PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS - Fiitjee Allahabad paper class 10.pdf · OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers. C. Marking Scheme For All

FIITJEE Ltd, B – 4, Sec – 16, Noida (U.P), 201301, Ph : 0120 - 3105005, 4754800, Fax : 0120 - 4271214

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

(SET – A) Time Allotted: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 240

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions 1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.

2. This question paper contains Three Parts.

3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.

4. Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C

5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on

OMR sheet. 2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment

No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places. 3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts. (i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each

question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.

(iii) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

BA

TC

HE

S –

13

16

(B

Lo

t)

FIITJEE

CPT - 1

CODE:XXXX.0

PAPER - 1


CPT-1-Ascent-X(B Lot)PCM-IITJEE Stage-I-2

Section – I (PHYSICS) PART – A

Single Correct Choice Type

1. Electric currents with certain values are flowing in various branches of the following circuit: The value of current „I‟ in the circuit is

(A) 1.9 A (B) 0.2 A (C) 0 (D) 2.1 A

2.1A

1.9A

2.1A

1.9A

I

2. The mass of three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio 5 : 3 :

1. The ratio of their electrical resistance is (A) 1 : 3 : 5 (B) 5 : 3 : 1 (C) 1 : 15 : 125 (D) 125 : 15 : 1 3. If the ammeter is the given circuit reads 2A, the heat produce by R resistor in 10 sec.

(A) 20 J (B) 40 J (C) 160 J (D) 80 J

4. A charge of 30 C is released at rest from a point P where electrical potential is 20 V. It reaches at

a point Q where electrical potential is – 10V. Kinetic energy of particle at point Q is

(A) 200 J (B) 600 J (C) 900 J (D) 300 J

5. Five wires are connected to 100 V source as shown in figure. Ratio of heat generated in resistor R1 and R2 in 5 sec is (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

Space for rough work

100V

12

6

3

R1 = 2

R2 = 4

R

A

12V

3

6



6. The potential difference across the terminals of an ideal battery when an current is withdrawn from it

is (A) equal to its e. m. f. (B) greater than its e. m. f. (C) smaller than its e. m. f. (D) zero 7. The potential difference across AC when a current 1

A flows through 20 resistor

(A) 48 V (B) 18 V (C) 24 V (D) 12 V

8. Current flowing through 20 resistance in the following circuit is

(A) 10 A (B) 40 A (C) Zero (D) 30 A

Multiple Correct Choice Type

9. Two light bulbs shown in the circuit have ratings A(24 V, 24 W) and B (24 V and 36 W) as shown in

Fig. When the switch is closed

(A) the intensity of light bulb A increases (B) the intensity of light bulb A decreases (C) the intensity of light bulb B increases (D) the intensity of light bulb B decreases 10. Two wires made of same material have the same length but difference radius. They are connected

in parallel to a battery. The quantity that is not the same for the wire is (A) Potential difference (B) Current (C) Resistance (D) Conductivity


12 V

12 V

A

B

(24 V, 24 W)

(24 V, 36 W)

200 V 5 10

100 V

20

20

8

8

9

18

6

A B

C



11. Which of the following expression has same unit as energy (where symbols have their usual

meaning)

(A) qV (B)

2I

R (C)

2Vt

R (D) VIt

12. Which of the following are correct for given circuit diagram?

(A) 1

24

9I A (B) 2I Zero

(C) 3

4

3I A (D) 3 2I A

PART - B

MATRIX TYPE

1. Four resistor having resistance 12 ,6 ,3 and 4 are

connected to a battery of 45 V and internal resistance 1 as shown in figure.

Now match the column

Column – I Column – II

(A) Current flowing through 3 resistance (in

A)

(P) 24

(B) Potential across 12 resistance (in volt) (Q) 4

(C) Potential across 4 resistance (in volt) (R) 36

(D) Power developed in 4 resistance (in Watt) (S) 144


12

45 V, r =1

4

6

3

I1

I2 I3

24 V

12

6

6

3

3



2. Four resistances are connected with a battery at 3V

as shown in figure.


(A) Reading of ammeter A1 is

(P) 1

4A

(B) Reading of ammeter A2 is (Q) 1

2A

(C) Reading of ammeter A3 is (R) 3

4A

(D) Reading of ammeter A4 is (S) 1A

PART – C Numerical Based

1. An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 800 W. If mains voltage is 200V then what will be 1

10th

of resistance of the iron?

2. Three resistors each of resistance 3 are first connected in series and then in parallel. What is the

ratio of total resistance of the circuit in series combination to the total resistance in parallel combination?

3. If the current in electric bulb increases by 200%, then power in bulb increases by 100x percent.

What will be value of x(Assume resistance remains constant)

4. A body has charge 198 10 Coulomb. n protons are transferred in the body. Now body contains

1917.6 10 .C Find out value of n.

5. If 160 J of work is required to carry a 40 C charge slowly from point A to B, then potential difference

between these point is (in volt) 6. An electric heater of 2 KW is used for 3 hour at 200 V. Determine energy consumed by it in (Killo-

Watt-Hour)


3 V 12 12 12 12

A1 A3

A2 A4



Section – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – A


1. Which of the following is used for dissolution of gold? (A) Sulphuric acid (B) Phosphoric acid (C) Aqua – regia (D) Hydrochloric acid 2. Which one of the following can be used as an acid base indicator by a blind person? (A) Litmus (B) Turmeric (C) Vanilla essence (D) Methyl orange 3. The state of a reaction, when the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward

reaction is called (A) equilibrium state (B) state of rest (C) completion of reaction (D) beginning of the reaction 4. Which one of the following equation is balanced?

(A) 7 16 2 2 211 7 8C H O CO H O (B) 2 2 3 44 5PCl H O H PO HCl

(C) 2 2 6 12 6 26 6H CO C H O O (D) 3 4 2 22 4 3 4Fe O H Fe H O

5. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of (A) strong acid and strong base (B) weak acid and weak base (C) strong acid and weak base (D) weak acid and strong base 6. Which of the following reactions will not take place?

(A) 4 4Zn FeSO ZnSO Fe (B) 2 22 2KI Cl KCl I

(C) 4 4Zn MgSO MgSO Mg (D) 4 4Mg CuSO MgSO Cu

7. In the reaction 2 2 32 2FeCl Cl FeCl , chlorine may be regarded as

(A) an oxidizing agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a catalyst (D) providing an inert medium

8. The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is called (A) a displacement reaction (B) a decomposition reaction (C) an isomerisation reaction (D) double displacement reaction


9. Which of the statements about the reaction below are correct?

3 4 2 2 28 3 4Pb O HCl PbCl Cl H O

(A) HCl has been oxidized to Cl2 (B) Pb3O4 has been reduced to PbCl2 (C) Pb3O4 has been oxidized to PbCl2 (D) HCl has been reduced to Cl2




10. Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the following

statements are true about the gas evolved? (A) It turns lime water milky (B) It extinguishes a burning splinter (C) it dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide (D) It has a pungent odour 11. When Barium chloride reacts with ammonium sulphate they form barium sulphate and ammonium

chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved? (A) Double displacement reaction (B) combination reaction (C) Precipitation reaction (D) Neutralization reaction 12. Which among the following reactions are double displacement reactions?

(A) 3 3AgNO NaCl AgCl NaNO

(B) 2 4 4 2FeS H SO FeSO H S

(C) 2 2 4 4 2BaCl Na SO BaSO NaCl

(D) 2 2 2 22 2LightH O H O O

PART - B MATRIX TYPE

1. Match the Column – I with Column - II


(A) 2 2C O CO (P) Displacement

(B) LightAgBr Ag Br (Q) Combination

(C) 4 4Zn CuSO ZnSO Cu (R) Decomposition

(D) 3 2 3 2

CuCH CH OH CH CHO H (S) Oxidation

2. Match the following


(A) Gastric Juice (P) 2.2

(B) Lemon Juice (Q) 1.2

(C) Blood (R) 10

(D) Milk of Magnesia (S) 7.4





1. Cu reacts with oxygen 2O and formsCuO . As per the balanced equation, molecules of copper

required for every one molecule of 2.O

2. If 36 gram of water is electrolysed, how many moles of H2 gas will be produced. 3. A solution turns blue litmus red. The pH of the solution is probably 4. Compute the pH of 0.01 N HCl (Hints – For HCl normality = molarity) 5. Calculate the pH of 1.0 N HCl 6. Calculate the pH of 0.001 N H2SO4 solution.




Section – III (MATHEMATICS) PART – A

Single Correct Choice Type 1. A, B, C are defined as follows

A =

2

2.000004

2.000004 4.000008 B =

2

3.000003

3.000003 9.000009

C =

2

4.000002

4.000002 8.000004

Which of the following is true about the value of the above three expression? (A) All of then lie between 0.18 and 0.2 (B) A is twice C (C) B is the smallest (D) A, B and C are not comparable. 2. If you write numbers from 3 to 3,333 how many would you have to write 3? (A) 1,300 (B) 1,267 (C) 1,363 (D) 1,336

3. If x yy xa a and a, x, y are all greater than zero, then which of the following is always true?

(A) x = y (B) x is not equal to y (C) x may or may not be = y (D) x > y

4. The last digit in 2917 is

(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 3

5. What is the first value of n for which 2 41n n is not a prime number?

(A) 41 (B) 7 (C) 18 (D) 40

6. How many zeroes are there are at the end of the product 125 16 92 15 12 75 24?

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 3

7. Given that 2 2 2 21 2 3 ... 10 385 , find the value of

2 2 2 22 4 6 ... 20 ?

(A) 1,740 (B) 1,640 (C) 1,540 (D) 1,200

8. Let 5! 1.n Then the number of primes among 1, 2,.., 50n n n is

(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) more than 2





9. Find the roots of the equation 3 2 4 4 0x x x

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) - 2 10. 24 number zeroes at the end of which of the following number (A) 100 ! (B) 103! (C) 99! (D) 105! 11. Which of the following will give remainder 1?

(A) 1002 7 (B)

1102 11 (C)

1403

11 (D)

112

12

13

12. Which of the following is correct? (A) When a quadratic polynomial is divided by linear polynomial. We always get constant

polynomial. (B) Cubic polynomial when divided by linear polynomial we will always get constant polynomial as

remainder. (C) zero is rational number.

(D) If n is even then n na b is always divisible by a b .


1. Now match the column


(A)

If 8 60,x then 1 2

2x

x

=

(P) 6

(B) If 1 2,a then

2 1 2 1a a a a

(Q) 5

(C) The remainder when 12 123 5 is divided by

13 is

(R) 2

(D) What is the remainder when 1473 is divided

by 7?

(S) 2




2. Now match the column


(A) If a, b , c, are real numbers such that

2 2 2a b c 1 then find ab bc ca

(P) 22

(B) If a, b , c, are real numbers such that

2 2 2a b c 1 then find ab bc ca

(Q) 1

2

(C) The greatest power of 6 which can divide 50! exactly

(R) 9

4

(D) If

3

2 3/2x

xx x , then the value of x (S) 1

PART – C

Numerical Based

1. 61 62 63 644 4 4 4 is divisible by a prime number of two digits. Find the sum of digit.

2. What is the remainder when 1475 is divided by 7?

3. Find all positive integers n less than 17 for which n! +(n+1) ! + (n+2) ! is an integer multiple of 49.

4. How many integers value of x satisfying the equation 2 2

1 1 1x x x = 0

5. Two positive numbers, a and b, satisfy ab = a + b , possible value of a b

abb a is x then x

6. The positive integer x is a multiple of 7, and x is between 15 and 16. What is the number of

possible values of x?




FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Applicable for class-X (B Lot)

IIIITT––JJEEEE STAGE – I

(PHASE –V) (SET – A)

ANSWERS

SECTION – I (PHYSICS)

PART – A

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. B, C 10. B, C 11. A, C, D 12. A, B, C

PART – B

1. A Q B R C P D S 2. A R B Q C P D S

PART – C 1. 5 2. 9 3. 8 4. 6 5. 4 6. 6

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)

PART – A

1. C 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. A, B 10. A, B, C 11. A, C 12. A, B, C

PART – B 1. A Q, S B R C P D S 2. A Q B P C S D R

PART – C

1. 2 2. 2 3. 6 4. 2 5. 0 6. 3

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

PART – A 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. B, C, D 10. A, B 11. B, C, D 12. A, C

PART - B 1. A Q B R C S D P 2. A S B Q C P D R

PART – C 1. 4 2. 6 3. 5 4. 0 5. 2 6. 4

Paper Code

XXXX.0



HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

PART – A

1. C Sol. Incoming current = out going current

1.9 2.1 19 2.1 I

0I

2.

Sol. l

R m d A lA

2lR

m

3. C

Sol. 1

42

I RR

2H I Rt

4. 1 2W q V V

1 2.K C q V v

5. B Sol. Voltage is same across resistor R1 and R2.

2VH t

R so

1H

R

6. A

Sol. V E Ir

for ideal battery internal resistance is zero 7. D

Sol. 1 20 4 24ABV V

24

6 126 6

ACV V V

8. C Sol.

9. B, C

Sol. .A BR R Initially potential difference across A is more. When switch is closed potential difference

across A and B are equal. 10. B, C

Sol. 1

,l

R RA A

so R will be different

,V

IR

voltage is same but I will be different

11. A, C, D

Sol. W qV ,

2VH t

R =

2VIt I Rt

12. A, B, C

10 A

10 A 40 A

40 A I



Sol. 1 3

24 24,

9 18I A I A

PART – B

1. A Q B R C P D S Sol.

2. A R B Q C P D S Sol.

PART – C 1. 5

Sol.

2

50 , 510

V RR

P

2. 9

Sol. In series R = 9

In parallel R = 1 3. 8

Sol. 2 2

1 1 2 2 2 1, , 3P I R P I R I I

2 1

1

100 800P P

P

4. 6

Sol. 19

19

17.6 8 106

1.6 10n

5. 4

Sol. 160

440

w qV V

6. 6

Sol. P VI

6P KWH

24 V

I3

I1

12 6

3 6

13 V 12 12 12 12

4/4 A

3/4 A

2/4 A

1/4 A

1/4 A

1/4 A

1/4 A

1/4 A

12

45 V, r =1

4

6

3

9 A

3 A

6A

4A

2A



CHEMISTRY

PART – A 1. The dissolution of gold in aqua regia is due to the formation of nascent (newly born) chlorine which

attacks gold.

3 23 2 2HCl HNO NOCl H O Cl

33Au Cl AuCl

2. A blind person cannot see the change in colors. Therefore, through smell of vanilla he can detect the

medium whether acidic or basic. 3. The rate of change of concentration of any reactant or product involved in the reaction is called the

rate of reaction. The state of a reaction in which there is not further change in the concentration of reactants and products is called equilibrium state.

4. To balance the equation we calculate the number of respective atoms both sides (i.e. reactant and

product). On that merit we can say that equation „A‟ is balanced and others are unbalanced. 5. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is produced by the combination of strong base (NaOH)

and weak acid (H2CO3). Thus, the resultant salt will be basic in nature. 6. According to reactivity series more reactive metals displace less reactive metals. Therefore Zn

cannot displace Mg. 7. Addition of any electronegative element is oxidation. Here Cl2 undergoes reduction, thus, Cl2 is an

oxidizing agent. 8. Those reactions in which two ionic compounds in the solutions react by exchange of their ions to

form new compounds are called double displacement reaction.

2 2 4 4 2BaCl Na SO BaSO NaCl

9. In „A‟ equation oxidation number of Cl increases from -1 to zero. In equation „B‟ oxidation number of

Pb is decreased. Therefore both these equations are correct while in C and D equations oxidation number is vice- versa.

10. 3 3 3 2 2NaHCO CH COOH CH COONa H O CO

According to the equation CO2 gas evolves, which satisfy the given conditions appropriately.

11. 2 4 4 4 42BaCl NH SO BaSO NH Cl

As per the equation ions are exchanged and barium sulphate is precipitated. 12. Those reactions in which two different atoms or groups of atoms are exchanged are called double

displacement reactions. Therefore, reactions A, B and C satisfy the above definition and are correct.

PART – B

1. (A) 2 2C O CO (Combination + Oxidation)

(B) LightAgBr Ag Bg (Photolytic decomposition)

(C) 4 4Zn CuSO ZnSO Cu (More active metal displaces less one, this displacement

reaction)

(D) 3 2 3 2vC

CH CH OH CH CHO H (Hydrogen replaced, this it is oxidation reaction)



PART – C

1. 22 2Cu O CuO

2. 2 2 22 2electrolysisH O H O

2 mole of H2O 2 mole of H2

2 mole of 2 18 2 36H O gm

21 mole H O = 18 gm

3. The pH of a solution below 7 is acidic in nature.

4. logpH H

For HCl normality = molarity

2log10pH = 2

5. logpH H

1log10pH

0pH

6. logpH N

3log10pH

3

MATHEMATICS

PART – A 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. B, C, D 10. A, B 11. B, C, D 12. A, C

PART - B 1. A Q B R C S D P 2. A S B Q C P D R

PART – C 1. 4 2. 6 Sol. Use Fermat‟s Theorems 3. 5

Sol. 2

! 2n n

4. 0 5. 2

Sol. 0ab a b

1 1 1a b b

1 1 1a b

2a b

6. 4

Sol. 15 16x



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

Applicable for class X (B Lot)

PHASE TEST – I (SET – A)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

Time: 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 100

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions

The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.

Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.

Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.

Section – III contains 14 questions of Physics.

Section – IV contains 14 questions of Chemistry.

Section – V contains 12 questions of Biology.

Each question carries +1 marks.

There is No negative marking.

Attempt All questions.

Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.

All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.

The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….………………………………….. Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….



SECTION – A (SST) 1. What does the image of a ship on a memorial stone in Goa museum (10

th century CE) indicate?

(A) Significance of oceanic trade. (B) Significance of land route. (C) Significance of foreign trade. (D) Significance of people of Goa in international trade. 2. Which of the following was the most powerful weapon used by Spanish to conquer America? (A) Atom Bomb (B) Navy (C) Germs (D) Poisonous Gas 3. Which one of the following countries was one of the richest country in the world uptill the 18

th

century? (A) India (B) Burma (C) Vietnam (D) Korea 4. From which of the following places were slaves captured and brought to USA? (A) Asia (B) Portugal (C) Spain (D) Africa 5. How has the nineteenth century indentured labour been described? (A) Slavery (B) New system of slavery (C) Forced slavery (D) Modern slavery 6. Which of the following crops was grown in India and exported to china by the Britishers? (A) Indigo (B) Wheat (C) Opium (D) Rice 7. Which of the following signs of progress has not been shown by E.T. Paul in the picture the “Dawn of

the century”? (A) Railways (B) Camera (C) Nuclear weapon (D) Printing press 8. The introduction of which new technology in England angered women? (A) The spinning Jenny (B) The underground railway (C) The steam jenny (D) None of these 9. Which of the following port became important port in the later half of the 18

th century?

(A) Surat (B) Hoogly (C) Bombay (D) Kochi 10. Which one of the following was the job of gomastha? (A) Supervise weavers (B) Collect supplies (C) Examine the quality of the cloth (D) All the above 11. Which company official said that the demand for Indian textiles could never reduce, since no other

nation produced goods of the same quality (A) Lord Clive (B) Warren hastings (C) Lord Cornwallis (D) Henry Patullo 12. Parsis like Dinshaw petit and Jamsetjee Tata, industrialists accumulated their wealth by trading with

which of the following countries? (A) Export to china (B) Imports from China (C) Imports from England (D) Exports to U.S.A.




13. Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for utilization

are known as (A) Potential resources (B) Stock (C) Developed resources (D) Reserves 14. Resources which are found in region but have not been utilized are called (A) Developed resources (B) Stock (C) International resource (D) Potential resources 15. Where was the Earth summit 1992 held? (A) Brazil (B) Mexico (C) Peru (D) Iran 16. Which of the following states is not rich in minerals? (A) Haryana (B) Jharkhand (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Madhya Pradesh 17. Soil formed by intense leaching is ____ (A) Alluvial soil (B) Red soil (C) Laterite soil (D) Desert soil 18. In which of the following states is overgrazing responsible for land degradation? (A) Jharkhand and Orissa (B) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan (C) Punjab and Haryana (D) Kerala and Tamil Nadu 19. What is the percentage of the French speaking people in Belgium? (A) 59 (B) 40 (C) 60 (D) 41 20. Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium? (A) French and English (B) Dutch and English (C) French and Dutch (D) Dutch and Sinhala 21. Which of the following ethnic groups in Belgium has the largest population? (A) Dutch - speakers (B) French - speakers (C) German - speakers (D) None of above 22. Which of the major social group in Sri Lanka? (A) Tamil – Speakers (B) Sinhala - speakers (C) English - speakers (D) None of the above 23. Among the following countries to which one do „Indian Tamils‟ belong to (A) Belgium (B) Germany (C) Sri Lanka (D) India 24. Power sharing is good because (A) it increases the conflict between social groups. (B) it ensures instability of political order. (C) it reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups. (D) it leads to violence 25. Which of the following government system has two or more levels of government? (A) Community government (B) Coalition government (C) Federal government (D) Unitary government




26. Which one of the following countries is a good example of „holding together federation‟? (A) The U.S.A (B) Switzerland (C) Australia (D) India 27. In which of the following states only permanent residents of that state can buy land or house? (A) Assam (B) Manipur (C) Tripura (D) Jammu and Kashmir 28. Which one of the following subjects is included in the concurrent list? (A) Banking (B) Trade (C) Police (D) Education 29. In which system of elected bodies about one-third seats are reserved for women? (A) Panchayats and municipalities (B) Lok Sabha (C) State Assemblies (D) None of the above 30. Rural local government is popularly known as (A) Panchayati Raj (B) Zila Parishad (C) State government (D) Gram Panchayat 31. Which one of the following is not correct about why do different persons have different development

goals? (A) Different aspirations (B) Different needs (C) Different desires (D) Different caste 32. The development goal for a girl from a rich family is _____________ (A) to get more days of work (B) to get better wages (C) to get electricity (D) to get as much freedom as her brother gets 33. If there are five persons in a family and their total income is Rs 20,000/ what would be the average

income of each person? (A) Rs 6000/- (B) Rs 4000 /- (C) Rs 5000 /- (D) Rs 10, 000/- 34. Kerala has low infant mortality rate because (A) it has good climatic condition (B) it has adequate infrastructure (C) it has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities (D) it has poor net attendance ratio 35. In the year 2004 India‟s HDI rank in the world was (A) 125 (C) 115 (C) 126 (D) 134 36. Goods produced by exploiting natural resources is an activity of which sector? (A) Primary sector (B) Secondary sector (C) Service sector (D) None of the above 37. Which of the following sectors is also called service sector? (A) Tertiary sector (B) Secondary sector (C) Primary sector (D) None of the above




38. What is Gross Domestic product of a country? (A) production of primary sector of agricultural sector (B) production of secondary sector (C) services produced by tertiary sectors (D) sum of production in three sectors 39. Choose the correct meaning of organized sector (A) it covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular (B) it is outside the control of the government (C) Jobs are not regular (D) It provides low salaries 40. Which of the following is an example of public sector enterprise? (A) Bajaj Auto (B) Reliance industries (C) TISCO (D) Railways

SECTION – B (MATHEMATICS)

1. The value of k so that x2 + 2x + k is a factor of 2x

4 + x

3 – 14x

2 + 5x + 6, is:

(A) 3 (B) – 3 (C) 2 (D) – 4 2. Sunita and Anjali start running along a circular track at a time from the same position. Sunita can

complete one round in 24 minutes and Anjali takes 30 minutes to complete one round. After how many minutes both meet together again at the starting point?

