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Choose one correct answer for the following questions: 1. The first microscope was invented by Answer: F.janssen and janssen 1. Leeuwenhoek 2. Hooke 3. F.janssen and janssen 4. Schleiden 2. Fuelgen test is specific for Answer: DNA 1. Proteins 2. RNA 3. Lipids 4. DNA 3. Electrons used in an electron microscope have a wavelength of Answer: 0.05 A 1. 0.05 A 2. 0.1A 3. 0.15 A 4. 0.5 A 4. X-ray crystallography is useful in the study of Answer: Three dimensional structures of proteins 1. Lipd structure 2. Three dimensional structure of proteins 3. Arrangement of proteins 4. Composition of nucleic acids and proteins 5. Blue print for building and running cellular machinery is Answer: DNA 1. RNA 2. DNA 3. mRNA 4. Ribosome

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Page 1: MCQ,

Choose one correct answer for the following questions:

1. The first microscope was invented by Answer: F.janssen and janssen

1. Leeuwenhoek 2. Hooke 3. F.janssen and janssen 4. Schleiden

2. Fuelgen test is specific for Answer: DNA

1. Proteins 2. RNA 3. Lipids

4. DNA

3. Electrons used in an electron microscope have a wavelength of Answer: 0.05 A

1. 0.05 A 2. 0.1A 3. 0.15 A 4. 0.5 A

4. X-ray crystallography is useful in the study of  Answer: Three dimensional structures of proteins

1. Lipd structure 2. Three dimensional structure of proteins 3. Arrangement of proteins 4. Composition of nucleic acids and proteins

5. Blue print for building and running cellular machinery is Answer: DNA

1. RNA 2. DNA 3. mRNA 4. Ribosome

6. Which of the following cannot be grown on artificial culture medium? Answer: TMV

1. E.coli 2. TMV 3. Aspergillus 4. Yeast

Page 2: MCQ,

7. Process absent in viruses is Answer: Energy liberation

1. Replication 2. Mutation 3. Protein synthesis 4. Energy liberation

8. Life originated in Answer: Water

1. Air 2. Soil 3. Mountains 4. Water

9. Cell theory was put forward by Answer: Schleiden & Schwann

1. Schleiden & Schwann 2. Sutton & Boveri 3. Watson & Crick 4. Darwin & Wallace

10. Smaller cell is Answer: More active metabolically

1. Less active metabolically 2. With smaller nucleus 3. With larger nucleus 4. More active metabolically

11. The three kinds of macromolecules present in the plasma membrane are Answer: Proteins, lipids and carbohydrates

1. RNA, DNA and proteins 2. RNA, proteins and carbohydrates 3. DNA, proteins and lipids 4. Proteins, lipids and carbohydrates

12. Ribosomes in eukaryotes have their origin from Answer: Nucleolus

1. Nucleus 2. Nucleolus 3. Endoplasmic reticulum 4. Mitochondria

Page 3: MCQ,

13. Starch is commonly stored in Answer: Amyloplast

1. Choroplast 2. Amyloplast 3. Chromoplast 4. Leucoplast

14. Rigidity of plant cell wall is due to Answer: Lignin

1. Pectin 2. Lignin 3. Suberin 4. Cutin

15. Singer and Nicolson's model of plasma membrane differs from Robertson's model in the  Answer: Arrangement of proteins

1. Number of lipid layers 2. Arrangement of lipid layers 3. Arrangement of proteins 4. All of the above

16. Naked DNA is found is Answer: Chloroplast

1. Chloroplast 2. Nucleus 3. Lysosome 4. Golgi complex

17. Red blood corpuscles placed in 0.5% sodium chloride solution will show Answer: Bursting

1. Bursting 2. Crenation 3. Plasmolysis4. Turgidity

18. Basal bodies are associated with the formation of Answer: Cilia & flagella

1. Phragmoplast 2. Cilia & flagella 3. Cell plate 4. Kinetochore

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19. Cell sap is  Answer: Nonliving content of vacuole

1. Living content of cytoplasm2. Nonliving content of cytoplasm 3. Nonliving content of vacuole 4. Living content of vacuole

