Mock-2013-9-SolutionP.pdf

MMoocckk TTeesstt SSeerriieess 22001133 Mock Test 9/15

Civil Services Examination 2013

TTaarrggeett 22001133 www.gktoday.in

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1

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Answer:

Explanation: Approximately 1/8 (12.5 %) of the ice is visible above water

and 7/8 (87.5 %) of the ice is submerged below the surface.

This is because ice and snow are less dense than water.

Here we must note that if the iceberg is made up of only

compact ice, its visible part may be even 1/10th part

because the compact part is relatively denser. But the top

of the iceberg is usually made up of snow which is not

that much compact and that is why the correct answer of

this question is 1/8th.

Answer:

Explanation: This is a simple question which needs you to know about

the common reaction of Sulphuric Acid when it is spilled

on paper, starch sugar or even cotton. These products get

burnt due to the reaction and the end products are

Carbon and Water. Water is absorbed by the acid, thus

acid becomes a little dilute. The reaction is exothermic.

Please note that the Sulphuric acid has a very high

affinity for water and due to this, it is also used as a

Dehydrating agent in making of Dry Fruits. Further, the

reaction is highly exothermic, it is always advised to put

acid into water than water into acid.

Answer:

Explanation: Millimeter Waves correspond to the EHF Band which

runs the range of frequencies from 30 to 300 gigahertz,

above which electromagnetic radiation is considered to

be low (or far) infrared light, also referred to as terahertz

radiation. This band has a wavelength of ten to one

millimetre. The Microwaves have wavelength of from as

long as one meter to as short as one millimeter, or

equivalently, with frequencies between 300 MHz (0.3

GHz) and 300 GHz. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

Answer:

Explanation: A social reform body, was founded by swami Dyananda

saraswaty in 1875. Under the influence of western

education and science many amongst the educated

Indians were tending to become Christian. The arya

samaj, like the brahma samaj and the prarthana samaj,

was started to stop this process and largely succeeded in

its efforts. Its motto was “ go back to the Vedas” and it

wanted to reform society on the model of the Vedas and

discard all later outgrowths. It upheld monotheism,

condemned polytheism and the use of image. It was

opposed to caste restriction and child marriages and it

supported sea-voyage, female education and





2remarriages of widows. It aimed at uplifting the down-

trodden classes or castes amongst the Indians. It claimed

that Hinduism was a proselytizing religion and by what

is known as the suddhi (purification) movement it

converted many non-Hindus to Hinduism and thus gave

a new dynamic force to Hinduism. It has done a great

deal of social and educational work, especially in the

Punjab. At first it confined its educational efforts to

sanskritic studies only, but later on one section of it led

by Lala Hansraj supported the cultivation of western

education as well as founded the dayananda Anglo Vedic

college at Lahore. The orthodox section continued to

believe in the necessity of reviving the Vedic ideal in

modern life and founded the gurukul at haridwar in 1902.

It has a still a large following in upper India.

Answer:

Explanation: The second statement is incorrect. LEDs are known for

their performance and LED emit more light per watt than

the CFLs.

Answer:

Explanation: Article 315 (2):Two or more States may agree that there

shall be one Public Service Commission for that group of

States, and if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

House or, where there are two Houses, by each House of

the Legislature of each of those States, Parliament may

by law provide for the appointment of a Joint State Public

Service Commission (referred to in this Chapter as Joint

Commission) to serve the needs of those States.

Answer:

Explanation: Article 323 (2) It shall be the duty of a State Commission

to present annually to the Governor of the State a report

as to the work done by the Commission, and it shall be

the duty of a Joint Commission to present annually to the

Governor of each of the States the needs of which are

served by the Joint Commission a report as to the work

done by the Commission in relation to that State, and in

either case the Governor shall, on receipt of such report,

cause a copy thereof together with a memorandum

explaining, as respects the cases, if any, where the advice

of the Commission was not accepted, the reasons for such

non-acceptance to be laid before the Legislature of the

State.

Answer:

Explanation: Ranganath Mishra Commission was set up by

Government of India to study and find solution for the

minority status of India. Its report was submitted in 2007.

It had suggested to curtail the reservation to the SCs, STs

and OBCs while giving reservation tominorities. The

three recommendations of this report were: 15% of jobs in

government services and seats in educational

institutions for minorities ; Reserve 8.4% out of existing

OBC quota of 27% for minorities; SC reservation to Dalit

converts.





3

Answer:

Answer:

Explanation: SONAR TARI is a collection of poems by Rabindranath

Tagore and contains more than forty poems in Bengali.

Rest all three are dramas.

Answer:

Explanation: A galaxy is a group of large number of stars in the sky

which have generally the same origin of evolution, such

as our Milky Way. A galaxy may contain billions of stars.

A cluster of galaxies, which may have up to 10 or even

more galaxies is called a local group. Clusters of galaxies

are known as a super galaxy, or a super cluster. This may

have up to 50 or even 1,000 galaxies. The Milky Way is a

member of the Virgo super cluster. However, before that

its is a part of smaller "Local group". Local Group is the

group of galaxies that includes Earth's galaxy, the Milky

Way. The group comprises more than 54 galaxies

(including dwarf galaxies), with its gravitational center

located somewhere between the Milky Way and the

Andromeda Galaxy. The galaxies of the Local Group cover

a 10 million light-year diameter and have a binary

(dumbbell) shape. This group itself is part of the Virgo

Supercluster. Thus second statement is not correct. Virgo

Supercluster contains the Virgo Cluster in addition to the

Local Group, which in turn contains the Milky Way and

Andromeda galaxies. At least 100 galaxy groups and

clusters are located within its diameter of 33

megaparsecs. It is one of millions of superclusters in the

observable Universe.

Answer:

Explanation: The First statement is incorrect because Montague-

Chelmsford Reform has accepted and favored the idea of

formation of the liquistic units. The second statement is

also incorrect because Annie Besant has opposed this

idea..

Answer:

Explanation: 74th amendment bill was related to the Constitution and

Composition of a municipality only. The rest two options

given in this question, are left to the states to decide

about them.





4

Answer:

Explanation: High electronegativity of fluorine (4.0 for F) gives the

carbon–fluorine bond (Carbon 2.5) a significant

polarity/dipole moment and the C-F bonds are

considered to be the strongest bonds in the organic

Chemistry. Please note that C-F bond is shorter than any

other carbon–halogen bond, and shorter than single

carbon–nitrogen and carbon–oxygen bonds, despite

fluorine having a larger atomic mass. Please also note

that Fluorine is the most reactive of the halogens.