(A) 140 (B) 160 (C) 120 (D) 100

3. If and be the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 3x2 + 5x + 7, then

3 3

1 1

is:

(A) 170

343 (B)

17

49

(C)

190

343 (D) none of these

4. For the given system of equations: x + y = a – b ax – by = a

2 + b

2, the value of x – y is equal to:

(A) a – b (B) a2 + b

2 (C) a + b (D) a

2 – b

2

5. If the HCF of 210 and 55 is expressible in the form 210x + 55y, then x + y = (A) – 19 (B) 5 (C) – 14 (D) none of these 6. If the zeros of the polynomial f(x) = ax

3 + 3bx

2 + 3cx + d are in A.P. , then 2b

3 – 3abc + a

2d =

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) a + b + c 7. For what value of k, the system of equations has infinite solutions: x + (k + 1)y = 5 (k + 1)x + 9y = 8k – 1 (A) – 4 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) – 2




8. If the zeros of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c, c 0 are equal, then

(A) c and a have opposite signs (B) c and b have opposite signs (C) c and a have the same sign (D) c and b have the same sign 9 On dividing 3x

3 + 4x

2 + 5x – 13 by a polynomial g(x), the quotient and remainder were 3x + 10 and

16x – 43 respectively. The polynomial g(x) is: (A) x

2 + 2x + 3 (B) x

2 + 2x + 5 (C) x

2 + 3x + 3

(D)

x

2 – 2x + 3

10. If and be the zeros of the polynomial x2 + 5x + k, where

2 +

2 = 11, the value of k is:

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4 11 The area of a rectangle increases by 1 sq. unit, if the length is reduced by 2 units and breadth is

increased by 1 unit. However, if the length be increased by 2 units and breadth by 1 unit, the area increases by 29 square units. The area of the given rectangle is:

(A) 90sq. units (B) 120sq.units (C) 96 units (D) 98 units

12 If x3 + x

2 4x + 5 is divisible by (x

2 1), then remainder would be of degree

(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) can be 3 or 1 (D) none of these

13 If HCF (a, b) = 12 and a b = 1800, then LCM(a, b) = (A) 3600 (B) 900 (C) 150 (D) 90

14 If , , be the zeros of the cubic 9x3 + 6x

2 + 4x + 7, then the value of + + is equal to:

(A) 4

9 (B)

9

4 (C)

9

4 (D)

4

9

15 If x k is a common factor of 2x px q and 2 ,x lx m then the value of k is

(A) l p (B) m q (C) l p

m q

(D)

m q

l p

16 One of the factors of 3 23 12 4x x x is

(A) 3 2x (B) 3 1x (C) 3 1x (D) 3 2x

17 The HCF of 4 1x and 3 2 1x x x is

(A) 2 21 1x x (B) 2 1 1x x (C) 21 1x x (D) 2 31 1 1x x x

18. The GCD of 2 4 22 4 , 3 12x x x x and 5 4 32 2 4x x x is:

(A) 2x x (B) 2 2x x (C) 2 2x x (D) 2 2x x

19. The HCF of two expressions P and Q is 1. Their LCM is (A) P + Q (B) P – Q (C) PQ (D) P

Q

20. The HCF & LCM of 2 3 4a b c and

5 4 3a b c are

(A) 2 3 4 5 4 3,a b c a b c (B)

2 3 3 2 3 4,a b c a b c (C) 2 3 3 5 4 4,a b c a b c (D)

5 3 3 5 4 3,a b c a b c




SECTION – C (PHYSICS)

1. An electric bulb is rated 220V, 100W. When it is operated on 110V, the power consumed will be (A) 100 W (B) 75 W (C) 50 W (D) 25 W 2. Two unknown wire, when connected in series draws 3 amp current from 54 volt source. The same

wires when connected in parallel draws 10amp current from 40 V source. Resistances of unknown wire are

(A) 10 ,8 (B) 12 ,6 (C) 2 ,4 (D) 9 ,9

3. Which uses more energy, a 250W TV in 1 hr, a 1200W toaster in 10 minute, 1000W heater in 13

minute, 100W bulb in 2.4 hr? (A) TV (B) Toaster (B) Heater (D) Bulb 4. Which of the following plot correctly showing, the dependence of the current I on the potential

difference V across resistor R which follow ohms law is

(A)

V

I

(B)

V

I

(C)

V

I

(D) All correct

5. The resistivity of a wire does not change if (A) the material is changed (B) the temperature is changed (C) both material and temperature are changed (D) shape is changed 6. In the circuit in fig. the ammeter A reads 4A and voltmeter V reads 20 V. The

correct value of resistance R is

(A) Exactly 5 (B) Slightly greater than 5

(C) Slightly less than 5 (D) Exactly 4

7. 10

3 protons are passing through cross section area of 10 cm

2 in 10 millisecond. The current passing

through cross section is

(A) 105A (B)

141.6 10 A (C) 171.6 10 A (D)

810 A


R

V

A



8. For a metallic conductor, current – voltage graph is drawn at two

different temperatures T1 and T2. The relation between T1 and T2 is

(A) 1 2T T (B)

1 2T T

(C) 1 2T T (D) Nothing can be

decided

I

V

T1

T2

9. What should be resistance R so that current flowing through

80 resistance is zero.

(A) 40 (B) 80

(C) 30 (D) 10

10. Equivalent resistance across point A and

B is

(R = 30 )

(A) 13.5

(B) 22.5

(C) 25

(D) 55

11. Equivalent resistance across point O and A is

(A) 3

R (B) Zero

(C) 3

R (D) R

12. What is the minimum resistance that can be obtained by connecting three wires having resistances

12 ,6 and 4 ?

(A) 8 (B) 2 (C) 16.4 (D) 1


A O

R

R

R

A B R

R R R R R

10 60

80

20 40

120V

R



13. A fuse wire should have (A) high resistance and high melting point (B) low resistance and low melting point (C) high resistance and low melting point (D) low resistance and high melting point 14. The free electron in a metal are free to (A) move in inner surface only (B) fall into nuclei only (C) move any where in the metal (D) collide with only electron not nuclie

SECTION – D (CHEMISTRY)

1. What type of chemical reaction take place when ammonia and hydrogen chloride are mixed. (A) Combination (B) Decomposition (C) Double displacement (D) None of these

2. In the given below reaction which is oxidizing agent? 2 2CuO H Cu H O

(A) 2H (B) CuO (C) Cu (D) 2H O

3. Identify the component oxidized in the following reaction.

2 2 2H S Cl S HCl

(A) 2H S (B) 2Cl (C) S (D) 2HCl

4. Name the oxidizing agent and reducing agent in the given below reaction?

2 2 4 24 4PbS H O PbSO H O

(A) 2 2 4,H O PbSO (B) 2 2 ,H O PbS (C) 2 2 2,H O H O (D) 2 4,H O PbSO

5. Identify the component oxidized in the given below reaction.

22 2Na Cl Na Cl

(A) 2Cl (B) NaCl (C) Na (D) None of these

6. The reaction given below is a

6 6 2 2 22 5 12 6C H O CO H O

(A) endothermic (B) exothermic (C) neutralization (D) None 7. Balance the given below equation with suitable numerals.

2 4 2 43 3Al SO NaOH Al OH Na SO

(A) 1,6,2,3 (B) 6,1,2,3 (C) 3,2,1,6 (D) 2,1,3,6




8. Balance the following ionic equation with suitable numerals.

3

2Al H Al H

(A) 1,6,1,2 (B) 2,6,2,3 (C) 2,1,1,6 (D) 6,1,1,2

9. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion? (A) Antibiotic (B) Analgesic (C) Antacid (D) Antiseptic

10. The acid having a highest H ion concentration is one with

(A) pH = 7.0 (B) pH = 1.2 (C) pH = 2.3 (D) pH = 8.2 11. The simplest formula of bleaching powder is

(A) 2 2Ca OCl (B) 2CaOCl (C) 2 2CaOCl xH O (D) 2 2.2Ca OCl H O

12. Aqueous solution of which of the following salts turns the red litmus blue.

(A) 2 3Na CO (B) 3NaHCO (C) 2 3 210Na CO H O (D) All

13. Soda – acid fire extinguisher extinguishes the fire (A) by cutting the supply of air (B) by removing the combustible substance. (C) By raising the ignition temperature (D) None of these 14. The dead burnt plaster is

(A) 4 22CaSO H O (B) 4 2

1

2CaSO H O (C) 4CaSO (D) 4 22 .CaSO H O

SECTION – E (BIOLOGY)

1. Glycolysis is a process found in (A) Eukaryotic cells (B) Anaerobic bacteria (C) Most muscle cells (D) Virtually all cells 2. For an animal cell, the main advantage of aerobic cellular respiration over lactic acid fermentation is

that. (A) More energy is released from each glucose molecule. (B) Less carbon dioxide is released (C) More carbon dioxide is released (D) Fats and proteins are not used as fuel 3. Chemosynthetic autotrophs get their energy from (A) Light (B) Inorganic molecules (C) Organic molecules (D) Both (B) and (C) 4. In the 1930s, C.B. Van Niel correctly hypothesized that oxygen atoms in the oxygen gas released by

plants comes from

(A) H2O (B) CO2 (C) 6 12 6C H O (D) 3O




5. In a plant cell, which of the following pigments participates directly in the light reactions of

photosynthesis? (A) Chlorophyll a (B) Chlorophyll b (C) Chlorophyll d (D) Carotenoids 6. How many carbon atoms are there in a molecule of ribulose biphosphate? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6 7. An artery is a vessel that carries blood (A) with high concentrations of oxygen (B) with high concentrations of carbon dioxide (C) towards the heart` (D) away from the heart 8.. An animal with a diet deficient in atleast one essential nutrient is said to be (A) Starving (B) Undernourished (C) Malnourished (D) Suffering from Kwashiorkor disease 9. The small projections on the wall of the small intestine function to (A) secrete digestive enzymes. (B) increase the surface area for absorption (C) hold products of digestion, so they do not enter the large intestine. (D) hold mucus, so ulcers do not form. 10. A terrestrial animal must be able to (A) actively pump out salts through its skin. (B) excrete large amounts of salt in its urine (C) excrete large amounts of water in its urine (D) conserve water 11. Which of the following materials is removed from the filtrate at the loop of Henle?

(A) Glucose (B) Water (C) Ammonia (D) 2Mg

12. According to the transpiration – cohesion theory, water is pulled upward through the xylem. The

cause of the pull is (A) Guttation (B) Root pressure (C) Transpiration (D) Condensation




FIITJEE COMMON TEST Applicable for class X (B Lot)

PHASE TEST – I (SET – A)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

Scholastic Aptitude Test ANSWERS

SECTION-A SST

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. D 27. D 28. D 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. C 36. A 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. D

SECTION-B MATHEMATICS

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. C 8 C 9 D 10. C 11 A 12. B 13 C 14. D 15. D 16. C 17 B 18. A 19. C 20. C

SECTION-C PHYSICS

1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. C

SECTION-D CHEMISTRY

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C

SECTION-E BIOLOGY

1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. C



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST Applicable for class X(B Lot)

PHASE – I(SET – A)

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) QP CODE: XXXX.0

Time: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 50

Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point

pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer

Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and

electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work

8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on

duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :

1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.

2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.



1. In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some took only fish and some only meat. There were some vegetarians who did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat. Which of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects this situation?

(Directions: Question No. 2 to 5): Of the four alternatives in each of the following questions, three alternatives are such that the three words in each are related among themselves in one of the five ways represented by (A), (B), (C), (D) below while none of these relationships is applicable to the remaining alternatives. That is your answer.

2. (A) Army, General Colonel (B) Boy, Student, Player (C) Painter, Scholar, Table (D) Man, Typist, Peon 3. (A) Hen, Dog, Cat (B) Body, Ear, Mouth

(C) Bed, Ward, Nurse (D) Tiger, Animal, Carnivorous 4. (A) Atmosphere, Air, Oxygen (B) Boy, Girl, Student (C) Man, Worker, Garden (D) Animal, Dog, Cat 5. (A) Animal, Mammal, Cow (B) Colour, Cloth, Merchant (C) Colour, Red, Blue (D) Male, Horse, Mare

(Directions: Question No. 6 to 10): In the following figure, rectangle, square, circle and triangle represent the regions of wheat, gram, maize and rice cultivation respectively. On the basis of the above figure, answer the following questions.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Enrollment No. : Batch : Name :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:



6. Which area is cultivated by all the four commodities? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 2



7. Which area is cultivated by wheat and maize only? (A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4

8. Which area is cultivated by rice only? (A) 5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 11 9. Which area is cultivated by maize only? (A) equilateral (B) isosceles (C) right angled (D) None of these 10. Which area is cultivated by rice and maize and nothing else? (A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 7 11. In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stands for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3 stands for

Go, 4 stands for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence were continued, which instruction will come next?

4 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3 1 4 5 3 1 2 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3 (A) Wait (B) Sit (C) Go (D) Run 12. In the series, 6 4 1 2 2 8 7 4 2 1 5 3 8 6 2 1 7 1 4 1 3 2 8 6 how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (Directions: Question No. 13 to 15): Study the following number sequence and answer

the questions given below it : 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6 13. How many odd numbers are there in the sequence which are immediately followed by an

odd number? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) More than 4 14. How many even numbers are there in the sequence which are immediately followed by an

odd number but immediately preceded by an even number? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 15. How many odd numbers are there in the sequence which are immediately preceded and

also immediately followed by an even number? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 16. In a row of 21 girls, when Monika was shifted by four places towards the right, she became

12th from the left end. What was her earlier position from the right end of the row? (A) 9th (B) 10th (C) 12th (D) 14th

17. Three persons A, B and C are standing in a queue. There are five persons between A and

B and eight persons between B and C. If there be three persons ahead of C and 21 persons behind A, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue?

(A) 41 (B) 40 (C) 28 (D) 27 18. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit‟s rank is seventeenth from the last,

what is Ravi‟s rank from the start? (A) 14th (B) 15th (C) 16th (D) 17th 19. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top.

If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank? (A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 12 (D) 23






20. In a row of ten boys, when Rohit was shifted by two places towards the left, he became seventh from the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row?

(A) First (B) Second (C) Fourth (D) Sixth 21. In a queue, Vijay is fourteenth from the front and Jack is seventeenth from the end, while

Mary is in between Vijay and Jack. If Vijay be ahead of Jack and there be 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Vijay and Mary?

(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 5 22. Anil introduces Rohit as the son of the only brother of his father‟s wife. How is Rohit related

to Anil? (A) Cousin (B) Son (C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law

23. Pointing out to a photograph, a man tells his friend, “She is the daughter of the only son of

my father‟s wife.” How is the girl in the photograph related to the man? (A) Daughter (B) Cousin (C) Mother (D) Sister

24. X introduces Y saying, “ He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of my

father.” How is Y related to X? (A) Brother (B) Son (C) Brother-in-law (D) Nephew 25. Pointing out to a lady, Rajan said, “She is the daughter of the woman who is the mother of

the husband of my mother.” Who is the lady to Rajan? (A) Aunt (B) Grand daughter (C) Daughter (D) Sister

26. Pointing out to a girl in the photograph, Amar said, “Her mother‟s brother is the only son of

my mother‟s father.” How is the girl‟s mother related to Amar? (A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Aunt (D) Grandmother 27. Pointing out to a gentleman, Deepak said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter‟s

father.” How is the gentleman related to Deepak? (A) Grandfather (B) Father (C) Brother-in-law (D) Uncle 28. Rita told Mani, “The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest daughter of the

brother-in-law of my friend‟s mother.” How is the girl related to Rita‟s friend? (A) Cousin (B) Daughter (C) Niece (D) Friend 29. Pointing to a man in a photograph, Asha said, “ His mother‟s only daughter is my mother.”

How is Asha related to that man? (A) Nephew (B) Sister (C) Wife (D) Niece 30. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother‟s father is the only son of my

grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph? (A) Mother (B) Aunt (C) Sister (D) Daughter 31. Pointing to a lady, a man said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife.” How

is the lady related to the man? (A) Mother‟s sister (B) Grandmother (C) Mother-in-law (D) Sister of father-in-

law 32. Five boys are standing in a row facing East. Deepak is to the left of Sameer, Tushar and

Shailendra. Sameer, Tushar and Shailendra are to the left of Sushil. Shailendra is between Sameer and Tushar. If Tushar is fourth from the left, how far is Sameer from the right?

(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth






33. A rat runs 20‟ towards East and turns to right, runs 10‟ and turns to right, runs 9‟ and again turns to left, runs 5‟ and then turns to left, runs 12‟ and finally turns to left and runs 6‟. Now, which direction is the rat facing?

(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 34. Starting from a point P, Sachin walked 20 metres towards South. He turned left and

walked 30 metres. He then turned left and walked 20 metres. He again turned left and walked 40 metres and reached a point Q. How far and in which direction is the point Q from the point P?

(A) 20 metres West (B) 10 metres East (C) 10 metres West (D) 10 metres North 35. Radha moves towards South-east a distance of 7 m, then she moves towards West and

travels a distance of 14 m. From here, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 10 m towards East and stood at that point. How far is the starting point from where she stood?

(A) 3 m (B) 4 m (C) 10 m (D) 11 m 36. The door of Aditya‟s house faces the East. From the back side of his house, he walks

straight 50 metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 metres again. Finally, he turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres. Now, Aditya is in which direction from the starting point?

(A) South-east (B) North-east (C) South-west (D) North-west

(Directions: Question No. 37 to 42): Find the missing character in each of the following

questions: 37.

(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13 38.

(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 20 (D) 21 39.

(A) 1 (B) 731 (C) 1625 (D) 2031




40.

(A) 14 (B) 22 (C) 32 (D) 40 41.

(A) 22 (B) 33 (C) 66 (D) 77 42.

(A) 7 (B) 25 (C) 49 (D) 129 (Directions: Question No. 43 to 45): Read the below statements and answer the

following questions: (i) There are six friends A, B, C, D, E and F.

(ii) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Volleyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tenis and Polo

(iii) Each owns a different coloured car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.

(iv) D plays Polo and owns a yellow coloured car. (v) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow coloured

car (vi) E owns a white car and plays Badminton (vii) B does not play Tennis, he owns a red coloured car. (viii) A plays cricket and owns a black car. 43. Who plays Volleyball? (A) B (B) C (C) F (D) Date inadequate 44. Which coloured car F owns? (A) Green (B) Blue

(C) Either Green or Blue (D) Data inadequate 45. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct? (A) Yellow – Polo (B) Green – Tennis (C) Black – Cricket (D) Red – Hockey 46. In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and

three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailja and Tanuja are among the dancers, Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and a violinist?

(A) Jalaja (B) Shailja (C) Tanuja (D) Pooja






47. Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T. K is sitting next to R who

is sitting on the extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who are sitting adjacent to S? (A) K and P (B) R and P (C) Only P (D) P and T 48. AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL (A) FMI (B) GMJ (C) HLK (D) GLJ 49. BEH, KNQ, TWZ, ? (A) IJL (B) CFI (C) BDF (D) ADG 50. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ? (A) Y66B (B) Y44B (C) Y88B (D) Z88B




FIITJEE COMMON

TEST Applicable for class X(B Lot)

PHASE – I (SET – A)

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

ANSWERS

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. D 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. B 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. A 42. B 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. C



FIITJEE CBSE COMMON

TEST

Applicable for class X ( B Lot)

PHASE – I

SCIENCE

Time: 1:30 hours. Maximum Marks: 48

Instruction:

i) This question paper contains three sections: Section A, B and C indicates Physics, Chemistry and Biology.

ii) Section A carries 15 marks, Section B carries 15 marks and Section C carries 18marks.

iii) All the questions are compulsory.

iv) Use of calculator and log table is not permitted. Useful data:

Mass of an electron m = 9.1 10–31

Kg

Charge of an electron e = 1.6 10-19

coulombs

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J mol1 K1

= 0.0821 lit atm mol1 K1

= 2 Cal mol1

Avogadro's Number NA = 6.023 1023

Planck’s constant h = 6.625 1034 J sec.

1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb

1 calorie = 4.2 Joule

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al=13, Si=14, P=15,

S=16, Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Sc=21, Ti = 22,V=23, Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33, Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56, Pb=82, U=92.

Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108, Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

Name of the Candidate:



Registration Number :

Date of Examination : Centre:

SECTION – A (PHYSICS)

Very Short Answer Type Questions(1 Mark Question) 1. The S.I. units of resistivity is ________ Short Answer Type Questions – I(2 Mark Question) 2. State ohm‟s law and write its mathematical form.

3. Calculate the resistance of a heater of rating 600 120W V

Short Answer Type Questions – II (3 Mark Question) 4. Two bulbs, one rated 220V, 100 W and the other 220 V, 500 W are connected in series to supply

source of 440V. Find out current drawn from supply source. Long Answer Type (5 Mark Question)

5. A piece of wire of resistance 20 is stretched so that length is increased to twice its original length, calculate its new resistance.

