Model Bank Clerical Exam

7/31/2019 Model Bank Clerical Exam

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INSTRUCTION TO THE CANDIDATES

1. This question paper contains 200 questions in all comprising thefollowing parts:

a. Part A. General English : (40 Questions)b. Part B. General Knowledge : ( 40 Questions)c. Part C. Numerical Aptitude: (40 Questions)d. Part D. Reasoning Ability: (40 Questions)e. Part E. Computer Knowledge: (40 Questions)

2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.3. There will be negative markings for wrong answers marked by you. Each

wrong answer will entitle you to lose 0.25 marks you obtained by rightanswers marked by you.

4. You will be supplied the Answer-Sheet separately. You must completethe details of Name, Roll number etc.

5. You must fill all the details asked, failing which, you Answer-Sheet willnot be evaluated and you will be awarded ZERO marks.

6. Answers must be shown by completely blackening the correspondingcircles of the Answer-Sheet against relevant question number by HBpencil only.

7. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. Space for rough workhas been provided.

1

Test No: 01

Date:

Registration No:Duration :2 hr

Maximum Marks : 200Roll No:


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As soon as he was freed, the Dog ran back as fast as he could to the Elephants she(4) The

Elephant was so delighted to see the Dog that he picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him

back and forth. The Dog wagged his tail, while the Elephants eyes sparkled with happiness. The

King was content to see the Elephant happy once again and rewarded the minister for his wisejudgement.

1. What was the Ministers diagnosis of the Elephants condition?

(1) The Elephant hated his keeper

(2) The Elephant was lonely

(3) The Elephant was starving

(4) The Elephant had hurt his leg and was in pain

(5) None of these

2. What method did the Minister suggest to the King to get back the Dog?

(1) To declare that whoever had that particular Dog would be punished

(2) To keep a bowl of rice for the Dog in the Elephants shed so that he could be lured back to the

palace

(3) To command the Elephant keeper to look for the Dog in the village(4) To persuade the Elephant to call out to the Dog

(5) None of these

3. Why had the Elephant become very sad?(1) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice

(2) He was unhappy with the King for having sold the Dog

(3) He missed his friend the Dog

(4) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper

(5) None of these

4. What did the Elephant-keeper do to the Dog?

(1) He sold the Dog to an unknown man for a price(2) He hit the Dog as the Dog was eating the Elephants food

(3) He killed the Dog

(4) He complained to the King about the Dog

(5) None of these

5. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?(1) Friends and Enemies

(2) The Playful Dog

(3) The King and the Minister

(4) The Elephant-keeper(5) The Bond of Friendship

6. Why was the Elephant taken care of ?

(1) He was a very special Elephant as he could talk to Dogs

(2) He was a very loyal Elephant

(3) He was the strongest Elephant in the Kingdom

(4) He was weak and the King had a lot of sympathy for him

(5) None of these

7. Why did the dog start going to the elephants shed every day?

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(1) He liked the Elephant a lot and wanted to become friends with him

(2) He was being fed by the King everyday

(3) He was fond of the Elephants shed

(4) He liked the taste of the rice being fed to the Elephant

(5) None of these

8. What did the Dog do once he was set free ?(1) He ate rice to his hearts content

(2) He thanked the King for his kindness

(3) He ran away from the Kingdom to a place far away

(4) He ran back to his friend the Elephant

(5) None of these

9. What of the following can definitely be said about the Elephant-keeper?

(1) He was greedy

(2) He was insensitive

(3) He was brave

(1) Only A

(2) Only B(3) Only A and B

(4) Only B and C

(5) All A, B and C

10. Which of the following can definitely be said about the King?

(A) He was compassionate.

(B) He was deceitful.

(C) He loved animals.

(1) Only A

(2) Only A and C

(3) Only A and B

(4) Only B(5) All the three A, B, and C

Directions(Q. 1113) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the

word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. EXTRACTED(1) pulled (2) inserted (3) wring (4) dug out (5) received

12. DECLARATION

(1) pact (2) praise (3) announcement (4) writ (5) resolve

13. KEEN(1) shallow (2) urgent (3) concentrated (4) deep (5) eager

Directions(Q. 1415) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in

meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. RESIST

(1) give in (2) please (3) struggle (4) try out (5) defy

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15. SEPARATED

(1) stuck (2) united (3) estranged (4) bound (5) joined

Directions(Q. 1620) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each

sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically

correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction is required, mark (5) as the

answer.

