MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON LABOUR LAWS on Labour...MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON LABOUR LAWS Industrial Relations. Q1. Industrial Relation refer to : Ans. a) Central Government and

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON LABOUR LAWS

Industrial Relations.

Q1. Industrial Relation refer to :

Ans. a) Central Government and State Government relations.

b) Employer, Employees and Government relationship.

c) management and Customers relationship.

d) Government and Public relations.

Q2. Who is known as ‘safety valve’ in the field of industrial relations ?

Ans. a) Employer

b) Trade Union

c) Safety officer

d) Welfare officer.

Q3. Which one of the following cannot be included under the purview of industrial relations?

Ans. a) Relations between trade unions and trade unions

b) Relations between employers and trade unions

c) Relations between employers and customers

d) Relations between state, employer and trade unions

Q4. Absence of strikes and lock-outs is an indicator of:

Ans. a) Peaceful industrial relations.

b) Friendly industrial relations

c) Disturbed industrial relations

d) None of the above

Q5. The Government’s strategy in maintaining industrial relations in India is:

Ans. a) Laissez fair

b) Total intervention

c) Required intervention.

d) none of the above

Q6. Bipartite industrial relations include relations between:

Ans. a) Management and unions.

b) Union and government

c) Management & Government

d) Management, Government & Union

Q7. Which of the following machinery cannot be said to be bipartite machinery in the field of

industrial relations?

Ans. a) Works Committee

b) Joint Management Council

c) Shop Level Council

d) Canteen committee.

Q8. Which of the following cannot be said to be tripartite machinery in the field of industrial

relations?

Ans. a) Indian Labour Conference

b) Standing Labour Committee

c) International Labour Organisation

d) Wage board.

Q9. Which of the following is said to be an important aspect of industrial relations?

Ans. a) Profit and loss of the organisation

b) Future expansion programme

c) Conflict and co-operation.

d) Quality Control

Q10. Which of the following ministries looks after industrial relations situation in the country?

Ans. a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

c) Ministry of Welfare

d) Ministry of Labour and employment.

Q11. Which one of the following international organisations is directly related to industrial relations?

Ans. a) United Nations Organisation

b) UNESCO

c) World Health Organisation

d) International Labour Organisation.

Q12. Which of the following areas cannot be directly included in the field of industrial relations?

Ans. a) Trade Union Recognition

b) Strike and Lock-out

c) Minimum wages, Fair wages and Living wages.

d) Collective bargaining

Q13. Which of the following legislations cannot be included in the category of industrial relations

legislations in India?

Ans. a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

b) Trade Union Act, 1926

c) Industrial Employment (Standing orders)Act, 1946.

d) Equal Remuneration Act. 1976

Q14. Which of the following is not included under industrial relations policy of a country?

Ans. a) Recognition of trade unions and collective bargaining.

b) Restrictions on strikes and lock-outs.

c) Workers participation in management

d) Principles of wages determination.

Q15. Which of the following regulates industrial relations in India?

Ans. a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and Trade Unions Act, 1926.

b) Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946

c) Code of Discipline and Inter-union Code of Conduct

d) All of the above.

Q16. Peaceful industrial relations denote:

Ans. a) Absence of strike and lock out

b) Emphasis on bipartitism.

c) Co-operation between the parties


Q17. The history of industrial disputes in India started after :

Ans. a) 1855

b) 1859

c) 1875

d) 1881

Q18. Which of the following methods is more prominent in settling industrial disputes

in India?

Ans. a) Voluntary Arbitration

b) Conciliation

c) Adjudication

d) Mediation

Q19. Which of the following methods has not been given a statutory form in India?

Ans. a) Conciliation

b) Mediation.

c) Voluntary Arbitration

d) Adjudication

Q20. Voluntary Arbitration means:

Ans. a) Giving an award by a third person mutually agreed upon by both the parties.

b) Giving an award by person appointed by the appropriate government without the consent of

the parties.

c) An award of Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal.

d) None of the above.

Q21. Compulsory Arbitration means:

Ans. a) Reference of the dispute by an appropriate government to an arbitrator appointed by

the appropriate government.

b) Reference of the dispute by the appropriate government to an arbitrator mutually agreed upon

by the parties.

c) Taking the dispute to a third person by the parties.


Q22. Conciliation is a method in which a third person:

Ans. a) Mediates in and persuades the parties to come to an amicable settlement.

b) Listens to both the parties and gives his own decision.

c) Gives his decision without listening to the parties.


Q23. The history of conciliation started in India from:

Ans. a) The Employers and Workmen (Disputes) Act, 1980.

b) The Trade (Disputes) Act, 1929.

c) The Defence of India Rules, 1940.

d) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Q24. Collective Bargaining in India has been used as a method of settlement of industrial

disputes under:

Ans. a) the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

b) The Code of Discipline in Industry.

c) Inter-Union Code of Conduct.


Q25. Disputes of rights arise when workers are deprived of a right conferred to them through:

Ans. a) The constitution India.

b) Some Legislation.

c) Standing orders, awards, settlement and agreements.

d) All the above.

Q26. Disputes of interest refer to those disputes which arise because the workers want to:

Ans. a) Create some new rights.

b) Get some new privilege.

c) Obtain some new concessions.

d) All the above.

Q27. The Court of Inquiry under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 will conclude its proceeding within

a period of :

Ans. a) 14 days.

b) 02 months.

c) Six months.

d) One year.

Q28. A board of conciliation under the industrial disputes act, 1947 may consist of :

Ans. a) Three persons.

b) Five persons.

c) Three or five persons.


Q29. The appropriate government may appoint one or more industrial tribunals for adjudication of

industrial disputes relating to any matter, whether specified in :

Ans. a) The second Schedule.

b) The Third Schedule.

c) Second or third schedule.


Q30. Section 22 and 23 of the industrial disputes act, 1947 are related to

Ans. a) lay-off and Retrenchment.

b) Strikes and lock-outs.

c) Closure.

d) Protect workmen.

Q31. The industrial disputes act in India was passed in :

Ans. a) 1926

b) 1946

c) 1947

d) 1948

Q32. Works-committee is a:

Ans. a) Bi-partite body.

b) Tripartite body.

c) Adjudication machinery.

d) Wage fixing machinery.

Q33. The conciliation officer generally concludes his proceeding within:

Ans. a) Ten Days

b) Fourteen days.

c) One month.

d) Two months.

Q34. Which of the following methods is not incorporated under the industrial disputes act,

1947.

Ans. a) Collective bargaining.

b) Conciliation

c) Arbitration.

d) Adjudication.

Q35. Till what period from the conclusion of adjudication proceedings a workman cannot go on strike

under the industrial disputes act’ 1947

Ans. a) Six Months.

b) Four months.

c) Three months.

d) Two months.

Q36. The main function of an arbitrator is:

Ans. a) To conciliate all industrial disputes.

b) To induce the parties to come to an amicable settlement.

c) To adjudicate industrial disputes.


Q37. According to Mahatama Gandhi which one is the best method for settlement of industrial

disputes?

Ans. a) Conciliation

c) Mediation.

d) Collective bargaining

d) Voluntary Arbitration.

Q38. Industrial disputes may take place due to :

Ans. a) Wage.

b) Bonus.

c) Trade Union Recognition.

d) All the above.

Q39. Which one of the following cannot be said to be an industrial dispute?

Ans. a) Disputes between employer and employer.

b) Disputes between employer and workmen.

c) Disputes between workmen & workmen.

d) Disputes between employer and the customer.

Q40. Which one of the following machineries cannot be said to be machinery for settling

industrial disputes?

Ans. a) Labour Court.

b) Tribunal.

c) Consumers court.

d) National Tribunal

Q41. Among the methods for settlement for industrial disputes listed below, which one is not

relevant here?

Ans. a) Collective Bargaining. b) Compulsory Adjudication.

c) Voluntary Arbitration d) Reference to civil court.

Q42. According to the industrial disputes act, 1947 which of the following matters does not fall

within the jurisdiction of labour court?

Ans. a) Application and interpretation of standing orders.

b) Discharge or dismissal of workmen.

c) Illegality or otherwise of a strike or lockout.

d) Wage including the period and mode of payment.

Q43. According to the industrial disputes act, 1947 wage includes:

Ans. a) Any Traveling Concession.

b) Bonus.

c) Gratuity.

d) Employer’s contribution to provident fund.

Q44. Under the industrial disputes act, 1947 which one of the following does not come under unfair

labour practices?

Ans. a) Employer’s refusal to conduct secret ballot elections for union recognition.

b) Gherao.

c) Employer preventing a worker from joining a union.

d) Workers causing damage to the property of the employer.

Q45. Which of the following authorities does not use conciliation as the method of settlement of

industrial dispute?

Ans. a) Conciliation Officer.

b) Court of inquiry.

c) Board of Conciliation.

d) All the above.

Strikes and Lockouts

Q46. Which one of the following is the last weapon in the hands of workers:

Ans. a) Lay-off. b) Lock-out.

c) Closure. d) Strike

Q47. Which one of the following is not an important element of strike:

Ans. a) Cessation of work.

b) By a body of persons.

c) Under a common understanding.

d) For a genuine reason

Q48. A lightening strike denotes:

Ans. a) Going on strike after serving a notice of strike.

b) Going on strike after obtaining strike ballot.

c) Going on strike after making all necessary preparation

d) Going on strike suddenly.

Q49. Lockout is:

Ans. a) A reward.

b)An industrial action.

c) An incentive.


Q50. A lockout in an industry is declared by:

Ans. a) Union Government.

b) State Government.

c) Management.

d) Trade Union.

Q51. In a situation to be called as strike, which of the following must be present?

Ans. a) Plurality of workmen.

b) Cessation of work or refusal to continue to work.

c) Acting in combination or concerted action under a common understanding.

d) All the above.

Q52. Wild cat strike means:

Ans. a) A strike declared suddenly and without prior notice.

b) Workers resorting to violence during the strike.

c) A strike declared with the prior notice.

d) Standing demonstration at the gate of organisation.