20. folding of inner mitochondrial membrane are called Answer: Cristae

1. Grana 2. Thylakoids 3. Cristae 4. F0-F1

21. Material exchange through nuclear pore is facilitated by Answer: Protein nucleoplasmin

1. Protein rhodopsin 2. Lamina propria 3. Lipid bilayer 4. Protein nucleoplasmin

22. Membrane bound Krebs cycle’s enzyme is Answer: Succinate dehydrogenase

1. Fumarase 2. Cis-aconitase 3. Succinate dehydrogenase 4. Malate dehydrogenase

23. Which one is different? Answer: chromosomes-mendel

1. Protoplasm-Huxley 2. Cell-Schwann 3. Vitamin-Funk 4. chromosomes-mendel

24. How many mitotic divisions occur in a cell to produce 256 daughter/somatic cells? Answer: 8

1.128 2.64 3.32 4.8

25. Carbohydrates present in cell membrane function in  Answer: Cell to cell recognition

1. Attachment of microfilaments 2. Attachment of microtubules 3. Cell to cell recognition

Page 5: MCQ,

4. Transport of substances

26. Which one is responsible for DNA histone binding? Answer: both i and ii

1. Topoisomerase 2. A=T base abundance 3. Both i and ii   4. Teloisomerase

27. Which is not a type of DNA marker? Answer: RAPD

1. RFLP 2. STR  3. SNP    4. RAPD

28. Which cannot act as inducer? Answer: none

1. Allolactose 2. β galactosidase  3. IPTG    4. None

29. Which one is not used in making genetically modified crops? Answer: artificial plasmid of animals    

1. vector based on plant virus 2. various plasmid DNA   3. artificial plasmid of animals  4. natural plasmid of agro bacterium

30. Exons form which fraction of whole human genome Answer: 1.5%

1.50.2%  2.19%  3.75%    4.1.5%

31. Who proposed one gene one enzyme hypothesis? Answer: beadle and tatum   

1. Beadle and Tatum   2. Meselson and Stahl 3. Watson and Crick    4. Kornberg

Page 6: MCQ,

32. Informational molecules of the cell are Answer: both i and ii

1. Protein 2. DNA and RNA 3. Polysaccharides  4. Both i and ii

33. Adapters used in ligation of blunt ended DNA has Answer: one sticky end and one blunt end   

1. One sticky end and one blunt end   2. Both sticky ends   3. Both blunt ends   4. None

34. Which protein binds to the unwinded single strand DNA during replication? Answer: SSB

1. Dna B  2. DNA ligase 3. SSB protein4. Primase

35. What is the ratio of absorbance of UV light by pure DNA at 260 nm and 280nm wavelength? Answer: 1.8

1. 1.8    2. 4.8  3. 10.2  4. 7.8

36. Genome of HIV is Answer: ssRNA

1.ss DNA   2.ss RNA   3.ds DNA    4.ds RNA

37. A. tumefaciens causes Answer: Crown gall disease

1. Rust 2. Wart 3. Crown gall disease  4. Hairy root disease

38. An anticoagulant mucopolysaccharide commonly present in animal body is  Answer: Heparin

1. Chondroitin sulphate 2. Keratin sulphate 3. Heparin 4. Hyaluronic acid

Page 7: MCQ,

39. DNA is composed of repeating units of Answer: Deoxyribonucleotides

1. Ribonucleosides 2. Deoxyribonucleosides 3. Ribonucleotides 4. Deoxyribonucleotides

40. Casein present in milk is a Answer: Protein

1. Fat 2. Carbohydrate 3. Protein 4. Bacterium

41. In an experiment, DNA was found to have 31% adenine and 19% guanine. The quantity of cytosine in the said DNA would be Answer: 19%