16. Trisha could not solve the problem at all and was at her wits ending.

(1) her wits end

(2) the wit ends

(3) her witty end

(4) the wit end

(5) No correction required

17. Its a small theatre and the seats are uncomfortable, but the saving grace is that the air

conditioning is goo(4)

(1) grace to save

(2) gracing save(3) saver grace

(4) save to grace


18. Tarun had to prepare the document for his meeting urgently but he was hardly pressed for

time.

(1) hard pressed for timely

(2) hard pressed for time

(3) hardly press to time

(4) hard pressing to timely


19. Suraj lied from his teeth to get out of the tense situation with his boss.

(1) lies for his teeth

(2) lie to his teeth

(3) lied through his teeth

(4) lied from his tooth


20. Satish lay in bed wide awaken as he was worried about his exams starting the next day.

(1) widen awakening

(2) widely awake(3) wide and awake

(4) wide awake(5) No correction required

Directions(Q. 2125) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in

bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in

bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the

word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If

all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the

sentence, mark (5) i.e., All correct as your answer.

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21. People went crazy (1) when the musician along with his friend, (2) took to the staging (3) and

belted out popular (4) tracks. All correct (5)

22. For a growing number of coupals, (1) adoption is not a helpless compulsion (2) but adeliberate, (3) vand often noble, (4) choice. All correct (5)

23. On two consecutive (1) nights the two greatest icones (2) of show-business were honoured

with unprecedented (3) affection. (4) All correct(5)

24. We are so busy looking at mediocrity (1) that when a truly outstanding achievement (2) stares

us in the face we resort (3) to the same terms of praise. (4) All correct (5)

25. The unlikely migration (1) was officially (2) explained as a move to meet expanding (3)

business oportunities. (4) All correct (5)

Directions(Q. 2630) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and

(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given

below them.

(1) He immediately acknowledged Mohans good work and invited him to his home for dinner.

(2) One day a wealthy merchant sent his sons bicycle to the shop for repair.

(3) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and noticed that it was shiny.(4) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it look new.

(5) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who worked as an apprentice in a bicycle

shop.

(6) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing unnecessary work.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 6

27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5

28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5

29. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6

30. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6

Directions(Q. 3135) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any

grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.

The number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of

punctuation, if any.)

31. In about five minutes, they would (1) / cover the distance from the road to the point (2) /

where the waves would (3)/ begin lick their feet.(4) No error (5)

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32. The former superstar recently (1) / visit an orphanage (2) / fuelling speculation that (3) / she is

planning to adopt a chil(4) (4) No error (5)

33. A day after he was diagnosed with (1) / swine flu, preventive measures were put in place (2) /

to ensure that others were not (3)/ affected by the dreaded virus(4). No error (5)

34. The administration has conclusive (1) / that it is retailers who are (2) / responsible forupsetting (3) / the citys household budget. (4) No error (5)

35. Sediment deposit along the coast (1) / may be the primary reason for (2) / the change in

conditions, (3) / but a lot more remains to be understan(4) (4) No error (5)

Directions --- (Q.36-40): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in

bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in

bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the

word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If

all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the

sentence, then mark (5) i.e., All correct as your answer.

36. The organization preferred (1)/ to hire locale(2)/ population as they understood the language

(3)/ and customerpreferences.(4)/ All correct. (5)

37. In our opinion the exiciting (1)/ assessment (2)/ system required immediate (3)/ revision.(4)/ All correct. (5)

38. In responds (1) / to our advertisement a sizeable (2) / numbers of candidates have submitted

(3) / theirapplications. (4)/ All correct. (5)

39. There is no guarantee (1) / that if this model is adopted (2) / the entire (3) / sector will

prosper. (4)/ All correct. (5)

40. With this unique (1) / initiative (2) / the company hopes to sustain (3) / its currant growth

rate. (4)/ All correct. (5)

GENERAL AWARENESS

41. Which is the second highest award in India?

(1) Bharat Ratna (2) Padma Vibhushan (3) Padma Bhushan

(4) Padma Shri (5) None of these

42. The term Free Style is used in which of the following games?

(1) Boxing (2) Golf (3) Swimming(4) Hockey (5)Badminton

43. Recently, the actor Shah Rukh Khan was banned from entering into this stadium, what isit?

(1) Wankhede Stadium (2) Eden Gardens (3) ShivajiStadium

(4) Ranji Stadium (5) Nehru Stadium

44. Which is the Head Quarters of World Bank?

(1) New York (2) Paris (3) Geneva

(4) Washington (4)C (5) Rome

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45. Who won the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2011?

