

(2) Palladium/copper chloride is used as the catalyst.

(3) Ethanol is produced during the reaction.

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

198

Which of the following are the advantages of the CATIVA process over the Monsanto

process?

(1) Rhodium metal used in the CATIVA process is cheaper than iridium metal used

in the Monsanto process.

(2) Less water is required.

(3) The energy cost for purifying the product is lower.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

199

Which of the following processes is used to produce acetic acid?

A. Two-stage fermentation process

B. Esterification

C. Direct oxidation of butane

D. Reduction of ethanal



200

Which of the following show that Monsanto process adopts green chemistry

practices?

(1) It saves much energy in product separation and purification.

(2) It uses methanol as the starting material.

(3) It converts all the reactant atoms to the desired product.

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)

201

Which of the following processes use(s) methanol as the feedstock to manufacture

ethanoic acid?

(1) Wacker process

(2) Monsanto process

(3) Fermentation

A. (1) only

B. (2) only

C. (1) and (3) only

D. (2) and (3) only

202

Which of the following methods are used to manufacture ethanoic acid?

(1) Monsanto process

(2) Wacker process

(3) Butane oxidation

A. (1) and (2) only

B. (1) and (3) only

C. (2) and (3) only

D. (1), (2) and (3)













Section 57.1

203

If the yield of a reaction is 100%, its

atom economy must be 100%.

The greater the value of the atom

economy, the better is the reaction to

convert all the reactant atoms to the

desired product.

Section 57.2

204

Wacker process uses palladium/copper

chloride catalyst.

Wacker process produces undesirable

amounts of chlorinated by-products.

205

Monsanto process uses iridium metal

as the catalyst.

Iridium metal is cheaper than rhodium

metal.

Documents

Industrial Chemistry MCQ