Fluorine is the most electronegative element currently

known. This means the elemental form, F, will actively

seek another electron to satisfy the octet rule (8 electrons

in the outer s and p shells). This extra electron could

come from anything. Because of this, Fluorine is the

strongest known oxidizer. It is only found naturally on

earth as 19F, its only stable isotope. Aqueous HF

[Hydrofluoric acid], is weak acidic.

Answer:

Explanation: It was the Stanley's dispatch in 1850 that recommended

that the Government of India should take up the

responsibility of primary education and advised that the

Government should impose the local taxes to bear the

expenditure of Education.

Answer:

Explanation: Third Round Table met from 17-11-1932 to 24-12-1932. In

the beginning of the next year, a White Paper on

Constitutional Reform was released whose report became

the basis of Government of India Act 1935. The Civil

Disobedience Movement was partially withdrawn in 1933

and fully in 1934. The GOI act was enacted on 2-8-1935.

Answer:

Explanation: After the independence of India and Pakistan in 1947, the

use of the waters of the Indus and its five eastern

tributaries became a major dispute between India and

Pakistan. The irrigation canals of the Sutlej valley and the

Bari Doab were split - with the canals lying primarily in

Pakistan and the headwork dams in India disrupting

supply in some parts of Pakistan. The concern over India

building large dams over various Punjab rivers that could

undercut the supply flowing to Pakistan, as well as the

possibility that India could divert rivers in the time of

war, caused political consternation in Pakistan. India and

Pakistan signed the Indus Waters Treaty in 1960. The

treaty, which was brokered by World Bank, gave India

control of the three easternmost rivers of the Punjab, the

Sutlej, the Beas and the Ravi, while Pakistan gained

control of the three western rivers, the Jhelum, the

Chenab and the Indus. India retained the right to use of

the western rivers for non irrigation projects.

Answer:

Explanation:





5Aravallis Range literally meaning 'line of peaks' running

approximately 800 km from northeast to southwest

across states of Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat and

Pakistani provinces of Punjab and Sindh. Vidhyan

Mountains are extensively distributed in India Eastern

Gujarat, to sasaram (Bihar).

Answer:

Explanation: Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was anxious to put Muslims back

into favor with the British, but the things were of later

period than 1888. At that time, Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

made it his special endeavor to persuade his co-

religionists to keep aloof from the Congress, which was

showing growing signs of opposition towards British

policy and administration. In 1888 Sir Syed Ahmad

established the United Patriotic Association, which

included Muslims as well as Hindu members, all of whom

were opposed to the Congress. In 1893 he formed the

Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association of

Upper India, confining its membership to Muslims and

Englishmen.

Answer:

Explanation:

Apart from the announcements mentioned in 1, 2 and 3

point, of this question, please note that following were

also declared in the same:

1. A month's extra pay for soldiers and subordinate

Civil Servants

2. Establishment of a new university at Dhaka

3. Declaration of eligibility of Indians for getting a

Victoria Cross

4. Creation of a Governor-in Council for United Bengal

5. Reduction of Assam into a Chief Commissionership

4th point given in the questions was a part of Minto

Morley reforms.

Answer:

Explanation: This question has capability to trap almost all of you. The

first knowledge we have to apply that in Government of

India Act 1919 the spheres of the central and provincial

governments were demarcated by a division of subjects

into' central' and' provincial'. Generally speaking,

"central subjects' included all subjects directly

administered by the Government of India or in which

extra-provincial interests were dominant, whilst

provincial subjects' included subjects in which the

interests of the provinces essentially predominated. The

Dyarchy was for the Provincial Governments. The

provincial subjects were divided into two categories viz.

reserved' and transferred. Each province was to be

governed in relation to 'reserved' subjects by a Governor

in Council, and in relation to 'transferred' subjects by a

Governor acting with ministers. This system was known

as Dyarchy. In the selection of subjects to be transferred

to ministers, the guiding principle followed was to

include in the ' transferred' list those departments which

offered the most opportunity for local knowledge and

social service and those in which mistakes that might

occur would not be irremediable. Broadly speaking, '

reserved ' subjects comprised all subjects which were not

transferred to ministers and embraced such subjects as

Land Revenue, finance, and law and order.





6

Answer:

Explanation: If Earth was an ideal black body which absorbs all the

radiation from the Sun and emit the radiation due to this

heating, its temperature would have been 5.3 °C. The

Earth and other planets are not perfect black bodies, as

they do not absorb all the incoming solar radiation but

reflected part of it back to space. The ratio between the

reflected and the incoming energies is termed the

planetary albedo. Earth reflects 36-37% of this incoming

light and it corresponds to the Earth Albedo 0.367.

Answer:

Explanation: In 1831, Dwarkanath Tagore had established the

“Landholders Society” along with Prasanna Kumar

Tagore, Radhakanta Deb, Ramkamal Sen and Bhabani

Charan Mitra. British India Society was founded in 1839

in England with the efforts of William Adam, one of the

friends of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Answer:

Explanation:

1. The first political organization of the Bombay

Presidency was the Bombay Association which was

started on 26 August 1852, to vent public grievances

to the British.

2. The first organization in the Madras Presidency to

vent for the rights of Indians was the Madras Native

Association which was established by Gazulu

Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1849. In May 1884, S.

Ramaswami Mudaliar and P. Anandacharlu

established the Madras Mahajana Sabha.

3. Mary Carpenter came to India in 1866, to fulfill her

long cherished desire to, after she met Raja Ram

Mohan Roy in 1833. But in India, she met Keshab

Chandra Sen, the leader of Brahmo Samaj, who asked

her toform an organization in Britain to improve

communication between British and Indian

reformers. In 1870 she established National Indian

Association.

Answer:

Explanation: Sir Pherozshah Mehta is known as Lion of Mumbai, this

Parsi businessman became the Municipal commissioners

of Bombay Municipality in 1873 and remained its

president for 4 times. In 1890, he became president of

Indian National Congress. He started Bombay Chronicle,

an English-language weekly newspaper.

Answer:

Explanation: BOD is amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic

biological organisms in a body of water to break down

organic material present in a given water sample at

certain temperature over a specific time period, for

running rivers, it would be minimum and for Untreated

Municipal waste water it would be maximum.





7

Answer:

Explanation: It was Hasarat Mohani, who moved this motion but the

motion was rejected because of impracticality. It is told

to us that Hasrat Mohani was a member who could not

speak English, and rest all could.