(1) Vikas Gowda (2) Jwala Gutta (3) Tejeswini Bai

(4) Gagan Narang (5) Ravinder Singh

46. Where will Summer Olympics game be held in 2016?

(1) Brazil (2) Greece (3) China(4) Great Britain (5) None of these

47. What is the full form of ADR?(1) American Depository Receipts (2) African Depository Receipts

(3) Asian Depository Receipts (4) All Depository Receipts

(5) None of these

48. Which is the plan period for the Twelfth Five Year Plan?

(1) 2011 2016 (2) 2013 2017 (3) 2012-2017

(4) 2010 2015 (5) 2014 2019

49. Who is the Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

(1) (4)Subbarao (2) K.(3)Chakrabarthy (3) Subir Gokran

(4) Anand Sinha (5) K.R. Khan

50. How is the currency of Korea called?

(1) Yen (2) Cedi (3) Rial (4) Koruna (5) Won51. As per the Cencus of India 2011, what is the sex ratio?

(1) 940 (2) 941 (3) 942 (4) 943 (5) 94452. Which is the least populous Union Territory in India?

(1) Delhi (2) Lakshadweep (3) Chandigarh (4) Pondicherry

(5) Goa

53. Who among the following received the Padma Vibhushan Award posthumously for

2011?

(1) K.G.Subramanyan (2) Bhupan Hazarika (3) K.H.Sancheti

(4) T.V.Rajeswar (5) None of these

54. Who was conferred with Bharath Ratna in the year 2008?

(1) Bismillah Khan (2) Lata Mangeshkar (3) Bhimsen Joshi

(4) M.S.Subbulakshmi (5) Jayaprakash Narayan55. Which is the Indias first nuclear powered submarine?

(1) INS Shalki (2) INS Arihant (3) INS Chakra (4) INS

Vikrant

(5) None

56. Which is the latest version of the missile Agni launched by India, recently?

(1) Agni II (2) Agni III (3) Agni IV (4) Agni V

(5) Agni VI

57. Where is India Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research located?(1) Chennai (2) Mumbai (3) Hyderabad (4)

Kolkatta

(5) Indore

58. Where is Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station established in Tamilnadu?(1) Tuticorin (2) Tirunelveli (3) Kanyakumari (4)

Cuddalore

(5) Chennai

59. Which of the following is the award related to the medicine in India?

(1) Dhyanchand Award (2) Ashok Chakra Award (3) (2)(3)RoyAward

(4) Saraswati Samman (5) None of these

60. Where is Kaziranga Tiger reserve in India?

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(1) Essential Commercial Borrowing (2) Essential Credit & Borrowing

(3) External Credit & Business (4) External Commercial Borrowing

(5) None of these

78. Who is the current Chief Justice of India?

(1) S.H.Kapadia (2) Bimal Jalan (3) Subbarao (4) Ahluwaliah(5) None of these

79. Who is the recently elected youngest Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh?(1) Vibha Yadav (2) Akhilesh Yadav (3) Mayawati (4) Brinda Karat

(5) None of these

80. Who is the current speaker of Lok Sabha?

(1) Pratibha Patel (2) Manmohan Singh (3) Meira Kumar

(4) Sushma Swraj (5) None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEWhat will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions:

81. 5/8 of 4/9 of 3/5 of 222 = ?

(1) 42 (2) 43 (3) 39 (4) 37 (5) None of

these82. 56% of 450 + ? = 300

(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 42 (4) 56 (5) None of

these

83.271.5 x 273.5 = 27?

(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 3 (4) 2 (5) None of

these

84. 27.06 x 25 - ? = 600

(1) 76.3 (2) 76.7 (3) 76.5 (4) 76.2 (5) None of these85.4 7/8x 2

4/13 = ?

(1) 11 1/3 (2) 111/13 (3) 11

4/13 (4) 11

3/8 (5) None of

these

Directions (Q.86-90): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number

series?

86. 3 10 32 100 ?

