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http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS Page 1
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 15
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
http://www.insightsonindia.com
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015
http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS Page 2
1. The “Directive Principles of State Policy”
denote the ideals that the State should keep in
mind while formulating policies and enacting
laws. These principles are applicable to which
of the following organs?
1. Legislative
2. Executive
3. Local authorities
4. Public Sector enterprises (PSUs)
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 and 3 only
2. In the colonial legacy of government in India,
the Directive Principles in the present Indian
Constitution resemble which of the following
colonial enactments?
a) „Codes‟ enacted under Act of 1919
b) „Instrument of Instructions‟ enacted under
Independence Act, 1947
c) „Instrument of Instructions‟ enumerated in
the Government of India Act of 1935
d) „Duties of State‟ enumerated in the
Morley-Minto Act of 1909
3. As per the Supreme Court of India, if a law
may transgress certain fundamental rights,
but seeks to give effect to a Directive
Principle, the law may be saved from
unconstitutionality. Which of the
fundamental rights may be transgressed by
law this way?
1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 30
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 and 4 only
4. Which of the following is NOT a „Directive
Principle of State Policy‟?
1. Free legal aid to poor
2. Public assistance in cases of
unemployment
3. Secure the participation of workers in the
management of industries
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) All are Directive Principles
5. In the constitution, the ideal of „Economic
Equity‟ is implied in
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Universal Adult franchise
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Part IX and X of the Constitution
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only
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6. “To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code
throughout the country” is one of the
Directive Principles. It means that
a) All citizens will be under the same laws
irrespective of their caste
b) All citizens will be under the same laws
irrespective of their religion
c) All citizens will be under the same laws
irrespective of their political authority and
status
d) All citizens will be under the same laws
irrespective of them residing or not
residing in India
7. The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a
new Directive Principle relating to co-
operative societies in the Constitution. The
amendment is concerned with which of the
following aspects of cooperative societies?
1. Autonomous functioning
2. Democratic control
3. Professional management
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
8. As per the Constitution, which of the
following is/are „fundamental in the
governance‟ of the country?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Preamble
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only
9. Directive Principles of State Policy help in
1. Amplifying the Preamble
2. Guiding courts in Judicial review of
legislative and executive acts
3. Supplementing fundamental rights of
citizens
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
10. Consider the following statements.
1. Fundamental Rights are subordinate to
Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP).
2. DPSP is not enforced automatically by
merely being a part of the Constitution; it
requires a legislation to enforce it.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
11. For a citizen of India, the duty to pay taxes is
a:
a) Fundamental Duty
b) Legal obligation
c) Constitutional obligation
d) Moral obligation
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12. Which of the following is a fundamental duty
mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution?
1. To develop a spirit of inquiry
2. To respect the National Flag and National
Anthem
3. To safeguard Public property
4. To do charitable activities which promote
social and economic equity
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 and 4 only
13. Consider the following statements about
Fundamental duties.
1. They are enforceable by law.
2. They can be used by the courts for
determining the constitutionality of any
law that transgresses certain
fundamental rights.
Which of the above is/are true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
14. As per Article 368 of the Constitution, the
amendment of the Indian constitution can be
initiated in
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. The office of The President
4. State Legislatures
5. Council of Ministers
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1, 3 and 5 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 5 only
15. Consider the following statements about
Constitutional amendment in India.
1. A private member of the Parliament
cannot introduce a constitutional
amendment bill
2. The prior permission of the President is
required for the introduction of every
constitutional amendment bill
3. Special days are reserved for introducing
constitutional amendment bills
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
16. A constitutional amendment bill must be
passed in each house by a combination of
which of these conditions
1. Two-thirds of total membership of each
house
2. Majority of those present and voting in
each house
3. Two-thirds of those present and voting in
each house
4. Majority of total membership of each
house
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4
c) 1 only
d) Either option (b) OR (c)
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17. When a constitutional amendment bill is
produced before the President, what are the
options available to him?