Answer:

Explanation: 1. The Battle of Wandiwish ended with Treaty of 1763.

As per terms of this treaty, the Chandranagar and

Pondicherry was returned to France.

2. The French were now allowed to have trading posts

in India but forbade French traders from

administering them. So statement 2 is incorrect.

3. The Battle of Wandiwish was the last nail in the

coffin of the French ambitions of an Indian Empire

and only after this the British became dominant

power in India. So statement 3 is correct.

4. The first statement is also correct, because After

Battle of Chinsura, we don't find any significant

remnants of the Dutch in India.

Lok Sabha is required

Answer:

Explanation: This is a very important question on a very important

provision in constitution of India. The above provision

has been enshrined in the Article 249. As per this article,

the resolution has to be passed by two thirds of the

members present and voting that it is necessary or

expedient in the national interest in the Council of States

and NOT the Lok Sabha. So statement 2 is incorrect.

Answer:

Explanation: The first two statements are correct. The lack of a

magnetosphere and extremely thin atmosphere of Mars

are a challenge: the planet has little heat transfer across

its surface, poor insulation against bombardment of the

solar wind and insufficient atmospheric pressure to

retain water in a liquid form (water instead sublimates to

a gaseous state). Mars is also nearly, or perhaps totally,

geologically dead; the end of volcanic activity has

apparently stopped the recycling of chemicals and

minerals between the surface and interior of the planet.

The current understanding of planetary habitability—the

ability of a world to develop and sustain life—favors

planets that have liquid water on their surface. This most

often requires that the orbit of a planet lie within the

habitable zone, which for the Sun currently extends from

just beyond Venus to about the semi-major axis of Mars.

During perihelion Mars dips inside this region, but the

planet's thin (low-pressure) atmosphere prevents liquid

water from existing over large regions for extended

periods. The past flow of liquid water demonstrates the

planet's potential for habitability. Some recent evidence

has suggested that any water on the Martian surface may

have been too salty and acidic to support regular

terrestrial life. The 4th statement is not correct because

presence of water ice as well as traces of oxygen have

been reported at Mars.





8

Answer:

Explanation: This is a very fundamental question. Antigen is a protein

or sugar (carbohydrate) contained on the surface of a

cell, foreign object or infectious organism that the

immune system can recognize and decide to attack. The

immune system identifies antigens as being 'self' (normal

to the body) or foreign (not normally found in the body).

In normal animals, the immune system only attacks

foreign antigens (e.g. antibodies should only be produced

against foreign antigens). Antibody is a protein made by

a B cell that binds to a very specific antigen. Each

different B cell (plasma cell) makes only one type of

antibody and this antibody is very specific for a

particular antigen. When an antibody finds a foreign

antigen, it binds to the antigen and then calls other

inflammatory cells over to kill it.

The second statement has been tweaked. For a vaccine to

work, it needs to induce the body to produce antibodies

against the cause of the disease. The mechanism by

which vaccination works is complex and involves many

chemical and cellular reactions within and between the

immune system cells of the body. Basically, the role of

vaccination is to expose the naive immune system

(immune system that has not yet been exposed to the

foreign proteins/sugars - termed antigens - contained on

attacking organisms) to viral and bacterial antigens

contained within the vaccine so that, in the future, if the

body gets attacked by a related virus / bacteria the

immune system will recognize (remember) the antigens

contained on these infectious disease organisms and

activate very quickly (within hours as opposed to weeks

with an unvaccinated, inexperienced immune system) to

kill them. By having a large, mature immune response

activate more rapidly, the hope is that the invading

disease-causing organisms will be neutralized more

quickly (before they get to replicate or invade deep into

the body), thereby resulting in only mild, if any, clinical

disease.

Answer:

Explanation: An isomeric transition is a radioactive decay process that

involves emission of a gamma ray from an atom where

the nucleus is in an excited metastable state, referred to

in its excited state, as a nuclear isomer. The emission of a

gamma ray from an excited nuclear state allows the

nucleus to lose energy and reach either a lower energy

state, sometimes its ground state. In certain cases, the

excited nuclear state following a nuclear reaction or

other type of radioactive decay, has a half live that is

more than 100 to 1000 times longer than the average 10-

12 seconds, and this excited state is referred to as a

metastable nuclear excited state. Some nuclei are able to

stay in this metastable excited state for minutes, hours,

days, or occasionally far longer, before undergoing

gamma decay, in which they undergo radioactive decay

with primary emission of a gamma ray.

Answer:

Explanation: Time zones centered at intervals of 15° as difference of 1

hour translates to 15°; Earth rotates (Sun apparently

moves) through a circle of 360° in 24hours. So it needs to

be a multiple of 15°. In India's case the

15°norm can't serve because GMT+5 hours is 75°E falling

in extreme west of the country, but central in Pakistan

and so it is Pakistan standard time. GMT+6 hours (90°E)

falls outside the bulk of Indian landmass, centrally in

Bangladesh and hence is adapted as Bangla Standard

Time. Instead 82.5°E passing (near Allahabad) through the

middle of the country longitudinally with almost equal

stretches to east & west, is just right and so was selected

for Indian Standard Time. 82°.5 = 75° + 7°.5 ~ 5hrs+1/2 hr.





9

Answer:

Explanation: The Speaker and Deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha remain

in office as long as they are members of the house. If they

cease to be member of the house they have to vacate

their office. Immediately after dissolution of Lok Sabha ,

the speaker has not to resign till a new speaker is

elected. So, all statements are incorrect. The first

statement is incorrect because the post of speaker and

deputy speaker is not under pleasure of the President.

Answer:

Explanation: Chiru is the common name of Tibetan antelope

(Pantolops hodgsonii), and it is a threatened species of

Antelopes. To enhance protection of Chiru, its prime

habitats have been declared as Wildlife Sanctuaries viz.

Karakorma Wildlife Sanctuary and Changthang Cold

Desert Wildlife Sanctuary. I just wanted to make you

aware that Jammu & Kashmir Government has its own

wildlife Protection act of 1978. Chiru is in list I of that act

and it is also protected by the Indian wildlife act. Thus it

one of the few species which are protected by the two

acts.

Answer:

Explanation: Please note that Kukas were the first reformist sects,

which raised and took up the issue of cow protection in

1871 onwards. It was followed by some Cow Protection

Societies or Gaurakshini Sabhas by members of Arya

Samaj in 1880s, but the most fierce anti-cow slaughter

propaganda in India was seen in the decade of 1890 and

witnessed some violent activities in this context.