Q53. A temporary closing of employment due to industrial dispute or the suspension of work or the

refusal by an employer to continue to employ any number of persons engaged by him would

mean that :

Ans. a) The industrial establishment is close down.

b) The industrial establishment is locked out.

c) the workmen of the industrial establishment are kept under suspension.

Q54. In India, the ‘right to strike’ is:

Ans. a) A Fundamental Right.

b) Conferred by legislation.

c) Provided under the directive Principal of state policy.

d) Conferred of Government order.

Q55. As per the industrial disputes act, 1947 strikes and lockouts in public utility services will be legal

only when :

Ans. a) A written notice of strikes or lock out is given within six weeks of strike or lockout.

b) Not resorting to strikes or lockouts within 14 days or giving such a notice.

c) During the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a Conciliation Officer and 07

days after the conclusion of such proceeding.

d) All the above.

Q56. Which of the following statements is not correct.

Ans. a) The notice of lockout or strike shall not be necessary where there is already in existence a

strike or as may be in case of lockout in public utility service.

b) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal strike shall not be deemed to be

illegal.

c) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal lockout shall not be deemed to be

illegal.

d) A strike or lockout may be declared even before the date mentioned in the notice.

Q57. Which of the following statements is not correct

Ans. a) There is no need of giving strike notice in non-public utility service under the Industrial

Disputes Act, 1947.

b) According to the Code of Discipline there should be no strike or lockout without

notice.

c) No strikes or lockouts in a non-public utility service can be declared during the pendency

of conciliation proceeding before a Conciliation officer.

d) No strike or lock-out can be declared in a non –public utility service during the pendency or

proceedings before a Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal.

Q58. A strike in pursuance of an industrial dispute has already commenced and is in existence. The

appropriate Govt. has referred the dispute to a Labour Court but did not prohibit the continuance

of the strike under sub-section (3) of the section10. The continuance of that strike during the

pendency of proceedings before the Labour Court will be:

Ans. a) Legal.

b) Illegal.

c) Out of the preview of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.


Q59. Workers in a public utility service went on an illegal strike without giving any notice. Soon

thereafter, the employer also, without giving any notice declared a lockout. Will that lockout be

Ans. a) Legal. b) Illegal.

c) Out of the preview of this Act. d) None of the above.

Q60. A trade union in a steel factory served a notice of strike on 1st January but the union went on

strike in the middle of May. Will the strike be :

Ans. a) Legal.

b) Illegal.

c) Does not come under the preview of this Act.


Q61. An award was given on the subject of Bonus three months back and it is still in operation. The

union decides to go on strike on the issue of revision of wages in that organisation will that strike

be :

Ans. a) Legal.

b) Illegal.

c) Will not come under the preview of this Act.


Lay-Off

Q62. General provisions regarding lay-off are given in the industrial disputes act, 1947 in its :

Ans. a) Chapter –V A

b) Chapter-VB.

c) Chapter-VI.

d) Chapter-VII.

Q63. The general provisions regarding lay-off apply to :

Ans. a) Industrial establishments in which atleast 50 workmen are employed and which are not

of a seasonal character.

b) Industrial establishments in which atleast 100 workmen are employed.

c) Industrial establishments which are not of seasonal character.

d) To all industrial establishments which come under the purview of the Factories Act,

1948.

Q64. The period of one year of continuous service under the industrial Disputes Act, 1947

means?

Ans. a) An uninterrupted service of the all 365 days.

b) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.

c) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.

d) 240 days service in a year.

Q65. Whenever a workman is laid-off under the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer will pay

him lay-off compensation which will be equivalent to:

Ans. a) 50% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.

b) 75% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.

c) 80% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.

d) 100% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.

Q66. In which of the following situations lay-off compensation shall not be paid to a workman

:

Ans. a) If he refuses to accept any alternative employment in the same establishment.

b) If he does not present himself at work place atleast once a day.

c) If such laying off is due to strike or showing down of production.

d) In all the above situations.

Q67. In an industrial establishment where the special provisions regarding lay-off apply, no workman

shall be laid-off by his employer except.

Ans. a) With the prior permission of appropriate government.

b) A notice in advance is given to the workmen 03 months before declaring the lay off.

c) Without the consent of the trade union.


Q68. Prior permission of the appropriate government shall not be necessary in lay-off if:

Ans. a) Such lay off is due to shortage of power.

b) Due to natural calamity.

c) In case of mine due to fire, flood, excess of inflammable gas or explosion.

d) In all the above.

Q69. Who among the following is not entitled to lay-off compensation under the industrial

disputes act, 1947?

Ans. a) A permanent worker.

b) An irregular worker.

c) A casual worker

d) All the above.

Q70. Every workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an industrial establishment and who

presents himself for work at the establishment shall be deemed to be laid-off if the employer

does not provide him work :

Ans. a) Within 2 hours of his so presenting.

b) Within 4 hours of his so presenting.

c) Within 6 hours of his so presenting.


Q71. A lay-off is declared is case of :

Ans. a Surplus labour.

b) When worker threaten to go on strike..

c) Failure of power or shortage of raw materials.

d) The employer is running in heavy loss.

Q72. The maximum period for which workmen can be laid-off during any period of twelve months

under the industrial disputes act, 1947?

Ans. a) 15 days.

b) 30 days.

c) 45 days.

d) 60 days.

Q73. Inability to give employment to a workman on accounts of shortage of coal, power or raw

materials or the accumulation of stock or the break down of machinery is called:

Ans. a) Retrenchment.

b) Closure.

c) Lay-off.

d) Termination of employment.

Retrenchment

Q74. An organisation employing less than 100 workers, can not retrench the services of an employee

who has put in atleast:

Ans. a) Five year of continuous service.

) Three year of continuous service.

) Two year of continuous service.

) One year of continuous service.

Q75. Retrenchment in organisations employing less than 100 workers can be done only when:

Ans. a) The workmen has been given atleast one month notice in writing indicating the reasons of

retrenchment or wages in lieu of notice.

b) The workmen has been paid retrenchment compensation.

c) A notice served on the appropriate government.

d) All the above.

Q76. There will be no need of notice of retrenchment if:

Ans. a) The worker has committed a minor misconduct.

b) If he is a trade union member.

c) If he has not completed his one year of continuous service.

d) If he has disobeyed the management.

Q77. The retrenchment compensation will be equivalent to:

Ans. a) 25 days average pay for every completed year of continuous service.

b) 20 days average pay for every completed year of continuous service.

c) 15 days average pay for every completed year of continuous service.

d) 10 days average pay for every completed year of continuous service.

Q78. Organisations employing 100 or more workmen will be required to give a notice for retrenching

an employee which should be:

Ans. a) 3 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.

b) 2 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.

c) One months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.


Q79. The appropriate government either on its own or on the application made by the employer or any

workman may review its order granting or refusing permission for retrenchment. If the

appropriate government refers this matter to a tribunal for adjudication, the tribunal in such a

situation will submit its award within a period of:

Ans. a) 90 days. b) 60 days.

c) 30 days. d) No time of limit.

Q80. According to the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer wil normally retrench :

Ans. a) The senior most worker of that category.

b) An inefficient worker of that category.

c) Any worker of that category.

d) The last person to be employed in that category.

Q81. Where any workman has been retrenched in an organisation and the employer proposes to make

further employment in the same category, the industrial disputes act say that the:

Ans. a) Retrenched workers will not be re-employed again.

b) Only fresh workers will be taken into employment.

c) Retrenched workers will have preference over other workmen if they offer for re-

employment.


Q82. Termination of the services of surplus employees from any organisation is called:

Ans. a) Disciplinary action.

b) Retirement.

c) Lay-off.

d) Retrenchment

Q83. Termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever otherwise

than as a punishment is known as :

Ans. a) Suspension.

b) dismissal.

c) Lay-off.

d) Retrenchment

Q84. An employer of an establishment serves a three months notice on the workmen to be retrenched.

The statement above indicates that the establishment employs:

Ans. a) 100 workmen.

b) More than 50 but less than 100 workmen.

c) Less than 50 workmen.


Protected Workmen

Q85. The provision of “Protected Workmen” deals with protecting the union officials of

Ans. a) The recognized union only.

b) All the union in the establishment whether registered or not.

c) The union (S) selected as per the discretion of the employer.

d) The registered trade unions functioning in an establishment.

Q86. The “Protected Workmen” refer to:

Ans. a) Any member of a registered trade union in the establishment.

b) A workman who is a member of executive.

c) A workman who is an office bearer.

d) A workman who is either a member of executive or office bearer of a registered trade

union connected with the establishment.

Q87. An employer during the pendency of any proceeding in respect of an industrial dispute:

Ans. a) Can take any action against any protected workman.

b) Can not take any action against a protected workman.

c) Can take any action against a protected workman only after obtaining permission

in writing from the authority before which the proceeding is pending.


Q88. In every establishment the number of workmen to be recognized as “Protected workmen”

for the purposes of this act shall be:

Ans. a) One percent of the total workmen.

b) Two percent of the total workmen.

c) Five percent of the total workmen.


Q89. The minimum number of persons to be declared as protected workmen in any organisation shall

be not less than:

Ans. a) 5 persons.

b) 10 persons.

c) 15 persons.

d) 20 persons.

Q90. The maximum number of persons to be declared as “Protected workmen” in any organisation

should not be more than:

Ans. a) 50.

b) 100.

c) 150.

d) 200.

Closure

Q91. The provisions regarding closure have been given under:

Ans. a) Trade union Act, 1926.

b) Industrial disputes act, 1947.

c) Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1948.


Q92. Any employer employing 100 or more workers and who intends to close down his undertaking

will have to give a notice to the appropriate government stating the reasons of closure.

Ans. a) Atleast 30 days before the date of closure.

b) Atleast 60 days before the date of closure.

c) Atleast 90 days before the date of closure

d) Atleast 120 days before the date of closure.

Q93. No notice of closure will be required to be served on the appropriate government if the number

of workers employed is:

Ans. a) Less than 200.

b) Less than 100.

c) Less than 50.

d) Less than 25.