MCQs 2 1 2

6. If n resistances each of resistance R are connected in parallel combination then their equivalent

resistance is

(A) 2

R

n (B)

R

n (C) nR (D)

2n R

7. I – V graph for four resistors (A, B, C, D) is given below. Which of the wire will have minimum

resistance?

A

B

C

D

V

I

7. (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

SECTION – B (CHEMISTRY)

Very Short Answer Type Questions(1 Mark Question) 1. Define electrolysis. Short Answer Type Questions – I(2 Mark Question)



2. Why is tartaric acid added in baking powder? 3. What is neutralization reaction? Give two examples? Short Answer Type Questions – II (3 Mark Question) 4. Give an important industrial application of combination reaction. Long Answer Type (5 Mark Question) 5. How are the decomposition reactions useful in the metallurgical processes?

MCQs 2 1 2

6. Aqueous solution of which of the following turns blue litmus red?

(A) 3NaNO (B) 4CuSO (C) 4NH OH (D) 3CH COONa

7. The conversion of proteins into amino acid is a (A) Combination reaction (B) Double displacement reaction (C) Single displacement reaction (D) Decomposition reaction

SECTION – C (BIOLOGY)

Very Short Answer Type Question(1 Mark Question) 1. Are the enzymes that catalyse the dark reaction of carbon fixation located inside the thylakoids or

outside the thylakoids? Short Answer Type Questions – I(2 Marks Questions) 2. What is light? What part of light is most suitable for photosynthesis? 3. What would happen if HCl is not secreted in the stomach? Short Answer Type Questions – II (3 Marks Questions) 4. What happens to glucose which enters nephron along with filtrate during excretion in human beings.

State two vital functions of kidney. 5. Tell which of the following structures carry oxygen –rich blood and which carry oxygen – poor blood. Pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery, superior vena cava, left ventricle, aorta, inferior vena cava, right

ventricle, right atrium, left atrium. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks Questions) 6. Give reasons: in one line. (a) The blood flows towards the heart in the veins. (b) Respiration is called a catabolic process. (c) The amount of energy released during anaerobic respiration is less than the amount of energy

released during aerobic respiration. (d) Lung alveoli are covered with blood capillaries. (e) The wall of trachea is supported by cartilage rings.

MCQs 2 1 2



7. Which of the following is the excretory product of plants? (A) CO2 (B) Latex (C) Resin (D) All of these 8. The cause of guttation is mainly (A) root pressure (B) osmosis (C) transpiration pull (D) cohesive force

FIITJEE CBSE COMMON

TEST Applicable for class X ( B Lot)

PHASE – I

SCIENCE HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS 1. ohm meter

2. V IR

3.

2

24V

RP

4.

2VR

P

1 2

0.7575V

I AmpR R

5. 2' ' 80R n R R

6. B 7. A

CHEMISTRY

1. When a substance is decomposed by passing electric current. The process is called electrolysis. 2. Tartaric acid is added to neutralize the sodium carbonate, produced on heating sodium hydrogen

carbonate. If tartaric acid is not present in baking powder, the cake will taste bitter due to the presence of sodium carbonate.

3. Acid + Base Salt + Water

2HCl NaOH NaCl H O

2 4 4 222H SO Mg OH MgSO H O

4. An important industrial application of combination reaction is the manufacture of hydrogen chloride gas

2 2 2H g Cl g HCl g

The hydrogen chloride is dissolved in water to give hydrochloric acid. 5. Decomposition reactions are very useful in the metallurgical processes as these give the metal from

ores.

For example 3 2

HeatZnCO ZnO CO



ZnO C Zn CO

6. B 7. D

BIOLOGY

1. Outside the thylakoids, in the stroma. 2. Light is the visible part of electromagnetic radiations. Blue and red regions of the light spectrum are

the most effective in photosynthesis. 3. Pepsinogen (Proenzyme) and prorennin (proenzyme) will not be converted into pepsin and rennin

respectively. HCl provides acidic medium. So, that the enzyme can act on food in stomach. HCl kills bacteria and other harmful organisms that may be present along with food.

4. Glucose is reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubule. Vital functions: (i) Excretion : Separation of nitrogenous wastes for elimination. (ii) Osmoregulation: Maintenance of balance of water and salts in the body through

elimination if extra and retention if deficient. 5. Oxygen – rich blood Pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta. Oxygen – poor blood Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle,

pulmonary artery. 6. (a) The valves in the veins permit one – way flow of blood only. (b) It involves the breakdown of complex molecules into simple ones by oxygen. (c) Anaerobic respiration is the incomplete breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen. So it

produces less energy. (d) Passage of oxygen from alveolar air to blood and passage of carbon dioxide from blood to

alveolar air. (e) For providing support preventing collapse of trachea and allowing for uninterrupted flow of air. 7. D 8. A



FIITJEE CBSE COMMON

TEST


PHASE - I

MATHEMATICS Time: 1:30 Hours Max Marks: 41 Instructions: 1. This paper consists of 17 questions only

2. Attempt All questions.

3. Question No. 1 – 4 carries 1 mark each and 05 – 09 carries 2 marks, 10 – 14

carries 3 marks and 15 – 17 carries 4 marks each.

4. Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.

Name of the Candidate : .................................................................................................



Enroll Number : .................................................................................................

Date of Examination : .................................................................................................

SECTION – A (MATHEMATICS)

MCQs 4 1 4

1. Least number of changes for the expression 2 2ax bxy cy dx ey f to be symmetric in x & y

is: (A) a = b, c = d (B) b = c, e = f (C) a = c, d = e (D) a = f, b = e, c = d

2.

2

, ,

______a b c

a

(A) 2

, ,a b c

a (B) 2

a b c (C) 2 2 2a b c (D)

2 2 2a b c

3. The G.C.D of 2 3 2x x and

2 4 4x x is:

(A) x – 2 (B) 2 1x x (C) 2

2x (D) 2 2 2a b c

4. The H.C.F. of 4 3 224 6 2x x x and 6 5 420 2 3x x x is:

(A) 4 (B) 4x2 (C) 24 2 1x x (D) None of these

MCQs 2 2 4

5. The L.C.M. of 2

22 1x x and 2 236 2 3 1x x x is:

(A) 2 1x x (B) 22396 1 2 1x x x

(C) 23 2792 1 2 3 1x x x (D) None of these

6. Find which of the following is polynomial

(A)

3 3

101 1x x x

x x

(B) 3 4

2

bax cx dx

x

(C) 31

x xx

(D)5 3x x x

Short Answer Type Questions – I(2 Mark Question)

7. Evaluate.

1 1 1 1 1

3 8 8 7 7 6 6 5 5 2

8. For how many positive integers n is 2 3 2n n a prime number?



9. A Certain number when divided by 899 gives a remainder 63. What is the remainder when the same number is divided by 29?

Short Answer Type Questions – II (3 Mark Question)

10. If 7a b and 12ab , find the value of 2 2a ab b .

11. The L.C.M. of two polynomials p(x) and q(x) is 2

3 2 6x x x and their H.C.F. is 2 .x

If 2

3 2 ,p x x x then q(x) = ___________

12. If a, b and c are positive real numbers such that 152, 162a b c b c a , and 110,c a b

then abc is 13. For how many ordered pairs of positive integers (x, y) is x + 2y = 100?

14. If 6 2 3

33 19 3

= 3a b then a + b is equal to

Long Answer Type (4 Mark Question)

15. Simplify:

3 3 32 2 2 2 2 2

3 3 3

a b b c c a

a b b c c a

16. Solve for x: if x = 6 6 6 ........

17. Solve for x: xx

x x .



FIITJEE CBSE COMMON

TEST


PHASE - I

MATHEMATICS

HINTS & SOLUTIONS 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. 5 8. 1 9. 5 10. 13

11. 6 2x x

12. 60 85

13. 49

14. 2

52 30 3 27 25 8a b

15. a b b c c a

16. 3x

17. 4x



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class-X

CCPPTT--22 ((NNoorrmmaall)) PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

SET-A

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Date : 29-06-13 Maximum Marks: 240

INSTRUCTIONS



C. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.

2. This question paper contains Three Sections.

3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.

4. Each part is further divided into three parts : PART-A, PART-B & PART-C



D. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers

on OMR sheet. 2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your

Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.

3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers. C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts. (i) Part-A contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question

carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer. Part -A contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct

answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(ii) Part-B contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.

(iii) Part-C contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking



Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .






PART – A

Single Correct Choice Type 1. Three long, straight and parallel wires are arranged as shown

in fig. The force experienced by 10 cm length of wire Q is : (A) 1.4 × 10–4 N towards the right (B) 1.4 × 10–4 N toward the left (C) 2.6 × 10–4 N toward the right (D) 2.6 × 10–4 N toward the left

2. A proton enters a magnetic field of flux density 1.5 Wbm–2 with a velocity of 2.0 × 107 ms–

1 at an angle of 30° with the field. The magnitude of the force on the proton is :

(A) 4.2 × 10–12 N (B) 2.4 × 10–12 N (C) 4.2 × 10–6 N (D) 2.4 × 10–6 N 3. At double the distance from a long current-carrying wire, the strength of the magnetic field

produced by that wire decreases to :

(A) 1

8 of its original value (B)

1

4 of its original value

(C) 1

2of its original value (D) None of the above

4. Two long parallel wires carry currents of 20 A and 5.0 A in opposite directions. The wire are separated by 0.20 m. The magnetic field midway between the two wires is :

(A) 1.0 × 10–5 T (B) 3.0 × 10–5 T (C) 4.0 × 10–5 T (D) 5.0 × 10–5 T 5. A straight wire carrying a current of 4 A is beat into a

semicircular are of radius 0.5 cm as shown in figure. The direction and magnitude of magnetic field at the centre of the arc are :

(A) 2.51 × 10–4 T; perpendicular to the plane of paper and is directed inwards.

(B) 2.51 × 10–4 T; perpendicular to the plane of paper and is directed outwards.

(C) 2.51 × 10–6 T; perpendicular to the plane of paper and is directed inwards.

(D) 2.51 × 10–6 T; perpendicular to the plane of paper and is directed outwards.

R



6. A wire loop formed by two semicircular wires of radii R1

and R2 carries a current I as shown in figure. The

magnetic induction at the centre is :

(A) 0

1 2

I 1 1–

4 R R

(B) 0

1 2

1 1–

4 R R

(C) 0

1 2

I 1 1

4 R R

(D) 0

1 2

1 1

4 R R

O

R 1

Q R

I

S P

I I

R 2

7. If the strength of the magnetic field produced 10 cm away from a infinitely long straight

conductor is

10–5 N/Ampere-metre, the value of the current following in the conductor will be : (A) 5 ampere (B) 500 ampere (C) 10 ampere (D) 1000 ampere 8. If the resistance of the upper half of a rigid loop is twice that of the

lower half, the magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre is equal to : [P100304]

(A) zero (B) 0I

4a

(C) 0I

12a (D) None of these


9. In the loops shown in Fig. all curved sections are either semicircles or quarters circles. All the loops carry same current. The magnetic fields at the centres have magnitudes B1, B2, B3 and B4. Then,

b

B1

a

a

B2b

a

bB3

B4

a

b

(A) B4 is maximum (B) B3 is minimum (C) B4 > B1 > B2 > B3 (D) B1 > B4 > B3 > B2

10. A small magnet M is allowed to fall through a fixed horizontal conducting ring R. Let g be the acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration of M will be :

(A) < g when it is above R and moving towards R (B) > g when it is above R and moving towards R (C) < g when it is below R and moving away from R (D) > g when it is below R and moving away from R 11. Two circular coils of radii 5 cm and 10 cm carry equal currents of 2A. The coils have 50 and

100 turns respectively and are placed in such a way that their planes as well as their centres coincide. Magnitude of magnetic field at the common centres of coils is



(A) 8 × 10–4 if current in the coils are in same sense

(B) 4 × 10–4 if current in the coils are in opposite sense (C) zero if current in the coils are in opposite sense.

(D) 8 × 10–4 T if current in the coils are in opposite sense. 12. Two thin long wires carry current I1 and I2 along x- and y-axes,

respectively, as shown in fig. Consider the points only in x-y plane. (A) Magnetic field zero at least at one point in each quadrant (B) Magnetic field can be zero somewhere in the first quadrant (C) Magnetic field can be zero somewhere in the second quadrant (D) Magnetic field is non-zero in second quadrant

PART - B

MATRIX TYPE

13. A square loop is placed near a long straight current carrying wire as shown in fig. Match the following table.

Column – I Column - II

(A) If current is increased, (p) induced current in loop is clockwise

(B) If current is decreased (q) included current in loop is anticlockwise

(C) If loop is moved away from the wire. (r) wire will attract the loop

(D) If loop is moved toward the wire. (s) wire will repel the loop



14. Equal current i flow in two wires along x and y axis as shown. Match the following

i

i


(A) Magnetic field in first quadrant (p) inwards

(B) Magnetic field in second quadrant (q) outwards

(C) Magnetic field in third quadrant (r) may be inwards or outwards

(D) Magnetic field in fourth quadrant (s) neither inward nor outwards

PART – C

Numerical Based

15. A charged particle of mass 10–3 kg and charge 10–5 C enters a magnetic field of induction 1 T. If g = 10 ms–2, the velocity it pass straight through the field without deflection is x × 103 m/s. Find the value of x ?

16. A and B are two concentric circular conductors with centre

O and carrying currents I1 and I2 as shown in figure. The

ratio of their radii is 1 : 2 and ratio of their magnetic field at

O is 1 : 3. The value of 1

2

I

I is

x

12. Find the value of x :

AB

O I1

I2

17. A rectangular loop of sides 25 cm and 10 cm carrying a current of 15 A is placed with its

longer side parallel to a long straight conductor 2.0 cm aprat carrying a current of 25 A.

The net force on the loop is 4x 3.906 10 N . Find the value of x :



18. The magnetic force per unit length is x × 1.2 × 10–5 N/m experienced

by a long straight wire W1 carrying a current of 2A and placed parallel to and exactly midway between the two long, straight and parallel wires W2 and W3 carrying the currents of 2A and 4A, respectively in the opposite direction and separated by 0.1 m. Find the value of x?

2A 2A 4A

0.05m 0.05m

W 1 W 3 W 2 19. A horizontal straight wire 5 cm long weighing 1.2 gm–1 is placed perpendicular to a uniform

horizontal magnetic field of the flux density 0.6 T. If the resistance of the wire is 3.8 m–1. The potential difference that has to be applied between the ends of the wire to make it just supporting is x × 3.72 × 10–3 V (g = 9.8 ms–2)

20. Two long parallel conductors carry respectively currents of 12 and 8A respectively in the

same direction. If the wires are 10 cm apart, the third parallel wire also carrying a current placed so that the force experienced it shall be zero is x × 3 × 10–2 m. Find the value of x?




PART – A Single Correct Choice Type

21. Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves conversion of metal to a : (A) Volatile stable compound (B) Volatile unstable compound (C) Non volatile stable compound (D) None of the above 22. Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of : (A) Cu and Hg (B) Zn and Hg (C) Cu and Al (D) Fe and Pb 23. In the extraction of Iron from Haematite, limestone is added to act as : (A) Flux (B) Slag (C) Reducing agent (D) Oxidising

agent 24. The electrolytic reduction technique is used in the extraction of : (A) Highly electronegative elements (B) Transition metals (C) Metalloids (D) Highly electropositive metals 25. What happens when sulphur is treated with conc. nitric acid ? (A) Nitric oxide, sulphuric acid and water are produced (B) Nitric oxide, sulphurous acid and water are produced (C) Sulphurous acid, nitrogen dioxide and water are produced (D) Sulphuric acid, nitrogen dioxide and water are produced.

26. During the electrolysis of molten NaCl : (A) Na metal deposits on cathode (B) Oxidation takes place on cathode (C) Both (A) and (B) are true (D) Cl2 gas deposits on cathode

27. Beakers A, B and C contain zinc sulphate, silver nitrate and iron (II) sulphate solutions respectively. Copper pieces are added to each beaker. Blue colour will appear in case of :

(A) Beaker A (B) Beaker B (C) Beaker C (D) All the beakers

28. The standard bleaching powder contains about : (A) 30 percent of active chlorine (B) 35 percent of active chlorine (C) 40 percent of active chlorine (D) 50 percent of active chlorine


29. Which of the following carbonates do not evolve CO2 on heating ? (A) Li2CO3 (B) MgCO3 (C) Na2CO3 (D) K2CO3

30. The substance which is likely to contain CaCO3 is : (A) Sea shells (B) Dolomite (C) Marble statue (D) Calcined

gypsum 31. Minerals of lead are : (A) Cerussite (B) Pyrolusite (C) Galena (D) Calamine 32. Metallurgy involves steps : (A) Concentration of ore (B) Reduction of

ore (C) Purification (D) Alloy formation

PART – B MATRIX TYPE

33. Match list I with II and select the correct answer using codes given below in the lists. List I List II



I. Floatation process (A) Ultrapure Ge II. Electrolytic reduction (B) Pine oil III. Zone refining (C) extraction of Al IV. Thermite process (D) extraction of iron (A) I – (C), II – (A), III – (D), IV – (B) (B) I – (D), II – (B), III – (C), IV – (A) (C) I – (B), II – (C), III – (A), IV – (D) (D) I – (A), II – (C), III – (B), IV – (D) 34. Match list I with II and select the correct answer using codes given below in the lists. List I List II I. Calamine (A) Al2O3.2H2O II. Cassiterite (B) ZnCO3 III. Bauxite (C) SnO2 IV. Carnallite (D) KCl.Mg Cl2.6H2O (A) I – (C), II – (A), III – (D), IV – (B) (B) I – (D), II – (B), III – (C), IV – (A) (C) I – (B), II – (C), III – (A), IV – (D) (D) I – (A), II – (C), III – (B), IV – (D)

PART – C

Numerical Based

35. In the given element how many of them are semi-metals : C, Si, P, Ge, As, S, Cl, Sb, Ne 36. Properties belong to metals : Ductility, Conductivity, Brittle, Low B.P. & M.P., Lustre, Non-Sonorous, Dense,

Electropositive. 37. Out of these how many of them can not liberate H2 from dilute hydrochloric acid ? Zn, Ag, Fe, Cu, Li, Cl, B, K, Au, Pt. 38. How many reactions does not takes place ?

(i) Cu + HCl (dil.) (ii) Zn + HCl (dil.) (iii) Fe + HCl (dil.) (iv) Ca + HCl (dil.)

(v) Ag + HCl (dil.) (vi) Ba + HCl (dil.) 39. Number of gaseous element are, B, Hg, Br, Cl, C, Ne, S, Ar, P. 40. Halide ores present in the following : Bauxite, Calamine, Galena, Cryolite, Copper glance,

Cinnabar.

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

PART – A


41. If b tan = a, the value of asin bcos

asin bcos

(A) 2 2

a b

a b

(B)

2 2

a b

a b

(C)

2 2

2 2

a b

a b

(D)

2 2

2 2

a b

a b

42. If 24

sin25

and lies in the second quadrant, then sec + tan =

(A) –7 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) –5



43. cot x – tan x = (A) cot 2x (B) 2 cot2x (C) 2 cot 2x (D) cot22x 44. In a triangle ABC, points P, Q and R are the mid-points of the sides AB, BC and CA

respectively. If the area of the triangle ABC is 20 sq. units, then area of the triangle PQR equal to

(A) 10 sq. units (B) 5 3 sq. units (C) 5 sq. units (D) 5.5 sq. units

45. If each side of a triangle ABC is of length 4 cm and if AD is 1 cm

and ED AB . What is area of region BCED–

(A) 28 3 cm (B) 24 3 cm

(C) 29 3cm

2 (D) 27 3

cm2

A E

D

B

C

46. In the adjacent figure, P and Q are points on the sides AB and AC

respectively of a triangle ABC. PQ is parallel to BC and divides the triangle ABC into 2 parts, equal in area. The ratio of PA : AB =

(A) 1 : 1 (B) ( 2 1) : 2

(C) 1: 2 (D) ( 2 1) :1

47. In the adjoining figure, the length of BC is

(A) 2 3 cm (B) 3 3 cm

(C) 4 3 cm (D) 3 cm

A

6 cm

B

C

30º

48. If the angle of depression of an object from a 75 m high tower is 30º, then the distance of

the object from the tower is

(A) 25 3 m (B) 50 3 m (C) 75 3 m (D) 150 m


49. Which among the following is/are not correct?

(A) The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides.

(B) The areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio of the corresponding altitudes. (C) The ratio of area of two similar triangles are in the ratio of the corresponding medians. (D) If the areas of two similar triangles are equal, then the triangles are congruent.

50. In a right angled triangle ABC, length of two smaller sides are 8cm and 6cm, then which among the given statements is/ are correct ?

(A) Length of greatest side is 10cm (B) ACB 90º

(C) BAC 90º

(D) Pythagoras theorem is not applicable here. B

A

C



51. cos1º.cos2º.cos3º.............cos179º is equal to :

(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 1/ 2

52. 2 2sin cosec is always :

(A) equal to 1 (B) less than 1 (C) greater than or equal to 2 (D) equal to 2




53. If cos – sin = 1/5, where 0 < < 90°.


(A) (cos sin )

2

(p) 4

5

(B) sin 2 (q) 7

10

(C) cos 2 (r) 24

25

(D) cos (s) 7

25

54. If cos + cos = 1

2 and sin + sin =

1

3


(A) cos

2

(p) 13

12

(B) –cos

2

(q) 2

3

(C) tan

2

(r) 3

13

(D) –tan

2

(s) 131

13


55. Maximum value of sin + cos is K then the value of K is _________.

56. If sin = 1 then the value of cos is _______.

57. If sin 1 + sin 2 + sin 3 = 3 then

cos 1 + cos 2 + cos 3 is :

58. The value of sin2 A + cos2 A + 3 is :

59. In a right angle triangle smaller side is 6 and largest side is 10 find the third side.

60. In a ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such then DE || BC. If AD = 4x – 3, AE = 8x – 7, BD = 3x – 1 and CE = 5x – 3. Then find the value of x.