Answer:

Answer:

Explanation: These are common names of the Turtles found in India.

Turtles are placed in reptiles. The five species are Green

turtle (Chelonia mydas), Loggerhead (Caretta caretta),

Olive Ridley (Lepidochelys olivacea), Hawksbill

(Eretmochelys imbricata) and Leatherback (Dermochelys

coriacea).





10

Answer:

Explanation: Qualified Foreign Investor

1. Must not be a Resident of India or not a SEBI

registered Foreign Institutional Investor (FII)/Sub

Account /Foreign Venture Capital Investor(FVCI)

2. Must be a resident of a country other than India,

which is either a member of Financial Action Task

Force (FATF) or a member of a group which is a

member of FATF and is signatory to International

Organization of Securities Commission’s (‘IOSCOs’)

Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding or a

signatory of a bilateral MOU with SEBI.

3. The Securities and Exchange Board of India SEBI, in

consultation with Government of India and Reserve

Bank of India later decided to amend its earlier

provisions with respect to Foreign Investor in

mutual funds and equity share markets.

4. As per the new definition, resident of a country that

is a member of a group which is a member of FATF

will also be eligible to be considered as QFI.

Therefore, all the residents of the 6 member

countries of the Gulf Cooperation Council and the 27

member countries of the European Commission

would now be eligible to be considered as QFI.

Answer:

Explanation: On July 31, 1937, Gandhi had published an article in the

Harijan. Based upon this article, an all India National

Education Conference was held on October 22 and 23,

1937, which was called the Wardha Educational

Conference. The resolution at this conference was that

through out this period of 7 years, the education should

be around some forms of manual and productive work

and for this purpose a handicraft must be chosen , based

upon the environment of the child. Following this

conference, a committee under Dr. Zakir Hussain was

appointed to formulate the scheme of the basic

education. The aim of the basic education was to develop

the qualities of the ideal citizenship and more aspect

should be give to the Indian culture than the literacy.

Answer:

Explanation: India has a total of 178 registered GI products, and

Karnataka tops the chart with 31 tags. While Kerala and

Andhra Pradesh share the second spot with 20 tags each,

Tamil Nadu has got 18 GI products.

Answer:

Explanation: Snippets from The Hindu & TOI

In its application for GI tag, the society traced the history

of Veena and said it was one of the three celestial musical

instruments - along with flute and mridangam - finding

references from Vedic times. Identified with goddess

Saraswati, veena is mentioned in the Ramayana and the

Mahabharata. It also cites references associating the

instrument with sage Agastya, sage Narada, Lord

Hayagreeva and Mahakavi Kalidasa.

The current form of the Saraswathi Veena with 24 fixed

frets evolved in Thanjavur during the reign of Raghunath





11Nayak, Sanjay Gandhi said citing the Thanjavur Nayakar

History. He said the veena is four feet in

length consisting of a large resonator (kudam), a wooden

bridge (kudurai), a tapering hollow neck (dandi), a smaller

non-functional resonator and seven strings of the Veena.

The body of the Thanjavur Veenai is painted and

engraved with delicate wood work, which usually

consists of picture of god and goddess, motifs of flowers

or birds. It is played by sitting cross-legged with the

instrument held tilted slightly away from the player, the

application said.

The instrument is unique to Thanjavur as the wood from

a particular strain of matured jack fruit tree is unique to

the region. The craftsmanship and the skill in making the

instrument were handed over from one generation to the

other of Viswakarmas.

If granted, Thanjavur Veena would become 19th product

to obtain GI recognition from Tamil Nadu. This, however,

will be the first musical instrument of the state, Sanjay

Gandhi told TOI.

Answer:

Explanation: The Earth's internal heat comes from a combination of

residual heat from planetary accretion (about 20%) and

heat produced through radioactive decay (80%). The

major heat-producing isotopes in the Earth are

potassium-40, uranium-238, uranium-235, and thorium-

232.

Gravitation played a role during planetary accretion. The

gravitational binding energy of an object consisting of

loose material, held together by gravity alone, is the

amount of energy required to pull all of the material

apart, to infinity. It is also the amount of energy that is

liberated (usually in the form of heat) during the

accretion of such an object from material falling from

infinity. Earth's internal heat comes from a combination

of residual heat from planetary accretion (about 20%) and

heat produced through radioactive decay (80%). The

major heat-producing isotopes in the Earth are

potassium-40, uranium-238, uranium-235, and thorium-

232. At the center of the planet, the temperature may be

up to 7,000 K and the pressure could reach 360 Gpa.

Because much of the heat is provided by radioactive

decay, scientists believe that early in Earth history,

before isotopes with short half-lives had been depleted,

Earth's heat production would have been much higher.

This extra heat production, twice present-day at

approximately 3 billion years ago, would have increased

temperature gradients within the Earth, increasing the

rates of mantle convection and plate tectonics, and

allowing the production of igneous rocks such as

komatiites that are not formed today. The Orbital

characteristics of the Earth–Moon & Earth-Sun system

are sources of Tidal Energy rather.

Answer:

Explanation: 1. The Indian Patents Act 1970 defines a patent as a

grant or right to exclude others from making, using

or selling one's invention and includes the right to

license others to make, use or sell it.

2. Section 3 of the Act contains an exhaustive list of

what cannot be considered an invention, such as a

frivolous invention, a mere re-arrangement, a

farming method, mere presentation of information

and a mere discovery of a new form of a known

substance that does not result in increased efficacy.

3. Evergreening refers to prolonging the life of the

patent by making minor incremental changes that do

not necessarily alter the utility and features of the

original patented product. Here the innovator is just

trying to extend patent protection and prevent

competition from manufacturing the same product.

4. Section 3(d) of the Indian Patents Act is specially

intended to prevent evergreening.





12

Answer:

Explanation: 1. “Secondary” or “second generation” patents are

patents directed to new developments or

improvements of the subject-matter of the basic

patent.

2. Secondary or 'second generation' patents are

acknowledged in the regulated markets like the US

and UK. These are patents granted in relation to new

developments or improvements of the subject

matter of the basic patent. The Indian Patents Act

does not have any provision on secondary patents.

3. WTO-administered Trade-Related aspects of

Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), which came into

effect in 1995, allow the member countries to adopt,

consistently with the other provisions of the

agreement, measures to prevent or control practices

in the licensing of intellectual property rights that

are abusive and anti-competitive. Compulsory

licensing and government use without the

authorisation of the right holder are also allowed,

subject to certain conditions aimed at protecting the

legitimate interests of the right holder.