1.38% 2.31% 3.19% 4.62%

42. The cancerous cells has ______________ type of division Answer: uncontrolled

1. Controlled 2. Sequential  3. Uncontrolled 4. Metastatic

43. The cell cycle is divided into Answer: Interphase & M Phase

1. M & C Phase  2. M & S Phase  3. M & G Phase   4. Interphase & M Phase

44. Why leaves appear green in colour? Answer: Because they reflect green light  

1. Because they absorb blue light 2. Because they absorb red light 3. Because they reflect green light 4. All

45. Enzyme that catalyze conversion of glucose to ethanol Answer: Zymase

1. Zymase 2. Invertase 3. Maltase 4. Diastase

Page 8: MCQ,

46. What is the pH of 0.16 M HCl and 0.072 M phosphoric acid? Answer: 0.8 1. 0.8 2. 11.3 3. 12.9 4. 1.3

47. Eukaryotic mRNA is Answer: Monocistronic

1. Monocistronic 2. Polycistronic 3. Consists SD sequence4. 5' cap is absent

48. Vector used in first cloning experiment in mammalian cell was based on Answer: SV 40

1. SV 40 2. BPV 3. Adenovirus4. Retrovirus

49. Plant material suited for studying mitosis is Answer: root apex

1. Candidate Answers: 2. Shoot apex 3. root apex 4. cork

50. What are G-proteins? Answer: GTP binding proteins

1. GDP Binding Proteins2. GTP binding proteins3. GMP binding proteins 4. GTP transferring protein 5.

51. The process which cannot take place in the absence of viruses is called:

1. Transformation

2. Conjugation

3. Translocation

4. Transduction

Page 9: MCQ,

52. Pulse Polio programme is organized in our country to:

1. Cure polio

2. Eradicate polio

3. Spread polio

4. None of these

53. Spoilage of food material is prevented in cold storage is due to:

1. Reduced respiration at low temperature

2. Reduced enzyme activity in the food article

3. Reduced enzyme activity in the microbes as well as food article

4. Purified nature of air

54. The sequence of organelles involved in Photorespiration is:

1. Chloroplast MitochondriaPeroxisomes

2. MitochondriaCholoroplastPeroxisome

3. PeroxisomeChloroplastMitochondria

4. Chloroplast PeroxisomeMitochondria

55. Red blood corpuscles placed in 0.5% sodium chloride solution will show:

1. Bursting

2. Crenation

3. Plasmolysis

4. Turgidity

56. Feedback inhibition is caused by blocking of enzyme of the metabolic pathways

by:

1. Accumulated end products

2. Chemical produced by hormones

3. Hormones

4. Competitive inhibition

Page 10: MCQ,

57. Membrane permeability is controlled by:

1. Na+

2. K+

3. Both (1) and (2)

4 Ca2+

58. Which one of the following is a biodegradable plastic?

1. Leinolic acid

2. Poly hydoxy butyrate

3. Catechol

4. Formamide

59. The rate of evolutionary processes have gone slow mainly because:

1. The earth has become heated

2. There is lack of water on earth surface

3. The environment has become oxidative

4. The environment has become reductive

60. Which Immunoglobulin is found in maximum percentage of total immunoglobulin

in serum?

1. IgG

2. IgM

3. IgD

4. IgA

61. The genetic material of HIV is a:

1. Single stranded DNA

2. Double stranded DNA

3. Single stranded RNA

4. Double stranded RNA

Page 11: MCQ,

62. The driving force behind evolution is:

1. Sexual reproduction

2. Natural selection

3. Mutation

4. Acquired characters

63. If the frequency of a recessive phenotype is 50% in a large Mendelian population,

what would be frequency of dominant gene?

1. 30%

2. 40%

3. 50%

4. 60%

64. The sequence of bases in tRNA can be represented as:

1. 5’C---ACC3’

2. 5’G---CCA3’

3. 5’U---UCC3’

4. 5’A---CCA3’

65. Which one of the following is one of the three ancestors of common bread wheat?

1. Solanum

2. Zingiber

3. Oryza

4. Aegilops

66. Which light wavelength promotes germination of seed?

1. Red

2. Blue

3. Far red

4. Red and far red

Page 12: MCQ,

67. Inbreeding leads to sterility mainly because it leads to production of:

1. Recessive homozygous progeny

2. Dominant homozygous progeny

3. Heterozygous progeny

4. Mutant progeny

68. Dehang-Debang Bioreserve is situated in the state:

1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. Assam

3. West Bengal

4. Mijoram

69. ELISA technique is based on:

1. Antigen-Antibody interaction

2. Antigen-Antibody precipitation

3. Antigen –Antibody binding

4. None of these

70. The Red Data Book which lists endangered species is maintained by:

1. WWF

2. UNO

3. WHO

4. IUCN

71. Vaccines are:

1. Attenuated microorganism

2. Inactivated microorganisms

3. Both 1& 2

4. None of the above

Page 13: MCQ,

72. Among the following which gene is not concerned with induction of cancer?

1. Src

2. Ras

3. P53

4. Actin

73. Which of the following character is controlled by a holandric gene?:

1. Sickle cell anemia

2. Hypertrichosis

3. Blood clotting

4. Phenylketonurea

74. International Rice Research Institute is in:

1 Japan

2. India

3. Phillipines

4. China

75. A protein which is to be degraded in proteosome is tagged with:

1. Polyglycine

2. Polyprolin

3. Ubiquitin

4. Formyl methionine

76. An oligonucleotide DNA sequence tagged with fluorescent tag used to identify

unknown gene by hybridization is termed as:

1. Probe

2. Reporter gene

3. Ligand

4. cDNA

Page 14: MCQ,

77. The example of X-linked inheritance in human is:

1. Hemophilia

2. Colour blindness

3. Both 1 & 3

4. Hypertrichosis

78. The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A requires:

1. Oxidative decarboxylation

2. Oxidative deamination

3. Reductive decarboxylation

4. Reductive deamination

79. In human, Down’s syndrome results due to trisomic condition of chromosome

number:

1.23

2.22

3.21

4.20

80. Lignin, the most abundant organic substance in plants, is an example of

1. Primary metabolite

2. Secondary metabolite

3. Both 1& 2

4. None of these

81. Post translational modification of proteins occurs in:

1. Nucleus

2. Mitochondria

3. Endoplasmic reticulum

4. Glyoxysomes

Page 15: MCQ,

82. The complementary gene ratio as observed in interaction between two dominant

genes is:

1. 9:7

2. 13:3

3. 9:3:4

4. 15:1

83. Which anticancerous drug has been extracted from Catharanthus roseus?

1. Taxol

2. Vincristine

3. Colchicin

4. Serpentine

84. CDFD, a forensic science laboratory of the Government of India based on

Molecular Biological tools, is located at:

1. New Delhi

2. Hyderabad

3. Madurai

4. Mumbai

85. Covalent bond formation between two atoms takes place by:

1. Transfer of electron from one atom to another

2. One side sharing of electrons

3. Electron sharing by both interacting atom

4. Affinity between two atoms

86. What would be the correct sequence of mRNA if the sequence of bases in template strand is 5’CTTGACTGA 3’?

1. 5’UCAGUCAAG3’

2. 5’GAACUGACU3’

3. 5’TCAGTCAAC3’

4. 5’GAACTGACT3’

Page 16: MCQ,

87. The bacterial promoter contains sequences rich in:

1. A&T

2. Only A

3. Only T

4. G&C

88. Absorption of water and minerals and fixation of the plant body is the function of:

1. Root system only

2. Vegetative part

3. Shoot system only

4. All of the above

89. A heterozygous tall plant bearing red flower on selfing produced 640 seeds. How

many progeny plants in F2 generation would be pure tall bearing white flowers?

1. 10

2. 20

3. 30

4. 40

90. In human body ectoderm is responsible for the formation of:

1. Lens of eye

2. Nervous system

3. Sweat glands

4. All of the above

91. Human eye is sensitive to wavelength in the range of:

1. 330-760 nanometer

2. 790-800 nanometer

3. 300-360 nanometer

4. 300-390 nanometer

Page 17: MCQ,

92. Which one the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?

1. Epinephrine

2. Norepinephrine

3. Cortisone

4. Acetylcholoine

93. The catalytic efficiency of two enzymes may be compared by the:

1. Km value

2. pH optimum value

3. Molecular size of enzyme

4. Formation of the product

94. The enzyme used for alcoholic fermentation by yeast is:

1. Maltase

2. Invertase

3. Sucrase

4. Zymase

95. Certain metabolic inhibitors which inhibit carbohydrate translocation are:

1. 2, 4-dinitrophenol and Arsenic

2. Azide iodoacetic acid and Lead

3. Fluoride, Hydrogen cyanide

4. All of the above

96. If guanine (G) in a given DNA is 32%, what would be the amount of adenine (A)?

1. 16%

2. 18%

3. 64%

4. 68%

Page 18: MCQ,

97. In an inducible operon, the regulator gene produces

1. Inducer

2. Aporepressor

3. Active repressor

4. Co-repressor

98. Histone protein H4 associated with DNA in the chromatin is:

1. Lysine rich

2. Arginine rich

3. Cystein rich

4. Metheonine rich

99. The chromosomes during meiotic division divide during:

1. Anaphase I only

2. Anaphase II only

3. Both Anaphase I and II

4. Diakinesis

100. Which of the following represents the correct order in prophase I of meiosis?

1. Leptotene, zygotene, diplotene, pachytene, diakinesis

2. Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis

3. Zygotene, diplotene, pachytene, leptotene, diakinesis

4. Diakinesis, zygotene, diplotene, leptotene, pachytene