1. Withhold the bill
2. Return the bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament
3. End the bill
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
18. A number of provisions in the Constitution
can be amended by a simple majority of the
two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of
Article 368. These provisions include, inter
alia
1. Citizenship clauses
2. Abolition or creation of legislative
councils in states
3. Election of the President and its manner
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
19. As per a ruling of the Supreme Court, the
„basic structure‟ of the constitution can not be
amended by the Parliament. Which of the
following come under the „basic structure‟?
1. Power of Supreme Court to issue writs in
case of violation of Fundamental Rights
2. Effective access to justice
3. Parliamentary system
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
20. Collective Responsibility of the council of
ministers to the Parliament is the bedrock
principle of parliamentary government. It
implies that
a) The Parliament can remove the council of
ministers from office by passing a vote of
no confidence
b) The council of Ministers is appointed and
dismissed by the Parliament
c) All important decisions of the council of
Ministers have to be approved by the
Parliament
d) None of the above
21. If there is frequent disagreement on major
decisions in the Council of Ministers due to
just a few ministers, what option(s) does the
Prime Minister has/have?
1. Dismiss the Ministers who are causing
disagreement
2. Enforce his decision irrespective of the
view of the Council of Ministers
3. Convene a Parliamentary session to take
final view on the decision
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
22. In which of the following cases, the Lok Sabha
may be dissolved?
1. Prime Ministers recommending
dissolution of Lok Saha to the President
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2. No-confidence motion passed against the
incumbent government
3. Resignation of majority of cabinet
ministers
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
23. With reference to India‟s physical setting,
consider the following statements:
1. India lies entirely in the northern
hemisphere
2. Distance between India‟s two extreme
longitudes is larger than distance
between its two extreme latitudes
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) None
c) 2 Only
d) Both
24. Which of the following states does NOT
share their borders with Mynamar?
1. Mizoram
2. Nagaland
3. Assam
4. Arunachal Pradesh
5. Tripura
6. Manipur
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a) 1,3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 6
c) 3 and 5
d) 1 and 6
25. With reference to India‟s perennial rivers,
consider the following statements
1. The rivers Ramganga and Mahananda
are important tributaries of Yamuna
2. The rivers Manas and Dhansiri are
principal tributaries of river
Brahmaputra
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
26. The entire India is divided into twenty river
basins. With reference to these river basins,
consider the following statements
1. Rivers with drainage area of 2000 sq.
km to 20000 sq. km are considered as
Major river basins
2. Narmada and Tapti river basins are
considered as Medium river basins
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
27. With reference to the Himalayan flora,
consider the following statemnets
1. The oaks, laurels, maples,
rhododendrons and birch are found in
the temperate regions of Eastern
Himalayas
2. Silver fir, juniper and silver birch are
found at altitudes higher than 4500
metres in the Western Himalyan
region and are known as alpine trees
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS Page 7
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
28. With reference to Census – 2011 and its
findings, consider the following statements
1. Census 2011 was the fourteenth census
since 1872
2. Overall sex ratio decreased by seven
points since 2001 census
3. The population of India since 1901 has
grown steadily with each passing
census without exception
4. According to 2011 census, West Bengal
is the thickly populated state in India
Which of the above statements is/are
INCORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1,2 and 4 Only
d) All
29. Consider the following statements
1. The design of the national flag was
adopted by the Constituent Assembly
of India after India became republic
2. The display of the National Flag is
solely governed by the non-statutory
instructions issued by the government
time to time
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
30. Consider the following statements
1. The words Satyameva Jayate inscribed on
national emblem are taken from Mundaka
Upanishad
2. India‟s state emblem is an adaptation of
sculpture from Ashoka‟s Sanchi pillar
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
31. Consider the following statements:
1. The national song Vande Mataram
was composed by Bankimchandra
Chatterji in Bengali language
2. Vande Mataram was first sung on 27th
December 1911, at the Kolkata session
of the Indian National Congress
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) None
c) 2 Only
d) Both
32. Consider the following statements
1. The national calendar is based on Saka
Era with Chaitra as its first month
2. According to India‟s national calendar, 1
magha starts on 21st January of Gregorian
calendar
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
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33. Consider the following statements
