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financialmodellingnotes mathematical statistics western course4521
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1
FM4521g/9521b
Today’s Topics1. Review
2. Existence of the Risk-Neutral Measure
3. Uniqueness of the Risk-Neutral Measure
4. Summary of risk-neutral measure approach
5. Dividend-Paying Stocks
Review
• If the portfolio X(t) is used to replicate a contingent claim
P (t) with delta hedging, then
∆(t) =Γ̃(t)
σ(t)D(t)S(t), 0 ≤ t ≤ T
by Martingale representation theorem and Girsanov’s theorem
extension
• Definition: A probability measure Q is said to be risk-neutral
if
1. P and Q are equivalent (i.e., for any A ∈ F, P (A) = 0
iff Q(A) = 0,
2. Under Q, the discounted stock price D(t)S(t) is a
martingale
2
• For a stock following a specific SDE, Girsanov’s Theorem can
be used to find a risk-neutral measure Q, i.e., the discounted
stock must be a martingale under Q
• Definition: An arbitrage is a portfolioX(t) satisfyingX(0) =
0 and also satisfying for some T > 0
P (X(T ) ≥ 0) = 1, P (X(T ) > 0) > 0
Existence of the Risk-Neutral Measure
• Theorem (First fundamental theorem of asset pricing) If a
market model has a risk-neutral probability measure, then it
does not admit arbitrage
• Proof
? Let Q be the risk-neutral measure. Then every discounted portfolio
must be a martingale under Q
EQ[D(T )X(T )|F0] = EQ[D(T )X(T )] = X(0) = 0
? If P (X(T ) < 0) = 0, and Q is equivalent to P , then
Q(X(T ) < 0) = 0
? Need to verify Q(X(T ) > 0) = 0. Otherwise there is an
arbitrage (why?)
3
? If Q(X(T ) > 0) > 0, then
EQ
[D(T )X(T )|F0] = EQ
[D(T )X(T )] > 0
which is impossible
? Hence Q(X(T ) > 0) = 0 implies
P (X(T ) > 0) = 0
? That is, X(t) has no arbitrage
Uniqueness of the Risk-Neutral Measure
• Definition: A market model is complete if every derivative
security can be hedged
• Remember: If the portfolio X(t) is used to replicate the
contingent claim P (t) with delta hedging, then
∆(t) =Γ̃(t)
σ(t)D(t)S(t), 0 ≤ t ≤ T
• Theorem (Second fundamental theorem of asset pricing)
Consider a market model that has a risk-neutral probability
measure. The model is complete iff the risk-neutral probability
measure is unique
• Sketch of proof
? First we assume the model is complete. If there exist two
risk-neutral measures Q1 and Q2
4
? Let A ∈ FT and consider a derivative security P (t) with
payoff
P (T ) =I(A)
D(T )? Let X(t) be the portfolio to hedge the P (t)
? Qi, i = 1, 2 are risk-neutral =⇒ D(t)X(t) must be a
martingale under both Qi, i = 1, 2
X(0) = EQ1[D(T )P (T )|F0] = E
Q1[D(T )P (T )]
X(0) = Q1(A)
? Similarly X(0) = Q2(A). Hence
Q1(A) = Q2(A) for all A ∈ FT
? Normally FT = F . Hence Q1 and Q2 are really the same
? Assume that there is a unique risk-neutral measure Q such
that D(t)S(t) is a martingale under Q
? For any portfolio X(t) with ∆(t) shares in S(t)
d(D(t)X(t)) = ∆(t) d(D(t)S(t))
? Hence D(t)X(t) is a martingale and can be used to hedge
any derivative security
? Thus the market model is complete
? If there are multiple stocks, the proof is much hard since
one must proof there is a unique solution of Θi(t), i =
1, . . . , d
5
Summary of risk-neutral measure approach
• A stock S(t) follows a SDE with a Brownian motion W (t)
and a filtration Ft• A discount process D(t). It is possible that D(t) may contain
a diffusion term
• With the help of Girsanov’s Theorem, there is a risk-neutral
measure Q (if such one can be found) such that
d(D(t)S(t)) = σ(t)D(t)S(t) dW̃ (t)
That is, D(t)S(t) is a martingale under Q
• A security derivative P (t) (or a contingent claim) with a
random payment P (T )
• A portfolio X(t) with ∆(t) shares in S(t) so that
d((D(t)X(t))) = ∆(t) d(D(t)S(t))
and D(t)X(t) is a martingale under Q
• By the first fundamental theorem of asset pricing, if X(t) is
used to replicate P (t) so that
X(t) = P (t), 0 ≤ t ≤, T
then
D(t)P (t) = EQ
[D(T )P (T )|Ft]admits no arbitrage
6
• On the other hand, if D(t)S(t) is a martingale under Q,
there must exist a Γ̃(t) such that
d(D(t)S(t)) = Γ̃(t) dW̃ (t)
and
∆(t) =Γ̃(t)
σ(t)D(t)S(t), 0 ≤ t ≤ T