Q94. No notice of closure will be required to be given to the appropriate government indicating the

reasons if the undertaking is set-up for the construction of:

Ans. a) Building.

b) Bridges.

c) Roads, Canals & Dams.

d) All the above.

Q95. If the appropriate government is so satisfied it may direct that the provisions of closure shall not

apply to an undertaking if it is closed due to :

Ans. a) Exceptional circumstances as accident in the undertaking or death of the

employer.

b) Exceptional loss to the employer.

c) Strong unionism among the workers. d) Insufficient demand for the product.

Q96. Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, every workman shall be

entitled to notice and compensation if he has put in:

Ans. a) Five year of continuous service.

b) Two year of continuous service.

c) One year of continuous service.

d) Six months of continuous service.

Q97. For closing down the place of employment the employer will have to serve:

Ans. a) One month notice in advance.

b) Or in lieu of wages.

c) Compensation at the rate of 15 days wages for every completed year of service.

d) All the above.

Q98. Where an undertaking engaged in mining operation is closed down by reason merely of

exhaustion of the minerals in that area, no workman shall be entitled to any notice or

compensation if:

Ans. a) The employer provides the workmen alterative employment with effect from date of

closure.

b) On the same terms & conditions of service as were applicable.

c) The service of workman has not interrupted by the alternative employment.

d) All the above.

Q99. Closure as defined under the industrial disputes act, 1947 means:

Ans. a) Permanent closing of the entire organisation.

b) Permanent closing of a major portion of the organisation.

c) Permanent closing of even a part of the organisation.

d) All the above.

Q100. How many days before, an employer intending to close down his undertaking in which 62

workmen are employed, has to serve a notice to the appropriate government:

Ans. a) 60 days.

b) 70 days.

c) 90 days.

d) 240 days.

Q101. Closure means:

Ans. a) Closing down the place of work for a short period.

b) Closing down the place of employment permanently.

c) Suspension of work due to shortage of raw materials.

d) Refusal to give employment due to industrial disputes.

Award and Settlement

Q102. An interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute by any Labour Court is

known as:

Ans: a) Agreement.

b) Settlement.

c) Award.

d) Judgment.

Q103. Award means an interim or final determination of any industrial dispute by:

Ans: a) Labour Court.

b) Industrial Tribunal or National Tribunal.

c) An Arbitrator under section 10A.


Q104. An Award must be published by the appropriate government in the official gazette within:

Ans: a) 15 days from date of the receipt.

b) 30 days from date of the receipt.

c) 45 days from date of the receipt.

d) 60 days from date of the receipt.

Q105. An award shall become enforceable on the expiry of:

Ans. a) 15 days from the date of publication.

b) 30 days from the date of publication.

c) 60 days from the date of publication.

d) 90 days from the date of publication.

Q106. An award under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947:

Ans. a) Shall not be final.

b) Shall not be compulsory in nature.

c) May be questioned in any Court of Law.

d) Shall be final and shall not be called in question by any Court.

Q107. An award will remain in operation for a minimum period of:

Ans. a) 06 months from the date on which it becomes enforceable.

b) One year from the date on which it becomes enforceable.

c) Two year from the date on which it becomes enforceable.

d) Three year from the date on which it becomes enforceable

Q108. The appropriate government may extend the period operation of an award by any period

not exceeding?

Ans. a) 06 months at a time.

b) One year at a time.

c) Two year at a time.

d) Three year at a time.

Q109. The total period of operation of an award should not exceed?

Ans. a) Two Years.

b) Three Years.

c) Four years.

d) five years.

Q110. Where an appropriate government is of opinion that on public grounds affecting national

economy or social justice:

Ans. a) It may stop the enforcement of the entire award.

b) It may stop the enforcement of a part of the award.

c) It may modify the award.


Q111. On the completion of the period of operation:

Ans. a) An award is automatically terminated.

b) An award is automatically extended.

c) A notice is to be given by any of the partly for the termination of the award.


Q112. The award shall continue to be binding even after serving a notice by any of the partly

until:

Ans. a) A period of 30 days have lapsed from the date on which notice given.

b) A period of two months have lapsed from the date on which notice given

c) A period of three months have lapsed from the date on which notice given

d) A period of six months have lapsed from the date on which notice given

Q113. A settlement means:

Ans. a) A settlement arrived at by the help of a Conciliation Officer.

b) A settlement arrived at by the help of a Board of Conciliation.

c) An agreement arrived at otherwise than in the course of Conciliation proceeding but registered

with the Conciliation Officer.


Q114. A settlement will remain in operation for a minimum period of:

Ans. a) Three years.

b) Two years.

c) One year

d) Six months.

Q115. A settlement will remain in operation for a:

Ans. a) Maximum period of one year.

b) Maximum period of two year.

c) Maximum period of three year.

d) No maximum period has been mentioned under the Act.

Q116. A settlement after the completion of the period of its operation is:

Ans. a) Automatically terminated.

b) Automatically extended.

c) One of the parties has to give a notice in writing to the other expressing its intention to

terminate the settlement.


Unfair Labour Practice

Q117. Which of the following Schedules under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 contains provisions

regarding unfair labour practice?

Ans. a) The First Schedule.

b) The Second Schedule.

c) The Third & Fourth Schedule.

d) The Fifth Schedule.

Q118. Which of the following is not an unfair labour practice on the part of Employers and Trade

Unions of Employers?

Ans. a) To interfere with restrain from, or coerce workmen in the exercise of their right to

organise.

b) To dominate, interfere with or contribute, support, financial or otherwise to any trade

union.

c) To establish employer-sponsored trade unions of workmen.

d) To submit list of workmen for recognition as protected workmen to the appropriate

government.

Q119. Which of the following are unfair labour practices on the part of employer?

Ans. a) To recruit workmen during a strike which is not an illegal strike.

b) failure to implement award, settlement or agreement.

c) Refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the recognized trade unions.

d) All the above.

Q120. Which of the following are unfair labour practices on the part of workmen and their trade

unions?

Ans. a) To advised or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal under this

Act.

b) To coerce workmen in the exercise of their right to self organisation or to join a trade union or

refrain from joining any trade union.

c) For a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the

employer.

Q121. Which of the following is not an unfair labour practice on the part of workmen and their

trade unions?

Ans. a) Indulge in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative.

b) To stage demonstrations at the residences of the employers or the managerial staff

members.

c) To stage, encourage or instigate such from of coercive action with willful “go slow” squatting

on the work premises after working hours or “gherao” of any of the members of the managerial

or other staff.

d) to nominate an outsider to a Join Level Council as workers’ representative.

Q122. Which of the following can be said to be an unfair labour practice on the part of an

employers?

Ans. a) not to call regular meetings of Works Committee.

b) To transfer a workmen malafide from the one place to another under the guise of

following management policy.

c) Not to implement the decisions of the Join Management Council.

d) To refuse to pay bonus more than the maximum prescribed under the Payment of

Bonus Act, 1965.

Industrial Action

Q123. Industrial actions mean strategies or methods used during:

Ans. a) Labour Management Co-operation.

b) Workers’ Participation in Management.

c) Industrial Conflict.

d) Industrial Peace.

Q124. Which of the following is known as industrial action?

Ans. a) Strike & Lock-out. b) Picketing.

c) Go-slow. d) All the above.

Q125. Which of the following industrial actions have been permitted under the Industrial

Disputes Act, 1947 with certain restriction?

Ans. a) Strike & Lock-outs.

b) go-slow

c) work to rule

d) picketing & boycott

Q126. Which of the following industrial actions have been declared as unfair labour practices under

Fifth Schedule under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 in India?

Ans. a) Picketing.

b) Acts of force or violence.

c) To indulge in coercive activities, go slow, gherao.

d) All the above.

Q127. Which of the following industrial actions was declared as a cognizable offence liable with

imprisonment and fine by the Calcutta High Court in 1967?

Ans. a) strike

b) Lock-out

c) gherao

d) Picketing.

Q129. In which of the following case in India “Gherao” was declared illegal by Calcutta High Court in

September 1967?

Ans. a) Jay Engineering works Vs. State of West Bengal.

b) Dalmia cement ltd. vs. naraindas anand ji

c) Titagarh paper mills vs. paper mills employees union

d) Damodar ganesh Vs. state

Q130. Go slow means:

Ans. a) To stop production altogether

b) To postpone production for some time

c) Slowing down the speed of production.

d) To refuse to work

Q131. Which of the following industrial actions are mostly adopted by the white collar

employees?

Ans. a) Strike b) Picketing

c) Go-slow and work-to-rule. d) None of the above

Q132. Which industrial action is associated with the name of Mahatama Gandhi ?

Ans. a) Picketing. b) Lock-off.

c) Satyagrah. d) Work-to-rule.

Q133. Which industrial action is rarely used in India?

Ans. a) Picketing. b) Go-slow.

c) Boy-cott. d) Work-to-rule.

Q134. Which of the following industrial actions has been recognized as lawful and permitted

under the Act?

Ans. a) Strikes and lockouts. b) Picketing

c) Gherao d) Go-slow

Collective Bargaining

Q135. The method of collective bargaining refers to:

Ans. a) Negotiations between Employer, workers and Government Representative.

b) Negotiations between Employer’s representative and Trade union’s

Representative.

c) Negotiations between Employers and the Government.

d) Negotiations between Employer, and Custmers.

Q136. Who has first made use of the term Collective Bargaining?

Ans. a) G.D.H., Cole.

b) Samuel Gompers.

c) Sidney Webb.

d) Robert Owen.

Q137. Which of the following is helpful in the process of collective bargaining?

Ans. a) Conciliation and Mediation.

b) Voluntary Arbitration.

c) Adjudication.


Q138. If representatives of an employer and trade union meet together and discuss the terms and

conditions of employment with a view to reaching and agreement, the process is called :

Ans. a) Collective Bargaining.

b) Join Consultation.

c) Worker’s Publication and Management

d) Arbitration.

Q139. An agreement arrived at by the parties and approved by a Labour Court or Tribunal is

called:

Ans. a) Award.

b) Settlement.

c) Consent Award


Q140. Which of the following weakens collective bargaining?