1. The President of India is the
constitutional head of executive of the
Union
2. The Council of Ministers are
collectively responsible to both the
houses of the Parliament
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
34. With reference to some of the provisions of
the Constitution of India related to the
Fundamental rights and Directive principles
of state policy(DPSPs) , consider the following
statements
1. Prohibiting all forms of forced labour,
child labour and human trafficking is
enshrined in Directive Principles of
State Policy
2. The equal pay for equal work for men
and women is a fundamental right in
India
3. According to the Constitution of India,
the DPSPs are fundamental to the
governance of the country
Which of the above statements is/are
INCORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
35. During an emergency, our political structure
undergoes a transformation from being
„Federal‟ to
a) Military
b) Quasi-federal
c) Unitary
d) Being only a Single Government
36. Consider the following statements.
1. National emergency can be declared even
if security of India is not in threat, but
there is a case of imminent danger.
2. The operation of National Emergency
always applies to the whole of Indian
Territory.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
37. The President of India can declare a National
emergency only after the
1. Approval of the Cabinet
2. Approval by the Parliament
3. Approval by the State legislatures
involved
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 only
38. The concept of „Indicative Planning‟ means
that
a) The private sector is involved directly in
the planning process for the nation
b) The state fixes long-term growth targets
for various sectors of the economy and
facilitates the private sector to achieve it
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c) The planning is decentralised with the
state and local governments being made
an integral part of the planning process
d) Allowing the market forces to work with
little regulation and no direction by the
state so that it results in optimum resource
utilization
39. Constitutional provisions which have a
bearing on planning in the country can be
found in
1. Seventh Schedule
2. Part IX
3. Sixth Schedule
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
40. Which of the following is/are NOT the
functions of the recently established NITI
Ayog?
1. Giving technical advice to the state
governments
2. Supervise the Implementation of various
social sector schemes
3. Allocating funds for the economic
projects approved by the Government
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) None mentioned above are the functions
of NITI Aayog.
41. Which of the following are monitorable
targets set to be achieved at the end of the 12th
Five Year Plan?
1. Generating 50 million new work
opportunities in the non-farm sector
2. Completing Eastern and Western
Dedicated Freight Corridors
3. 50 per cent gram panchayats achieve
Nirmal Gram Status
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
42. Which of the following is/are NOT a
Fundamental Duty as enshrined in the
Constitution of India?
1. To value and preserve the rich
heritage of our composite culture
2. To safeguard public property and to
abjure violence
3. Who is a parent or guardian to
provide opportunities for education to
his child or ward, as the case may be,
between the age of six and fourteen
years
4. To uphold and protect the
sovereignty, unity and integrity of
India
5. To respect women and uphold India‟s
rich culture
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a) 3 and 5 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 5 Only
d) 1 and 5
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43. The President of India is elected by members
of an electoral college consisting of
1. Elected members of Lok Sabha
2. Elected members of Legislative
Assemblies of states
3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
4. Elected members of Legislative
Councils of states
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 1,2 and 4 Only
d) All the four
44. With reference to the office of Vice President
of India, consider the following statements:
1. When he is acting as President, he still
performs the function of the Chairman
of the Rajya Sabha
2. The Vice-President is elected
indirectly by members of an electoral
college consisting of the members of
both Houses of Parliament
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
45. With reference to the Rajya Sabha, consider
the following statements
1. It is not subject to dissolution
2. One –third of its members retire every
second year
3. All the elected members of the Rajya
Sabha are indirectly elected
Which of the above statements is/are
INCORRECT?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) None
46. With reference to various Parliamentary
committees in India, consider the following
statements
1. Standing committee is permanent in
nature
2. Standing committees are formed only
by Lok Sabha
3. Ad hoc committees are temporary in
nature
4. The Committee on Petitions is an
example of ad hoc committee
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only
47. Which of the following best describes the
function of committee on public
undertakings?
a) to examine the reports, if any, of the
Comptroller and Auditor General on the
Public Undertakings
b) to suggest alternative policies in order to
bring about efficiency and economy in
administration
c) to ascertain whether the money granted
by Parliament has been spent by
Government "within the scope of the
Demand"
d) None of the above
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48. Which of the following is NOT a function of
the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs?
a) Planning and Coordination of legislative
and other official business in both Houses
b) Organisation of Youth Parliament
Competitions in Schools/Colleges
throughout the country
c) Appointment of Members of Parliament
on Committees and other bodies set up
by Government
d) None of the above
49. Which of the following features given in the
Constitution show that the division of powers
in the Constitution is in favour of the Centre?