Answer: Explanation:

1. Flyash is one of three general types of coal

combustion byproducts (CCBP’s). The use of these

byproducts offers environmental advantages by

diverting the material from the wastestream,

reducing the energy investment in processing virgin

materials, conserving virgin materials, and allaying

pollution.

2. Although flyash offers environmental advantages, it

also improves the performance and quality of

concrete. Flyash affects the plastic properties of

concrete by improving workability, reducing water

demand, reducing segregation and bleeding, and

lowering heat of hydration.

3. Flyash increases strength, reduces permeability,

reduces corrosion of reinforcing steel, increases

sulphate resistance, and reduces alkali-aggregate

reaction.

4. Flyash reaches its maximum strength more slowly

than concrete made with only portland cement. The

techniques for working with this type of concrete are

standard for the industry and will not impact the

budget of a job.

Answer:

Explanation: Under the Vienna Convention of 1961, an ambassador

enjoys immunity from criminal, civil and administrative

jurisdiction for discharging his diplomatic duties, except

in circumstances such as property he personally owns,

matters of succession, or for any commercial or

professional activity outside of his official capacity.





13

Answer:

Explanation: It is mandatory under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 to get

your car insured as soon as you purchase it.There are two

types of car insurance: 'Third Party Insurance' and

'Comprehensive Insurance'.

Third party insurance protects a policy holder against

losses which arise due to bodily injury/death to a third

party or any damage to its property. It is mandatory by

law to have third party insurance.

However this insurance doesn't protect you against

losses which arise due to bodily injury/death to you, your

vehicle and co-passengers. If you want to be

compensated for any damages to you, your co-

passengers and your vehicle in addition to third party

coverage, then purchase comprehensive car insurance.

Comprehensive car policy is better as it provides both

third party coverage and damages/loss to one's own

vehicle, co-passengers or self.

Answer:

Explanation: 1. Underwriting means an agreement, with or without

conditions, to subscribe to securities of a corporate

when the existing shareholders or the public do not

subscribe to the securities offered to them.

2. Underwriting is commonly understood in the

context of capital markets and public issue of

securities. However, the term has a wider application

and covers insurance as well as the issue of public

debt by the government. In insurance, underwriting

is basically the process of risk assessment by an

insurance company. It involves determining the

likelihood of the insured event happening and then

estimating its likely cost.

3. It is through underwriting that the insurance firm

selects applicants for insurance and classifies them.

Underwriting can either be total or partial. Under

total underwriting, the entire risk of insurance is

accepted by the company. Only a part of the risk is

accepted in the other. Depending on the assessment,

the underwriter would decide whether to provide

full or partial underwriting.

4. Whenever the RBI issues public debt on behalf of the

government, it appoints underwriters to the issue.

Primary dealers in gilts and banks usually act as

underwriters. It has happened several times that a

primary issue of gilts by RBI has devolved on the

underwriters.

Answer:

Explanation: 1. Demutualisation is the process through which any

member-owned organisation becomes a

shareholder-owned company. this company could

either be listed on a stock exchange or closely held

by its shareholders.

2. Originally, the term applied specifically to insurance

companies converting into shareholder-owned

entities from being mutually owned by policy

holders.

3. In India, demutualisation relates more to the stock

exchanges than to insurance companies.

Answer:

Explanation:





14The amount the government borrows in the bond and

money markets to fund fiscal deficit is referred to as net

borrowings of the government. it also borrows to repay

outstanding loans which if added to the net borrowings

constitute gross borrowings. The government is the

biggest borrower in the debt market. Kindly note that

around three fourth of the total bond issuance in the

indian markets is accounted for by government

securities. The difference between the fiscal deficit and

the net borrowings is funded from other sources such as

special deposits, state provident funds et al.

Answer:

Explanation: The fourth activity does not bring any change.

Answer:

Explanation: 1. All political parties must register themselves with

the EC. However, not all parties that are registered

with the EC are 'recognised' by it. They have to fulfil

certain criteria before they gain recognition, either

as a state party or as a national party.

2. The criteria for recognition are

a. Either that the party has been conducting

its activities for a continuous period of five

years

b. Or that the party has got at least 4% of the

votes polled in elections to the state

assembly or the lok sabha in a particular

state.

3. Incidentally, for computing this vote share, votes

polled by a party in seats where it has forfeited its

deposit are not taken into account. This is to

discourage the practice of parties putting up non-

serious candidates all over the state merely to meet

the 4% cut-off. A party that meets the 4% criterion in

a particular state is recognised as a 'state party' in

that state.

4. To gain recognition as a national party, a party must

be recognised as a state party in at least four states.

Recognition is not a permanent thing. Parties that

have once been recognised can be de-recognised, if

they fail to meet the relevant criterion in subsequent

elections.

5. The main advantage of a party being recognised by

the EC is that, it gains exclusive use of an election

symbol for all its candidates. If it is a state party, a

symbol is reserved for the use of that party all across

the state. Similarly, if it is a national party, all its

candidates anywhere in India will have the exclusive

right to use the symbol allotted to the party. Thus

parties like the BJP, the Congress, CPM and BSP,

which are recognised as national parties, will have

the same symbol anywhere in India.

6. On the other hand, a TDP candidate outside Andhra

Pradesh will not be entitled to the symbol reserved

for the TDP in AP. In fact, the TDP in AP has the same

symbol as the Samajwadi Party in UP.

Answer:





15Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation: Conceptually, we can think of the fiscal deficit as a

measure of the extent to which a government is spending

beyond its means. In precise mathematical terms, fiscal

deficit is the difference between the total expenditure of

the government, and the sum of all its "revenue receipts"

as well as those "capital receipts", which do not create

any payment obligations for the future.

Answer:

Answer:

Explanation: Revenue deficit is the difference between the

government's revenue receipts and its revenue

expenditure. Revenue expenditure refers to normal

recurring expenses on things like salaries, subsidies and,

above all, interest payments. Again, many economists

feel that the revenue deficit is a more significant

measure than the fiscal deficit.