* * * * * *



ANSWER KEY SET-A

Physics Chemistry Mathematics

S.No. Ans. C.Code S.No. Ans. C.Code S.No. Ans. C.Code

1. (B) [P100307] 21. (A) [C100308] 41. (D) [M101201]

2. (B) [P100307] 22. (A) [C100305] 42. (A) [M101202]

3. (C) [P100307] 23. (A) [C100308] 43. (C) [M101202]

4. (D) [P100303] 24. (D) [C100302] 44. (C) [M100708]

5. (B) [P100304] 25. (D) [C100302] 45. (D) [M100708]

6. (C) [P100304] 26. (A) [C100308] 46. (C) [M100701]

7. (A) [P100303] 27. (B) [C100304] 47. (D) [M101301]

8. (C) [P100303] 28. (B) [C100303] 48. (C) [M101302]

9. (A,B,C) [P100304] 29. (C,D) [C100303] 49. (A,B,C) [M100708]

10. (A,C) [P100309] 30. (A,B,C) [C100301] 50. (A) [M100706]

11. (A,C) [P100304] 31. (A,C) [C100303] 51. (B) [M101201]

12. (B,D) [P100304] 32. (A,B,C) [C100305] 52. (C) [M101214]

13.

(A) Q,S;

(B)P,S;

(C)R;

(D)R

[P100308] 33.

(C)

[C100306] 53.

(A)Q;

(B)R

(C)S;

(D)P

[M101201]

14.

(A)R

(B)Q

(C)R

(D)p

[P100303] 34.

(C)

[C100308] 54.

(A)R

(B)P

(C)Q

(D)S

[M101201]

15. (1) [P100307] 35. (4) [C100302] 55. (2) [M101213]

16. (2) [P100304] 36. (5) [C100301] 56. (0) [M101202]

17. (2) [P100309] 37. (6) [C100304] 57. (0) [M101214]

18. (4) [P100311] 38. (2) [C100304] 58. (4) [M101204]

19. (1) [P100311] 39. (3) [C100302] 59. (8) [M100706]

20. (2) [P100311] 40. (1) [C100303] 60. (1) [M100701]



Solutions SET – A


1. (B)

Sol. F = –7 –2

–2

4 10 20 10 10 10

2 2 10

–7 –2

2

4 10 10 30 10 10–

2 10 10

= –7 –2

–2

4 10 10 10[100 – 30]

2 10

= 20 × 10– × 70 = 1400 × 10–7 = 1.4 × 10–4 N towards right. 2. (B)

Sol Fm = Bqv sin = (1.6 × 10–19C) (1.5 Wbm–2) (2.0 × 107 ms–1) × sin 30°

= 2.4 × 10–12 N 3. (C)

Sol We know that B = 0I

2 R

B 1

R

1

2

B

B = 2

1

R 2R

R R

B2 = 1B 1

2 2 of its original value.

4. (D) Sol The magnetic field midway between two wires is

0.20 m

I = 20A 1 A I = 5A 2

BA = B1 + B2

= 0 1 0 2

1 2

I I

2 R 2 R

= –7 –74 10 20 4 10 5

2 0.10 2 0.10

= 5.0 × 10–5 T 5. (B) Sol Given I = 4A

R = 0.5 cm = 0.5 × 10–2 M

We know that B =

–7

0

–2

224 10 4

I 7

HR 4 0.5 10



= –7

–4

–2

10 22 42.51 10 T

7 0.5 10

using the right-hand palm rule, we find the direction of B is perpendicular to the plane of paper and is directed outwards.

6. (C) Sol The current through both the semicircular loops flows in the same direction. Therefore, total

magnetic field induction (B) at „O‟ will be given by B = B1 + B2

= 0 0 0

1 2 1 2

I I I 1 1

4R 4R 4 R R

7. (A)

Sol B = 0I

2 R

10–5 = –7

–2

4 10 I

2 10 10

I = 5 ampere 8. (C) Sol.

I1R1 = I2R2

1 2

2 1

I R

I R = 2

2

R 1

2R 2

I = I1 + I2 = I1 + 2I2 = 3I1

I

3 and I2 =

2

3I

Magnetic field at the centre of coil

=

0 1 2I I–

4 a 4 a

B =

02 1(I – I )

a

=

2I I–

3 3

=

II

3 12a

9. (A, B, C) Sol. For B1 and B4 the contribution due to the different sections add up. For B2 and B3, the

contribution due to the outer sections oppose the contribution due to the inner sections. Thus B1 and B4 are greater than B2 and B3. For B4, there is section with radius < b and hence, it contributes more than the semicircular section of radius b for B1. Thus, B4 > B1

For B3 there is a section with radius > b and hence it contrubutes less than the semicircular section of radius b for B2. Thus B3 < B2

Hence B4 > B1 > B2 > B3

10. (A, C) Sol. Use lenz‟s law. The motion of ring will be opposed.



11. (A & C)

Sol. Using B = 0Nl

2R

1 2| B | | B |

= 4 × 10–4 T

If current in same sence Bnet = 8 × 10–4 T If current in opposite sence Bnet = 0 12. (B & D) Sol. In first and third quadrants direction of magnetic field is opposite due to the two wires. So,

magnetic field can be zero only in first and third quadrants not in second and fourth. Hence (B) and (D) are correct.

13. (A-q, s), (B-p,s), (C-r), (D-r) Sol. (p) If current in increased, flux in the loop will increase in inside direction, then due to

Lenz‟s law induced emf in the loop will be in anticlockwise direction. Due to this current, the current in the nearer side of loop to the wire will be in opposite direction to that of wire. Hence, there will be repulsion.

(q) This situation is opposite to part (p) (r) If loop is moved away, then flux decreases and this becomes similar to part (q) (s) Similar to part (p)

14. (A R, B Q, C R, D P) Sol. From Right hand thumb rule 15. (1) Sol. Since the charged particle passes straight without deflection, therefore Bqv = mg

or v = –3

3 –1

–5

mg 10 1010 ms

Bq 1 10

16. (2)

Sol. We know that B = 0I

2R

I BR

1

2

I

I = 1 1

2 2

B R 1 1 1

B R 3 2 6

17. (2) Sol. Consider a rectangular loop PQRS placed near a long straight conductor AB as shown in

figure . Due to the interaction of currents, the arm PQ of the loop will get attracted while are RS will get repelled. Forces on the arms QR and SP will be equal and opposite and hence cancel out.

Here PQ = 25 cm = 25 × 10–2 m, PS = 10 cm = 10 × 10–2 m Distance of PQ from AB, r1 = 2.0 cm = 2.0 × 10–2 m Distance of RS from AB, r2 = 2.0 + 10 = 12.0 cm = 12.0 × 10–2 m Current through long wire AB. I1 = 25 A Current through rectangular loop. I2 = 15 A Current rectangular loop, I2 = 15 A

Force on the arm PQ, F1 = 0 1 2

1

2I IlengthPQ

4 r

P Q

RS

I =

15 A

1I =

15 A

1I =

25

A2

r1

r2



F1 = 1 2

2

10 2 25 15 25 10

2.0 10

= 9.375 × 10–4 (towards AB) Force on the arm RS,

F2 = 7 2

0 1 2

22

2I I 10 2 25 15 25 10length RS

4 r 12 10

= 1.563 × 10–4 (away from AB)

Effective force on the loop F = F1 – F2 = 9.375 × 10–4 – 1.563 × 10–4 = 7.812 × 104 N (towards AB) 18. (4) Sol. The wire W1 experiences an attractive magnetic force F12 per unit length towards left due to

the wire W2, carrying the parallel

5 1012

2 2 1F 1.6 10 Nm

2 0.05

The wire W1 also experiences a repulsive magnetic force F13 per unit length towards left due to the wire W3, carrying the antiparallel current

F13 = 5 10 2 4 13.2 10 Nm

2 0.05

Since, both magnetic forces on the wire W1 are in the same direction towards left, the resultant magnetic force per unit length on it becomes

F = F12 + F13 = 4.8 × 10–5 Nm–1

19. (1) Sol. I = 5 cm = 5 × 10–2 m Mass of the wire m = mass per unit length × length of the wire = 1.2 × 10–3 kg m–1 × 5 × 10–2 m = 6 × 10–5 kg B = 0.6 T Resistance of the wire R = (Resistance per unit length × length of the wire)

= 3.8 × 5 × 10–2 = 0.19 Let V be the P.D. applied between the ends oft he wire, for the wire to be self supporting

mg = BII = V

B IR

V = 5

3

2

mg R 6 10 9.8 0.193.72 10 V

B 0.6 5 10

20. (2) Sol. For the force on the third conductors to be zero, the direction of the flux density due to the

current flowing in the two wires must be opposite in the position of the wire.

The third wire must be placed between the wire. Let the third placed at a distance x m

from the wire carrying 12 A, then B1 = B2

0 1I

2 x

= 0 2I

2 (0.1 x)

or 12

x =

8

0.1 x or

3 2

x 0.1 x

or 0.3

0.3 5x 0.06m5




21. (A) Sol. Van Arkel method is used to purified metals like Ti, Zr, etc. In this method ores are

converted into volatile stable compounds. So, option (A) is correct. 22. (A) Sol. Auto reduction process is used for the extraction of Cu and Hg. 23. (A) Sol. In in the metallurgy of iron

3 2CaCO CaO CO

Lime stone flux

SiO2 + CaO CaSiO3 Impurity Slag 24. (D) Sol. The electrolytic reduction technique is used in the extraction of higly electropositive

element. So option (D) is correct. 25. (D)

Sol. S + Conc. 6HNO3 H2SO4 + 6NO2 + 2H2O 26. (A) Sol. Electrolysis of NaCl

NaCl Na+ + Cl–

At cathode Na+ + e– Na (Reduction)

At anode Cl– Cl + e–

Cl + Cl Cl2 (Oxidation) So option (A) is correct 27. (B)

Sol. In beaker (B) 3 3 22AgNO Cu Cu(NO ) 2Ag

So, option (B) is correct. 28. (B) Sol. The standard bleaching powder contains 35% of active chlorine. 29. (C,D) Sol. Carbonate of Na and K are highly stable on heating. 30. (A,B,C) Sol. Sea shells, dolomite and marble statue contains CaCO3. 31. (A,C) Sol. Cerussite – PbCO3 Pyrolusite – MnO2 Galena – PbS Calamine – ZnCO3 32. (A,B,C)



Sol. Steps of metallurgy are : Concentration of ore, reduction of ore and purification

PART – B MATRIX TYPE

33. (C) Sol. (I) Floatation process – Pine oil (II) Electrolytic reduction – extraction of Al (III) Zone refining – Ultra pure Ge (IV) Thermite process – Extraction of iron. So option (C) is correct. 34. (C) Sol. (I) Calamine – ZnCO3 (II) Cassiterite – SnO2 (III) Bauxite – Al2O3.2H2O (IV) Carnallite – KCl.MgCl2.6H2O So option (C) is correct.


35. (4) Sol. Si, Ge, As and Sb are semi-metals C, P, S, Cl and Ne are non-metals.



36. (5) Sol. Metals are ductile, good conductor of heat and electricity, high M.P. & B.P., having lustre,

Sonorous, dense and electropositive in nature. 37. (6) Sol. Ag, Cu, Cl, B, Au and Pt can not liberate H2 from dilute HCl because Ag, Cu, Au and Pt are

less reactive than H2 and Cl, B are non-metals.

38. (2) Sol. Cu and Ag are less reactive than H2 so these reactions does not takes place.

39. (3) Sol. Cl, Ar and Ne are gases.

40. (1)

Sol. Halide Ore – Cryolite Na3 Al F6 .

SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS)

41. (D)

Sol. a

tanb

2 2

2 2

asin bcos atan b a b

asin bcos atan b a b

42. (A)

Sol. 25 24

sec tan 77 7

43. (C)

Sol. 2 2cos x sin x

cot x tanx 2cot2xsinxcosx

44. (C)

Sol. As P, Q and R are the midpoints of AB, BC and AC respectively, ABC is divided into 4

triangles of equal areas. Therefore, Area (PQR) = 20/4 = 5 sq. units. 45. (D)

Sol. Area of ABC will be 2 23(4) 4 3 cm

4

ADE is right angle triangle where AD = 1 cm, so we will get

DE 3 cm & AE = 2 cm

So area of ADE will be 21 31 3 cm

2 2

So area of BCED

24 3 3 / 2 3.5 3 cm

A E

D

B

C60º 30º

90º

46. (C) Sol. As PQ is parallel to BC ABC APQ

Areaof ABC 2

Areaof APQ 1

(Ratio of square of corresponding sides)

AB 2

Ratioof sidesAP 1



47. (D)

Sol. BC 1 BC

sin30º BC 3cm.AC 2 6cm

48. (C)

Hint : AB

tan30ºOB

1 75m

OB3

OB 75 3 m


49. (A, B & C) Sol. (A) The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides. (B) The areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio of the corresponding altitudes. (C) The ratio of area of two similar triangles are in the ratio of the corresponding medians. are incorrect. 50. (A) Sol. Length of greatest side is 10 cm (using Pythagoras theorem). 51. (B) Sol. cos 90° = 0. 52. (C)

Sol. 2 2sin cosec 2.


53. (A-q, B-r, C-s, D-p)

Sol. cos – sin = 1

5 .......(1)

1 – sin 2 = 1

25

sin 2 = 24

25

cos 2 = 7

25

Also (cos + sin )2 = (cos – sin )2 + 4 cos × sin

= 1

2sin225

= 1 48 49

25 25 25

cos + sin = 7

5 .......(2)



cos sin

2

=

7

10

and from (1) and (2)

cos = 4

5

54. (A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s)

Sol. cos + cos = 1

2

–

2cos cos2 2

= 1

2 .........(1)

sin + sin = 1

3

–

2sin cos2 2

= 1

3 .........(2)

Dividing equation (2) by (1)

tan 2

= 2

3

cos2

= 3

13

So, –

cos2

= 13

12

–

tan2

= 131

13


55. (2)

Sol. Maximum value of sin + cos is 2

56. (0)

Sol. cos will be zero. 57. (0)

Sol. sin 1 + sin 2 + sin 3 = 3 is possible only when sin 1 = sin 2 = sin 3 = 1

So cos 1 + cos 2 + cos 3 = 0 58. (4) Sol. sin2 A + cos2 A + 3 = 1 + 3 = 4. 59. (8)

Sol. third side = 2 210 – 6 8

60. (1)

Sol. 4x – 3

3x – 1 =

8x – 7

5x – 3

from this x = 1 and x = –1/2

1

x –2

is not possible so x = 1



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

PHASE TEST – II (Normal) SET-A

Time: 1 ½ hours Date : 29-06-13 Maximum Marks : 100


Instructions


Section – A contains 40 questions of SST.

Section – B contains 20 questions of Mathematics.

Section – C contains 14 questions of Physics.

Section – D contains 14 questions of Chemistry.

Section – E contains 12 questions of Biology.











Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .





SECTION – A (SST)

1. Who proudly proclaimed the dams as the “temples of modern India” ?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Indira Gandhi (D) B.R. Ambedkar

2. The Krishna-Godavari dispute is due to the objections raised by___________________ and

_______ government.

(A) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh (C) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala and

Maharashtra 3. Which is the first and the only state in India which as made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure

compulsory to all the houses across the state ?

(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala (C) Karnataka (D) Orissa 4. Which statement is incorrect regarding the rooftop rainwater harvesting?

(A) Rooftop rainwater is collecting using a PVC pipe. (B) Underground pipe takes water to sump for immediate usage. (C) Water from the well recharges the underground. (D) None of these 5. Sardar Sarovar Dam is built across the ____________________river in Gujarat.

(A) Narmada (B) Ganga (C) Sabarmati (D) Tapi

6. What are the canal roofs?

(A) They are small islands made by the remains of the canal over a long period. (B) They are islands made by earthquakes in the sea-bed (C) They are islands made by Tsunami storms. (D) All of the above

7. Which river is known as sorrow of Bengal?

(A) Kosi (B) Ganga (C) Damodar (D) Son 8. The Hirakud project in the ___________________ basin integrated conservation of water with flood

control.

(A) Ganga (B) Mahanadi (C) Narmada (D) Tapi

9. How much surface water is covered by the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmputra?

(A) About 20% (B) About 30% (C) About 40% (D) About 60%

10. Which one of the following is not a multi-purpose River Valley projects of North India?

(A) Tungabhadra Project (B) Bhakra Nangal Project (C) Damodar Valley Project (D) Chambal

Valley Project 11. State India‟s position in the world in terms of water availability per person per annum?

(A) 133 (B) 143 (C) 150 (D) 120 12. Read the following statements :

(1) In Meghalaya, a 200 year old system of tapping, stream and spring water by using bamboo pipes in prevalent.

(2) About 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe system, gets transported over hundreds of metres and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute at the site of the plant.

Which statement is correct (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Both (1) and (2) (D) None of these



13. The word calligraphy means :

(A) The art of beautiful and stylised writing (B) The art of stylised reading (C) The art of beautiful and stylised walking (D) None of these 14. Who developed the first known printing press in 1430s?

(A) Johann Gutenberg (B) Marco Polo (C) J.V. Schley (D) Kitagawa Utamaro

15. Where was the earliest kind of print technology developed?

(A) England (B) Germany (C) China (D) Russia 16. What was the oldest Japanese book printed in Japan round about 868 A.D.?

(A) The Buddhist Diamond Sutra (B) The Jain Diamond Sutra (C) The Manusmriti (D) The Jatakas 17. Who was Gutenberg?

(A) A great inventor of France (B) A great inventor of Germany (C) A great inventor of Russia (D) A great inventor of British 18. Name the weekly newspaper whose publication was started by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?

(A) Sambad Kaumudi (B) Bengal Gazette (C) Hindu Patrika (D) Kesari 19. Who was the author of the novel named Pamela?

(A) Charles Dickens (B) Samuel Richardson (C) Henry fieldings (D) Thomas Hardy

20. Who among the following is the author of the novel “Pariksha Gurus”?

(A) Premchand (B) Srinivas Das (C) Devki Nandan Khatri (D) Chandu Menon

21. Leo Tolstoy was a famous ___________________ novelist who wrote extensively on rural life and

community.

(A) German (B) Russian (C) Indian (D) British 22. The term vernacular means :

(A) Literary form (B) The normal (C) Spoken form of a language rather than the formal (D) All of the above 23. The novel Sewasadan deals mainly with the :

(A) Poor condition of women in society (B) Rich condition of women in society (C) Poor condition of men in society (D) Rich condition of men in society 24. Godan published in which year ?

(A) 1936 (B) 1926 (C) 1930 (D) 1940 25. Which university installed a 20 foot high sculpture representing the protest by Tommie Smith and

John Carlos?

(A) San Jose state university (B) Sun-John National university (C) San Jose international university (D) None of these 26. Civil Right Movement was led by :

(A) Martin Luther (B) Rosa Park (C) King Gutenberg (D) John Carlos 27. Where were the Olympics held in 1968?

(A) Washington (B) London (C) Paris (D) Mexico city



28. Social divisions and differences are based on which one important factor?

(A) Accident of birth (B) Migration (C) Adopting new profession (D) Adopting new religion 29. The term “Feminist” means :

(A) Person who believes in equal rights (B) Person who believes in unequal rights (C) Person who believes in god. (D) Person who believes in divisions and

diversity 30. According to 2001, What is the sex ratio in India?

(A) 933 : 1000 (B) 922 : 1000 (C) 918 : 1000 (D) 1050 : 1000 31. According to the 2001, what is the literacy rate for men in India?

(A) 54% (B) 76% (C) 70% (D) 52% 32. What is the main religion of Sri Lanka?

(A) Hinduism (B) Buddhism (C) Islam (D) Christianity 33. The system in which goods and commodities are exchanged without use of money is called :

(A) Barter system (B) Goods system (C) Commodity system (D) Money system 34. If two persons have to agree to sell and buy each other commodities, then it is called :

(A) Double coincidence of wants (B) Barter system (C) C-C Economy (D) None of these 35. Gold mohar are from :

(A) Akbar‟s reign (B) Shahjahan‟s reign (C) Gupta‟s reign (D) Tughlaq‟s reign 36. How many percent banks hold deposits as cash?

(A) 20% (B) 15% (C) 25% (D) 30% 37. In rural area, the main demand for credit is for :

(A) Marriage (B) Crop production (C) Enjoyment (D) All of the above

38. Term of credit includes:

(A) Interest rate (B) Collateral (C) Documentation (D) All of the above

39. Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?

(A) Reverse Bank of India (B) Punjab National Bank

(C) State Bank of India (D) Axis National Bank 40. The informal sectors of loan includes:

(A) Money lenders (B) Traders (C) Employers (D) All of the above



SECTION – B (MATHEMATICS)

41. In the figure ABC is similar to EDC :

If we have AB = 4 cm, ED = 3 cm, CE = 4.2 cm and CD = 4.8 cm, find the value of CA and CB

(A) 6 cm, 6.4 cm (B) 4.8 cm, 6.4 cm (C) 5.4 cm, 6.4 cm (D) 5.6 cm, 6.4 cm

B C D

A

E 42. In the figure below PQ = QS, QR = RS and angle SRQ = 100°.

How many degree is angle QPS?