(1) 345 (2) 460 (3) 308 (4) 440 (5) None of

these

87. 5 3 4 ? 38

(1) 8.5 (2) 6 (3) 7.5 (4) 8 (5) None of

these

88. 5 6 ? 57 244

(1) 21 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 15 (5) None of

these

89. 3 10 21 ? 51

(1) 34 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 37 (5) None of

these

90. 5 11 ? 55 117

(1) 21 (2) 27 (3) 23 (4) 25 (5) None of

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these

91. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and its denominator is by25%, then the

fraction so obtained is 3/4. What is the original fraction?

(1) 3/5 (2) 3/8 (3) 5/8 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

92. Ganesh bought 40 kgs of wheat at Rs.12.50 per kg and 25 kgs of it at Rs.15.10 per kg. Hemixed them together. At what rate should he sell the mixture to earn 10% profit?

(1) Rs.13.50 (2) Rs.13.25 (3) Rs.14.75 (4) Rs.14.85 (5) None of these

93. In how many ways the letters in the word COMPUTER can arranged with or without

meaning?

(1) 40320 (2) 45230 (3) 5040 (4) 36280 (5) None of these

94. Suresh invested a sum of Rs.15000 at 9% pa simple interest and Rs.12000 at 8% pa

compound interest for a period of 2 years. What amount of interest did Suresh earn in 2

years?

(1) Rs.4096.60 (2) 4696.80 (3) 4896.60 (4) 4698.60 (5) None of

these

95. If 71975*1 is exactly divisible by 11, what should come in place of *?(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 9 (5) None of

these

Directions(Q.96-100: Study the following pie-diagrams carefully to answer these questions:

Number of Students studying in different

Faculties in the years 2001 and 2002 from state X

Year 2001

Total Students 35000

Year 2002

Total Students 40000

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96. In which year faculty there was decrease in the number of students from 2001 to 2002?

(1) Arts (2) Agriculture (3) Pharmacy (4) Commerce(5) None of these

97. What is the ratio between the number of students studying pharmacy in the years 2001

and 2002 respectively?

(1) 4: 3 (2) 3:2 (3) 2:3 (4) 7:12 (5) None

98. What was the approximate percentage increase in the number of students of Engineering

from the year 2001 to 2002?

(1) 17 (2) 15 (3) 25 (4) 23 (5) 20

99. In the year 2001, the number of students studying Arts and Commerce together is what

percent of the number of students studying these subjects together in 2002?

(1) 76 (2) 85 (3) 82 (4) 79 (5) None of

these

100. In which of the following faculties the percent increase in the number of studentswas minimum from 2001 to 2002?

(1) Arts (2) Science (3) Commerce (4) Medicine

(5) Engineering

101. Which of the following fractions are in ascending order?

(1) 7/3, 8/13, 9/14, 11/15(2) 7/11, 9/14, 8/13, 11/15

(3) 7/11, 8/13, 5/15, 9/14

(4) 8/13, 7/11, 9/14, 11/15

(5) None of these

102. The ratio of the present ages of Sita and her son is 5:2 respectively. Seven years

hence, the ratio will be 2:1. What was the age of Sita when her son was born?

(1) 28 years (2) 35 years (3) 21 years (4) Cannot be determined (5)None

103. The value of a flat increases at 10% every year. Its present market value is Rs.

1996500, what as its value three years ago?

(1)Rs.1525000 (2) Rs.1565500 (3) Rs.1525600 (4) Rs.1565000 (5) None

104. The area of a rectangle is twice the area of a triangle. The perimeter of the

rectangle is 58 cm. What is the area of the triangle?

(1) 106 sq.cm (2) 108 sq.cm (3) 104 sq.cm (4) None(5) Cannot be determined

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105. The average speed of a bus is 8 times the average speed o fa bike. The bike

covers a distance of 186 km in 3 hours. How much distance will the bus cover in 10

hours?

(1) 4069 km (2) 4096 km (3) 4960 km (4) 4692 km (5) None

106. Find the value of x?(x1.2 / 98) = (28/x1.8)

(1) 18 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 14 (5) None107. What is the unit digit in 7105?

(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 9 (5) 6

108. 88884=?