Answer:

Explanation: The primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest

payments and debt servicing. What it tells us is the

extent to which the government's borrowings are used to

service old loans. A high primary deficit would indicate

that the government is borrowing well beyond what it

needs to pay the interest on existing loans. Unless there

are no interest payments whatsoever (which is unlikely, if

not impossible), the primary deficit would always be

lower than the fiscal deficit

Answer:

Explanation: The Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries

(Opec) was set up in 1960 by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi

Arabia and Venezuela. Other countries such as Nigeria,

UAE and Qatar joined in later. Currently, Opec has eleven

members. Its principal aim is 'coordination and

unification of petroleum policies of member countries

and the determination of the best means for

safeguarding their interests, individually and

collectively. Eleven countries are now members of the

group. These countries account for about 40% of the

world's crude oil production and about three-quarters of

crude oil reserves. Opec's exports represent 55% of the

crude oil traded internationally. According to current

estimates, more than 80% of the world's proven oil

reserves are located in OPEC Member Countries, with the

bulk of OPEC oil reserves in the Middle East, amounting

to 66% of the OPEC total. OPEC Member Countries have

made significant additions to their oil reserves in recent

years, for example, by adopting best practices in the





16industry, realizing intensive explorations and enhancing

recoveries. As a result, OPEC's proven oil reserves

currently stand at 1,199.71 billion barrels.

Answer:

Explanation: Opec sets a limit on the production of crude oil for

individual members and for the group as a whole. Opec

used to collect pricing data on a 'basket' of seven crude

oils and uses this price to monitor world oil market

conditions. It was later replaced by a new OPEC

Reference Basket (ORB) in 2005. The ORB is made of :

1. Saharan Blend (Algeria)

2. Girassol (Angola)

3. Oriente (Ecuador)

4. Iran Heavy (Islamic Republic of Iran)

5. Basra Light (Iraq)

6. Kuwait Export (Kuwait)

7. Es Sider (Libya)

8. Bonny Light (Nigeria)

9. Qatar Marine (Qatar)

10. Arab Light (Saudi Arabia)

11. Murban (UAE)

12. Merey (Venezuela).

Prior to 15 June 2005, the OPEC Basket consisted of the

following:

1. Arab Light (from Saudi Arabia)

2. Bonny Light (from Nigeria)

3. Fateh (from Dubai)

4. Isthmus (from Mexico, a non-OPEC country)

5. Minas (from Indonesia)

6. Saharan Blend (from Algeria)

7. Tia Juana Light (from Venezuela)

Answer:

Explanation:

Crude oil containing a high fraction of sulphur is sour

crude. By the same token, low sulphur crude will be

'sweet'. Sulphur has to be removed during the refining

process. Therefore, 'sweet' crude is more valuable

compared to 'sour' crude. Mumbai High crude produced

by ONGC is sweet crude. Dubai-Fateh, one of the crude

oils in the Opec 'basket' is a sour crude with high sulphur

content.

Answer:

Explanation: Gross domestic product (GDP), as the name suggests, is a

broad measure of the output of goods and services in an

economy. Of course, it is not a matter of simply adding

up the value of all output. Rather, what the GDP

measures is the sum total of "value-added". The reason

for this is that we would want to avoid the double

counting that would inevitably be part of a process of

simply adding up the value of all output. For instance, if

we were to add the value of output of all auto component

manufacturers and the value of output of all carmakers,

we would have counted car components twice. By

looking only at value-added, GDP measurements prevent

this double counting from happening.

There are two ways in which GDP can be measured. One

way to do it is by measuring it at the production stage,

and the other is to measure it as the sum total of

consumption. Both should yield the same result. In

measuring output from the production side, it is broadly

divided into three sectors: agriculture, industry and

services. Measured from the consumption side, GDP is

equal to the sum of private consumption, government

consumption, investment, and net exports (exports

minus imports).

Assertion:

Reason:





17

Answer:

Explanation: GDP at market prices is inclusive of the indirect taxes

levied by the government on producers in the economy.

Since producers pass these taxes onto the consumers, the

value of these taxes is added to the price of the output.

As against this, the subsidies obviously depress the price

and hence the value of the output correspondingly. As a

result, the value of the aggregate output goes up by the

aggregate net indirect tax (taxes minus subsidies). GDP at

factor cost, on the other hand, measures the value of

output without the additional price imposed by taxes (or

reduced by subsidies). It is thus the total of all factor (or

input) costs, including wages (cost of labour), interest

(cost of capital), rent, and profit (which is the cost of

entrepreneurship), which explains why it is called GDP at

factor cost. Obviously, GDP at market prices would be

higher than GDP at factor cost, except in the extremely

unlikely hypothetical situation of net indirect taxes

(taxes minus subsidies) being negative.

Answer:

Explanation: LNG is liquefied natural gas. Natural gas is a mixture of

hydrocarbons, composed primarily of methane. When

natural gas is cooled to a temperature of approximately -

260 degree F at atmospheric pressure, it condenses to a

liquid called liquefied natural gas (LNG). One volume of

this liquid takes up about 1/600th the volume of natural

gas at a stove burner tip. LNG weighs about 45% as much

as water of a similar volume. LNG is odourless, colourless,

non-corrosive, and non-toxic. Natural gas is a naturally

occurring gas mixture composed primarily of methane

(typically, at least 90%), but may also contain ethane,

propane and heavier hydrocarbons. LNG does not have an

odor. However, manufacturers often add traces of a

substance like T-butyl mercaptan to give it a foul smell.

Answer:

Explanation: The Constitution ensures that the State observes an

attitude of neutrality and impartiality towards all

religions. To start with, there shall be no 'state religion'

in India. Article 27 stipulates that the State shall not

compel anyone "to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which

are specifically appropriated, in the payment of expenses

for the promotion or maintenance of any particular

religion or religious denomination." Further, no religious

instruction shall be provided in any educational

institution "wholly maintained out of State funds."

Moreover, "no person attending any educational

institution recognised by the State or receiving aid out of

State funds, shall be required to take part in any religious

instruction" against his or her will (Article 28).

Secondly, every person is guaranteed the freedom of

conscience and the freedom to profess, practice and

propagate his/her own religion, subject to restrictions

imposed by the State in the interests of public order,

morality and health.

Every individual has the right to practice and propagate

not only matters of faith or belief but also all those

rituals and observations, which are regarded as integral

parts of a religion by the followers of its doctrines.

According to the Supreme Court, regulation by the State

cannot interfere with things which are essentially

religious. Not only does the individual have the freedom

to profess, practice and propagate his/her religion, there

is also a right guaranteed to every religious group or

denomination, to establish and maintain institutions for

religious and charitable purposes. (Articles 25 & 26).

Besides guaranteeing the fundamental right to religious

freedom, the Constitution stipulates that the State shall

not discriminate against a citizen in any matter, in

particular in the matter of employment, on the ground of





18religion. No citizen can be discriminated against on the

grounds of religion, caste and so on, as regards access to

public places (Article 15) and admission to educational

institutions (Article 29).