• The value of P (t) can be computed either through its
martingale representation or by delta hedging
Dividend-Paying Stocks
• If a stock pays no dividend, then under a risk-neutral measure,
the discounted stock is a martingale. So is the a discounted
portfolio value
• Remember: It is the martingale property of a discounted
portfolio value that is used for valuing a contingent claim
• With dividend paying stock, the discounted stock may not be
a martingale
• Continuously paying dividend
? Let S(t) be a stock following a generalized geometric
Brownian motion that pays dividend continuously over time
at a rate A(t) per unit time
dS(t) = µ(t)S(t) dt+ σ(t)S(t) dW (t)
7
− A(t)S(t) dt, 0 ≤ t ≤ T,where A(t) ≥ 0 is adapted to Ft
? Let X(t) be a portfolio value at time t with ∆(t) shares
in the stock S(t). Then
dX(t) = R(t)[X(t)−∆(t)S(t)] dt + ∆(t) dS(t) +
∆(t)A(t)S(t) dt
= R(t)X(t) dt + (µ(t) − R(t))∆(t)S(t) dt +
σ(t)∆(t)S(t) dW (t)
= R(t)X(t) dt+ ∆(t)S(t)σ(t)[Θ(t) dt+ dW (t)],
where
Θ(t) =µ(t)− R(t)
σ(t)
? With the discounted process D(t)
d[D(t)X(t)] = ∆(t)D(t)S(t)σ(t)[Θ(t) dt+dW (t)]
? By Girsanov’s Theorem, there exists a risk-neutral measure
Q such that
W̃ (t) =
∫ t
0
Θ(u) du+W (t)
is a Browian motion under Q
? It implies that
d[D(t)X(t)] = ∆(t)D(t)S(t)σ(t) dW̃ (t)
is a martingale
8
? Notice that the discounted stock D(t)S(t) is no longer a
martingale under Q
? If X(t) is used to replicate a contingent claim P (t) with
payment P (T ) so that X(t) = V (t) for all 0 ≤ t ≤ T ,
then
D(t)P (t) = EQ
[D(T )P (T )|Ft], 0 ≤ t ≤ T
? The same formula as though there is no dividend payment
? However the distribution S(t) under Q is different
dS(t) = (µ(t)− A(t))S(t) dt+ σ(t)S(t) dW (t)
dS(t) = (R(t)− A(t))S(t) dt+ σ(t)S(t) dW̃ (t)
S(t) = S(0) exp{∫ t
0
σ(u) dW̃ (u)
+
∫ t
0
[R(u)− A(u)−σ2(u)
2] du
}? The process
e∫ t0 A(u) du
D(t)S(t) = exp{∫ t
0
σ(u) dW̃ (u)
−1
2
∫ t
0
σ2(u) du
}is a martingale
9
? A task: try to derive the SDE of the discounted stock
D(t)S(t) under P and Q
• Continuously paying dividend with constant coefficients
? R(t) ≡ r;σ(t) ≡ σ;A(t) ≡ a? S(t) = S(0) exp
{σW̃ (t) + [r − a− σ2
2 ]t}
? To evaluate an European call option, we need
S(T ) = S(t) exp{σ(W̃ (T )− W̃ (t))
+[r − a−σ2
2](T − t)
}? The European call option with dividend payment formula
c(t, x) = P (t) = EQ
[e−r(T−t)
(S(T )−K)+|Ft]
? Detail computations are left as a question in the Assignment
3
• Lump payments of dividends
? Time intervals: 0 = t0 < t1 < · · · < tn < tn+1 = T
? Prior the time tj, a dividend payment is ajS(tj−), where
S(tj−) denotes the stock price just prior to the dividend
payment
? So S(tj) = S(tj−)− ajS(tj−) = (1− aj)S(tj−)
? Each aj ∈ [0, 1] is a r.v. and is adapted to Ftj? Notice that S(t) is no longer continuous over [0, T ]
10
? So its SDE must be defined within each interval
dS(t) = µ(t)S(t) dt+ σ(t)S(t) dW (t),
where tj ≤ t < tj+1, j = 0, 1, . . . , n
? Let X(t) be a portfolio value at time t with ∆(t) shares
in the stock S(t)
? At time tj, the stock portion of the portfolio value drops
by aj∆(tj)S(tj−)
? But the portfolio collects the dividend aj∆(tj)S(tj−)
? So the portfolio values does not jump
? X(t) follows the same SDE
dX(t) = R(t)[X(t)−∆(t)S(t)] dt+ ∆(t) dS(t)
? So the SDE of the discounted portfolio
d[D(t)X(t)] = ∆(t)D(t)S(t)σ(t)[Θ(t) dt+dW (t)]
? By Girsanov’s Theorem, there exists a risk-neutral measure
Q such that
W̃ (t) =
∫ t
0
Θ(u) du+W (t)
is a Browian motion under Q
? It implies that
d[D(t)X(t)] = ∆(t)D(t)S(t)σ(t) dW̃ (t)
11
is a martingale
• Lump payments of dividends with constant coefficients
? R(t) ≡ r;σ(t) ≡ σ; aj are constant
? The SDE of S(t) under Q, for j = 0, 1, . . . , n
dS(t) = rS(t) dt+ σS(t) dW̃ (t), tj ≤ t < tj+1
? To price the European call option c(0, x), we need to find
the distribution of S(T )
?S(T )
S(0)=S(tn+1)
S(t0)=
n∏j=0
S(tj+1)
S(tj)
? S(tj+1−) = S(tj) exp{σ(W̃ (tj+1)− W̃ (tj)) + (r−
σ2
2 )(tj+1 − tj)}
? Remember: S(tj+1) = S(tj+1−) − ajS(tj+1−) =
(1− aj+1)S(tj+1−)
? So
S(tj+1)
S(tj)= (1− aj+1) exp
{σ(W̃ (tj+1)− W̃ (tj))
+(r −σ2
2)(tj+1 − tj)
}? You derive the rest in the Question 3