(1) 4494 (2) 561.75 (3) 2247 (4) 280.875 (5) None

109. How many prime numbers are less than 50?

(1) 16 (2) 15 (3) 14 (4) 18 (5) 20

110. The product of the two numbers is 1320 and their HCF is 6. Find their LCM.

(1)220 (2) 1314 (3) 1326 (4) 7920 (5) 550

111. (0.009/?) = 0.01

(1)0.0009 (2) 0.09 (3) 0.9 (4) 9 (5) 9.09

112. Simplify: 9948

/49x 245(1) 24495 (2) 24595 (3) 24650 (4) 28950 (5) 27500

113. The average age of 36 students in a group is 14 years. When teachers age is

included to it., the average increases by one. What is the teachers age in years?

(1) 31 (2) 36 (3) 51 (4) 65 (5) None

114. If the loss is 1/3 of selling price, then the loss percentage is what?

(1) 16 2/3% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 33 1/3% (5) 70%

115. If 7 spiders make7 webs in 7 days, then 1 spider will make 1 web in how many

days?

(1) 1 (2)2 (3) 7 (4) 49 (5) 1/7

116. A can finish a job in 10 days and B can do the same job in 15 days. If they bothwork together, how many days will they take to finish the job?

(1) 30 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 10 (5) 15

117. A train moves at a speed of 50 kmph. If the distance is 1000 km, then how longwill the train take to cover this distance, if the train stops for 2 hours in between?

(1) 20 hours (2) 25 hours (3) 21 hours (4) 24 hours (5) None

118. In how many different ways can the letters of the word BANKING be arrangedso that the vowels always come together?

(1) 120 (2) 240 (3) 360 (4) 540 (5) 720

119. How many perfect squares lie between 120 and 300?(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) 9

120. 12 +22 + 32 +. + 102 = ?a. 385 (2) 380 (3) 390 (4)

392 (5) 395REASONING ABILITY

121. a, h, c, i, e, j, g, k , ___, ___(1) il (2) li (3) lm (4) im (5) mn

122. PJQ, QLP, _________, SPN, TRM(1) RON (2) RQN (3) RNO (4) RNQ

(5) None123. 36, 28, 24, 22, ____________

(1) 18 (2) 21 (3) 19 (4) 22 (5) None

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124. 9, 16, 30, 58, _____ (1)116 (2) 112 (3) 114 (4) 118

(5) None125. _a_aaaba_ _ba_ab_

(1)abaaba (2) abaaaa (3) aabbaa (4) ababab (5) None126. If the day after tomorrow is Friday, what day was tomorrows day

before yesterday?(1)Tuesday (2) Thursday (3) Monday (4) Wednesday (5)None

127. X is the brother of Y. S is the son-in-law of Z, who is the father ofX. Who is the lady here?(1)X (2) Z (3) S (4) Y (5) None

128. In a queue of 15, boys and girls are asked to stand alternately.Assuming the queue starts with a boy standing, how many girls arethere in the queue?(1)7 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None

129. How many pairs of letters are there in the word BEAUTIFULwhich has as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?

(1)2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) More than 4 (5)None

130. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

(1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 9 (4) 15 (5)None

Directions: (131-135) M and N are good at hockey and volleyball. O and M are good atHockey and Baseball. P and N are good at Cricket and Volleyball. O, P and Q are goodat football and Baseball.

131. Who among the following is good at four games?(1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) None

132. Who is good at Cricket, Baseball and Volleyball?(1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) None

133. Who is good at Baseball, Volleyball and Hockey?(1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) M (5) None

134. Who is good at Cricket, Hockey and Volleyball?(1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) None

135. Who is good at the largest number of games?(1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) None

136. If red is called green; green is called pink; pink is called white;white is called black; then what is the color of the leaf?(1)Pink (2) Green (3) Red (4) White

(5) None137. How many pairs of letters are there in the word

CONGRATULATIONS as many letter between them as in the alphabets?(1)8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 6 (5) None

138. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with thesecond, third, fourth and eighth letters of the word METAPORL, which ofthe following will the first letter of that word? If more than one such word

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can be formed, give Y as your answer and if no such word can beformed, give X as you answer.(1)E (2) L (3) Y (4) X (5) None

139. Sam said to Rita Your mohters husbands sister is my aunt. How is Rita

related to Sam?

(1) Daughter (2) Niece (3) Sister (4) Mother (5) None

140. Judge : Justice : Censor: ?(1) Freedom (2) Morality (3) Entertainment (4) Halls (5) None

Directions(Q.141-145) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they

seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given

conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Answer (1) if only the conclusion I is true.

Answer (2) if only the conclusion II is true.