(A) 20° (B) 40° (C) 15° (D) 30°

S

RQP

43. In given figure find ABE + ADE :

(A) 220° (B) 110° (C) 55° (D) 70°

C

B D

A

70°

220°

110°

E

44. Two line segments AB and CD intersect at the point E such that ACE ~ DBE. If AE = 4 cm, BE = 3cm, CE = 2cm and DE = x, find x :

(A) 6 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 2.4 cm (D) 2.66 cm

45. Which of the following is true in given figure :

(A) ABC ~ EFD (B) ABC ~ FED

(C) ABC ~ EDF (D) ABC ~ DEF

8 cm

6 c

m

9 cm

A

B C

9 cm

12 c

m 13.5

D

E F 46. In given figure, AD is angle bisector of angle A find the value of AB :

(A) 24cm (B) 25cm (C) 40 cm (D) 30 cm

A

B CD4 cm6 cm

20 cm

47. If D, E , F are the mid-points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively of ABC and if A = 33°, B

= 89° and C = 58° then values of D, E and F of DEF are :

(A) 89°, 33°, 58° (B) 89°, 58°, 33° (C) 33°, 89°, 58° (D) 33°, 58°, 89°



48. In given figure find AED + DAB + BCD :

(A) 320° (B) 252° (C) 194° (D) 294°

114°

30°

30°

A

DC

B

E

49. sin2A = 2 sin A is true when A =

(A) 0º (B) 30º (C) 45º (D) 60º

50. If + = 90° and = 2, then cos2

+ sin2 equals :

(A) 1 (B) 1

2 (C) 0 (D) 2

51. A tree is broken by the wind. The top struck the ground at an angle of 30º and at a distance of 30 m from the root. Then the whole height of the tree is :

(A) 30

m3

(B) 30 3m (C) 10 3m (D) 20 3m

52. A ladder 13m long, placed against a wall, reaches a 12m high window. If suppose, the foot of the ladder slipped by 7m, then how high above the ground is the other end of ladder now :

(A) 7m (B) 5m (C) 6m (D) 8m

53. In given figure, which of the following is true :

(A) 2 2

2 2 2 2

a b1

a h a h

(B)

2 2

2 2 2 2

h h1

a h b h

(C) 2 2

2 2 2 2

h h0

a h b h

(D) None of these

h

a

A

BCDb

54. Find cos 210° :

(A) 3

2 (B)

1

2 (C)

1–

2 (D)

3–

2

55. A right triangle has hypotenuse of length p cm and one side of length q cm if p – q = 1, find the

length of third side of the triangle :

(A) 2p 3 (B) 2p 1 (C) 2q –1 (D) 2q 1

56. If sec + tan = k then find cos :

(A) 2k 1

2k

(B)

2

2k

k 1 (C)

2

k

k 1 (D)

2

k

k 1

57. The median of the series –5, 11, 10, –3, 5, 5, 8, –8, 3, –10 is :

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 58. Histogram is useful to determine graphically the value of :

(A) Arithmetic Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) None of these 59. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the same level as the foot of a tower is

30º. On advancing 150 m towards the foot of a tower. The angle of elevation becomes 60º. Find the



height of tower :

(A) 40 3 m (B) 50 3 m (C) 25 3 m (D) 75 3 m

60. The height of a tower is 10m. Calculate the length of its shadow, when the sun‟s altitude is 45°.

(A) 10 2m (B) 10 m (C) 8 m (D) Can‟t say



SECTION – C (PHYSICS)

61. Two long parallel wires carrying currents of 5.0 A and 8.0 A in the same direction. The wires are

separated by 0.30 m. the magnetic force per unit length between the two wires is :

(A) 2.7 × 10–5 N attractive (B) 7.2 × 10–5 N attractive

(C) 2.7 × 10–5 N repulsive (D) 7.2 × 10–5 N repulsive

62. A 2.0 m wire carrying a current of 0.60 A is oriented parallel to a magnetic field of 0.50T. The

magnitude of the force it experiences is : (A) Zero (B) 0.60 N (C) 0.15 N (D) 0.30 N

63. A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 A in east to west direction. The magnitude

and directions of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5 m below the line are :

(A) 1.2 × 10–5 T towards north (B) 1.2 × 10–5 T towards south

(C) 1.2 × 10–3 T towards north (D) 1.2 × 10–3 T towards south 64. If two streams of protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they : (A) Do not exert any force on each other (B) Attract each other (C) Repels each other (D) Get rotated to be perpendicular to each

other 65. The earth‟s magnetic field at a certain point is 0.70 gauss. This field is to be annulled by the

magnetic field at the centre of a circular conducting loop 5.0 cm in radius. The required current is about :

(A) 0.66 A (B) 5.6 A (C) 0.28 A (D) 2.8 A

66. A magnetic needle is placed on a cork floating in a still lake in the northern hemisphere.

Does the needle together with the cork move towards the north of the lake

(A) Yes (B) No

(C) May be or may not be move (D) Nothing can be said

67. An electron and a proton enter a magnetic field with equal velocities. Which one of them experiences

more force? (A) Electron (B) Proton (C) Both experience same force (D) It cannot be predicted

68. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field directed perpendicular to its direction of motion.

Which of the following quantities of the particle will not change ? (A) Momentum (B) Speed (C) Velocity (D) None of the

above

69. Path of the three parallel moving particles

travelling in uniform magnetic field is shown here then :

(A) Particle A = proton, B = Neutron C = Electron

(B) Particle A = Electron, B = Neutron C = Electron

(C) Particle A = Electron, B = Neutron C = Proton

(D) Particle A = Proton, B = Neutron C = Proton

X X X X X

X X X X X

X X X X X

X X X X X

A

B

C



70. In fission reaction heavy water is used as : (A) Coolant (B) Moderator (C) Heat exchanger (D) Coolant & also moderator 71. Nuclear energy is : (A) Renewable (B) Non-renewable (C) Both renewable & non-renewable (D) None of these 72. Which of the following conditions is necessary for combustion : (A) Presence of a combustible substance (B) Presence of oxygen (C) Heating the combustible substance to its ignition temperature (D) All the above 73. What is the role of a moderator in a nuclear power plant : (A) It increases the temperature inside the reactor (B) It regulates the amount of energy released in the reactor (C) It decreases the temperature inside the reactor (D) It controls the speed of neutrons bombarding over the fuel. 74. Which of the following is not a part of Biogas: (A) Nitrogen (N2) (B) Hydrogen Sulphide(H2S)

(C) Carbon monoxide (CO) (D) Methane (CH4)



SECTION – D (CHEMISTRY)

75. Which oil is used for foam formation in Froth Floatation process : (A) Mustard oil (B) Coconut oil (C) Olive oil (D) Pine oil

76. When ferric chloride reacts with aq. NaOH, a .............................. coloured ppt is formed with NaCl, whose chemical formula is :........................................

(A) Brown, Fe(OH)2 (B) Green, Fe(OH)2 (C) Green, Fe(OH)3 (D) Brown, Fe(OH)3

77. Complete the reaction Zn + 2NaOH : (A) Zn(OH)2 + H2 (B) Na2ZnO2 + H2 (C) Zn(OH)2 + Na2 (D) Na2ZnO2 +

Na2O 78. Which of the following concentration processes will you use when the gangue is light : (A) Gravity separation (B) Magnetic separation (C) Froth floatation(D) None of these 79. Aqua regia is a 1 : 3 mixture of : (A) Dil. HCl and dil. HNO3 (B) Conc. H2SO4 and conc.HNO3 (C) Conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl (D) Conc. HCl and conc. H2SO4

80. The substance used as an activator in froth floatation process is : (A) potassium ethyl xanthate (B) sodium cyanide (C) copper sulphate (D) pine oil

81. Gravity separation method is based upon : (A) Preferential washing of ores and gangue particles (B) Difference in densities of ore particles and impurities (C) Difference in chemical property of ore particles and impurities (D) none of these

82. The role of calcination in metallurgical process is : (A) To remove moisture (B) To decompose

carbonates (C) To derive off organic matter (D) All the above 83. The necessary condition (s) for the formation of ionic bond is/are : (A) Low ionisation energy of electropositive element (B) High electron

affinity of electronegative element (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 84. The main difference between calcination and roasting is : (A) Moisture and impurities are removed from ore only by calcinatioin (B) Roasting is used to convert oxide of metal into metal. (C) Calcination takes place in reverberatory furnace while roasting takes place in blast

furnace (D) Calcination takes place in absence of air while roasting takes place in presence of air. 85. Metals like zinc, copper, nickel, tin, lead are obtained from their oxide ores by : (A) Carbon–reduction (B) Aluminium–reduction (C) Self–reduction(D) Electrolytic–reduction 86. Select the correct statement : (A) Dolomite is an ore of Zinc (B) Galena is an ore of Mercury (C) Pyrolusite is an ore of Iron (D) Cassiterite is an ore of Tin 87. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends on : (A) Charge on the ion only. (B) Size of the ion only.



(C) Charge and size of the ion. (D) Packing of the ion only. 88. Ionic compounds are soluble in water and insoluble in organic solvents like ether,

chloroform, benzene etc. because : (A) Water has a high dielectric constant while organic solvents have low dielectric

constants (B) Organic solvents have a high dielectric constants while water has a low dielectric

constant (C) Water is an ionic compound and organic solvents are covalent compounds (D) None of these



SECTION – E (BIOLOGY)

89. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building

starts climbing down the stairs rapidly which hormone initiated this action?

(A) Thyroxin (B) Adrenalin (C) Glucagon (D) Gastrin 90. Node of Ranvier occurs where : (A) Nerve is covered with myelin sheath (B) Neurilemma is discontinuous (C) Neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous (D) Myelin sheath is discontinuous 91. Acromegaly is caused by : (A) Hypersecretion of FSH (B) Hyposecretion

of ACTH (C) Hypersecretion of GH (D) Hyposecretion

of GH/STH 92. Sequence of meninges of brain from inner to outside is : (A) Duramater – arachnoid - piamater (B) Durameter – piamater– arachnoid (C) Arachnoid – Duramater – Piamater (D) Piamater – Arachnoid – Duramater 93. Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system? (A) Peristalsis (B) Digestion (C) Excretion (D) Memory and

learning 94. A man is admitted in a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature,

loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in : (A) Medulla oblongata (B) Pons Varolli (C) Cerebellum (D) Hypothalamus 95. The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to: (A) Hydrotropism (B) Chemotropism (C) Geotropism (D) Phototropisn 96. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (A) Nerve impulse travels from dendritic end towards axonal end. (B) At the dendritic end electrical impulses bring about the release of some chemical which

generate an electrical impulse at the axonal end of another neuron (C) The chemical released from the axonal end of one neuron cross the synapse and

generate a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of another neuron. (D) A neuron transmits electrical impulses not only to another neuron but also to muscle

and gland cells. 97. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone? (A) Adrenalin (B) Thyroxin (C) Auxin (D) Insulin 98. The root of a plant is (A) Positively geotropic (B) Positively phototropic (C) Negative geotropic (D) Positively thigmotropic 99. Pick out the correct statement I. Cytokinins especially help in delaying senescence. II. Auxins are involved in regulating apical dominance. III. Ethylene is especially useful in enhancing seed germination. IV. Gibberellins are responsible for immature falling of leaves. (A) I and III only (B) I and IV only (C) II and III only (D) I and II only



100. Which of the following is a natural growth inhibitor? (A) NAA (B) ABA (C) IAA (D) GA

* * * * * *



FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST – II (SET-A)


ANSWERS KEY & CONCEPT CODE

S.NO. Answer Subject C. CODE S.NO. Answer SUBJECT C. CODE

1 B SST 51 B Mathematics M100301

2 A SST 52 B Mathematics M100706


4 D SST 54 D Mathematics M101201

5 A SST 55 D Mathematics M100706


7 C SST 57 C Mathematics M101503

8 D SST 58 C Mathematics M101504

9 D SST 59 D Mathematics M101301


11 A SST 61 A Physics P100311

12 C SST 62 A Physics P100311

13 A SST 63 B Physics P100303

14 A SST 64 C Physics P100307

15 C SST 65 B Physics P100304


17 B SST 67 C Physics P100307


19 B SST 69 D Physics P100307

20 B SST 70 D Physics P100511

21 B SST 71 B Physics P100511

22 A SST 72 D Physics P100511

23 A SST 73 D Physics P100514

24 A SST 74 A Physics P100506

25 A SST 75 D Chemistry C100307


27 D SST 77 B Chemistry C100301

28 A SST 78 A Chemistry C100307

29 A SST 79 C Chemistry C100301


31 B SST 81 B Chemistry C100307

32 B SST 82 D Chemistry C100305

33 A SST 83 C Chemistry C100303



36 B SST 86 D Chemistry C100303

37 B SST 87 C Chemistry C100303

38 D SST 88 A Chemistry C100303

39 A SST 89 B Biology B100207

40 D SST 90 D Biology B100203

41 D Mathematics M100708 91 C Biology B100207

42 A Mathematics M100708 92 D Biology B100203

43 B Mathematics M100708 93 D Biology B100205


45 B Mathematics M100703 95 B Biology B100201

46 D Mathematics M100707 96 C Biology B100203

47 C Mathematics M100701 97 B Biology B100207

48 D Mathematics M100708 98 A Biology B100201


50 B Mathematics M100201 100 B Biology B100202



FIITJEE COMMON TEST



SOLUTIONS 1. (B) Sol. Jawaharlal Nehru proudly proclaimed the dams as the “Temples of Modern India”

2. (A) Sol. The Krishna-Godavari dispute is due to the objections raised by Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

government.

3. (A) Sol. Tamil Nadu is the first and the only state in India which as made rooftop rainwater harvesting

structure compulsory to all the houses across the state.

4. (D) Sol. Rooftop rainwater is collecting using a PVC pipe. Underground pipe takes water to sump for

immediate usage and water from the well recharges the underground.

5. (A) Sol. Sardar Sarovar Dam is built across the Narmada river in Gujarat.

6. (A) Sol. Canal roofs are small islands made by the remains of the canal over a long period.

7. (C) Sol. Damodar river is known as the sorrow of Bengal and Kosi river is known as sorrow of Bihar.

8. (D) Sol. The Hirakud project in the Tapi basin integrated conservation of water with flood control.

9. (D) Sol. About 60% surface water is covered by the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmputra.

10. (A) Sol. Tungabhadra Project is a multi purpose River Valley Project of South India.

11. (A) Sol. India receive nearly 4% of the global precipitation and ranks 133 in the world in terms of water

availability per person per annum.

12. (C) Sol. In Meghalaya, a 200 year old system of tapping, stream and spring water by using bamboo pipes in

prevalent. About 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe system, gets transported over hundreds of metres and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute at the site of the plant.

13. (A) Sol. Word calligraphy known as the art of beautiful and stylised writing.

14. (A) Sol. Johann Gutenberg developed the first known printing press in 1430s

15. (C)



Sol. The earliest kind of print technology was developed in China, Japan and Korea. This was a system of hand printing.

16. (A) Sol. The oldest Japanese book, printed in A.D. 868, is the Buddhist Diamond Sutra, Containing 6 sheets

of the text and wood cut illustrations.

17. (B) Sol. Gutenberg was the son of merchant and grew up on a large agricultural estate. The first book he

printed was the Bible.

18. (A) Sol. Sambad Kaumudi was the weekly newspaper whose publication was started by Raja Ram Mohan

Roy.

19. (B) Sol. Samuel Richardson‟s Pamela, written in the eighteenth Century, told much of its story through an

exchange of letters between two lovers.

20. (B) Sol. Srinivas Das is the author of the novel “Pariksha Gurus.”

21. (B) Sol. Leo Tolstoy was a famous Russian novelist who wrote extensively on rural life and community.

22. (A) Sol. Vernacular means Literary form, the normal and spoken form of a language rather than the formal.

23. (A) Sol. The novel Sewasadan deals mainly with the poor condition of women in society.

24. (A) Sol. Godan (the gift of cow) published in 1936, remains Premchand‟s best known work.

25. (A) Sol. In 2005, the Son Jose state university installed a 20 foot high sculpture represented the protest by

Tommie Smith and John Carlos.

26. (A) Sol. Civil Rights Movement was led by Martin Luther, This movement practiced non-violent methods of

civil disobedience against racially discriminatory laws and practices.

27. (D) Sol. In the 1968, Olympics held at Mexico City.

28. (A) Sol. Social divisions and differences are based on accident of birth.

29. (A) Sol. The term Feminist means a woman or man who believes in equal rights and opportunities.

30. (A) Sol. In many parts of the India parents prefer to have sons and find ways to have the girl child aborted

before she is born. That‟s why the sex ratio in India is 933 : 1000

31. (B) Sol. The literacy rate among women is only 54% compared with 76% among men.

32. (B) Sol. Buddhism is the major religion of Sri Lanka



33. (A) Sol. In Barter system, goods and commodities are exchanged without use of money.

34. (A) Sol. If two persons have to agree to sell and buy each other commodities, then it is called Double

coincidence of wants.

35. (A) Sol. Gold Mohar are from Akbar‟s reign.

36. (B) Sol. Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. For example, banks

in India these days hold about 15% of their deposits as cash.

37. (B) Sol. In rural area, the main demand for credit is for crop production. Crop production involves

considerable costs on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity etc.

38. (D) Sol. Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement and the mode of repayment together

comprise what is called the terms of credit.

39. (A) Sol. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.

40. (D) Sol. The informal sectors of loan include money lenders, traders, employers, relatives and friends etc.

41. (D)

Sol. Here ABC ~ EDC

so, AB

ED =

BC

DC

4

3 =

BC

4.8

BC = 4 4.8

3

BC = 6.4 cm

and AC

EC =

AB

ED

AC

4.2 =

4

3

AC = 5.6 cm

42. (A)

Sol. QR = RS

so, RQS = RSQ

RQS = 180º 100º

2

RQS = 40º

so, PQS = 180º – 40º = 40º PQ = QS

so, QPS = 180º 40º

2

= 20º

43. (B)

Sol. BAC + BCD = 180º



so, ABC + ADC = 180º

but EBC + EDC = 360º – 220º – 70º

EBC + EDC = 70º

ABE + ADE = ABC – EBC + ADC – EDC

= ABC + ADC – (EBC + EDC)

= 180º – 70º = 110º

44. (A)

Sol. ACE ~ DBE

AE

DE =

CE

BE

4

x =

2

3

x = 6 cm

45. (B)

Sol. AB

FE =

AC

FD =

BC

ED =

2

3

so, ABC ~ FED

46. (D)

Sol. AB

AC =

BD

DC

AB

20 =

6

4

AB = 30 cm

47. (C)

Sol.

FE || BC (From mid-point theorem)

so, B = E of DEF = 89º

C = F of DEF = 58º

so, A = D = 33º

48. (D)

Sol. A DCB will be cyclic quadrilateral.

so, DAB + BCD = 180º

Hence AED + DAB + BCD = 114º + 180º

= 294º.

49. (A)

Sol. sin 2A = 2sinA

put A = 0°

so, sin A = sin 0° = 0

50. (B)

Sol. = 90°

= 2

2 + = 90°

= 30°, = 60°

cos2 + sin

2 =

21 1

2 2

= 1 1

4 4 =

1

2



51. (B)

Sol. CB = 30 tan 30°

= 30

3

So, by pythagoras Theorem

CD2 = 30

2 +

230

3

= 900 + 300 = 1200

CD = 3 10 4 10

= 10 10 2 2 3

= 20 3 m

Now PB = 30

20 33

= 90

3

PB = 90 3

3

= 30 3 m

52. (B) Sol. EB = AD = 13m

and CD = 12m then EC = 12m we have to find BC in BEC

132 = 12

2 + BC

2

25 = BC2

BC = 5m

53. (B) Sol.

In ABC, sin2 =

2

2 2

h

h a

In ABD, cos2 =

2

2 2

h

h b

sin2 + cos

2= 1

2 2

2 2 2 2

h h

a h b h

= 1

54. (D) Sol. cos 210º = cos (180° + 30°)

= –cos 30° = 3

–2

55. (D)

Sol. x2 = p

2 – q

2

= (p – q) (p + q)

x = p q

= 2q 1

A

B C

q p

x

56. (B) Sol. sec + tan = k



1 sin

cos

= k

21 1 cos

cos

= k

21 1 cos = k cos

21 cos = k cos – 1

1–cos2 = k

2cos

2 + 1 – 2 k cos

2k cos = cos2 (k

2 + 1)

cos = 2

2k

k 1

57. (C) Sol. Median of –10, –8, –5, –3, 3, 5, 5, 8, 10, 11

Median = th th5 6

2

= 3 5

42

58. (C) Sol. Histrogram is used to find mode. 59. (D)

Sol. In ACB, tan 30° = h

150 CD

In DCB, tan 60° = h

CD

CD = h

3

i.e. 1

3 =

h

h150

3

3 h = h

1503

h = 75 3 m

60. (B) Sol.

In ABC, AB

10 = cot 45º.

AB

10 = 1

AB = 10 m

61. (A)

Sol F

= 0 1 2i i

2 R

F

=

–74 10 5 8

2 R

= –680

103

= 26.66 × 10–6

= 2.7 × 10–5 N attractive 62. (A)



Sol If a current carrying wire is oriented parallel to a uniform magnetic field then it experience a zero force.

F = BI sin

there = 0 then sin = 0

F = (B) (I) () (0) = 0 63. (B)

Sol We know that B = –7

–50I 4 10 901.2 10 T

2 R 2 1.5

Using the right-hand rule, we find that the directed of magnetic field induction is towards south. 64. (C) Sol For charge particles, if they are moving freely in space, electrostatic force is deminant over magnetic

force between them. due to electrostatic force they repel each other. 65. (B) Sol. The magnetic field at the centre of closed loop is

B = 0I

2r =

–7

–2

4 10 I

2 5 10

or 0.70 × 10–4

=

–7

–2

4 10 I

10 10

I = 5.6A

66. (B)

Sol. Magnetic needle is a dipole which is in earth‟s uniform

magnetic field and as a dipole in a uniform field does not

experience any net force but may experience a couple as

shown in figure, so the needle together with the cork will not

translate i.e. move towards the north of the lake, but will

rotate and set itself parallel to the field with it‟s north pole

pointing north.

67. (C) Sol. Magnetic lorentz force is given by,

F

= q(V B)

we know, |qe| = |qp| = |qp|

Ve = VP (given)

So, e| F |

= P| F |

68. (B)

Sol. Magnetic lorentz force is given by, | F |

= q(V B)

as F is always r to velocity or motion, work done by it is zero. So work energy theorem we can say that there would by no change. in kinetic energy of charge i.e. speed is constant.

This force change the direction of motion continuously so velocity and momentum will change.

69. (D)

Sol. Magnetic lorentz force is given as F

= q(V B)

| F |

= q VB sin

Particle B should be chargeless as it is not undergoing only deflection while passing through magnetic field while particle A & C should be positively charged.