Ans. a. Inter-union rivalries

b. Absence of a collective bargaining legislation

c. Hostility among the parties

d. All the above.

Q141. According to V.V.Giri, which one is the best method for the settlement of industrial

disputes?

Ans. a) Conciliation. b) Mediation.

c) Adjudication. d) Collective Bargaining.

Q142. When a dispute is settled by the process of collective bargaining, the document arrived a,

is called :

Ans. a) Settlement. b) Agreement

c) Judgment. d) Award.

Q143. When an agreement is arrived at in the process of collective bargaining and is registered

with the conciliation officer, it is called:

Ans. a) Settlement.

b) Converted Settlement.

c) Bi-partite agreement.


Q144. The definition of collective bargaining that it is “negotiations about working conditions

and terms of employment between an employer, a group of employers or one or more employers

organisations on the one hand, and one or more representative workers organisations on the

other, with a view to reaching agreement” was given by :

Ans. a) Allen Flender

b) Sidney & Beatrice Webbs.

c) International Labour Organisation

d) Dankert.

Q145. Which of the following is not a subject matter for collective bargaining?

Ans. a) Wage & allowances.

b) Hours of work and dearness allowance.

c) Welfare facilities.

d) Labour management co-operation.

Q146. Which of the following machineries in India, can be said to be a forum of collective

bargaining?

Ans. a) Joint management Council.

b) Indian labour Conference.

c) Works Committee.

d) Tripartite wage boards.

Q147. Which of the following representatives are not included in the process of collective

bargaining?

Ans. a) Employers’ representatives.

b) Workers’ representatives.

c) Government Representatives.


Q148. Which of the following is not a purpose of collective bargaining?

Ans. a) Settlement of industrial disputes.

b) Determination of terms and conditions of employment.

c) Waste minimization and pollution control.


Tripartite Bodies

Q149. Which of the following recommended for the first time establishment of a tripartite body

in India :

Ans. a) I.L.O.

b) The royal commission on labour in India.

c) The Labour Investigation Committee.


Q150. Tripartite bodies means bodies consisting of representatives of:

Ans. a) Labour, Employers and Govt.

b) Employers, Consumers and Government.

c) Labour, General Public and Employers.


Q151. Who presided over the first meeting of the Tripartite Labour Conference:

Ans. a) Shri Rama Swami Mudliar.

b) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar.

c) Shri firoz khan Noon.

d) Shri Jagjiwan Ram.

Q152. The Indian Labour Conference meets once:

Ans. a) Every Six months.

b) Every year.

c) Every two year.

d) In three year.

Q153. Who presided over the first Session of the Conference of Labour Ministers held in New

Delhi on 23-23 January, 1940?

Ans. a) B.R. Ambedkar.

b) Guljari Lal Nanda.

c) Ramaswamy Mudaliar.

d) Firoz Khan Noon.

Trade Unionism

Q154. Trusteeship theory essentially implies:

Ans. a) The employer shall take decisions in the best interest of labour as the letter is

immature.

b) The employer shall consult labour before taking decisions as the letter is mature.

c) The employer is the sole proprietor of his wealth.

d) The capital belongs to the society, the employer is only the trustee.

Q155. Trade unions’ sole purpose is:

a) To help management to raise employee productivity.

b) To resole employer-employee conflict.

c) To make protest.

d) To protect and promote workers’ interest.

Q.156 Who said that “ A trade union is a continues association of wage earners for the purpose

of maintaining of improving the conditions their working lives”?

Ans. a) Dankert. b) Sidney & Beatrice Webbs.

c) R.A. Hoxie. d) S.D. Punekar.

Q.157 Which of the following is not type of Trade Union?

Ans. a) Craft union.

b) Industrial Union.

c) Federation.

d) World Federation of Trade Unions.

Q.158 Which of the following is affiliated with the Indian National Congress?

Ans. a) AITUC.

b) CITU

c) INTUC

d) H.M.S.

Q.159 Which of the following federations is affiliated with the World Federation of Trade

Unions (WFTU) at the international level?

Ans. a) Hind Mazdoor Sabha.

b) Centre of Trade Union.

c) All India Trade Union Congress.

d) Bhartiya Mazdoor Sabha.

Q.160 What was the total number of registered trade unions in India in the year 1994 as per the

India Labour Year Book?

Ans. a) 55680

b) 50890

c) 56872

d) 40908

Q.161 Which one of the following types of trade unions is mostly found in industrial

organisations in India?

Ans. a) Craft Union.

b) Company Union

c) Federation

d) Industrial Union.

Q.162 Which of the following factors is responsible for continuance of outside leadership in

trade unions in India?

a) The present provision regarding out side leadership in the Trade Unions Act, 1926.

b) Lack of education among the workers.

c) Outsiders as heavy weights.

d) All the above.

Q.163 Who among the following trade union leaders was once the Union Labour Minister

in India?

Ans. a) V.V. Giri.

b) B.P. Wadia.

c) Khandu Bhai Desai.

d) Guljari Lal Nanda

Q. 164 Who among the following is known as the pioneer of voluntarism in industrial relations

in India.

Ans. a) V.V. Giri.

b) Shankar Lal Banker.

c) Guljari Lal Nanda.

d) Mahatma Gandhi

Q.165 Which one of the following is the oldest National Labour Federation?

Ans. a) National Front of Trade Unions.

b) national Labour organisation.

c) Centre of Indian Trade Unions

d) All India Trade Union Congress.

Q.166 Who is considered as the pioneer of Trade Union Movement?

Ans. a) N.M. Joshi

b) Mahatma Gandhi

c) N.M. Lokhande

d) B.P. Wadia.

Q.167 A trade union leader who later became the President of India was:

Ans. a) Rajendra Prasad.

b) Zakir Husain.

c) Zail singh

d) V.V. Giri.

Q.168 The method of check-off is used primarily in the interest of:

Ans. a) Employer b) Government.

c) Trade Union d) Federation.

Q.169 Trade Unions in India suffer from problem of:

Ans. a) Outside leadership.

b) Multiplicity of unions

c) Lack of Finance.

d) All the above.

Q.170 The first President of the All India Trade Union Congress.

Ans. a) Subhash Chandra Bose.

b) Jawahar Lal Nehru

c) Lala Rajpat Rai

d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Q.171 Who among the following can be said to be the first labour leader of India.

Ans. a) N.M. Joshi

b) V.V. Giri.

c) N.M. Lokhande

d) D.C. Athaide.

Q.172 Which one of the following was the first trade union organised in India?

Ans. a) The Kamgar Hitvardhak Sabha.

b) The Bombay Postal Union.

c) The printers’ Union, Calcutta.

d) Bombay Mill Hands Association.

Q.173 Which one of the following can be said to be the first modern trade union in India.

Ans. a) All India Trade Union Congress.

b) Textlite Labour Association.

c) Madras Labour Union.


Q.174 Which of the following was organised primarily to send labour representative to I.L.O.?

Ans. a) Madras Labour Union.

b) Bombay Mill Hands’ Association.

c) Textile Labour Association.

d) All India Trade Union Congress.

Q.175 The first general Secretary of the AITUC was:

Ans. a) C.R. Das.

b) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel.

c) Moti Lal Nehru.

d) Diwan Chaman Lal.

Q.176 The 1st of May was celebrated as Labour Day for the first time in Bombay in:

Ans. a) 1924

b) 1927

c) 1929

d) 1934

Payment of Wages Act, 1936

Q. 177 Fro which of the following purpose the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 was enacted?

Ans. a) To fix minimum rates of wages in sweated industries.

b) To ensure payment of equal remuneration to both male and female workers for similar

work.

c) To regulate payment of wages.

d) All the above.

Q.178 The payment of Wages Act, 1936 dose not apply to workers whose wages exceed?

Ans. a) Rs. 400 per month

b) Rs. 800 per month

c) Rs. 1600 per month

d) Rs. 2400 per month

Q.179 Who among the following will be responsible for the payment of wages to workers under

the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?

Ans. a) The employer

b) The manager of the factory

c) The person responsible to the employer for the supervision and control of the Industrial

establishment.

d) All the above.

Q.180 The payment of the Wages Act was enacted in:

Ans. a) 1926 b) 1936

c) 1948 d) 1976

Q.181 No wages period fixed under the Payment of wages Act, 1936 shall exceed:

Ans. a) 07 days

b) A fortnight.

c) One month.


Q.182 The payment of Wages Act, 1936 was passed on the recommendations of:

Ans. a) The Fair Wages Committee.

b) The Rege Committee.

c) The Royal Commission on Labour.

d) The National Commission on Labour.

Q.183 According to the payment of Wages Act, 1936, the establishments where 1000 or more

workers are employed, wages must be paid before the expiry of:

Ans. a) Seventh day from completion of the wages period

b) Eight day from the completion of the wages period

c) Ninth day from the completion of the wages period

d) Tenth day from the completion of the wages period

Q.184 Which of the following deduction are not authorised under the Payment of Wages Act,

1936?

Ans. a) Contribution paid under the E.S.I. Act, 1948.

b) Contribution paid under the Provident Fund Act, 1952.

c) Deductions towards Income-Tax.

d) Deduction of Payment of compensation to the worker’s family on account of his death.

Q.185 The payment of Wages Act, 1936 came in to force on:

Ans. a) 1st July, 1936.

b) 1st January, 1937.

c) 28th

March, 1937.

d) 15th

April, 1936.

Q.186 The total amount of deduction including deductions for payments to co-operative societies

under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 should not exceed:

Ans. a) 50 percent. b) 65 percent.

c) 75 percent. d) 80 percent.

Q. 187 In a factory employing less than 1000 workers, the wages of every person employed

therein shall be paid:

Ans. a) Before the expiry of pay day.

b) Before the expiry of the fifth day.

c) Before the expiry of the seventh day.

d) Before the expiry of the tenth day.

Q.188 Wages under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 can not be paid:

Ans. a) In Cash

b) In Kind

c) By Cheque.

d) By crediting in his Bank Accounts.

Q. 189 Which of the following is authorised deduction under Payment of Wages Act, 1936?

Ans. a) Contribution under the E.S.I. Act, 1948.

b) Contribution under the Employees Provident Fund Act, 1952.

c) Recovery of loan and advance.

d) All the above.

