Lecture 20 Plane Waves

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    EECS 117

    Lecture 20: Plane Waves

    Prof. Niknejad

    University of California, Berkeley

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    Maxwells Eq. in Source Free Regions

    In a source free region = 0 and J = 0

    D = 0

    B = 0

    E =

    B

    t

    =

    H

    t

    H = Dt

    = E

    t

    Assume that E and H are uniform in the x-y plane sox = 0 and

    y = 0

    For this case the

    E simplifies

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    Curl E for Plane Uniform Fields

    Writing out the curl of E in rectangular coordinates

    E = x y z

    0 0 zEx Ey Ez

    (E)x = Eyz = Hx

    dt

    (

    E)y

    =

    Ex

    z=

    Hy

    dt

    (E)z = 0 = Hzdt

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    Curl of H for Plane Uniform Fields

    Similarly, writing out the curl H in rectangularcoordinates

    H =

    E

    t

    Hyz

    = Ex

    t

    Hxz

    = Ey

    t

    0 =

    Ezt

    Time variation in the z direction is zero. Thus the fieldsare entirely transverse to the direction of propagation.

    We call such fields TEM waves

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    Polarized TEM Fields

    For simplicity assume Ey = 0. We say the field polarizedin the x-direction. This implies that Hx = 0 and Hy = 0

    Exz

    = Hyt

    Hy

    z =

    Ex

    t

    2Exz2

    = 2Hy

    zt

    2Hyzt

    = 2Ext2

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    One Dimensional Wave Eq.

    We finally have it, a one-dimensional wave equation

    2Ex

    z2=

    2Ex

    t2

    Notice similarity between this equation and the waveequation we derived for voltages and currents along a

    transmission lineAs before, the wave velocity is v = 1

    The general solution to this equation is

    Ex(z, t) = f1(t zv

    ) + f2(t +z

    v)

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    Wave Solution

    Lets review why this is the general solution

    Ex

    t= f

    1+ f

    2

    2Ext2

    = f1 + f2

    Ex

    z=

    1

    vf1

    +1

    vf2

    2Exz2

    =1

    v2f1 +

    1

    v2f2

    A point on the wavefront is defined by (t z/v) = cwhere c is a constant. The velocity of this point istherefore v

    1 1v

    zt

    = 0

    z

    t= v

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    Wave Velocity

    We have thus shown that the velocity of this wavemoves is

    v = c =1

    In free-space, c 3 108m/s, the measured speed oflight

    In a medium with relative permittivity r and relativepermeability r, the speed moves with effective velocity

    v =c

    rrThis fact alone convinced Maxwell that light is an EM

    wave

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    Sinusoidal Plane Waves

    For time-harmonic fields, the equations simplify

    dEx

    dz

    =

    jHy

    dHydz

    = jEx

    This gives a one-dimensional Helmholtz equation

    d2Ex

    d2z

    =

    2Ex

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    Solution of Helmholtz Eq.

    The solution is now a simple exponential

    Ex = C1ejkz + C2ejkz

    The wave number is given by k = = vWe can recover a traveling wave solution

    Ex(z, t) = ExejtEx(z, t) =

    C1ej(tkz) + C2ej(t+kz)

    Ex(z, t) = C1 cos(t kz) + C2 cos(t + kz)The wave has spatial variation = 2k =

    2v =

    vf

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    Magnetic Field of Plane Wave

    We have the following relation

    Hy =

    1

    j

    dEx

    dz

    =

    1

    j jkC1ejkz + C2jkejkz

    Hy =k

    C1e

    jkz C2jkejkz

    By definition, k =

    Hy =

    C1ejkz C2ejkzThe ratio E+x and H

    +y has units of impedance and is

    given by the constant = /. is known as theimpedance of free space

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    Plane Waves

    Plane waves are the simplest wave solution ofMaxwells Eq. They seem to be a grossoversimplification but they nicely approximate real

    waves that are distant from their source

    source of radiation

    wavefront at distant points

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    Wave Equation in 3D

    We can derive the wave equation directly in acoordinate free manner using vector analysis

    E = Ht

    = (H)t

    Substitution from Maxwells eq.

    H = Dt

    = E

    t

    E = 2Et2

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    Wave Eq. in 3D (cont)

    Using the identity E = 2E + ( E)Since E = 0 in charge free regions

    2E = 2Et2

    In Phasor form we have k

    2

    =

    2

    2E = k2E

    Now its trivial to get a 1-D version of this equation

    2Ex =

    2Ex

    t2

    2Ex

    x2

    = 2Ex

    t2

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    Penetration of Waves into Conductors

    Inside a good conductor J = E

    In the time-harmonic case, this implies the lack of freecharges

    H = J + Et

    = ( + j) E

    Since H 0, we have( + j) E 0

    Which in turn implies that = 0

    For a good conductor the conductive currentscompletely outweighs the displacement current, e.g.

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    C d i Di l C

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    Conductive vs. Displacement Current

    To see this, consider a good conductor with 107S/mup to very high mm-wave frequencies f 100GHzThe displacement current is still only

    10111011 1

    This is seven orders of magnitude smaller than theconductive current

    For all practical purposes, therefore, we drop thedisplacement current in the volume of good conductors

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    W E ti i id C d t

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    Wave Equation inside Conductors

    Inside of good conductors, therefore, we have

    H = E

    E = ( E)2E = 2E = jH2E = jE

    One can immediately conclude that J satisfies the sameequation

    2J = jJApplying the same logic to H, we have

    H = ( H)2H = 2H = (j+) E

    2H = jHUniversit of California Berkele EECS 117 Lecture 20 . 17/

    Pl W i C d

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    Plane Waves in Conductors

    Lets solve the 1D Helmholtz equation once again forthe conductor

    d

    2

    Ezd2x = jEz = 2Ez

    We define 2 = j so that

    =1 + j

    2

    Or more simply, = (1 + j)f = 1+jThe quantity = 1

    fhas units of meters and is an

    important number

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    S l ti f Fi ld

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    Solution for Fields

    The general solution for the plane wave is given by

    Ez = C1ex + C2ex

    Since Ez must remain bounded, C2 0

    Ez = E0ex = Exex/ mag

    ejx/ phaseSimilarly the solution for the magnetic field and currentfollow the same form

    Hy = H0ex/ejx/

    Jz = J0ex/

    ejx/

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    T t l C t i C d t

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    Total Current in Conductor

    Why do fields decay in the volume of conductors?

    The induced fields cancel the incoming fields. As

    , the fields decay to zero inside the conductor.

    The total surface current flowing in the conductorvolume is given by

    Jsz =0

    Jzdx =0

    J0e(1+j)x/dx

    Jsz =J0

    1 + j

    At the surface of the conductor, Ez0 =J0

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    Internal Impedance of Conductors

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    Internal Impedance of Conductors

    Thus we can define a surface impedance

    Zs =Ez0

    Jsz=

    1 + j

    Zs = Rs + jLi

    The real part of the impedance is a resistance

    Rs =1

    =

    f

    The imaginary part is inductive

    Li = Rs

    So the phase of this impedance is always /4

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    Interpretation of Surface Impedance

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    Interpretation of Surface Impedance

    The resistance term is equivalent to the resistance of aconductor of thickness

    The inductance of the surface impedance represents

    the internal inductance for a large plane conductor

    Note that as , Li 0. The fields disappear fromthe volume of the conductor and the internal impedance

    is zero

    We commonly apply this surface impedance toconductors of finite width or even coaxial lines. Its

    usually a pretty good approximation to make as long asthe conductor width and thickness is much larger than

    Universit of California Berkele EECS 117 Lecture 20 . 23/