70. (D) Sol. In fission reaction heavy water is used as moderator which tries to slow down the thermal

neutrons. 71. (B) Sol. Nuclear energy is Non renewable source of energy. 72. (D) Sol. All the three conditions are Necessary for combustion that are like : 1. Presence of combustible substance 2. Presence of oxygen 3. Heating the combustible substance to its ignition temperature 73. (D) Sol. The role of moderator in nuclear power plant is to decrease the speed of bombarding

neutrons. So that extent of Nuclear reaction can be controlled. 74. (A) Sol. Nitrogen is not a part of Biogas while all others like CH4, H2S and CO are constituents of

Bio-gas. 75. (D) Sol. In Froth Floatation process pine oil is used for foam formation. So option (C) is correct 76. (D)

Sol. FeCl3 + aq. 3NaOH Fe(OH)3 + 3NaCl Ferric Ferric hydroxide chloride (Reddish brown ppt) So option (D) is correct 77. (B)

Sol. Zn + 2NaOH Na2ZnO2 + H2 Zinc Sodium Sodium Hydrogen hydroxide Zincate gas So option (B) is correct 78. (A) Sol. When Gangue is light conc. of ore can be done by gravity separation. 79. (C) Sol. When one part of conc. HNO3 and three parts of conc. HCl are mixed, then aqua regia

obtained. So option (C) is correct. 80. (A) Sol. Potassium ethyl xanthate used as an activator in froth floatation process. So option (A) is correct. 81. (B) Sol. Gravity separation method is based upon difference in densities of ore particles and

impurities. 82. (D) Sol. Calcination - In this process metallurgy ore is heated in the absence of air. It‟s main role are

: (i) To remove moisture (ii) To decompose carbonates



(iii) To derive of organic matter So of option (D) is correct. 83. (C) Sol. Condition necessary for ionic bonds formation is (i) Low ionisation energy of electro positive element. (ii) High Electron affinity of electro negative element. So option (C) is correct. 84. (D) Sol. Calcination Roasting (A) Ore is heated in the absence of air Ore is heated ion the presence of air. (B) It is used for carbonate ores It is used for sulphide ores. So option (D) is correct. 85. (A) Sol. Metal like Zinc, copper, nickel tin lead etc. are moderatory reactive metals. They can be

reduced by carbon.

e.g. ZnO + C Zn + CO 86. (D) Sol. Dolomite - MgCO3 CaCO3 Galena - PbS Pyrolusite - MnO2 Cassiterite - SnO2

87. (C) Sol. Lattice Energy : The amount of energy released when one mole of cation combines with

one mole of anion to form electrovalent compound. It depends upon charge and size of the ion. So option (C) is correct 88. (A) Sol. Organic compound are covalent in nature so they have low dielectric const. while water has

high di electric constant so organic compounds are not soluble in water. 89. (B) Sol. Adrenalin hormone secreted by Adrenal Medulla prepares an individual during emergency

or stress situations. 90. (D) Sol. Axon may or may not be covered by a fatty sheath called myelin sheath. This covering is missing at

intervals. These gaps are known as Nodes of Ranvier.

91. (C) Sol. Hypersecretion of GH in adults results in the increase in thickness of lower jaw and disproportionate

overgrowth of bones of the face, hands and feet, this condition is known as Acromegaly.

92. (D) Sol. Duramater – The outermost tough fibrous membrane. Arachnoid – The thin delicate middle layer giving a web like cushion Piamater – The innermost highly vascular membrane supplied with blood. 93. (D) Sol. Cerebrum of forebrain (central nervous system) is the centre for memory and learning. 94. (D)



Sol. Hypothalamus is centre for hunger, thirst, sweating, sleep, fatigue, temperature, anger, pleasure, love hate, and satisfaction. Thus, if a man is suffering from given abnormalities, he has a tumour in his hypothalamus.

95. (B) Sol. Chemotropism refers to directional growth in response to chemicals. Pollen tube grow

down the style due to a chemical produced by the ovule during fertilisation 96. (C) Sol. Statement „C‟ is the correct statement for statement B 97. (B) Sol. Thyroxine is an iodinated amino acid, so its synthesis requires iodine. 98. (A) Sol. Since root shows growth in the direction of gravity, this type of response is termed as

positive geotropism 99. (D) Sol. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone responsible for fruit ripening. Gibberellins help in

germination of seed. 100. (B) Sol. ABA (Abscisic acid) is a naturally occurring growth inhibitor in plants.

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

(Applicable for class X)

PHASE TEST – 2 (Normal)

(SET-A)


Time: 45 Minutes Date : 29-06-13 Maximum Marks: 50

Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :


pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is

strictly prohibited.





Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .





1. If in a code language MENTAL is 417253, then how are TEN & ANT coded in that language ? (A) 217,572 (B) 417,527 (C) 217,527 (D) 172,534 2. If OX is coded as 39, what will be the code number for LION ? (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 38 (D) 50 3. If BOOK is coded as 43, what will be the code number for PEN ? (A) 53 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 43 4. In a certain code 786 means study very hard, 958 means hard work pays and 645

means study and work. Which of the following is the code for very ? (A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) Cannot be

determined 5. In a certain code language, pit dar na means I love India, dar tok pa means India is

great, and tim na tok means with great love. In that language, which word stands for with ?

(A) na (B) tok (C) tim (D) pit 6. In a certain code FORGET is written as DPPHCU. In the same code DOCTOR will be written as : (A) EPDUPS (B) ROTCOD (C) BPAUMS (D) CPBUNS 7. If MALE = 31 and PLAY = 54 than CLASS = ? (A) 35 (B) 31 (C) 54 (D) 45 8. If RUM stands for TWO, what are the symbols for ONE ? (A) NMF (B) POF (C) MLC (D) QPG Directions : (9 to 13) Study the following information carefully and answer the question

given below it : (i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members in a family in which there are two married couples. (ii) E, a teacher is married to the doctor who is mother of C and F. (iii) B, the lawyer is married to A (iv) A has one son and one grandson. (v)Of the two married ladies one is a housewife (vi)There is also one student and one male Engineer in the family. 9. How is A related to C ? (A) Grand father (B) Mother (C) Sister (D) Grand mother 10. Who among the following is the housewife ? (A) A (B) B (C) D (D) None of these



11. How is C related to F ? (A) Brother (B) Sister (C) Brother or Sister (D) None of these 12. Which of the following represents the group of females in the family ? (A) ADC (B) ADF (C) BEC (D) Data

inadequate 13. Which of the following is true about the grand-daughter in the family ? (A) She is a lawyer (B) She is a student (C) She is an engineer (D) None of these 14. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the same code ? (A) EOJDJEFM (B) EOJDEJFM (C) MFEJDJOE (D) MFEDJJOE 15. Which of the following words would correctly decode the word ZHOFRPH if the simple

alphabet shifting code is used ? (A) ARTISTS (B) COMPUTE (C) MAILING (D) WELCOME 16. If in a certain code language : (1) „Tom Kun Sud‟ means „Dogs are barking‟ (2) „Kun Jo Mop‟ means „Dogs and horses‟ (3) „Mut Tom Ko‟ means „Donkeys are mad‟. Which word in that language means „barking‟ ? (A) Ko (B) Kun (C) Jo (D) Sud 17. In a certain code language, „134‟ means „good and tasty‟; „478‟ means „see good pictures‟

and „729‟ means „pictures are faint‟. Which of the following digits sands for „see‟ ? (A) 9 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 8 Direction (18 to 19) : Read the following statements and answer the questions. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre. E is to the left of D. C is between A and B. F is between E and A. 18 Who is to the left of B ? (A) A (B) D (C) E (D) C 19. who is the right of C ? (A) E (B) F (C) B (D) A

20. Which number indicates good speakers who are neither post graduates nor doctors ? (A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 1

Directions (21 to 22) : In each of the following questions, find out which of the alternatives (a), (b), (c) or (d) indicates the correct relationship between the three given words ?

21. Judge, Thieves and Criminals ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)



22. Triangle, Four-sided figure, Square

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23. In the following diagram rectangle represents women, triangle represents Sub. Inspector of Police and circle represents graduates. Which numbered area represents women graduate Sub. Inspector of Police ?

(A) 5 (B) 13 (C) 8 (D) 3

24. Which number is present only in one figure ?

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7

Directions (25-29) : Choose the conclusion which will follow by applying the given statements written below :

25. Statements : All tubes are handles. All Cups are handles.

Conclusions: (A) All cups are tubes. (B) Some handles are not cups. (C) Some cups are tubes (D) No conclusion

26. Statements : All ships are boats. All catamarans are ships.

Conclusions: (A) All catamarans are boats. (B) Some ships are catamarans. (C) No catamaran is boat. (D) Both A and B follows

27. Statements : All apples are oranges. Some oranges are papayas.

Conclusions: (A) Some apples are papayas. (B) Some papayas are apples.



(C) No conclusion (D) Both follows

28. Statements : Some dogs are bulls. No tigers are dogs.

Conclusions: (A) No dogs are tigers. (B) Some bulls are tigers. (C) No conclusion (D) Both A and B follows

29. Statements : Some bottles are pencils. Some pencils are glasses.

Conclusions: (A) No glass is bottle. (B) Some bottles are glasses. (C) No conclusion (D) Both follows

Direction (Q.30-33) : Read the information given below and answer the question that follow. (i) In a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F, there are two married couples. (ii) D is grandmother of A and mother of B. (iii) C is wife of B and mother of F. (iv) F is the grand daughter of E. 30. What is C to A ? (A) Daughter (B) Grandmother (C) Mother (D) Can't be

determined 31. How many male members are there in the family? (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Can't be

determined 32. Which of the following is true ? (A) A is brother of F (B) A is sister of F (C) D has two grandsons (D) None of

these 33. Who among the following is one of the couples? (A) CD (B) DE (C) EB (D) None of these (Direction : 34 to 36) : Five persons are standing in a queue, one of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other is a Businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. A author is to the Immediate left of the businessman. The student is between the professor and the advocate. 34. Counting from the left the author is at which place? (A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth 35. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the queue? (A) Professor (B) Advocate (C) Student (D) Businessman 36. If advocate and the businessman exchange their positions also the author and student,

then who will be standing to the left of the student? (A) Author (B) Businessman (C) Professor (D) Advocate



(Directions 37 to 41) : In the following diagram, three class of people are represented by three figures. The triangle represents school teachers, the square represents the married persons and the circle represents the persons living in joint families.

37. Married persons living in joint families but not working as school teachers are represented by : (A) C (B) F (C) D (D) A 38. Persons who live in joint families, are unmarried and who do not work as school teachers

are represented by : (A) C (B) B (C) E (D) D 39. Married teachers living in joint families are represented by : (A) C (B) B (C) D (D) A 40. School teachers who are married but no not live in joint families are represents by : (A) C (B) F (C) A (D) D 41. School teachers who are neither married nor do live in joint families are represented by : (A) F (B) C (C) B (D) A 42. Vijay attains a loan of Rs. 64000 against his fixed deposits. If the rate of interest be 2.5

paisa per rupee per annum then calculate the compound interest payable after 3 years. (A) 68291 (B) 4219 (C) 4129 (D) 4921 43. Find the compound interest on Rs. 1000 at the rate of 10% per annum for 18 months when

interest is compounded half-yearly. (A) 157.625 (B) 162.571 (C) 152.654 (D) None of these 44. Ramesh deposited Rs. 7500 in a bank which pays him 12% interest per annum

compounded quarterly. What is the amount which he receives after 9 months ? (A) 712.25 (B) 8195.45 (C) 7191.523 (D) None of these

45. Ram Singh bought a T.V. for Rs. 6000 on credit. The rate of interest for the first year is 5%

and of the second year is 15%.How much will it cost him if he pays the amount after two years.

(A) 8800 (B) 8259 (C) 8265 (D) 7245 46. A lent Rs. 600 to B for 2 years, and Rs. 150 to C for 4 years and received altogether from

both Rs. 90 as interest. Find the rate of interest, on which simple interest being calculated. (A) 5% (B) 8% (C) 7% (D) 9%

47. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1

9 of the principal, and the number of years is

equal to the rate percent per annum. Find the rate percent.

(A) 51

3% (B) 8

1

3% (C) 3

1

3% (D) 9

1

3%



48. Divide Rs. 2379 into three parts so that their amounts after 2, 3 and 4 years respectively may be equal, the rate of interest being 5% per annum and find the maximum amount being distributed among the three part individually.

(A) 926 (B) 828 (C) 792 (D) 982 49. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 756 in 2 yrs and to Rs. 873 in 3.5 yrs. Find the rate

of interest. (A) 13% (B) 15% (C) 16% (D) 18% 50. A sum was put at SI at a certain rate for 2 yrs. Had it been put at 3% higher rate, it would

have fetched Rs. 300 more. Find the sum.

(A) 2000 (B) 6000 (C) 7000 (D) 5000



FIITJEE COMMON TEST



ANSWER KEY

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A)

11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (D)

21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (C)

31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)

41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (D)



FIITJEE COMMON TEST



SOLUTIONS 1. (A) Sol.

TEN 217 and ANT 572 2. (D)

Sol. OX 15 + 24 = 39

LION 12 + 9 + 15 + 14 = 50 3. (C)

Sol. BOOK 2 + 15 + 15 + 11 = 43.

PEN 16 + 5 + 14 = 35 4. (C)

Sol. 786 Study very hard

958 Hard work pays

645 Study and work

8 hard, 5 work, 6 study, i.e. very 7. 5. (C)

Sol. Pit dar na I love India

dar tok pa India is Great

tim na tok with great love.

dar India, tok Great, na Love i.e. with tim. 6. (C) Sol.

Similarly

7. (C)

Sol. MALE 13 + 1 + 12 + 5 = 31

PLAY 16 + 12 + 1 + 25 = 54

CLASS 3 + 12 + 1 + 19 + 19 = 54 8. (D)



Sol.

9. (D) Sol.

On the basis of above relation tree A is Grand Mother of C.



10. (A) Sol.

On the basis of above relation tree A is the housewife. 11. (C) Sol.

On the basis of above relation tree C and F can be Brother or Sister 12. (D) Sol.

Data is Inadequate to answer the above question.



13. (B) Ans.

On the basis of above relation tree B is the Student 14. (A) Sol. First letter of COMPUTER shifted to last and O + 1 = P then M + 1 = N and P + 1 = Q and

so on. So by following the code MEDICINE is coded as option A. 15. (D) Sol. As given code is obtained by moving each letter of the word WELCOME three steps ahead. 16. (D) Sol. As Dog = Kun, are = Tom, So, Sud = barking. 17. (D) Sol. By summing up the given data we can conclude that good is coded as 4 and picture is

coded as 7. So coding of see is option D. 18. (B)

Sol.



19. (D)

Sol.

20. (D) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram only option no. D follows. 21. (A) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram only option no. A follows 22. (C) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram only option no. C follows 23. (D) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram only option no. D follows 24. (C) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram only option no. C follows 25. (D) Sol.

As middle term is not distributed so no conclusion follows. 26. (D) Sol.



27. (C) Sol.

As middle term is not distributed even once and on the basis of diagram it is clear that no

conclusion follow. 28. (A) Sol.

On the basis of diagram only conclusion A follows. 29. (C) Sol.

On the basis of diagram no conclusion follows 30. (C) Sol.

D E

B C

FA(Family Chart)



31. (D) Sol.

D E

B C

FA(Family Chart)

32. (D) Sol.

D E

B C

FA(Family Chart)

33. (B) Sol.

D E

B C

FA(Family Chart)

34. (D)

Sol. x x x x x

Professor

Student

Advocate

Author

Business man

35. (B)

Sol. x x x x x

Professor

Student

Advocate

Author

Business man

36. (B)

Sol. x x x x x

Professor

Student

Advocate

Author

Business man

37. (C) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram given in the question option C is correct. 38. (C) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram given in the question option C is correct.



39. (B) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram given in the question option B is correct. 40. (A) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram given in the question option A is correct. 41. (A) Sol. By analyzing the venn diagram given in the question option A is correct. 42. (D) Sol. P = Rs. 64000, n = 3 years R = 2.5 paisa per rupee per annum = (2.5 × 100) paisa per hundred rupees per annum.

= 2.5 100

100

percent per annum.

= 2.5% per annum.

Amount after 3 years = Rs. 64000 3

2.51

100

= Rs, 64000 × 41

40 ×

41

40 ×

41

40

= Rs. 68921 Compound interest payable after 3 years = Rs. 68921 – Rs, 64000 = Rs, 4921 43. (A)

Sol. Here, P = Rs. 1000, R = 10% per annum and, n = 18

12years =

3

2years.

Amount after 18 months

= 2n

RP 1

200

= Rs. 1000 ×

32

2101

200

= Rs. 1000 × 3

11

20

= Rs, 1000 × 3

21

20

= Rs. 1000 × 21 21 21

20 20 20

= Rs. 1157.625 Hence, compound interest = Amount – Principal = Rs. 1157.625 – Rs. 1000 = Rs. 157.625 44. (B) Sol. Here, P = Rs. 7500, R = 12% interest per annum and

n = 9 months = 9

12 years =

3

4 years

Amount after 9 months



= 4n

RP 1

400

= Rs. 7500 ×

34

4121

400

= Rs. 7500 × 3

103

100

= Rs. 7500 × 103 103 103

100 100 100

= Rs. 8195.45. 45. (D) Sol. Here P = Rs. 6000, R1 = 5% p.a., R2 = 15% p.a.

Amount after two years = P 1 2R R1 1

100 100

= 6000 5

1100

151

100

= 6000 × 21

20 ×

23

20 = Rs. 7245

Thus, the T.V. will cost him Rs. 7245 46. (A) Sol. Rs. 600 for 2 years = Rs. 1200 for 1 year and Rs. 150 for 4 years = Rs. 600 for 1 year Int. = Rs. 90

Rate = 90 100

1800 1

= 5%

47. (C) Sol. Let Principal = P, time =t years, rate = t

Then P t t P

100 9

t2 = 100

9 t =

10

3 = 3

1

3 rate = 3

1

3%

48. (B)

Sol. Amount of 1st part = 110

100 × 1st part

Amount of 2nd part = 115

2nd100

part

Amount of 3rd part = 120

100 × 3rd part

According to the question, these amounts are equal

110 × 1st part = 115 × 2nd part = 120× 3rd part

1st part : 2nd part : 3rd part = 1 1 1

: :110 115 120

= 276 : 264 : 253 Hence, dividing Rs. 2379 into three parts in the ratio 276 : 264 : 253, we have 1st part = Rs.

828, 2nd part = Rs. 792, 3rd part = Rs. 759



49. (A) Sol. P + SI for 3.5 yrs = Rs. 873 P + SI for 2 yrs = Rs 756 On subtracting, SI for 1.5 yrs = Rs. 117

Therefore, SI for 2 yrs = Rs 117

21.5

= Rs. 156

P = 756 – 156 = Rs, 600

and rate = 100 156

600 2

= 13% per annum

50. (D) Sol. Let the sum be Rs x and the original rate be y% per annum. Then, new rate = (y + 3)% per

annum

x(y 3) 2

100

–

x(y) 2

100

= 300

xy + 3x – xy = 15,000 or, x = 5000 Thus, the sum = Rs. 5000

* * * * *



FIITJEE CBSE COMMON

TEST

Applicable for class X

PHASE TEST – II (Normal)

MATHEMATICS Time: 1:30 Hours Date : 29-06-13 Max Marks: 41 Instructions: 1. This paper consists of 17 questions only


3. Question No. 1 – 4 carries 1 mark each and 05 – 09 carries 2 marks,

10 – 14 carries 3 marks and 15 – 17 carries 4 marks each.




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MCQ (4 × 1 = 4)

1. It is given that ABC ~ PQR with BC 1

QR 3 . Then

ar( PRQ)

ar( BCA)

is equal to :

(A) 9 (B) 3 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/9

2. sec2 – tan

2 is equal to :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

3. The value of 2 2 2 2 2 21 1(sin 7 cos 7 ) – (sin 30 cos 30 ) (sin 7 sin 83 )

2 2 is equal to :

(A) 3 (B) 1

32

(C) 2 (D) 1

4. If tan 15° = 2 – 3 , then the value of cot2 75° is :

(A) 7 3 (B) 7 – 2 3 (C) 7 – 4 3 (D) 7 4 3

MCQ (2 × 2 = 4) 5. The area of a right angled isosceles triangle whose hypotenuse is equal to 270 m is : (A) 19000 m

2 (B) 18225 m

2 (C) 17256 m

2 (D) 18325 m

2

6. If x = p sec and y = q tan then :

(A) x2 – y

2 = p

2q

2 (B) x

2q

2 – y

2p

2 = pq (C) 2 2 2 2

2 2

1x q – y p

p q (D) x

2q

2 – y

2p

2 =

p2q

2

Short Answer type I (3 × 2 = 6)

7. If 7

cot8

, evaluate (1– cos )(1 cos )

(1– sin )(1 sin )

.

8. If 13 tan = 12, then find the value of 2 2

2sin cos

cos – sin

9. Find if sin 3 = cos ( – 6)°, where 3 and ( – 6)° are acute angles. Short Answer type II (5 × 3 = 15)

10. E and F are points on the sides PQ and PR respectively of a PQR. If PE = 4 cm, QE = 4.5 cm, PF = 8 cm and RF = 9 cm, prove EF || QR.

11. If sin + cosec = 2 then find sinn + cosec

n .

12. A vertical stick 12m long casts a shadow 8 m long on the ground. At the same time a tower casts the shadow 40 m long on the ground. Find the height of the tower.

13. The mean of the marks secured by 25 students of section A of class X is 47, that of 35 students of section B is 51 and that of 30 students of section C is 53. Find the combined mean of the marks of students of three section of class X.

14. The mean of marks scored by 100 students was found to be 40. Later on it was discovered that a score of 53 was misread as 83. Find the correct mean.

Long Answer type (3 × 4 = 12) 15. The string of a kite is 250m long it makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Find the height of the

kite, assuming that there is no slackness in the string.

16. Find the angle of elevation of the sum (sun‟s altitude) when the length shadow of a vertical pole is equal to its height.

17. If 2 2

2 2

a – bsin

a b

, then find cosec + cot .



* * * * *

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST – II


SOLUTIONS

1. (A)

Sol. Since, ABC ~ PQR

2 2

2 2

ar( PRQ) PR QR 9 QR 39

ar( BCA) 1 BC 1AC BC

2. (A)

Sol. sec2 – tan

2 = 1.

3. (D) Sol. sin 83° = cos 7°

the given expression is 1 – 1 + 1 = 1. 4. (C)

Sol. cot2 75°= 2(2 – 3) 7 – 4 3

5. (B) Sol. Hypotenuse = 270 m

Hypotenuse2 = Side

2 + Side

2 = 2 Side

2

Side2 = (270)

2/2

= 72900/2 = 36450

area = 21(side) 18225

2

6. (D)

Sol. x y

sec and tanp q so

2 2

2 2

x y– 1

p q .

7. (1– cos )(1 cos )

(1– sin )(1 sin )

2

2

1– cos

1– sin

= tan

2

64

49

8. Given : 13 tan = 12

Now given expression is, 2 2

2sin cos

cos – sin

Dividing numerator and denominator by cos2.