Q.190 Which of the following is not an authorised deduction under the Payment of Wages Act,

1936?

Ans. a) Donation of Prime Minister’s Relief Fund.

b) Payment of membership fee of a registered trade union.

c) For purpose of shares in the share market.

d) Payment of dues of a registered co-operative society.

Q.191 According to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, no fine shall be imposed by as employer

on:

Ans. a) A women worker.

b) A worker above 50 years of age.

c) A person who is under the age of 15 years.

d) An unconfirmed employee.

Q.192 The Total amount of fine which may be imposed in any wage period on any employed

person as per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, shall be spent only:

Ans. a) Rs. 30.

b) 1% of the wages payable to him in respect of that wage-period.

c) 3% of the wages payable to him in respect of that wage-period.

d) 5% of the wages payable to him in respect of that wage-period.

Q.193 The total amount of all deductions, in any wage period, from the wages of an employed

person shall not exceed in cases where such deductions are not wholly or partly made for

payments to co-operative societies.

Ans. a) 50%

b) 60%

c) 75%

d) 80%

Q194. Workers who have some complain with regard to their delayed payment of wages or

unauthorized deductions can register their claims before the prescribed authority.

Ans. a) either themselves

b) through a legal practitioner.

c) Any official of registered trade union.

d) All the above.

Q195. Such complaints must be presented before the prescribed authority within:

Ans. a) 3 months

b) 6 months

c) 8 months

d) 12 months

Minimum Wages Act, 1948

Q196. On which of the following principles of wages the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is based:

Ans. a) Living wage principle b) Fair wage principle

c) Minimum wage principle d) All the above

Q197. The minimum wages act, 1948 is applicable in:

Ans. a) Large scale industries

b) Small scale industries

c) both “a” and “b”

d) sweated industries

Q198. A scheduled employment under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is one which:

Ans. a) is not included under the schedule given in the Act.

b) is included in the schedule given at the end of the Act.


d) none of the above.

Q199. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 says that:

Ans. a) Only Central Government can include any employment in the schedule.

b) Any State Government can include any employment in the schedule.

c) Both “a” and “b”


Q.200 Minimum wages may be fixed by an appropriate government:

Ans. a) by Notification method

b) by committee method



Q201. The appropriate government may refrain from fixing minimum rates of wages in any

scheduled employment in which the total number of workers employed in the whole of the state

is less than:

Ans. a) 500

b) 1000

c) 1500

d) 2000

Q202. Where minimum wages are to be fixed by Notification method, the notice must be

published by the appropriate government:

Ans. a) in the daily newspaper of that state.

b) in the national news paper

c) in the official gazette of the appropriate govt.

d) important magazines of the country.

Q203. Where minimum wages are being fixed by notification method, persons likely to be

affected will be given an opportunity to submit their proposals within a specified period which

will be;

Ans. a) not less than 15 days

b) not less than one month

c) not less than two months

d) not less than three months

Q204. The minimum wages which are finally notified in the official gazette will come into

operation after the expiry of :

Ans. a) 30 days

b) 90 days

c) 3 months

d) 6 months

Q205. Where minimum wages are to be fixed by the committee method under the minimum

wages act 1948 the committee will be constituted by :

Ans. a) The central government

b) The state government

c) The appropriate government

d) The I.L.O.

Q206. The number of employers and workers representatives in a committee constituted under

the minimum wages act, 1948 shall be:

Ans. a) not less than 5 and not more than 10.

b) not less than 10 and not more than 20.

c) equal in numbers


Q207. A minimum wage fixed by an appropriate government under the minimum wages act,

1948 must be revised at least once in :

Ans. a) every two years b) every three years

c) Every five years d) every six years

Q208. If due to some reasons the appropriate government has not been able to revise minimum

rates of wages within a period of five years then in that conditions:

Ans. a) the employer shall continue to pay the old minimum rate of wages fixed under the

act.

b) the employer may pay less than the minimum rates of wages fixed under the act.

c) minimum wages will cease to apply after the expiry of the aforesaid time period.


Q209. A worker who is being paid less than the minimum rates of wages, must present his

application of claim within:

Ans. a) 3 months for the date on which the minimum wages became payable.

b) 6 months for the date on which the minimum wages became payable.

c) one year for the date on which the minimum wages became payable.

d) two years for the date on which the minimum wages became payable.

Q210. Minimum wages can be fixed by the appropriate government under the minimum wages

act, 1948:

Ans. a) only for scheduled employments.

b) only for non-scheduled employments.



Payment of Bonus Act, 1965

Q211. The Payment of Bonus Act was enacted in:

Ans. a) 1960

b) 1964

c) 1969

d) 1965

Q212. The concept of bonus under the payment of bonus act is :

Ans. a) profit sharing

b) deferred wages

c) reward for good work

d) social security payment

Q213. The minimum amount of bonus fixed under the payment of bonus act, 1965 is :

Ans. a) 5.5 percent

b) 7.33 percent

c) 8.33 percent

d) 10 percent

Q214. The maximum bonus fixed under the payment of bonus act, 1956 is:

Ans. a) 15 percent

b) 20 percent

c) 25 percent

d) 30 percent

Q215. The payment of bonus act, 1965 applies to:

Ans. a) every factory and every other establishment in which twenty or more persons

were employed on any day during an accounting year.

b) agriculture

c) shops and establishments

d) hospitals and dispensaries.

Q216. The payment of bonus act 1965 applies to every industrial establishment in which :

Ans. a) 10 or more persons are employed

b) 20 or more persons are employed

c) 35 or more persons are employed

d) 100 or more persons are employed

Q217. According to the payment of bonus act, 1965, bonus is calculated on the basis of wages

earned by a worker.

Ans. a) atleast one year

b) atleast two years

c) atleast thirty working days in that year


Q218. An employee shall be disqualified for receiving bonus under the payment of bonus act

1965 if :

Ans. a) he is a member of a trade union

b) he has not completed one year of continuous service

c) he is not an efficient worker

d) he has been dismissed from service for fraud or violent behavior.

Q219. In which of the following situations an employee will be deprived from the right of

receiving bonus from his employer, if he is dismissed from service for;

Ans. a) fraud

b) riotous or violent behavior

c) theft, misappropriation or sabotage of any property of the establishment.

d) in all the above situations.

Q220. Where the salary or wage of an employee, who is covered under this act, exceeds

Rs.3500 per month, which of the following will be applicable:

Ans. a) he will not be paid bonus.

b) he will be paid bonus on the basis of his actual wage or salary

c) he will be paid bonus but the bonus shall be calculated as if his salary or wage

were Rs.3500 per month.


Q221. An employee will not be covered under the payment of bonus act 1965, if his salary or

wage per month exceeds:

Ans. a) Rs. 2400

b) Rs. 3000

c) Rs. 3500

d) Rs. 5000

Q222. Wages or salary under the payment of bonus act, 1965 will include only:

Ans. a) basic wages and dearness allowances.

b) house rent allowance

c) attendance bonus

d) medical allowance.

Q223. While calculating 8.33% as minimum bonus for those who have completed more than

fifteen years of age under the payment of bonus act, the amount should not be less than:

Ans. a) Rs. 60

b) Rs. 100

c) Rs. 500

d) Rs. 1000

Factories Act, 1948

Q224. Under the factories act, 1948 the daily hours of work for children cannot be more than:

Ans. a) 8 hours

b) 6 hours

c) 4 ½ hours

d) 5 ½ hours

Q225. The factories act, 1948 requires the appointment of a welfare officer in every factory

employing:

Ans. a) 500 or more workmen b) 400 or more workmen

c) 300 or more workmen d) 250 or more workmen

Q226. Under the factories act, 1948 no person can be employed in a factory unless he/she has

completed:

Ans. a) 14 year of age

b) 15 years of age

c) 18 years of age

d) 21 years of age

Q227. As per the factories act, 1948 one additional first aid box must be provided for every :

Ans. a) 100 workers

b) 150 workers

c) 500 workers

d) 1000 workers

Q228. Factories Act, 1948 is an example of :

Ans. a) industrial relations legislation

b) welfare legislation

c) working conditions legislation

d) wage legislation

Q229. What should be the strength of labour force in a factory for shelters, rest room and lunch

room under the factories act, 1948?

Ans. a) 250 b) 500

c) 100 d) 150

Q230. According to the factories act 1948 the minimum number of persons employed in a

factory working without power must not be less than:

Ans. a) 10 b) 20

c) 25 d) 50

Q231. According to the factories act, 1948 the employer must provide a canteen where atleast :

Ans. a) 100 workers are employed

b) 150 workers are employed

c) 250 workers are employed

d) 500 workers are employed

Q232. The maximum period of spread-over for children under the factories act, 1948 :

Ans. a) 4.5 hours

b) 5 hours

c) 6 hours

d) 8 hours

Q233. The factories act, 1948 does not make provision for workers regarding their :

Ans. a) insurance

b) health

c) safety

d) welfare

Q234. In which chapter of the factories act, 1948 the provision for drinking water is provided :

Ans. a) the chapter dealing with “Health”.

b) the chapter dealing with “Safety”

c) the chapter dealing with “welfare”

d) the chapter dealing with “Employment of young persons”

Q235. Under no circumstances an employer shall employ a child in factory during :

Ans. a) 8 P.M. to 7 A.M.

b) 9 P.M. to 8 A.M.

c) 10 P.M. to 5 A.M.

d) 10 P.M. to 6 A.M.

Q236. Spreadover means:

Ans. a) distribution of work among workers in a factory

b) arrangements of shifts per day

c) total hours of work inclusive of rest interval for worker per day.

d) The period spent by the worker in the organisation as well as outside the organisation.