Answer (3) if either the conclusion I or the conclusion II is true.

Answer (4) if neither the conclusion I nor the conclusion II is true.

Answer (5)if both the conclusions are true.

141. Statements: All lights are trucks.

All trucks are jeeps.Conclusions: I. Some lights are jeeps.

II. All jeeps are lights.

142. Statements: All doors are chains.All chairs are tables.

Conclusions: I. All tables are doors.

II. All doors are tables.

143. Statements: Some parrots are crows.No crow is green.

Conclusions: I. Some parrots are not green.

II. No crow is white.

144. Statements: Some goats are cows.

Some cows are fowls.Conclusions: I. Some goats are fowls

II. No goat is fowl.

145. Statements: Some books are pens

. All pens are papers

Conclusions: I. Some books are papers

II. Some papers are books.

Find the odd man out:

146. (1) YX (2) PQ (3) KJ (4) CB (5) UT

147. (1) Earth (2) Moon (3) Uranus (4) Pluto (5) Saturn148. (1) 19 (2) 29 (3) 59 (4) 69 (5) 79

149. (1) DF (2) LN (3) RT (4) LJ (5) CA

150. (1) Society (2) Family (3) Church (4) Club (5) School151. As Fan is related to Breeze, in the same way Electricity is related to what?

(1)Darkness (2) Current (3) Light (4)Attraction (5)Repulsion

152. As Television is related to News, in the same way, Telephone is related to

what?

(1)Message (2) Serial number (3) Apparatus (4) Dialing (5) Wire

153. As I is related to My, in the same way, We is related to what?

(1) Us (2) Our (3) His (4) His (5) Your

What comes in place of the question mark(?):

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154. CYD, FTH, TOL,LJP, ?

(1) OFT (2)LET (3)OEK (4) OET (5) None

155. BXY, DVI, FTL,HRO, ?

(1)JPH (2)KPL (3) JOL (4) KPM (5) None

Directions(Q.156-160)

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members in a family, out of which there are three females and four males.

There are two managers, two lawyers, one teacher, one engineer and one doctor. No lady is either teacheror engineer. R is a lawyer and is married to P, who is married to P, who is a teacher. V, the engineer, is

married to S, who is neither lawyer nor doctor. No two ladies have the same profession. Q is the sister of

W, who is a manager.

156. What is Ts profession?

(1) Manager (2) Lawyer (3) Manager or Lawyer

(4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these

157. Which of the following is the group of males?

(1) PQVW (2) TVSW (3) PRTV

(4) PTVW (5) None of these

158. What is Qs profession?

(1) Doctor (2) Lawyer (3) Manager

(4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these159. Who among them has the same profession as that of W?

(1) R (2) T (3) S

(4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these

160. Which of the following pairs have the same profession?(1) PS (2) Rs. (3) TP

(4) WT (5) None of these

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

161. Instructions or programs for controlling the computer are called_____.

(1) Software (2) Hardware (3) Humanware (4) Programmer (5)

Analysists

162. A _____ typically identifies the type of file.

(1) folder (2) path (3) file extension (4) file name (5) none163. A device that copies or reproduces text and images is called a / an ___.

(1) CPU (2) reader (3) memory (4) obtainer (5) Scanner

164. Which of the following should be used to mover a paragraph from one place to

another place in a word document?

(1) Copy and paste (2) cut and paste (3) delete and retype

(4) find and replace (5) none

165. An Excel spread sheet has the extension _______.

(1) .doc (2) .xls (3) .ppt (4). accts (5) .exe166. A thin plate or board that contains electronic components is called __________.

(1) Hard disk (2) Scanner (3) RAM (4) ROM (5) Circuit

Board

167. The ____________ is the box that houses the mist important parts of a computersystem.

(1) Software (2)Hardware (3) Input Device (4) system unit (5)

none

168. The device containing a circuit breaker that is used to separate the hardware from

the power source and protect from voltage spikes is called a ________.

(1) Voltage breaker (2) surge breaker (3) Surge protector

(4) Voltage protector (5) None

169. Which menu should be selected to perform cut and paste in Word?

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(1)Format (2) Tools (3) Edit (4) view (5) None

170. In a spread sheet, the point at which a column and a row intersect is called a

________.

(1) Col-row (2) container (3) box (4) box (5) cell

171. An online backing storage system capable of storing larger quantities of data is________.

(1) CPU (2 Memory (3) Secondary Storage (4) Mass Storage(5) Temporary Storage

172. Track ball is an example of a / an _________.

(1) Programming device (2)Pointing device (3) output device(4) software device (5) printing device

173. ____________ of the worksheet appear vertically and are identified by letters at

the top of the worksheet window.