Given expression is 312

25

9. sin 3 = cos ( – 6)°

where ( – 6)° is an acute angle so 3 + ( – 6)° = 90°



= 96

244

10. PE

EQ =

4 8 PF 8 PE PF,

4.5 9 RF 9 EQ RF

EF || QR

11. sin + cosec = 2 so sin = 1

sinn + cosec

n = 2

12. If figure, AB represents the stick and BC is its shadow.

Therefore AB = 12 m and BC = 8 m. Again PQ is tower and QR is its shadow. Therefore QR = 40 m

Now, ABC ~PQR

PQ

QR =

AB PQ 12PQ 60m

BC 40 8

13. (50.56) Sol. Mean of the marks of 25 students of XA = 47

Sum of the marks of 25 students = 25 × 47 = 1175 ...........(i) Mean of the marks of 35 students of XB = 51

Sum of the marks of 35 students = 35 × 51 = 1785 ...........(ii) Mean of the marks of 30 students of XC = 53

Sum of the marks of 30 students = 30 × 53 = 1590 ...........(iii) Adding (i), (ii) and (iii) Sum of the marks of (25 + 35 + 30) i.e., 90 students = 1175 + 1785 + 1590 = 4550

Thus the combined mean of the marks of students of three sections = 4550

50.5690

14. (39.7)

Sol. n = 100, x 40

x = 1 1

1 1x 40 x

n 100

Incorrect value of 1x = 4000 Now, correct value of 1x = 4000 – 85 + 53 = 3970

Correct mean = 1correct value of x 3970

39.7n 100

So, the correct mean is 39.7 15. Let K be the position of the kit at a height h above the ground OA. The length of the string = OK = 250 m such that

KOA = 60°

In KOA, we have

KA

KO = sin 60°

KA = 3

250 125 3 m2

16. The angle of elevation of the sun = 45°.



17. sin = 2 2

2 2

a – b

a b Since sin =

perpendicular

base

2 2

2 2

AC a – b

AB a b

Now in ABC,

B = and C = 90° (a

2 + b

2)2 = BC

2 + (a

2 – b

2)2

BC = 2ab

2 2

2 2 2 2

a b BC 2abcosec , cot

ACa – b a – b

2 2

2 2 2 2

a b 2ab a bcosec cot

a – ba – b a – b

FIITJEE CBSE COMMON

TEST


PHASE TEST – II (Normal)

SCIENCE

Time: 1:30 hours. Date : 29-06-13 Maximum Marks: 48

Instruction:

i) This question paper contains three sections: Section A, B and C indicates Physics, Chemistry and Biology.

ii) Section A carries 15 marks, Section B carries 15 marks and Section C carries 18marks.

iii) All the questions are compulsory.

iv) Use of calculator and log table is not permitted. Useful data:


Kg


coulombs





= 2 Cal mol1


Planck’s constant h = 6.625 1034 J sec.

1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb

1 calorie = 4.2 Joule

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al=13, Si=14, P=15,

S=16, Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Sc=21, Ti = 22,V=23, Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33, Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56, Pb=82, U=92.

Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108, Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .



SECTION – A (PHYSICS)

Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark Question) 1. Define magnetic lines of force. Short Answer Type Questions – I (2 Mark Question) 2. Define electromagnet and its working.

3. What is solenoid ?


4. (a) What is Fleming's left hand rule ? (b) Define fuel. Give any three characteristics of fuel. Long Answer Type (5 Mark Question) 5. (i) What is combustion ? (ii) A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc

of radius r metres subtending an angle at the centre as shown. The magnetic field at the centre O in tesla is:

I

O

MCQs 2 1 2

6. A current flows in a conductor from east to west. Direction of magnetic field at a point above the

conductor is towards (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 7. In nuclear reactors, steel rods coated with boron are used, because boron : (A) Absorbs neutron easily (B) Cools the reactor (C) Adds strength to the structure of the reactor (D) Acts as a catalyst

SECTION – B (CHEMISTRY)

Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark Question) 8. Name a metal which is the poorest conductor of electricity and a metal which is the best conductor of

electricity. Short Answer Type Questions – I (2 Mark Question) 9. Which of the following elements will form basic oxide : Si, S, Se, P, Mg ? 10. Which of the following metals will liberate hydrogen from dilute acids : Na, Fe, Pb, Cu, Hg ? Give

reasons.


11. What will happen if you keep a solution of silver nitrate in a coper vessel ? Explain the observation.



Long Answer Type (5 Mark Question) 12. Four metals A, B, C and D are added to the following aqueous solutions one by one. The

observations made are tabulated below :

Metal Iron(II) sulphate Copper(II) Sulphate Zinc sulphate Silver nitrate

A No reaction Reddish-brown deposit ---- ----

B Grey deposit ---- No reaction ----

C No reaction No reaction No reaction White shining deposit

D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction

Answer the following question based on the above observations. a. Which is the most active metal and why ? b. What would be observed if B is added to a solution of Copper(II) sulphate and why ? c. Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of increasing reactivity. d. Container of which metal can be used to store both zinc sulphate solution and silver nitrate

solution. e. Which of the above solutions can be easily stored in a container made up of any of these

metals?

MCQ 2 1 2

13. The ores of many metals are oxides because : (A) Oxygen is a very less reactive non-metal (B) Its abundance on earth is less (C) Oxygen is very reactive and abundant non-metal (D) The above statement is false 14. Which of the following will behave as the best reducing agent among the four given below : (A) A metal containing one electron in its outermost 3rd shell (B) A non-metal containing seven electrons in its outermost 3rd shell (C) A metal containing one electron in its outermost 6th shell (D) A non-metal containing seven electrons in its outermost 5th shell

SECTION – C (BIOLOGY)

Very Short Answer Type Questions(1 Mark Question)

15. Name the two sets of nerves that constitute the Peripheral nervous system. Short Answer Type Questions – I(2 Mark Question)

16. (i) Name the plant hormone that promotes cell division (ii) In the figure given below (a), (b) and (c) which appears more accurate and why ?

17. Name one hormone secreted by (a) The testis (b) The islets of langerhans (c) The thyroid gland (d) The ovary


18. Differentiate between



(a) Tropic Movements and Nastic Movement (b) Nervous control and Hormonal control in animals 19. A diabetic patient is given daily injections of insulin to keep his blood glucose level normal, what will

happen if insulin is given orally ?

Long Answer Type (5 Mark Question)

20. Study the figure carefully and answer the following questions

a

b

c d

(a) Label the parts marked as (a), (b), (c) and (d) (b) Give one major function of each (c) Which is the largest part of the brain

MCQs 2 1 2

21. The master gland of the body is : (A) Testis (B) Pituitary (C) Thyroid (D) adrenal 22. Immediate involuntary response to stimuli is called : (A) reflex action (B) Action control (C) Chemical control (D) Autonomic response

* * * * * *



FIITJEE COMMON TEST


PHASE TEST – II

SCIENCE

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. Magnetic field line is an imaginary line such that tangent to it at any point gives the direction of

magnetic field at that point in space. Magnetic field lines are drawn to represent magnetic field. Magnetic field lines can be drawn with the help of magnetic compass. Magnetic field lines are also called as magnetic lines of force.

2. Definition - A strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material like soft iron, when placed inside the solenoid. The magnet so formed is called an electromagnet.

Working- When the switch is closed to make the strong current pass through the wrapped copper coil, it becomes strongly magnetised. When it is suspended vertically by a strong crane and its lower end is touched with a heavy iron sheet lying on the ground, it will stick to the sheet. The crane can easily lift the iron sheet. To make the sheet free, the current is switched off.

3. Definition

A solenoid is a straight cylindrical core on which a large number of turns of an insulated copper wire are wrapped. It is shown in figure

South pole

Northpole

Loop

(i) S-South (ii) N-North

I I

(a) Solenoid carrying current (b) Direction of current in loop

4. (a) The relation between directions of l, B and F can be remembered with the help of Fleming‟s left hand rule. Stretch out the central finger, the fore finger, and the thumb of the left hand to be mutually perpendicular Then, if the central finger be along current and the fore finger be along field, then the thumb will give direction of thrust (force) as shown in figure 20.2. An electric motor works on this principle. The direction of length of the conductor is taken along the direction of current.

ThumbThrust Fore Finger

Field

Central FingerCurrent

(a)

4. (b) Any substance which is easily available and burns in air at a moderate rate, producing large amount of heat energy, without leaving behind any undesirable residue is called a fuel.

(1) It should have high calorific value.



(2) It should have a proper ignition temperature so that it may burn easily.

(3) It should leave no residue (or very small amount of residue) or ash after burning.

5. (i) Combustion is the process of burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen accompained by the evolution of heat and light. Combustion reaction involve a chemical change. The glowing of a bulb cannot be considered a combustion reaction because it does not involve a chemical change, though it produces heat and light.

A few examples of combustion reactions are given below :

C + O2 CO2 + Heat

CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O + Heat

These reactions are also called oxidation reactions.

(ii) 0 0I I

2r 2 4 r

6. (C)

By using right hand thumb rule, we can predict the direction of magnetic field, as shown in fig. 7. (A) In nuclear reactors, steel rods coated with boron are used because Boron has the capability to

absorb Neutrons. 8. Lead is the poorest electricity conducting metal and silver is the best electricity conducting metal. 9. Only metals form basic oxides. Out of the elements Si, S, Se, P and Mg, only Mg is a metal and

other elements are either non-metals or semi-metals. Hence magnesium will form a basic oxide, MgO.

10. The metals which occur above hydrogen in the activity series liberate hydrogen from dilute acids.

Since Na, Fe and Pb occur above hydrogen in the activity series, they will liberate hydrogen from dilute acids. Cu and Hg occur below hydrogen in the activity series and hence they will not liberate hydrogen from dilute acids.

11. There will be formation of holes in the copper vessel after several days. In terms of activity series,

copper is more reactive than silver. Hence copper will react with silver nitrate to form copper(II) nitrate and silver metal. Thus, there will be deposition of silver.

2AgNO3(aq.) + Cu(s) Cu(NO3)2(aq.) + 2Ag(s). 12. a. B is the most reactive metal since it can displace iron from iron(II) sulphate which no other metal

can. b. B will displace copper from copper(II) sulphate solution since it is more reactive than copper. c. D < C < A < B d. Container made of metal D can be used for storing zinc sulphate and silver nitrate solutions. e. Zinc sulphate can be stored in container made up of any of these metals. 13. (C) Sol. The ores of many metals are oxides because oxygen is very reactive and abundant metal. 14. (C) Metal are strong reducing agent because they have tendency to lose e

–.

15. 1. Cranial Nerve 2. Spinal Nerve



16. (i) Cytokinins (ii) Fig. (a) because in plants shoot are negatively geotropic hence, grow upwards and roots are

positively geotropic so they grow downwards. 17. (a) testosterone (b) Insulin and glucagon (c) Thyroxin (d) Oestrogen 18. (a)

Tropic Movements Nastic Movements

1. Direction of response external stimuli is related to the direction of stimulus

Non-directional growth movements.

2. These are curvature movements that occur due to changes in orientation in plant parts in relation to other like bending, twisting and elongation

These are turgor movements caused mainly due to loss or gain of turgidity.

3. Stimulus is generally unilateral eg. Phototropisn, chemotropism etc.

Stimulus is generally diffused eg. Seismonasty, epinasty etc.

(b)

Nervous control Hormone control

1. It is rapid It is comparatively slow

2. It takes place through electrical signals called nerve impulses

It take place through the transportation and action of hormones.

3. Nerve impulses travel in specific direction Hormonal control is not related to any particular direction

19. Insulin in a protein. A molecule of insulin constitutes 51 amino acids in two chains attached by a

disulphide bond. If insulin is taken orally, it will get digested in the gut by digestive enzymes. Hence, insulin is always administered through injection.

20. (b)- a- Cerebrum – Memory, will power, emotion, experience, intelligence, reasoning and learning. b-Cerebellum-body equilibrium, co-ordination, c-Medulla oblongata - Regulation of involuntary actions oblongata. Such as heart beat,

respiration, hearing, sound production, secretion of digestive juices, gastrointestinal peristalsis (c) Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain 21. Pituitary is called master gland because it controls the secretions of some other glands also 22. A reflex action may be defined as the spontaneous, unconscious and involuntary response of

effectors to a stimulus.



PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Time Allotted: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks:240



INSTRUCTIONS

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

E. General Instructions 1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.

2. This question paper contains Three Parts.

3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C



F. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on

OMR sheet. 2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment

No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places. 3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(ii) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct

answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type question containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries + 8 marks for all correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(ii) Section-C (N1 – N6) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,

ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking..

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

BA

TC

HE

S –

13

16

FIITJEE

CODE:



Physics Section – I Part – A

Single Answer Questions

1. A thin rod of length f/3 is placed along the optic axis of a concave

mirror of focal length f such that its image, which is real and

diminished, just, touches the rod. Centre of curvature is at

(a) A (b) B

(c) between A and B (d) between A and P

A P

B

f/3

2. In a concave mirror an object is placed at a distance 1x from the focus and the image is formed at a

distance 2x from the focus. Then the focal length of the mirror is.

(a) 1 2x x (b) 1 2x x (c) 1 2( ) / 2x x (d) 1 2/x x

3. A concave mirror of focal length ' 'f produces a real image ' 'n times the size of the object. Find the

of the object from the mirror.

(a) 1n f

n

(b)

1n

n

(c)

1n f

n

(d)

1n

n

4. A thin rod of length 6 cm lies along the principal axis of the concave mirror of focal length 15 cm in

such a way that the end closer to the pole is 30 cm away from it. Then the length of the image is (a) 4.28 cm (b) 1.75 cm (c) 3.75 cm (d) 4.5 cm 5. The magnification of an object placed in front of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm is +2. To obtain

a magnification of – 2, the object will have to be moved a distance equal to (a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 40 cm

6. Consider the situation shown in figure. Water 4 / 3 is filled in a

beaker up to a height of 10 cm. A plane mirror is fixed at a height of 5 cm from the surface of water. Distance of image from the mirror after reflection from it of an object O at the bottom of the beaker is

(a) 15 cm (b) 12.5 cm (c) 7.5 cm (d) 10 cm

5 cm

10 cm

7. A hollow convex lens made of glass will behave like a (a) Convex lens (b) concave lens (c) glass plate (d) mirror

8. Two plane mirrors 1M and

2M each have length 1 m and

are separated by 1 cm. A ray of light is incident on one

end of mirror 1M at an angle is 045 . How many reflections

will the ray have before going out from the other end? (a) 100 (b) 101 (c) 99 (d) none of these

045

2M

1M

One or more than one correct option questions

9. From a concave mirror of focal length ' 'f image is 2 times larger. Then the object distance from the

mirror is: (a) f/2 (b) 3f/2 (c) f/4 (d) 4f/3



10. A diverging lens of focal length 1f is placed in front of and coaxially with a concave mirror of focal

length2f . Their separation is d . A parallel beam of light incident on the lens returns as a parallel

beam from the arrangement. Then,

(a) 2 12d f f (b) 2 1d f f

(c) If the entire arrangement is immersed in water, the conditions will remain unaltered (d) If the entire arrangement is immersed in water, the conditions will be altered 11. A plane mirror reflecting a ray is rotated through an angle about an axis through the point of

incidence perpendicular to the plane of reflection then which of the following are correct (a) The incident ray does not rotate (b) the normal ray rotates through an angle

(c) The reflected ray rotates through an angle 2 (d) the incident ray rotates through an angle

12. If a fish inside water and a bird in the sky are looking at each other. (a) To the fish, the bird appear to be higher than it actually is (b) To the fish, the bird appear to be lower than it actually is (c) To the bird, the fish appear to be at greater depth than it actually is (d) To the bird, the fish appear to be at lesser depth than it actually is

Part – B

Match the following

M1. A ray of light falls normally on an equilateral prism of refractive index 3 . Match the following

table :

1i = Angle of incidence

2i = Angle of emergence from second surface of prism

1r Angle of refraction at the first surface of prism

2r Angle of incidence at second surface of prism

COLUMN – I COLUMN – II

A Angle 1i P 00

B Angle 1r Q 090

C Angle 2i R 060

D Angle 2r S None

M2. Four rays of light parallel to optic axis and their path after passing through an optical system are shown

in table-1. Match the corresponding optical instrument from table 2 :


A

P Convex lens

B

Q Concave lens

C

R Convex mirror

D

S Concave mirror

Part – C



Numerical

N1. A plane mirror is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. A short object is placed at a distance „x‟cm from the plane mirror and facing both the mirrors so that its virtual image in the plane mirror coincides with the real image in concave mirror? Find the value of x/10

A

B

x

O

x'

A’

B’

B’’

50 cm

+

ve

N2. An object kept at a distance of 4 cm from the focus of a concave mirror. Image is formed at a distance of 9 cm from the focus. Then the focal length of the mirror is? (Give your answer in cm only)

N3. A converging lens of focal length 15 cm forms a 12 cm high virtual image of an object placed 10 cm

from the lens. What is the height (in cm) of the object? N4. A transparent cube of 15 cm edge contains a small air bubble. Its apparent depth when viewed through

one face is 6 cm and when viewed through the opposite face is 4 cm. The refractive index of the material of the cube is . Find the value of 2

N5. A light falls on a transparent glass plate of refractive index 3 . Given that the reflected and refracted rays

are mutually perpendicular. If the angle of incidence is (in degrees) then find15

.

N6. The equivalent focal length of the two lenses in contact is +80 cm. If the focal length of one of the lens is

+20 cm. The magnitude of power of the second lens is x. Find 4

3x .

Chemistry Section – II Part – A


1. Which property is common in both diamond and graphite? (a) Electrical conductivity (b) Relative atomic mass (c) Crystal structure (d) Density

2. The isomer of diethyl ether is (a)

CHOHCH 23 )( (b) OHCCH 33 )(

(c) OHHC 73 (d) 2 5 2( )C H CHOH

3. Glycerine has

(a) One primary and two secondary OH groups (b) One secondary and two primary OH groups (c) Three primary OH groups (d) Three secondary OH groups

4. The principal functional group of following compound

||

2 2 2 2|

O

OH

Cl CH CH CH C CH NO



(a) Nitro (b) Alcohol (c) Alkyl halide (d) Ketone 5. Aldehydes are the first oxidation products of

(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol

(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Dihydric alcohol

6. An isomer of ethanol is (a) methanol (b) acetone (c) diethylether (d) dimethyl ether

7. The number of secondary carbon atoms in the following compound 3 2 2 3 2H C CHCH CH CH is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 8. Aldehydes and ketones exhibit (a) homologues series (b) functional isomerism (c) allotropism (d) metamerism

One or more than one correct answers:

9. Allotropes of carbon is/are (a) coke (b) petrol (c) buckminster fullerene (d) diamond 10. The compounds can have triple bond is

(a) 3 6C H (b) 4 6C H (c) 5 12C H (d) 6 10C H

11. |

3 2H C C CH CHO

OH

contains

(a) ketone group (b) alcohol group (c) Aldehyde group (d) Acid group

12. When ethanoic acid reacts with 3NaHCO , the products formed are

(a) 2H (b) 2CO (c) 3CH COONa (d) 2H O

Part – B

Match the following

M1.


A Ether P 2NH

B Ester Q COOH

C Amine R ||

'

O

C OR

D Carboxylic acid S O

M2.


A 3 2 2 2CH CH CH CH OH P |

3 3

3CH

CH CH CH

B 3 2 3CH CH CH OH CH Q 3 3 7CH O C H



C 3 2 2 3CH CH CH CH R ||

3 2 2CH CH CH C H

O

D ||

3 2 3CH CH C CH

O

S 2 5 2 5C H O C H

Part – C

Numerical

N1. Calculate the total number of isomers in 5 12C H

N2. A hydro carbon alkane

x yC C on combustion gives 3 moles of 2CO and 4 moles of water,

calculate value of ( )y x .

N3. Calculate the number of moles of

2H required for the hydrogenation of 140g of ethene.

N4. The total number of hexagonal rings of carbon atoms in a buck minster fullerene molecule is X.

Then fnd the value of X/4

N5. An alkane has molecular mass 100. The molecular formula of the alkane is x yC H . What is (y-x)?

N6. X gram of 2CO is liberated from 1 mole of methane during combustion reaction. What is ?11

x

Mathematrics Section – III Part – A


1. The length of the tangent to the circle of radius 5 cm from a point outside the circle at a distance of 13 cm from the centre of the circle is

(a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 8 cm (d) none of these

2. Circles C(O, r) and C' O', r ' , r r ' touch internally at P. PQ is a chord of circle C(O, r), which

intersects C O', r ' at R, then OO'RQ is a

(a) trapezium (b) parallelogram (c) rectangle (d) rhombus

3. If the roots of 2x 2px 8p 15 0 are equal, then p =

(a) 3 or 5 (b) 8 or – 5 (c) – 3 or 5 (d) – 3 or – 5

4. If α, β are the root of equation 2 k

x 3x 02

(where k < 0), then α β

β α is less than

(a) 2 (b) – 2 (c) 18 (d) none of these

5. The roots of the equation 248x 13x 1 0 are

(a) 1 1

,16 3

(b) 1 1

,16 3

(c)

1 1,

16 3

(d)

1 1,

16 3

6. Two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect each others at P outside the circle. If AB = 5cm, BP = 3cm and PD = 2cm then CD _______

(a) 24 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 18



7. The fifth term of an A.P. is 27. The common difference = 4. The sum of the first 15 terms of the series is

(a) 535 (b) 605 (c) 585 (d) none of these

8. If m times the mth term of an AP is equal to n times the n

th term, then the (m + n)

th term is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

One or more than one correct option questions

9. If a, b, c, d, e, f are in A. P then (e – c) is equal to (a) (c – a) (b) 2(d – c) (c) 2(f – d) (d) d – b

10. How many terms of the AP 63, 60, 57, ……. add up to a sum of 693. (a)21 (b)22 (c)20 (d)19

11. The roots of 2 22 1 0x mx m lie between – 2 and 5, if m

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3

In the following diagram, If the radius of bigger circles is 10cm and radius of smaller circle is r, then 12. Radius of smaller circle „r‟ is

(a)10

2cm (b)

5

2cm

(c) 3 cm (d) None of these

A B

D E C

Part – B

Match the following

M1.