Answer:

Explanation: Participatory notes (commonly known as P-notes) are

instruments used by foreign funds and investors who are

not registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of

India (Sebi) but are interested in taking exposure in

Indian securities. Participatory notes are generally issued

overseas by the associates of India-based foreign

brokerages and domestic institutional brokerages. They

are, in fact, offshore derivative instruments issued by

foreign institutional investors and their sub-accounts

against underlying Indian securities. Participatory notes

are issued where the underlying assets are securities

listed on the Indian bourses. Foreign institutional

investors who do not wish to register with the Sebi but

would like to take exposure in Indian securities also use

participatory notes.

Participatory notes have attracted significant market

attention recently because of huge inflow of foreign

funds into Indian stock markets through this route. Since

the ultimate beneficiary of transactions carried out using

participatory notes is not known to the market regulator

and the tax authorities, there is scope for misuse and tax

avoidance. Also, since participatory notes do not attract

the attention of the market regulators of the countries in

which they are issued, the entities holding participatory

notes virtually go unregulated.

Answer:

Explanation:

Three Sanskrit works : Nagananda, Ratnavali and

Priyadarshika were composed by Harshavardhana.

Banabhatta and Mayura were scholars patronized by

Harsha. Famous work Harshacharitam was composed by

Banabhatta, in which he depicts the life of

Harhavardhana.

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Explanation: The conversion of a foreign bank with branch presence

into a subsidiary is called subsidiarisation. This

arrangement protects Indian capital and operations from

external economic shocks as such outfits follow local

guidelines.





19

Answer:

Explanation: You can eliminate the first two statements by a common

sense. Island genetics, the tendency of small, isolated

genetic pools to produce unusual traits, has been

observed in many circumstances, including insular

dwarfism and the radical changes among certain famous

island chains, for example on Komodo. The Galápagos

islands are particularly famous for their influence on

Charles Darwin. During his five weeks there he heard that

Galápagos tortoises could be identified by island, and

noticed that Finches differed from one island to another,

but it was only nine months later that he reflected that

such facts could show that species were changeable.

When he returned to England, his speculation on

evolution deepened after experts informed him that

these were separate species, not just varieties, and

famously that other differing Galápagos birds were all

species of finches. Though the finches were less

important for Darwin, more recent research has shown

the birds now known as Darwin's finches to be a classic

case of adaptive evolutionary radiation

Answer:

Explanation: The Amazon Rainforest covers most of the Amazon Basin

of South America. This region includes territory

belonging to nine nations. The majority of the forest is

contained within Brazil, with 60% of the rainforest,

followed by Peru with 13%, Colombian Amazon with 10%,

and with minor amounts in, Venezuela, Ecuador, Bolivia,

Guyana, Suriname and France (French Guiana). States or

departments in four nations bear the name Amazonas

after it. The Amazon represents over half of the planet's

remaining rainforests, and it comprises the largest and

most species-rich tract of tropical rainforest in the world.

Answer:

Explanation: The first statement is incorrect. The CSTO grew out of the

framework of the Commonwealth of Independent States,

and first began as the CIS Collective Security Treaty (CST)

which was signed on May 15, 1992, by Armenia,

Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russian Federation, Tajikistan

and Uzbekistan, in the city of Tashkent. Azerbaijan

signed the treaty on September 24, 1993, Georgia on

December 9, 1993 and Belarus on December 31, 1993. The

treaty came into effect on April 20, 1994.The second

statement is correct. On December 21, 2011, Russia has

won the right to veto the establishment of new foreign

military bases in the member states of the Collective

Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO).





20

Answer:

Explanation: The Berlin Plus agreement was a comprehensive package

of agreements made between NATO and the European

Union on 16 December 2002. With this agreement the EU

was given the possibility to use NATO assets in case it

wanted to act independently in an international crisis, on

the condition that NATO itself did not want to act—the

so-called "right of first refusal. The first statement is also

correct, however, some Asian states have joined NATO in

its "Partnership for Peace" programme.

Answer:

Explanation: The WCO maintains the international Harmonized

System (HS) goods nomenclature, and administers the

technical aspects of the World Trade Organization (WTO)

Agreements on Customs Valuation and Rules of Origin.

World Customs Organization (WCO) is an

intergovernmental organization headquartered in

Brussels, Belgium.

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:





21

Answer:

Explanation: Special nuclear material is a term used by the Nuclear

Regulatory Commission of the United States to classify

fissile materials.

Answer:

Explanation: An EEFC account can be held only in the form of a current

account. No interest is payable on EEFC accounts. The

account holders do not have to convert foreign exchange

into Rupees and vice versa, thereby minimizing the

transaction costs.

There is no restriction on withdrawal in Rupees of funds

held in an EEFC account. However, the amount

withdrawn in Rupees shall not be eligible for conversion

into foreign currency and for re-credit to the account.

SEZ Units cannot open EEFC Accounts. The EEFC account

balances can be hedged.

Answer:

Explanation: Strategic reserves of oil refer to volumes of crude oil

placed in underground storage, which are not included in

the country's proved reserves. These reserves are mainly

maintained by countries that have to depend on imports

to meet their demand for unforeseen emergencies that

could disrupt supplies.

India has begun the development of a strategic crude oil

reserve sized at 37,400,000 barrels (5,950,000 m3),

enough for two weeks of consumption. Petroleum stocks

have been transferred from the Indian Oil Corporation

(IndianOil) to the Oil Industry Development Board (OIDB).

The OIDB then created the Indian Strategic Petroleum

Reserves Ltd (ISPRL) to serve as the controlling

government agency for the strategic reserve.

The facilities are:

1. Mangalore, State of Karnataka. Capacity of 11.22

million barrels (1,784,000 m3).

2. Padur village, Udipi in the state of Karnataka.

Capacity of 18.7 million barrels (2,970,000 m3).

3. Visakhapatnam, State of Andhra Pradesh. Capacity of

7.48 million barrels (1,189,000 m3).

Answer:

Explanation: The fiduciary issue is the part of the issue of notes and

coins that is not backed by gold. All notes are Fiduciary

today.

Answer:





22

Answer:

Explanation: Competition Law , section 53D.(1)The Chairperson of the

Appellate Tribunal shall be a person, who is, or has been a

Judge of the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High

Court. Please note that Hon’ble Dr. Justice Arijit Pasayat,

former Judge of Supreme Court, has been appointed as

the First Chairperson of the Appellate Tribunal.