Q237. Under the factories act, 1948 an ambulance room is to be provided in every factory

employing

Ans. a) 500 or more workers

b) 250 or more workers

c) 200 or more workers

d) 150 or more workers

Q238. The welfare officer appointed under the factories act, 1948 are paid their salaries by:

Ans. a) the respective employers

b) the state government

c) the central government

d) An autonomous corporation

Q239. Under the factories act, 1948 a child is prohibited from employment if he is below:

Ans. a) 18 years b) 16 years

c) 14 years d) 12 years

Q240. Which of the following is not a welfare amenity under the factories act, 1948:

Ans. a) First aid b) Shelter and rest rooms

c) washing facilities d) Co-operative society

Q241. Which of the following is not a factory:

Ans. a) a steel mill b) a shoe factory

c) a cotton mill d) a restaurant

Q242. No adult worker will be required to work in a factory for more than:

Ans. a) 10 hours a day and 48 hours a week

b) 8 hours a day and 48 hours a week

c) 9 hours a day and 48 hours a week


Q243. The spreadover for an adult worker in a normal situation in a factory should no be more

than :

Ans. a) 12 hours a day b) 10 ½ hours a day

c) 9 hours a day d) none of the above

Q244. With the permission of the chief inspector of factories the period of spread over in an

exceptional situation may be extended upto:

Ans. a) 15 hours a day b) 14 hours a day

c) 12 hours a day d) 10 hours a day

Q245. The total number of overtime hours shall not exceed:

Ans. a) 20 hours in any quarter b) 30 hours in any quarter

c) 40 hours in any quarter d) 50 hours in any quarter

Q246. An employer will have to provide a crèche in a factory if :

Ans. a) 30 married women are employed

b) 20 eligible children of working mothers are there

c) 30 women workers are ordinarily employed

d) 50 women employees are employed.

Q247. In a factory where, in the opinion of the state government, a risky or dangerous operation

is carried on, the employer may be required to appoint a safety officer if the number of workers

therein is atleast :

Ans. a) 2500 b) 1500

c) 1000 d) 500

Q248. In the factories act, 1948 the provision of constituting a canteen committee in a factory

has been prescribed under the chapter of :

Ans. a) health b) welfare

c) hours of work d) safety

Q249. After which of the following incidents in India, a separate chapter relating to the

hazardour processes” was incorporated in 1987 under the factories act, 1948 :

Ans. a) Railway Accident of Bombay

b) Jharia Coal Mine Accident

c) Bhopal Gas Incident

d) All the above

Q250. According to the factories act, 1948 which of the following does not make part of the

definition of a factory :

Ans. a) any premises.

b) where a manufacturing process is carried on

c) where ten persons with power or twenty persons without power are working.

d) where productivity is very high.

Q251. An adult is one who has completed his :

Ans. a) 21 years of age

b) 20 years of age

c) 18 years of age

d) 16 years of age

Q252. A young person as defined under the factories act, 1948 is one :

Ans. a) who has not completed his 21 years of age

b) who is either a child or an adolescent

c) who has not completed his 15th

year of age


Q253. A factory in existence before the commencement of the factories act, 1948 must provide

to every worker employed therein atleast:

Ans. a) 9.9 cubic meters of space

b) 15 cubic meters of space

c) 4.2 cubic meters of space

d) 14.2 cubic meters of space

Q254. Provision of cool drinking water will be made in those factories wherein atleast :

Ans. a) 500 workers are employed

b) 400 workers are employed

c) 250 workers are employed

d) 150 workers are employed

Q255. No latrine or urinal in a factory should be situated near a place of drinking water within a

radius of :

Ans. a) 10 meters b) 8 meters

c) 6 meters d) 20 meters

Q256. Under the factories act, 1948 a worker in a public utility service will have to make an

advance application for going on leave with wages which will be :

Ans. a) two months advance notice

b) 15 days advance notice

c) one month advance notice

d) 30 days advance notice.

Q257. Leave with wages can not be accumulated by an adult worker in a factory for :

Ans. a) more than ten days b) more than thirty days

c) more than forty days d) more than fifteen days

Q258. In case of children as per the factories act, 1948 leave with wages can be accumulated

upto:

Ans. a) 20 days b) 30 days

c) 40 days d) 50 days

Q259. To be entitled to “Leave with Wages under the factories act, 1948 the worker should

have worked in the previous full calendar year atleast for :



Q260. The factories act, 1948 applies :

Ans. a) only to seasonal factories

b) only to perennial factories

c) both to seasonal and perennial factories


Q261. Who among the following has been given vital powers with regard to inspection under

the factories act, 1948 ?

Ans. a) The labour commissioner

b) The registrar of trade unions

c) The chief inspector of factories

d) Labour superintendent

Q262. The expenses incurred on obtaining a “Certificate of fitness” by a non-adult worker are

to be paid.

Ans. a) by the worker himself

b) by the employer

c) by the employer but recovered from worker’s wages.

d) by the appropriate government

Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923

Q263. The workmen’s compensation act, 1923 came into force from:

Ans. a) 5th

April 1923

b) 1st July 1923

c) 5th

April 1924

d) 1st July 1924

Q264. Which of the following risks of life is covered by the workmen’s compensation act,

1923?

Ans. a) Rs.2400 per month

b) Rs.5000 per month

c) Rs.6500 per month

d) There is no wage limit.

Q265. Who among the following is exclusively concerned with the workmen compensation act,

1923 ?

Ans. a) Labour secretary

b) Labour commissioner

c) Workmen’s compensation commissioner

d) Registrar of Trade Unions

Q266. The impact of accidents under the workmen’s compensation act must remain atleast for:

Ans. a) two days b) three days

c) one week d) three months

Q267. Which of the following risks of life is covered by the workmen’s compensation act,

1923?

Ans. a) Sickness and Disablement

b) Maternity and Death

c) Disablement, Death and Occupational Diseases

d) Unemployment and Old-age

Q268. A worker gets permanently totally disabled by an accident which was caused while he

was on duty under the influence of alcohol :

Ans. a) he will be paid compensation under the act.

b) he will not be paid compensation under the act.

c) the act is silent

d) consumption of alcohol deprives him from compensation

Q269. A worker gets permanent partial disablement due to willful disregard of safety rules :

Ans. a) he will not be entitled to compensation

b) he will be entitled to compensation

c) he will be entitled to reduced compensation

d) the act is silent.

Q270. Which of the following is included under the workmens compensation act, 1923?

Ans. a) verneral diseases b) contagious diseases

c) occupational diseases d) infectious diseases

Q271. While calculating compensation for permanent total disablement or partial disablement

how much percentage of his wages is multiplied by the relevant factor?

Ans. a) 50 percent b) 60 percent

c) 75 percent d) 100 percent

Q272. The minimum amount of compensation in case of permanent total disablement has been

fixed as:

Ans. a) Rs.24,000 b) Rs.40,000

c) Rs.60,000 d) Rs.90,000

Q273. A person who gets temporary disablement due to accident arising out of and during the

course of employment will be paid :

Ans. a) 25% of his wages per month during the period of disability

b) 50% of his wages per month during the period of disability

c) 75% of his wages per month during the period of disability

d) 100% of his wages per month during the period of disability

Q274. Temporary disablement benefit will be paid to an injured workman under the workmen’s

compensation act, 1923 for a maximum period of

Ans. a) three months b) six months

c) one year d) five years

Q275. In case of death caused due to employment injury, how much percentage of a worker’s

wages is multiplied by the relevant factor?

Ans. a) 25 percent b) 50 percent

c) 60 percent d) 150 percent

Q276. What is the minimum amount of compensation fixed under the workmen’s compensation

act, 1923 to be payable to a workman in case of death ?

Ans. a) Rs.10,000 b) Rs.25,000

c) Rs.80,000 d) Rs.100,000

Q277. For calculating the amount of compensation under the workmen’s compensation act,

1923, the maximum monthly wages of a worker shall be deemed to be :

Ans. a) Rs.2000 b) Rs.4000

c) Rs.2500 d) There is no maximum limit prescribed under the

act.

Q278. Compensation due under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 must be paid within :

Ans. a) 15 days from the date it fell due

b) 7 days from the date it fell due

c) one month form the date it fell due

d) three month form the date it fell due

Q279. The workmen’s compensation commissioner is appointed by:

Ans. a) Central govt. only

b) State govt. only

c) The appropriate governments


Q280. Where the workmen’s compensation commissioner is of opinion that there was no

justification for the delay in payment of compensation, he may direct the employer to pay, in

addition to the amount of arrears and interests thereon, a further sum as penalty;

Ans. a) not exceeding 25% of such amount

b) not exceeding 50% of such amount

c) not exceeding 75% of such amount


Q281. The notice of claim for compensation must be served by the workman or his dependent

within:

Ans. a) 6 months from the date of the occurrence of the accident

b) one year from the date of the occurrence of the accident

c) two year from the date of the occurrence of the accident

d) there is no time limit

Q282. An employer in whose premises an accident occurs which results in death or serious

bodily injury will be required to give a notice or send a report to the commissioner within :

Ans. a) 7 days of the occurrence

b) 15 days of the occurrence

c) one month of the occurrence

d) he is not required to send any report to the commissioner.

Q283. In which of the following situations the worker will be deprived from compensation

under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 ?

Ans. a) if the worker is a habitual late comer to the factory

b) if he is an alcoholist

c) if he has refused to submit himself for medical examination within three days of

accident.

d) if the worker was a patient of heart disease.

Q284. In case of death of a workman due to employment injury, the employer is required to

deposit the amount of compensation with the workmen’s compensation commissioner but he can

make an advance to the dependants which shall not be more than:

Ans. a) one months wages of the workman

b) two months wages of the workman

c) three months wages of the workman

d) he can advance the entire amount of compensation

Q285. An appeal against the decision of the workmen’s compensation commissioner can be

filed:

Ans. a) in any district court

b) only in high court

c) in a labour court


Q286. The workmen’s compensation act, 1923 will not be applicable if:

Ans a) Minimum wages act, 1948 is applicable

b) Payment of gratuity act, 1972 is applicable

c) Maternity benefit act 1961 is applicable

d) Employee’s state insurance act, 1948 is applicable

Q287. The workmen’s compensation act, 1923 applies only to those workers who work in:

Ans. a) perennial factories

b) seasonal factories

c) Occupations included in the schedule-II of the act.

d) All the above

Q288. Under the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 the amount of funeral expenses should not

be more than :

Ans. a) Rs.500

b) Rs.1000

c) Rs.1500

d) Rs.2500

Employers provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952

Q289. The present name of the employees provident funds act, 1952 is ;

Ans. a) Employees provident funds act, 1952

b) Employees provident funds and family pension funds act, 1952

c) Employees provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952

d) Provident funds act, 1952.