1. Centre has overriding authority over the
Concurrent List
2. States in India have no right to territorial
integrity.
3. Veto of Parliament over State bills
4. Financial emergency
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
50. The legislative matters on which uniformity
of legislation throughout the country is
desirable but not essential are enumerated in
the (Constitution)
a) Residuary List
b) Concurrent List
c) Fifth and Sixth Schedule
d) Directive Principles of State Policy
51. In case of a conflict between the Central law
and the state law on a subject enumerated in
the Concurrent List, which of the following is
possible?
1. Central law prevails over the state law.
2. State law prevails if it has received
Presidential assent
3. State law prevails of Governors of two
or more states have approved the
same legislation
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
52. The Constitution empowers the Parliament to
make laws on any matter enumerated in the
State List under which of the following
extraordinary circumstances?
1. When states make a request
2. To implement International agreements
3. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to
that effect
4. President‟s order in the Extraordinary
gazette of India
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
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53. In which of the following cases can the
Governor reserve a State bill for the approval
of the President?
1. During a financial emergency
2. If the bill restricts inter-state free trade
and commerce
3. If the Central Cabinet specifies in a
written order so.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
54. Which of the following duties have been
constitutionally prescribed for the Centre to
exercise control over the state administration?
1. To protect every state against external
aggression and internal disturbance
2. To ensure that corruption and
maladministration do not affect state
governments
Which of the above is/are true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
55. There are extra-constitutional devices to
promote cooperation and coordination
between the Centre and the states. These
include
1. Inter-state Councils
2. NITI Ayog
3. North-Eastern Council
4. Governors‟ conference
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
56. The Constitution provides for a division of
taxation powers between Centre and States.
Among the several taxes, service tax is
a) Levied by the Centre but Collected and
Appropriated by the States
b) Levied by the Centre but Collected and
Appropriated by the Centre and the States
c) Levied, collected and retained by the
Centre
d) Levied, collected and retained by the
States
57. The receipts from which of the following form
the major sources of non-tax revenues of the
Centre?
1. Broadcasting
2. Banking
3. Irrigation
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
58. The Constitution provides for specific grants
for promoting the welfare of the scheduled
tribes in a state or for raising the level of
administration of the scheduled areas. It
comes under
a) Statutory grants
b) Discretionary Grants
c) Backward area development grant
d) Grants-in-aid
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59. A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty
in which states are interested can be
introduced
a) Only on the recommendation of the
President
b) Only with the consent of two or more
states
c) Only after Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
to that effect
d) Only on the recommendation of the
Finance Commission
60. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for
the adjudication of inter-state water disputes
by a separate tribunal. The need for an extra
judicial machinery to settle inter-state water
disputes is because
a) The courts being overburdened with
litigations and adjudicating slowly are
incapable of adjudicating sensitive water
disputes
b) water resources are not private property
and so rule of law is applied by ordinary
courts is not appropriate to deal with its
distribution
c) Division and distribution of any natural
resources is out of judicial scrutiny in
India
d) The courts cannot employ technical
committees to ascertain the distribution of
water resources
61. The festival „Vanaj‟ was organised for the first
time by the Union Government. It is related
with
a) Countering Wildlife extinction
b) Increasing green cover of India
c) Bridge the gaps of social divide and
promote tribal culture in India
d) Generating awareness about conserving
the ecosystem services humanity received
from forests
62. The Union Government has recently imposed
an anti-dumping duty on imports of graphite
electrodes used in steel plants for five years.
Consider the following statements about anti-
dumping duty
1. It is imposed by Ministry of Commerce.
2. It is imposed on products which are sold
in domestic markets at much higher
prices than international prices.
3. It is used to counter trade imbalance.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
63. India and Sri Lanka have a Memorandum of
Understanding in which of the following?
1. On establishment of Nalanda University
2. On cooperation in peaceful uses of
Nuclear energy
3. On cooperation in Cultural
documentation
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
64. The Government of India announces
Minimum Support Prices (MSP) from time to
time. Which of the following factors are taken
into account while calculating MSP?