Answer:

Answer:

Explanation: There are two dimensions of this experiment. One is

when Ice floats in water and another is as mentioned in

the question. When Ice floats in water, the level of water

will remain unchanged when the ice melts away because

in this situation, Ice replaced water which is "equal to its

weight". But when the floating ice is taken down in the

bottom of the bucket and tied over there with a string,

and let melt away, the level of water will come down

because now the ice was replacing the water "equal to its

volume " and Ice has a lower density of water. So The

answer of this question is "The level of water will go

down".

Answer:

Explanation: C Rajgopalachari served as Governor of West Bengal from

1947 to 1948, Governor-General of India from 1948 to 1950,

as Union Home Minister from 1951 to 1952 (invited after

Patel's death) and the Chief Minister of Madras state from

1952 to 1954. He resigned from the Indian National

Congress and with NG Ranga, founded the Swatantra

Party, which fought against the Congress in the in 1960s

and early 70s. He has written the song Kurai Onrum Illai,

which is sung in the Carnatic Music.

Answer:

Explanation: The first statement which says that Demographic

decentralization has been granted Constitutional

recognition is correct and is core philosophy of 73rd and

74th amendment acts. The second statement is an

\advantage of Demographic decentralization and is a

correct statement. However, the third statement is

incorrect. This is because we have seen that Higher levels

of the Political and bureaucratic establishments have

actually retarded the process as they have been reluctant

to part their powers.





23

Answer:

Explanation: Ahrar Movement founded in 1910 and it was just confined

to some parts particularly Punjab. Its leaders were

maulana Muhammad Ali, Hakim Ajmal Khan, Mazhar ul

Haq , Maulana Zafar Ali Khan etc. It was started in

opposition to the Aligarh Movement which was loyalist

to the British.

Answer:

Explanation: Samarth Ramdas and Tulsidas were contemporary of

Akbar.

Answer:

Explanation: Humans, as well as those of the higher mammals, have

circular red blood corpuscles. There is an exception to

the camels which have oval red corpuscles. This is also

the same with reptiles, birds and fishes. This facilitates

their flow in a dehydrated state. These cells are also more

stable in order to withstand high osmotic variation

without rupturing when drinking large amounts of water

100-150 liters in one drink.

Answer:

Explanation: The first statement is incorrect because, the term

scheduled Caste was coined by the Simon Commission

and not by the GOI Act 1935, though later GOI Act 1935

used this term in article 309. The second statement is

incorrect because Constitution of India does not give a

definition of SC or ST. Article 341 empowers the President

of India to notify by an order the Schedules castes of a

state in consultation with the Governor (But not with an

administrator of UT). So statement 3 is incorrect.

Statement 4 is also incorrect because parliament by law

has the right to include or exclude the schedules castes.

Answer:

Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee consists of not more

than 22 members comprising 15 members elected by Lok

Sabha every year from amongst its members according to

the principle of proportional representation by means of

single transferable vote and not more than 7 members of

Rajya Sabha elected by that House in like manner are

associated with the Committee. So, the first statement is

correct. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from

amongst its members of Lok Sabha. So statement 2 is





24incorrect. The Speaker, for the first time, appointed a

member of the Opposition as the Chairman of the

Committee for 1967-68. This practice has been continued

since then. A Minister is not eligible to be elected as a

member of the Committee. If a member after his election

to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be

a member of the Committee from the date of such

appointment. The Public Account Committee carries out

the examination of the Appropriation Accounts relating

to the Railways, Defence Services, P&T Department and

other Civil Ministries of the Government of India and

Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

thereon as also the Reports of the Comptroller and

Auditor-General on Revenue Receipts mainly form the

basis of the deliberation of the Committee. The

Comptroller and Auditor General is the “friend,

philosopher and guide” of the Committee. He attends the

sittings of the Committee and assists it in its

deliberations. So statement 3 is correct.

Answer:

Explanation: The Taiga soil is poor in nutrients in comparison to the

temperate deciduous forests. This is because the fallen

leaves and moss can remain on the forest floor for a long

time in the cool, moist climate. This would result in poor

organic contribution to the soil. Further, the Taiga soil is

acidic due to the falling pine needles. Since the soil is

acidic, the acidity aids in the decomposition of the

mineral components and the minerals are washed away

in the lower horizons. This becomes accessible to the tree

roots. This causes infertility of the soil. The leaching of

the nutrients , along with the permeability of the soil

gives it a light colored eluvial soil horizon leached of

most base forming cations such as Calcium.

Since the soil is acidic due to the falling pine needles, the

forest floor has only lichens and some moss growing on

it. However, please note that diversity of soil organisms

in the boreal forest (southern Taiga) is high, comparable

to the tropical rainforest. The Taiga soils are dominated

by the microscopic fungi. These microscopic fungi play

an important role in the decomposition of the dead

phytomass. So, the above mentioned infertility is

compensated by the activity of the microorganisms in

the upper soil horizons.

Answer:

Explanation: In November 1938, a Pirpur Committee which was

submitted by the Muslim league had presented its report

in which it charged the congress for interference with

the religious rites, suppression of Urdu and propaganda

of Hindi, denial of legitimate representation and

suppression in economy of the Muslims.

Answer:

Explanation: Lord Reading was Viceroy of India from 1921 to 26. He

was a Jew and only Jew Viceroy of India. During his time,

Railway Budget was separated from the General Budget.

The famous Kakori Train Incident also took place during

his tenure. The RSS was also founded in 1925 by KBH

during his time.

Answer:

Explanation:





25Islington Commission had recommended one-fourth

(25%) posts for Indians, the Montagu-Chelmsford

reforms proposed that one-third of total appointments

to higher posts should go to Indians, Lee commission

recommended two fifth (40%). Lee Commission's main

recommendation was that 20 percent of the superior

posts should be filled by promotions from provincial civil

services and of the remaining 80 percent future entrants,

40 percent should be British and 40 percent Indians

directly recruited.

Answer:

Explanation: Please note that as per article 76, The Attorney-General

shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and

shall receive such remuneration as the President may

determine. This means we need to eliminate this option.

The condition mentioned in question are for two other

posts given in question. Article 324 says "Provided that

the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed

from his office except in like manner and on the like

grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and the

conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner

shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his

appointment".

Answer:

Explanation:

Board of Revenue was established first by the East India

Company in 1786 in Bengal . It was originally charged

with the administration of the land revenue and other

revenues were brought in its ambit later. The Boards of

Revenue are existing in in India even today as state level

agencies, which are concerned with the revenue

administration in the state.

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