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Argument with a Radio Listener 06/17/08

Is Jesus Lord God or Lord Man?By Edwin Jardinel

According to a Radio listener, that Jesus is just a man, authorized and given by the Father thepower and was exalted as Lord, not as a pre-existent God but as created & exalted Lord man.

The Lord said:

“I am the LORD: that  is my name: and my glory will I not give to another,neither my praise to graven images”. (Isa 42:8)

My Question 1: Would God give His glory to another, such as Lord man?

The radio listener, using Philippians chapter 2, he argued that it is right to worship

Jesus although he is just a man and not God because it is the command of the Fatherfor His glory.

Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which isabove every name: (Phi 2:9)

That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of  things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; (Phi 2:10)

 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. (Phi 2:11)

My question 2: What is the declaration in the passage, should we acknowledge and worship Jesus as Lord or as man?

The radio listener continued to insist that it is for the glory of the Father to obey Hiscommand to worship Jesus though is is just a man. He also said, “worship Jesus asLord”

My question 3: What kind of Lord, Lord God or Lord man?

My question 4: If you worship Jesus as Lord, how many true Lords are thereaccording to Eph.4:5?

He avoided answering in number. His reply was: “There is the Lord God whoseLordship is inherent and there is one who was made Lord by the Lord God to be worshipped to the glory of the Father (Acts 2:36; Phil 2)”.

My question 5: Can you give me a verse that says two Lords?

I said to him, “Therefore you have two Lords, Lord God and Lord man”.

My question 6: Where is your verse that says worship man?

I said, “Lord when all letters or beginning of the letter is capitalized has reference to God and

no man deserves that title. The Bible says there is one Lord, not two, read Deut 6:4 & Eph4:5. If so then, there is one Lord God revealed in three persons”.

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My question 7: How many classification of Lords do you have?

My question 8: Can you show me a verse where any apostle said”There are two Lords” ?

He is arguing that after the resurrection, there is another one made Lord. I said, your belief 

of two Lords is heretical and man-made and contrary to the biblical belief of One Lord.

Secondly, your belief of two kinds of Lords to be worshipped such as Lord God and Lord man

is alien to Scripture and is contradictory to Isaiah 42: 8. The bible says there is one Lord,Deut.6:4; Eph.4:5. Where is your verse that says “Two Lords”? Such is your invention!!!

In Matthew 4: 7, Jesus said:

“Jesus said unto him, It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God”. (Mat 4:7)

Jesus was tempted by the devil and he replied, “Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God”. He has the right to say that because He is God.

He replied: “Jesus was quoting Deut.6: 16” and added concerning the temptation of the devil

for Jesus to jump from a high building in Matt. 4: “...while God is capable of saving His Son,

through His angels, Jesus did not want to test God so he quoted Deut. 6: 16 in response to the

devil's statement” (The listener said).

 Ye shall not tempt the LORD your God, as ye tempted him in Massah. (Deu6:16)

I said, “You must apply Bible Analysis”.

1. To whom was Christ speaking?

2. Who is being referred to as “Thou”.

3. Was Jesus speaking to a crowd or to the devil?

4. Who is being tempted by the devil, the Father or Jesus?

5. Why would Christ say do not tempt God the Father if he is the one being tempted?

6. Was Jesus rebuking the devil so that he would stop tempting the Father or so that he

would stop tempting Him, Jesus?

7. In what sense, would Jesus rebuke himself if he is saying to himself not to tempt the

Father?

The listener argued that Jesus was rebuking himself so that he should not tempt the Father.Nonesense!!! Such is a wrong understanding of the Scripture due to a lack of proper Bible

analysis.

Therefore we conclude that it is the devil tempting Jesus. Though it was a quotation from

Deut . 6:16 which was a command to Israel, at that particular time when Jesus was tempted in

Matt. 4, and quoted that command, He is applying that command and ordering the devil not

to tempt the Lord God. Since it is not the Father being tempted but the Lord Jesus, it is

concluded that Jesus was implying that He is Lord God.

Thomas was not mistaken when he said in John 20:28, or else he could have been rebuked by

Jesus.

 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. (Joh 20:28)