(1) Rows (2) Cells (3) Columns (4) Headings (5) Range

174. Which of the operation is NOT performed by computer?

(1) Inputting (2) processing (3) controlling (4) understanding (5)

outputting

175. BIT stands for what?

(1) Built In Tasks (2) Binary Digit (3) Before Instructed Task(4) Before Interpreting Task (5) Before Initial Task

176. The keys on the keyboard which may be programmed to do special tasks arereferred to as __________.

(1) Function keys (2) Arrow keys (3) Page Up and Page Down keys

(4) Shift and Alt keys (5) None

177. Short key to select all the text on a page of a word document is ______.

(1) Ctlr + A (2) Ctrl + B (3) Ctrl + C (4) Ctrl + D (5) Ctrl

+ E

178. In a word document, if the typed text is incorrect in spelling it will be intimated

by the computer to the user by underlining it in which colour?

(1) Green (2) Blue (3) Red (4) Yellow (5) None

179. Which is valid ?(1)1 KB = 1024 bits

(2) I MB = 2048 bits

(3)1 MB = 1000 KB

(4)1 KB = 1000 bytes

(5) 1 MB = 1024 KB

180. Which of the following is NOT the term used in word?

(1)Delete (2) Edit (3) Copy (4) Slide Show (5) None

181. Software turns data into ________(1) Documents (2) information (3) pages (4) websites (5)

None

182. Tally is ______________.

(1) Utility Software(2) Programming Software (3) Operating Software(4) Applications Software (5) None

183. The term QWERTY is related to what ?

(1) Keyboard (2) Mouse (3) Joystick (4) Printer (5) None

184. Flash drive is a / an ___________.

(1) Internal storage device (2)External Storage device (3) Software

(4) Computer type (5) None

185. The computer which can be easily carried anywhere you go is what?

(1) PC (2) Desktop (3) Laptop (4) Super Computer (5)

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None

186. The short cut key for pasting the text or anything is _________.

(1) Ctlr + A (2) Ctrl + B (3) Ctrl + C (4) Ctrl + V (5) Ctrl + E

187. The ________ key is used to see the slides in a full screen view.

(1) F1 (2) F2 (3) F3 (4) F4 (5) F5188. The short cut key to print a document is _______.

(1) Ctlr + P (2) Ctrl + B (3) Ctrl + C (4) Ctrl + V (5) Ctrl + E189. Which of the following cannot have icon?

(1) MS Word (2) Tally (3) My Computer (4) C++

(5) Start Menu in the Task bar

190. Mobile phones can be connected to the computer through __________.

(1) Wire (2) Cable (3) Data Cable (4) Cannot be connected (5)None

191. There are ___________ enter keys in any key board.

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5

192. ______________ mouse helps the mouse to connect to the computer without any

wire.

(1) Infrared (2) Ultra rays (3) Blue tooth (4) Modem (5) None

193. Expand HTTP.(1) Hyper Text Transfer Point (2) Hyper Tension Terminal Point

(2) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (4) Cannot be expanded (5) None

194. The extension for the webpage is _____________.

(1) .exe (2) .doc (3).http (4).ftp (5).html195. The web pages can only be viewed in _______________.

(1) Web sites (2) Net Caf (3) Web browsers (4) Word (5)

None

196. CPU is _________________.

(1) Control Power Unit (2) Central Power Unit (3) Central Processing

Unit

(3) Central Powering Utility (5) None

197. The keys for adjusting appearance of the monitor are found in ______________.(1) Keyboard (2) Monitor (3) Both Monitor and Keyboard

(4) Cannot be adjusted (5) None

198. All the slides can be viewed in a single page through _____________.

(1) Slide Show (2) Slide Create (3) Slide Sorter

(5) Preview (5) None

199. To move to the bottom of a document, which of the following key(s) is used.(1)Ctrl + End (2) Down Arrow (3) End

(4) Home (5) None

200. All the deleted files and folders move to _____________.(1) My Computer (2) My Documents (3) Recycle Bin

(4) Control Panel (5) None

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