Q290. The employee’s provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 applies to every

establishment which is a factory engaged in any industry in which;

Ans. a) ten or more persons are employed

b) Twenty or more persons are employed

c) Fifty or more persons are employed

d) Hundred or more persons are employed

Q291. The employers contributions under the employees provident fund and miscellaneous

provisions act, 1952 shall be:

Ans. a) 8% b) 8.33%

c) 12% d) 10%

Q292. The workers contributions under the employees provident funds and miscellaneous

provisions act, 1952 will be :

Ans. a) lower than the employers’ contribution

b) Higher than the employers contribution

c) Equal to the employers contribution

d) None of the above

Q293. If a worker desires to contribute more than 10% in his provident fund:

Ans. a) he cannot be allowed to do so.

b) he can be allowed to do so.

c) the act is silent in this regard


Q294. The 10% contribution under the employees provident funds and miscellaneous

provisions act, 1952 will be of :

Ans. a) basic wages only

b) basic wages and dearness allowance only

c) Basic wages, dearness allowance and retaining allowance if any

d) basic wages, dearness allowance, house rent allowance city compensatory allowances

etc.

Q295. If a worker desires to contribute more than 10% under the employees provident funds

and miscellaneous provisions act 1952, then

Ans. a) his employer shall be also under obligation to pay equal to the workers contribution.

b) his employer shall not be under an obligation to pay any contribution over an above his

contribution

c) the act is silent in this regard


Q296. Which of the following schemes is not covered under the employees provident funds and

miscellaneous provisions act, 1952 :

Ans. a) Contributory provident fund scheme

b) Employees family pension scheme

c) Public provident fund scheme

d) Employees deposit – linked insurance scheme.

Maternity Benefit Act, 1961

Q297. The first central legislation relating to maternity benefit was enacted in:

Ans. a) 1881 b) 1941

c) 1948 d) 1961

Q298. The maternity benefit act, 1961 applies to :

Ans. a) Factories, Mines, Plantation

b) Shops, Establishments

c) An establishment where persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian or

acrobatics.

d) All the above.

Q299. To which of the following the maternity benefit act, 1961 does not apply

Ans. a) Factories, Mines, Plantation

b) Industrial establishments wherein persons are employed for the exhibition of

equestrian, acrobatic and other performance.

c) Shops and establishments employing ten or more persons.

d) Industrial establishments where E.S.I. Act, 1948 is in operation.

Q300. No women shall be entitled to maternity benefit unless she has actually worked in that

establishment for a period of not less than :



Q301. A woman employee under the maternity benefit act, 1961 is entitled to maternity leave

of :

Ans. a) ten weeks pre-natal and ten weeks post-natal.

b) 8 weeks pre-natal and 8 weeks post-natal.

c) 6 weeks pre-natal and 6 weeks post-natal

d) 3 weeks pre-natal and 3 weeks post-natal

Q302. During the period of maternity leave a woman will be paid at the of :

Ans. a) half of her average daily wages

b) average daily wages

c) less than Rs. 10 per day


Q303. The total period of maternity leave admissible to a woman employee under the maternity

benefit act, 1961 is:

Ans. a) 16 weeks b) 18 weeks

c) 20 weeks d) 12 weeks

Q304. A woman delivers a child and dies soon after delivery, leaving the child alive. Under the

maternity benefit act 1961, she will be entitled to :

Ans. a) no maternity benefit at all

b) only six weeks maternity benefit upto the date of her death

c) All twelve weeks of maternity benefit


Q305. A woman employee has been granted twelve weeks maternity leave but she desires to

work in the first six weeks of her maternity leave. Which one of the following is permissible

under the act?

Ans. a) she cannot be employed by her employer in the first six weeks

b) she can be allowed to work in the first six weeks

c) she can be allowed to work if she gives in writing her willingness

d) the employer cannot employ her in any case.

Q306. The maternity benefit act, 1961 provides that a woman will be granted, besides maternity

leave a medical bonus which shall be :

Ans. a) Rs. 150 b) Rs. 250

c) Rs. 500 d) Rs. 1000

Q307. An employer may refuse to pay medical bonus to a woman worker who is under

maternity benefit if :

Ans. a) the woman has already availed maternity benefit earlier

b) if she has more than three children

c) if the employer provides pre-natal and post-natal care free of charge

d) if the woman employee in her family has a medical practitioner as her relative.

Q308. In case of miscarriage a woman employee under the maternity benefit act, 1961 is

entitled to :

Ans a) 12 weeks maternity leave

b) 6 weeks maternity leave

c) no maternity leave at all


Q309. A woman suffering from illness arising out of pregnancy, delivery, pre-matured birth of

child or mis-carriage shall be allowed to an extended maternity benefit of :

Ans. a) 15 days b) one month

c) three month d) six months

Q310. A woman who returns to duty after delivering a child shall, in addition to interval for rest

allowed to her, be allowed in the course of her daily work:

Ans. a) one additional break of prescribed duration

b) two additional breaks of prescribed duration

c) three addition breaks of prescribed duration

d) four addition breaks of prescribed duration

Q311. The facility of additional breaks to the woman employee will continue to be provided

until her child attains the age of :

Ans. a) one year b) three years

c) five years d) 15 months

Q312. Can an employer terminate the services of a women who has gone under maternity leave

under the maternity benefit act, 1961?

Ans. a) the employer can terminate her services.

b) the employer cannot discharge or dismiss her during the period a normal

manner.

c) the act is completely silent on this account


Q313. According to the maternity benefit act, 1961 where a woman employee is guilty of any

gross misconduct :

Ans. a) the employer cannot dismiss or discharge her during the period of maternity leave.

b) the employer may dismiss or discharge her

c) the employer may dismiss or discharge her and even deprive her of the maternity

benefit or medical bonus or both


Q314. The right of a woman employee to receive maternity benefit will be forfeited if ;

Ans. a) she has availed this benefit for more than three times.

b) she is not of a good behaviour in the organisation

c) the women has started working in another establishment during the period of her

maternity leave


Q315. Under which of the following schemes woman employee gets benefit without

contribution:

Ans. a) employees provident funds and miscellaneous provisions act, 1952

b) employees state insurance act, 1948

c) Maternity benefit act, 1961


Q316. The payable amount to the woman employee during maternity leave shall not be less

than :

Ans. a) Rs. 10 per day

b) the fixed minimum rate of wages by the govt.

c) daily average rate of wages

d) whichever is higher in above.

Q317. Gratuity has been defined under the payment of gratuity act as:

Ans. a) social security benefit

b) retrenchment benefit

c) Unemployment benefit

d) it has not been defined at all

Q318. Gratuity under the payment of gratuity act is paid to employees as:

Ans. a) retrenchment benefit

b) separation benefit

c) retrial benefit


Q319. In which of the following the payment of gratuity act, 1972 is not applicable?

Ans. a) factory, mine

b) plantation, port, railway company

c) shops and establishments

d) agriculture

Q320. A shop has employed eight persons during the last three years will its employees

according to the payment of gratuity act 1972:

Ans. a) be entitled to gratuity

b) not entitled to gratuity

c) the act will not apply there


Q321. There are ten persons employed in a shop and the payment of gratuity act, 1972 becomes

applicable there. After the application of the act, three employees have left the shop. In such a

situation which of the following will be applicable?

Ans. a) this act will continue to be applicable there.

b) as soon as the number of employees go below ten, the act will cease to apply.

c) the act is silent about this type of situation.


Q322. Gratuity shall be payable to an employee on the termination of his employment if he has

rendered continuous service of not less than :

Ans. a) one year

b) two years

c) three years

d) five years

Q323. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972, continuous service of five years shall not

be necessary if the termination of employment of an employee is due to :

Ans. a) death or disablement

b) old-age

c) contagious disease

d) misconduct

Q324. The payment of gratuity act, 1972 says that gratuity in a perennial establishment will be

paid at the rate of :

Ans. a) one months wages for every completed year of service

b) ten days wages for every completed year of service

c) fifteen days wages for every completed year of service

d) three months wages for every completed year of service.

Q325. The minimum amount of gratuity prescribed under the payment of gratuity act, 1972 is :

Ans. a) Rs. 10000 b) Rs. 25000

c) Rs. 50000 d) No minimum amount of gratuity has been fixed under the

act.

Q326. The maximum amount of gratuity fixed under the payment of gratuity act, 1972 is :

Ans. a) Rs. 1 Lakh b) Likely to be increases to 3.5 lakh

c) Rs. 5 Lakh d) None of the above.

Q327. Which of the following is true in the context of the payment of gratuity act, 1972 ?

Ans. a) the employer cannot reduce or withhold the gratuity of an employee

b) the employer can withhold or reduce the gratuity of an employee in case his

services have been terminated for riotous conduct or an act of violence.

c) the employer can refuse to pay gratuity if the undertaking is running in loss.

d) the employer can refuse to pay gratuity if the worker is member of a trade union.

Q328. In seasonal factories gratuity will be paid at the rate of :

Ans. a) 15 days wages for each season

b) 7 days wages for each season

c) 10 days wages for each season

d) one month wages for each season

Q329. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972 an employee shall not be entitled to

receive gratuity on the termination of his employment in case of :

Ans. a) retirement b) resignation

c) retrenchment d) superannuation

Q330. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972 an employee who has no family can

declare as his nominee after completion of one year of service:

Ans. a) his boss b) his friend

c) his immediate neighbour d) any person

Q331. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972, who among the following can be

declared as nominee by an employee after completion of one year of service:

Ans. a) wife or wives b) son or sons

c) daughter or daughters d) all the above

Q332. The gratuity which becomes payable under the payment of gratuity act, 1972 must be

paid within:

Ans. a) 10 days from the date it becomes payable

b) 15 days from the date it becomes payable

c) 30 days from the date it becomes payable

d) 3 months from the date it becomes payable

Q333. A person has completed ten years and five months of service in an oraganisation. At the

rate of 15 days wages for every completed year of service which of the following will be payable

to the employee as gratuity:



Q334. A person has worked for ten years and seven months in a perennial organisation covered

under the payment of gratuity act, 1972. Which of the following will be paid to him as gratuity

on the termination of his services?


c) 159 days d) none of the above

Q335. An employee has worked in an organisation for only three years and dies as a result of an

accident. He does not fulfill five years of minimum service as eligibility condition for getting

gratuity. Which one of the following will apply in his case?