1. Inter-crop parity
2. International Prices
3. Subsidy levels
4. Inflation levels
http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS Page 14
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
65. As per government norms, the Buffer stock of
grains with FCI can be used for which of the
following purposes?
1. Countering food inflation
2. Meeting grain shortages across
geographical regions
3. Disaster relief
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
66. Import of Edible oils in India has increased in
the last few decades. What factors are
responsible for it?
1. Competitive International Prices of Edible
oils
2. Very low import duty on Edible oil
3. India does not produce quality edible oil.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
67. Presently the Agricultural Produce Marketing
Committees (APMC) do NOT offer which of
the following facilities to farmers?
1. Regulation of remunerative prices to
farmers
2. Grading and standardization of
agricultural produce
3. Direct sale of agricultural produce to
markets
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
68. National Horticulture Mission (NHM) does
NOT include which of the following?
1. Aromatic plants
2. Medicinal plants
3. Spices
4. Plantation crops
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of these are included.
69. Consider the following statements about the
government interventions in Agricultural
insurance.
1. Private sector insurers have not been
allowed in agricultural insurance till date.
2. Not only post-harvest losses, but pre-
harvest risks have also been covered.
3. Insurance has been restricted to incidents
of adverse weather situations in farms.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only
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70. Which of the following would come under
macro-stabilization measures?
1. Fiscal stimulus
2. Cutting Inflation levels
3. Reducing Current Account Deficit
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
71. In the context of economic reforms,
„Privatization‟ may mean
1. Facilitating expansion of the Private
sector by the state
2. Disinvestment in State owned enterprises
3. Increasing economic integration with
other State economies
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
72. „Factor Market Reforms‟ are considered to be
an important component of Second
Generation Economic Reforms in India. Factor
market reforms may include
1. Cutting down level of subsidies
2. Dismantling the Administered price
Mechanism
3. Rationalizing the taxation system
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
73. Which of the following are instruments of
„Deflation‟ in the economy?
1. Increase in tax rates
2. Increase in interest rates
3. Restricting from printing money
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
74. Cutting the Repo rate, cutting the Cash
Reserve Ratio (CRR) and tweaking other
monetary policy tools will NOT help fight
price rise in which of the following goods?
1. Salt
2. Wheat
3. Oil
4. Automobiles
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 4 only
75. Core inflation shows price rise in all goods
and services excluding
a) Energy and food articles
b) Manufacturing goods
c) Unorganized sector services
d) Energy commodities
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76. Inflationary spiral is a situation in an
economy which results out of a process of
interaction between
a) Wages and prices
b) Interest rates and prices
c) Taxes and prices
d) Employment levels and prices
77. Stagflation is a situation in the economy when
high „X‟ and low „Y‟ occur simultaneously. „X‟
and „Y‟ respectively are
1. Inflation
2. Economic growth
3. Unemployment
4. Development
Choose the correct combination of „X‟ and „Y‟.
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 2
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 1
78. Consider the following statements about
„Skewflation‟.
1. It denotes a highly irregular trend of
inflation in the economy.
2. Food articles in India have shown
Skewflation in India in the last 4-5 years.
3. Skewflation cannot be countered using
conventional monetary policy tools.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only
79. If the GDP deflator in an economy is greater
than 1, it implies that
a) The economy has seen price rise over the
last year
b) The economy has seen lowering of prices
over the last year
c) The purchasing power parity of masses
has increased over last year
d) The purchasing power parity of masses
has reduced over last year
80. Consider the following effects of inflation in
the economy.
1. Lenders suffer and borrowers benefit.
2. With the same wages purchasing power
of people get reduced
3. Savings rate may increase
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
81. Wholesale Price Index (WPI) does NOT
calculate for price rise in which of the
following categories?