Ans. a) he will not be paid gratuity under this act.

b) he will be paid gratuity

c) the act is completely silent with regard to this type of situation


Q336. An employee has been retrenched from an organisation where he has completed ten

years of continuous service. Will that employee be entitled to receive gratuity under the payment

of gratuity act, 1972?

Ans. a) he will be entitled

b) he will no be entitled

c) there is no provision in this act for such type of situation


Q337. An employee has tendered resignation after serving an organisation for ten years. Will

that employee be entitled for gratuity under the payment of gratuity act 1972?

Ans. a) yes he will be entitled

b) he will not be entitled

c) there is no provision under this act


Q338. A worker has put in two years of service in an organisation in which he meets a serious

accident and becomes totally disabled. Since he has not completed five years of service as an

eligibility condition which one of the following will apply:

Ans. a) he will be entitled to receive gratuity

b) he will not be eligible to receive gratuity

c) there is no provision under the act for such type of situation


Q339. The payment of gratuity act, 1972 applies to every shop in which the number of persons

employed is:

Ans. a) not less than 100

b) ten or more

c) atleast twenty

d) more than twenty

Trade Union Act, 1926

Q340. A trade union’s certificate of registration is liable to be cancelled if it:

Ans. a) commits an unfair labour practice.

b) violates the provisions of the code of discipline

c) fails to submit annual returns

d) certificate is obtained by fraud means.

Q341. According to the trade unions act, 1926 the minimum number of persons who can get a

trade union registered is :

Ans. a) 10 b) 15

c) 20 d) 7 <= 10% <= 100

Q342. Under the trade unions act, 1926 what is the minimum age required for a person to

become an office bearer of a registered trade union?

Ans. a) 15 years b) 21 years


Q343. In which year the trade unions act in India was enacted?

Ans. a) 1923 b) 1924

c) 1926 d) 1936

Q344. Under the trade unions act.,1926 what is the minimum age required for a person to

become a member of a registered trade union.

Ans. a) 14years b) 21 years


Q345. The general funds of a trade union may not be spent on:

Ans. a) payment of salaries and allowances of office-bearers

b) the conduct of trade disputes on behalf of the trade union

c) compensation to members for loss arising out of trade disputes

d) the maintenance of any person who is a member of any legislative body.

Q346. Under the trade unions act, 1926 the prescribed membership fee is :

Ans. a) 0.25 paise or more b) 0.50 paise or more

c) Rs. 1 or more d) Rs. 5 or more

Q347. Every appropriate government shall appoint an officer who will look after the

registration of trade unions under the trade union act, 1926 and who will be known as :

Ans. a) commissioner of labour

b) Workmen’s compensation commissioner

c) Registrar of trade union

d) special officer

Q348. An application for registration by a trade union shall become invalid if :

Ans. a) 25% of the total number of persons who made the application have ceased to be

members of the trade union.

b) exceeding 50% of the total number of persons who made the application have

ceased to be members of the trade union

c) 75% and above of the total number of persons who made the application have ceased

to be members of the trade union


Q349. Outsiders can be associated with a registered union as its office bearers but their

proportion should not be more than :

Ans. a) 25% b) 33 %

c) 75% d) none of the above

Q350. A person shall be disqualified to become a member of the executive or any other office

bearer of a registered trade union if :

Ans. a) he is not educated

b) he is not an independent person

c) he is not associated with the trade union for the last ten years

d) he has been convicted by a court in India of any offence involving moral

turpitude.

Q351. A registered trade union may change its name with the consent of :

Ans. a) one third of the total number of its member

b) two third of the total number of its member

c) one-half of the total number of its member


Q352. Any two or more registered trade unions may become amalgamated as one union if :

Ans. a) one fourth of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded and atleast 25%

of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal.

b) one half of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded and atleast 50% of

the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal

c) one half of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded and atleast

60% of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal


Q353. Every registered trade union shall send to the registrar every year :

Ans. a) a quaterly return b) half yearly return

c) annual return d) none of the above

Q354. A certificate of registration of a trade union may be withdrawn or canelled by the

registrar:

Ans. a) if the certificate has been obtained by fraud means.

b) the trade union has ceased to exist

c) the union has willfully contravened any provision of the act

d) all the above.

Q355. In order to cancel the certificate of registration the registrar must give a written notice

specifying the ground on which the certificate is being cancelled and it will be :

Ans. a) two months previous notice in writing.

b) three months previous notice in writing

c) six months previous notice in writing

d) no notice is required.

Industrial employment (standing orders) act, 1946

Q356. The main objective of the industrial employment (standing orders) act,1946 is to

promote rules to govern the:

Ans. a) wages in the undertaking

b) conduct of the employer

c) conduct of the trade unions

d) define conditions of employment

Q357. The industrial employment act, 1946 applies to every industrial establishment wherein

the number of employed workmen is atleast:

Ans. a) 50 b) 100

c) 150 d) 250

Q358. The employers of all the industrial establishments where the industrial employment, act

1946 become applicable will be required to submit draft standing orders to the certifying officer

within :

Ans. a) three months

b) six months

c) one year

d) three years

Q359. the employer will submit to the certifying officer

Ans. a) three copies of the draft standing orders

b) five copies of the draft standing orders

c) six copies of the draft standing orders


Q360. on receipt of the draft standing orders the certifying officer shall forward a copy thereof

to the :

Ans. a) central government b) I.L.O

c) trade union in the organization d) Indian labour conference

Q361. the trade union or the workmen as the case may be will be required to return the draft

standing orders with their objections or suggestions to the certifying officer within:

Ans. a) one week from the receipt of the notice

b) fifteen days from the receipt of the notice

c) one month from the receipt of the notice

d) three months from the receipt of the notice

Q362. after receiving suggestions or objections from the trade union or the workmen, the

certifying officer shall there upon certify the draft standing orders after making any

modifications therein and shall send copies of the certified standing orders to the employer and

the trade union within:

Ans. a) three days b) seven days

c) fifteen days d) one month

Q363. The certified standing orders shall unless an appeal is preferred come into operation on

the expiry of :

Ans. a) fifteen days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are sent.

b) thirty days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are sent.

c) forty five days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are sent.

d) three months from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are sent.

Q364. The text of the standing orders as finally certified under the industrial employment act,

1946 shall be prominently posted by the employer at or near the entrance in :

Ans. a) Hindi and regional languages

b) French and German languages

c) English and the language understood by the majority of his workmen

d) Urdu and Punjabi language

Q365. The standing orders finally certified under the industrial employment act, 1946 shall not

be liable to modification until the expiry of:

Ans. a) three months b) six months

c) nine months d) one year

Q366. The subsistence allowance paid to workmen during the period of suspension, pending

investigation shall be at the rate of :

Ans. a) 50% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension.

b) 25% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension

c) 75% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension

d) 100% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension

Q367. Any employer workman, trade union who is aggrieved by the order of the certifying

officer may appeal to the appellate authority :

Ans. a) within thirty days from the date on which the copies are sent.

b) within forty five days from the date on which the copies are sent

c) within fifteen days from the date on which the copies are sent

d) within six month from the date on which the copies are sent

Wages

Q368. The purchasing power of money wage is called:

Ans. a) fair wage b) real wage

c) living wages d) minimum wages

Q369. Dearness allowance is paid to employees:

Ans. a) as a reward for working under unsafe conditions

b) as an extra payment for overtime

c) to neutralize the impact of rising prices


Q370. Which of the following factors does not influence wages and salary administration/

Ans. a) government regulation

b) economic prosperity

c) submission of income tax returns

d) clash of interests

Q371. Real wage is

Ans. a) the living wage b) the fair wage

c) the purchasing power of the wage d) the minimum wage

Q372. Which one of the following acts deals with the fixation of wages of employees in the

unorganized sector?

Ans. a) equal remuneration act b) minimum wages

act

c) industrial disputes act d) payment of wages act

Q373. The concept of need based minimum wage was suggested by:

Ans. a) Indian labour conference b) fair wages

committee

c) Labour investigation committee d) royal commission on labour

Q374. In perfect competition, wages will be determined in the labour market:

Ans. a) by the government b) according to the desire of working class

c) according to demand and supply d) none of the above

Q375. The wage which represents a standard of living which provides no merely for a bare

physical subsistence but for the maintenance of health and decency, a measure of frugal comfort

and some insurance against the more important misfortunes is called:

Ans. a) fair wage b) need based minimum wages

c) minimum wages d) living wage

Q376. The concepts of minimum wage, fair wage and living wages were used by?

Ans. a) Indian labour conference b) standing labour committee

c) committee on fair wage d) wage board

Q377. Which of the following theories is known as iron law theory of wages ?

Ans. a) subsistence theory b) wage fund theory

c) marginal productivity theory d) collective bargaining theory

Q378. Which theory of wages assumes that there is an upper limit above which employers will

not raise wages and there is a lower limit below which workers will not accept wages?

Ans. a) Marginal productivity theory b) wage fund theory

c) residual claimant theory d) collective bargaining theory

Q379. The first wage board in India was constituted in the year :

Ans. a) 1955 b) 1956

c) 1957 d) 1958

Q380. For which of the following industries in India the first wage board was constituted?

Ans. a) steel industry b) ports and docks

c) cotton textiles d) engineering

Documents

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON LABOUR LAWS on Labour...MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON LABOUR LAWS Industrial Relations. Q1. Industrial Relation refer to : Ans. a) Central Government and