1. Services
2. Energy commodities
3. Intermediary goods
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
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82. With few exceptional years, India has been
facing the typical problem of structural
inflation. The factors responsible for this can
be
1. Shortfall in supply of goods
2. Infrastructure deficit
3. High fiscal deficit
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
83. The economy might face structural problems
like shortage of investible capital, lower
savings, falling standard of living, creation of
a sellers‟ market in which of the following
phases of business cycle?
a) Recession and Boom
b) Recession only
c) Recovery and Recession
d) Depression and Recovery
84. Which of the following sectors of the Indian
economy accounts for the largest share of the
unorganised sector?
a) Agriculture
b) Construction sector
c) Services sector
d) Mining sector
85. Tenancy reforms is an important component
of Land reforms in India. It includes
1. Regulation of rent
2. Abolition of Intermediaries
3. Ownership rights to tenants
4. Security of tenure
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
86. Swine flu is NOT transmitted among humans
by
1. Touch
2. Vectors
3. Food
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
87. Department of Border Management of
government of India is part of which of the
following ministry?
a) Ministry of Defence
b) Ministry of Home Affairs
c) Ministry of Planning
d) Ministry of Earth Sciences
88. With reference to the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India, consider the
following statements
1. The reports of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India relating to the
accounts of the States shall be submitted
to the president, who shall cause them to
be laid before concerned Legislative
Assemblies
2. He shall only be removed from office in
like manner and on like grounds as a
Judge of the Supreme Court
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
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b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
89. The bhoochetana project in Karnataka is
related to
a) Enhancing availability of credit to
farmers
b) Enhancing productivity of rainfed
areas
c) Enhancing marketing facilities for
farmers
d) None of the above
90. Consider the following statements
1. The formation of tribunals in India
owes their origin to Constitutional
provisions
2. The administrative tribunals exercise
original jurisdiction in respect of
service matters of employees covered
by them
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
91. With reference to the Inter State Councils,
consider the following statements
1. A provision in the Constitution of
India governing formation of Inter
State Councils was added later
through an amendment
2. The genesis of the article can be traced
directly to Section 135 of the Govt. of
India Act, 1935 provided for
establishment of Inter-Provincial
Council with duties identical with
those of the Inter-State Council
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
92. With reference to electoral rolls, consider the
following statements
1. The electoral roll is a list of all people
in the constituency who are registered
to vote in Indian Elections
2. Only those people with their names on
the electoral roll are allowed to vote
3. The electoral roll is revised once every
five years
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
93. The Parliament exercises control over the
Government using which of the following
devices?
1. Question Hour
2. Adjournment motion
3. Discussions
4. Parliamentary committees
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 and 4 only
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94. Consider the following statements about the
Parliamentary system in India.
1. Parliament is the supreme authority in
India.
2. In India, the Prime Minister can be from
either house of the Parliament.
3. A person who is not a Member of
Parliament is also eligible to become a
Minister.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
95. In a federal system of Government, there
must be
1. A Written Constitution
2. Independent Judiciary
3. Bicameral legislature
4. Local governments
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 and 4 only
96. The objective of Indian Neutrino Observatory
(INO) is to conduct basic research on the
elementary particle called neutrino. The
observatory will be located underground so
as to
a) Safeguard the observatory from the
electro-magenetic waves travelling on
Earth‟s surface
b) Provide adequate shielding to the
neutrino detector from cosmic
background radiation.
c) Protect the observatory from any damages
from earthquake and other disasters
d) Save the observatory from the influence of
primordial gravitational waves
97. Consider the following statements about the
„Soil Health Card‟ scheme for farmers.
1. The card will carry crop wise
recommendations of nutrients/fertilizers
required for farms.
2. The card can be assessed without the aid
of technical or laboratory equipment.
3. Cards will be distributed by the State
governments.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
98. As per World Bank‟s recently released
report „Building Resilience for Sustainable
Development of the Sundarbans‟, which of
the following factors have been blamed for
the decline of Sundarbans ecosystem?
1. Mangrove destruction
2. Coral reefs destruction
3. Destructive impact of cyclones
4. Unsustainable fishing
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
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99. The Union Government has recently launched
a Grievances Monitoring portal
named „MADAD‟ (Help) to register
grievances from
a) General public
b) Litigants stuck in court cases
c) Indians living abroad
d) Indian students
100. Which of the following Institutes/bodies
have a bearing on skill development in India?
1. Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(KVIC)
2. Rural Self Employment Training Institute
(RSETI)
3. National Skill Commission
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only