A

Length of a tangent from an external point to a circle is

5 3 . If radius of the circle be 5. how far is the point from

centre of the circle?

P 15

2

B In a circle a chord AB of length 12cm is bisected by a diameter CD at P. So that CP = 3. radius of the circle is

Q 10

C

If the roots of the quadratic equation 2x 4x 1 0 are

and . Then Arithmetic Mean of the squares of the roots is

R 0

D Sum to 9 terms of 8, 6, ..... S 7



M2. If , are the roots of 22 5 2 0x x then


A The equation with roots ,

is P 22 5 2 0x x

B The equation with roots 1 1

,

is Q 24 17 4 0x x

C The equation with roots 2 2, is R 24 17 4 0x x

D The equation with roots , is S 22 5 2 0x x

Part – C

Numerical

N1. If 8n is the number of integers between 50 and 500, which are divisible by 7, then find the value of „n‟.

N2. The value(s) of „x‟ which satisfies the given equation 2 2 2x 4x 3 x 9 4x 14x 6.

N3. The equation 2x 7x 12 0 has roots and . Find the value of 2 2

.5

N4. Two semicircles are constructed as shown in the figure.

The chord PQ of the greater circle touching the smaller circle and is parallel to the diameter of larger circle. If the length of PQ is 10 units, then the area between the

semicircles is 5k

.2 Find the value of „k‟ („O‟ is the centre

of big circle).

P Q

O

N5. 4 3 22 4ax bx x is divisible by 2 2x x then a b

N6. If PA, PB are two tangents drawn to the circle with centre O such that

0120APB then ______OP

AP

0120 0

A

B

P

The End



CLASS 10 PH – 3 IITJEE STAGE – 1 PCM

Answer Key

Physics 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5.B

6.B 7.C 8.B 9.A,B 10.A,D

11 .A,B,C 12.A,D

M1. A-P B-P C-S D-R

M2. A-R,S B-P,Q C-P,Q D-R,S

N1. 3 N2.6 N3.4 N4. 3 N5. 4

N6.5

Chemistry 1.B 2.B 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.D 7.A 8.B 9.ACD 10.BD

11.BC 12.BCD N1.3 N2.5 N3.5 N4.5 N5.9 N6.4 M1. A-S B-R C-P D-Q M2. A-Q,S B-Q,S C-P D-R

Mathematrics 1.B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.C 8.A 9.A,B,D 10.A,B 11.A,B,C,D 12.B M1. A-Q B-P C-S D-R M2. A-Q B- P C- Q D- S N1.8 N2.3 N3. 5 N4.5 N5. 1

N6. 2



Solution Physics

1. (A) only this diagram is possible to form a diminished image. centre of curvature is at A.

A B

f/3

A' B'

2. (B) Considering this picture,

1 2

2 1

1 2 2 1

2 2

1 2 1 2 1 2

2

1 2

1 2

1 1 1

V u f

1 1 1x & x are dis tances

f x f x f

f x f x f f x f x

2f x f x f f x f x f x x

f x x

f x x

2x

1x

f

3. (C)

vm n

u

v nu

1 1 1

v u f

1 1 1

nu u f

1 n 1

nu f

f n 1u

n

4. (A)

A B

30

A' B'

6

f

centre

15

for B‟

1 1 1

v u f

1 1 1

v 36 15

1 1 1

v 36 15

36.15v

21

180v

7

length of A'B' = 180 30

307 7

= 4.28 cm



5. (B)

1

2

f 20

v 1 1 1m 2

u v u f

fv 2u u

2

v 'm 2 u 10............ 1

u'

1 1 1v ' 2u'

2u' u' f

3u' f 30 ...... 2

2

object has to be moved by 20 cm.

6. (B) first refraction

d'. d

10d' 3

4

d' 7.5

image distance = 5 7.5

= 12.5 cm

7. (C) acting like a glass stab.

glass

air

8. (B) after every cm if is refleching.

Reflection at 0, 1, 2, 3.........., 100 cm

101 reflections

1 cm

045

045

1 cm

9. (AB)

m 2

v 2 u

1 1 1

v u f

1 1 1

2u u f

fu

2

3fu

2



10. (AD)

2 1d 2 f f

Inside water, focal length of lens will change, so conditions will

be altered.

d 1f

2f

11. ABC

i ' i

r ' i

Normal rotated by Reflected ray rotated by 2

i

N N'

i

12. (AD)

dd'

As water air

To the bird, fish appears to be at lesser depth. To the fish, bird

appears to be at higher than actual

M1. M1. A-P B-P C-S D-R

Snell‟s law on 2nd

surface

0

0

1

0

1

2

0

2

3.sin60 sinr

3sinr Not possible

2

It will go under TIR No refraction

i O

r O

i not happening

r 60

M2. M2. A-RS B-PQ C-PQ D-RS

C

B

C

B

D

A

D

A



N1.

2

2

1 1 1

v u f

1 1 1

50 x ' 50 x 16

100 1

2500 x 16

x 900

x 30

x3

10

N2. 9

4

In Q2. we proved, 1 2f x x

36

6

N3. i

0

0

0

0

hvm

u h

v 12

10 h

also

1 1 1

v u f

1 1 1

v 10 15

1 1 1

v 15 10

v 30

30 12

10 h

h 4

N4.

x...... 1

6

15 x...... 2

4

15 6 4

2 3

x

15 x



N5.

Given

0 0 0

0

0

0

0

90 90 r 90

r 90

1sin 3 sinr

sin 3 sin 90

tan 3

603

604

15 15

N6. total 1 2

2

2

P P P

100 100P

80 20

15 15 4x 4 15P x 5

4 4 3 3 4

Chemistry

1. Alltroper forms 7 carbon both are having same atomiz mash.

2. 3 2 2 3CH CH O CH CH

3C H C O H

CH3

CH3

Same molecule formula but different functions groups

3.

2 2CH CH CH 1 2 3

OH OH OH

1 – primary alcohol

2 – secondary alcohol

3 – primar alcohol

4. Ketane is more priority than alcohol due priority rule.

5. 0

3 2 3CH CH OH CH C H

6. 3 2 3 3CH CH OH CH O CH

7.

3 2 3H C C CH C CH

H

CH3CH3

H

8.

3 2 3 3CH CH C H & CH C CH

O O

9. Coke, fulterem, diamond



10. 2CnH n 2

11.

3 2CH C CH C H

OH

OH

O

12.

3NaHCO

3 3 2 2CH C O H CH C O Na CO H O

OO

N1. 3 2 2 2 3CH CH CH CH CH

3 3 3 3CH CH CH CH , CH C CH

CH3CH3

CH3

N2. x z 2 2 2

3 8

C H O 3CO 4H O

C H 8 3 5

N3. 2 2 2CH CH 1H

1405 5min

28

N4. 20 six members are present in 060

205

4

N5. 3 2 2 2 2 2 3CH CH CH CH CH CH CH

16 7 9

N6. 4 2 2 2CH O CO H O

444

11

Mathematics 1.



Ans : (B) PQ = 2 2 2 213 5 12OP OQ cm

P

Q

O

2.

. Ans : (A) Since , '

'||

OM QR O L QRP

OO QR

Hence 'OO RQ is a Trapezium

Q

P

M R L

O O’

3. Ans : (A) α be equal root

2 2

2 2 _______

8 15 8 15

α p α p i

α p p p from i

Solving p = 3 or 5 4. Ans : (B)

2

2 23 2

2

2

9 2 182

18 180 0 2 2

k

α β α β

kβ α αβ

k

k k

kk k

5. Ans : (C)

248 16 3 1 0 16 1 3 1 0

1 1,

16 3

x x x x x

x x

6. Ans : (B)

Let CD = x then 8 3 2 2

10

AP BP CP DP

x

x

7. Ans : (C)

5 4 27 16 27

11, 15

t a d a

a n



Sum =

15

11 11 14 42

1578 585

2

8. Ans : (A)

2 2

1 1

1 1 0

0

1 0

1 0

, 0m n

m a m d n a n d

a m n d m m n n

a m n d m n m n

a m n d m n m n

m n a d m n

m n t

9. Ans (A,B,D) e c = 2x common difference

= c – a = 2 (d – c) = d – b 10. Ans (A, B)

2

2

693 2 63 1 32

1386 126 3 3

1386 129 3

3 129 1386 0

43 462 0

22 21 0,

21 22

r

nn

n n

n n

n n

n n

n n

n and

11. Ans : (B,C,D)

2 22 4 4 4 2 4

2 2

2 21

2

2 1 5 2 1 5

3 4 1 6

0,1,2,3

m m n mx

mm

m and m

m and m

m

12. Ans : (B)



Let O be centre of smaller circle. Draw .OF BE In ΔOBF

2 2 2

2 2210 10 10

520 100 20 40 100

2

OB OF BF

r r

r r r r

M1.

A – Q : 2

2 2 25 3 5 100 10x x x

B – P : 22 15

3 36 6 452

r r r r

C – S :

22 2 22 4 2 16 2 14

72 2 2 2 2

α β αβα βcm

D – R : 9

16 8 2 02

M2. A - Q :

2 22 2

2

2

1 0 1 0

252 1

4 1 01

171 0

4

α β α βx x x x

β α αβ

x x

x x

Ans : Q

B - P :

2 2

2

2

1 1 1 10 0

5 / 2 10

1 1

51 0

2

α βx x x x

β β αβ αβ αβ

x x

xx

Ans : P

C - Q :

2 2 2 2 2

2

0

171 0

4

x α β x α β

x x

Ans : Q

D - S :

2

2

2 0

51 0

2

x α β x β

x x

Ans : S



N1.

56 7 8

497 56 1 7 7 497 49 448

64 8

8

N N

N n

n

N2.

2 2 2 2 2

2 2 2 2

2 2 2

22 2 2

2 2

2 2

2 2

4 3 7 2 4 3 4 14 6

2 4 6 2 4 3 9 4 14 6

4 3 9 2 10 12

4 3 9 5 6

3 1 3 3 3 2

3 0, 1 3 2 0

3, 2 3 4 4 0

76 7,

6

79 0

6

x x x x x x a x x

x x x x x x x

x x x x x x

x x x x x

x x x x x x

x x x x

x x x x x

x x

for x x

Not possi

ble

N3. : 2 2 27 2 12 49 24

55 5 5

α β

N4. r, R be radius of smaller and bigger semi circle then R = 2r and

2 2 2

2 2

2 2

2 2 2 2

5

4 25

253 25.

3

5

2

55

2 2

25 5

5

R r

r r

r r

kArea π

π kR r π R r k

k

k

N5.



2

4 3 2

2 2 1

2 4

1 0 6 0 2 2 12 0 ___(1)

2 0 16 8 12 0 4 2 3 0 ____ 2

5 7(1)&(2) , , 1

2 2

x x x x

If f x ax bx x

f a b a b

f a b a b

Solving a b a b

N6. OP bisects APB and ΔOAP is right triangle with 0 0 090 , 30 , 60OAP AOP APO then

OP : AP : AO = 2 : 1 : 3 2OP

AP



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

PHASE TEST – 3 QP CODE:

Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 100


Instructions


Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.

Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.

Section – III contains 14 questions of Physics.

Section – IV contains 14 questions of Chemistry.

Section – V contains 12 questions of Biology.









Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

Date of Examination :…………………………………………………….



SST Section – I

1. The largest producer of rice in the world is (a) India (b) Pakistan (c) China (d) Russia

2. Which of the following is not a kharif crop? (a) Rice (b) Maize (c) Cotton (d) Wheat

3. The average size of agricultural holding in India in 1790 was (a) 1.3 Hectare (b) 1.2 Hectare (c) 1.7 Hectare (d) 2.1 Hectare

4. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions (a) of all the people (b) of people in the developed countries (c) of workers in the developing countries (d) none of the above

5. Globalisation, by connecting countries, shall result in (a) lesser competition among producers (b) greater competition among producers (c) no change in competition among producers (d) none of these

6. Partisan means: (a) Party which runs the government (b) Affair of the state or the science of government (c) A person who is strongly committed to a party. (d) A group of people who come together to promote common beliefs

7. Multi-party system advocates: (I) The political parties which govern the country (II) The government is formed by various parties coming together (III) Does not permit free competition for power (IV) This system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation (a) A,B & C (b) A, C & D (c) D & C (d) B and D

8. Recognized political parties stand for : (a) Parties recognized by the Election Commission with all the privileges and facilities (b) Parties those are present in only one of the federal units (c) Parties those are present in several and all units of the federation (d) Communal parties based on regional diversities.

9. Match the following :


A Indian National Congress i Elephant

B Nationalist Congress Party ii Lotus

C Bhartiya Janta Party iii Clock

D Bahujan Samaj Party iv Hand

(a) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv (b) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-i (c) A-iv,B-iii,C-ii,D-i (d) A-iii,B-iv,C-ii,D-i 10. One of the following countries has single – party system? (a) India (b) The United kingdom (c) The United States of America (d) China 11. Changing party allegiance from the party on which a person got elected to a different party. (a) Defection (b) Election (c) Nomination (d) Decision 12. Which state has maximum recognized regional or state parties? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Punjab

13. Are political parties only present in big countries?



(a) Yes, political parties are only present in big countries (b) No, political parties are present in only small countries (c) It‟s not certain that political parties are only present in big countries (d) All the above

14. What is an ideological one- party system? (a) Party based on suppression of other parties (b) Party based on coercion (c) Party based on ideological reasons; coercion and suppression of other parties (d) Party based on communist ideology

15. How many parties are registered with the Election Commission? (a) 750 (b) 754 (c) 760 (d) 764

16. The total hydel power potential of India is estimated at _______________ (a) 15000 MW (b) 150000 MW (c) 1500000 MW (d) 15500 MB

17. Which of the following gas an offshore oil field? (a) Ankaleshwar (b) Digboi (c) Kalo (d) Mumbai high

18. India exports________ minerals (a) Metallic minerals (b) Non-metallic minerals (c) Ferrous minerals (d) Non-ferrous minerals

19. India Iron ore is mainly exported to ______ (a) USA (b) UK (c) China (d) Japan

20. Which one of the following is not a conventional source of energy? (a) Cow dung (b) Fire wood (c) Coal (d) Wind

21. Who among the following developed the principle of the Garden city?

(a) Lee Kuan Yew (b) Barry Parker (c)Ebenezer Howard (d) Raymond Urwin

22. The migrants attracted towards London and Manchester because (a) To live a life of leisure and pleasure (b) To get better education facilities for their

children

(c) To avail of Job facilities in textile mills. (d) To enjoy the city life

23. The Garden city of Now Earswick designed by

(a) Raymond Urwin and Harry Parker (b) Barron Haussmann

(c) Louis Napoleon III (d) Arthur Crawford

24. Who built tenements for the migrant workers?

(a) The government (b) The factory owners (c) The Industrialists (d) Individual land owners.

25. What according to the Temperature movement was cause of ruin of working classes?

(a) Poverty (b) Alcoholism

(c) Lack of education (d) Congested localities

26. Which is the following industry developed in London during the First World War?

(a) Electrical goods (b) Textile industry (c) Iron industry (d) None of these

27. When was rent control introduced in Britain?

(a) 1860‟s (b) 1880s (c) During World War I (d) During the World War II

28. The population of London in 1750 is

(a) 675,000 (b) 775,000 (c) 875,000 (d) 575,000

29. The Industrial cities of Britain are

(a) Oxford and Cambridge (b) London and Kent (c) Manchester and Bradford (d) None of these

30. Which of the following was not a reason for mass housing schemes for workers?

(a) Social disorder (b) Threat to Public health

(c) Fire hazards (d) Concern for the poor



31. The average life expectancy of the London poor in 1887 was

(a) 29 years (b) 30 years (c) 52 years (d) 62 years

32. Which of the following factor changed the form of urbanisation in the modem world? (a) Unemployment (b) Secularism (c) Capitalism (d)

Industrialisation

33. “The Bitter cry of outcast London” written by (a) Rudyard Kipling (b) Samuel Richardson (c) Charles Dickens (d) Andrew Means

34. Novel written by Durgacharan Ray about the City of Calcutta is (a) Nirmala (b) Godaan (c) Durgesh Mondin (d) Debeganer Martye Agaman

35. Which of the following was a city of shopkeepers (a) Bombay (b) Manchester (c) London (d) Calcutta

36. Who among the following was proclaimed the first King of United Italy? (a) Nicholas II (b) King George II (c) Wilhelm IV (d)Victor Emmanuel II

37. A nation-state is a state where (a) people of all groups enjoy equal rights. (b) where the nation has its own emblem and flag. (c) a state which has a contiguous territory. (d) a state where people live in a common territory, develop a sense of identity and share a common history.

38. Most important outcome of the French Revolution of 1789 was (а) Abolition of absolute monarchy. (b) Making of a new Constitution. (c) Transfer of sovereignty from monarch to the French citizens. (d) Formation of the National Assembly.

39. Identify and mark the incorrect response. The Napoleonic Code (а) Did away with all the privileges based on „birth and established equality. (b) Destroyed feudalism in France. (c) Formulated codes for the army. (d) Ensured right to property for the privileged class.

40. A large number of people were hostile to the Napoleonic code because (a) It was not suitable for all. (b) It destroyed the special privileges of the rulers. (c) Administrative changes did not go hand in hand with political freedom. (d) None of the above.

Mathematics Section – II

1. In the adjacent figure O is centre. AB is diameter, DE = 8 cms; EB = 4 cms; AB DC then radius of the circle OD =

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 6

A

D

E

O

C

B

2. If the reciprocals of the roots of 2 0ax bx c are the roots of 2 0px qx r then

(a) 2 2acq b pr (b) ac pr (c) 2 2b q (d) 2 2b ac q pr



3. If O is the centre of the circle, then the value of x in the following figure?

(a) 75 (b) 40

(c) 65 (d) 90

B D

C A

40

65 x

O

4. If 2 20, 0x ax b x bx a have a common root, then

(a) a b (b) 1a b (c) 1 0a b (d) 1a b

5. If ' ' is a root of 2x x 1 0 then 2 3 20151 .....

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d) 2015

6. A quadratic equation 2 0ax bx c has the sum of its roots equal to twice the product of its roots

which of the following holds true?

(a) 2b c (b) 2b c (c) 2b c (d) 2b c

7. For what value of m will the equation 21 2 3 2 3 0m x m x m have equal roots

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) – 3 (d) – 1

8. After his appointment in a school, Ramesh saves Rs 320 during the first month and then increases

his saving every month by Rs 40. In how many months will he be able to save Rs 20000.

(a) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26

9. Find the rth

term of an AP, the sum of whose first n terms is 2n + 3n2

(a) 6r – 1 (b) 7r – 1 (c) 8r – 1 (d) 9r – 1

10. Find the 14th term from the end of the AP 5, 12, 19, …, 152.

(a) 60 (b) 61 (c) 62 (d) 63

11. The sum of n terms in two AP‟s are in the ratio 3 1: 4,n n then the ratio of 4th terms is

(a) 13:8 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 27 : 7 (d) 13 : 22

12. If the sum to first p terms of an A.P. is q and the sum to first q terms of the same A.P. is p, then the common difference is

(a) p q

2pq

(b)

2 p q

pq

(c)

2 2

q p

(d)

2 2

p q

13. In the given figure (PQ is diameter), x is equal to

(a) 030 (b) 045

(c) 070 (d) 060

030

P

Q

R

x

C

14. OA. OB are the radii of a circle with O as centre, the angle AOB =

0120 . Tangents at A and B are

drawn to meet in the point C. If OC intersects the circle in the point D, then D divides OC in the ratio of

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 3

15. If the sides of a quadrilateral touch a circle, then which of the following is true

(a) AB + CD = BC + AD (b) AB + BC = CD + AD

(c) AB + CD = 1

2 (AC) (d) none of these

A B

C D



16. In an AP xth term is 1

y and yth term is

1

x. Then the sum of the first xy terms

(a) 1

( ) 12

xy (b) 1

( 1)2

xy (c) 12

xy (d) none

17. The sum of all 3 digit natural no‟s which are divisible by 7 is (a) 70336 (b) 70148 (c) 70300 (d) 70326

18. Which term of the AP 24, 21, 18, 15, … is the first negative term.

(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10

19. Find four numbers in AP whose sum is 20 and the sum of whose squares is 120.

(a) 2, 4, 6, 8 (b) 8, 5, 2, 1 (c) 9, 7, 5, 3 (d) 3, 5, 7, 9

20. Find the 35th term of the AP 6, 9, 12, 15, …

(a) 108 (b) 111 (c) 114 (d) 117

Physics Section – III

13. A person standing at some distance from a mirror finds his image erect, virtual and of the same size. Then the mirror is possibly:

(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror (c) Plane or concave mirror (d) all of the above

14. A virtual image larger than the object can be produced by (a) Convex mirror (b) Concave mirror (c) plane mirror (d) concave lens

15. Two plane mirrors are arranged at right angles to each other as shown in figure. A ray of light is incident on the horizontal mirror at an angle . For

what value of the ray emerges parallel to the incoming ray after reflection

from the vertical mirror?

(a) 060 (b) 030

(c) 045 (d) All of the above

16. The focal length and magnification of a plane mirror are:

(a) , 0f m (b) 0, 1f m (c) , 1f m (d) 0, 0f m

17. 2

rf is valid

(a) For convex mirrors but not for concave mirrors (b) For concave mirrors but not for convex mirrors (c) For both convex and concave mirrors (d) neither for convex mirrors nor for concaves

18. A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. The image will form at

(a) Infinity (b) pole (c) Focus (d) 15 cm behind the mirror.

19. An object of size 2.0 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror. The distance of the object from the mirror equals the radius of curvature. The size of the image will be

(a) 0.5 cm (b) 2.0 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 1.0 cm

20. A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens parallel to its principal axis. As one moves away from the lens on the other side principal axis, the intensity of light

(a) Remains constant (b) continuously increases (c) First increases then decreases. (d) Continuously decreases



21. A concave lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. For a point object placed on its principal axis, the number of virtual images formed is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

22. Parallel beam of light is incident on the system of two convex lenses of focal length

1 20f cm and 2 10f cm . What should be the distance between the two lenses so that ray after

refraction from both the lenses passes un-deviated ? (a) 30 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 90 cm (d) 40 cm 23. A concave lens forms the image of an object such that the distance between the object and image is

10 cm and the magnification produced is ¼. The focal length of the lens will be : (a) 8.6 cm (b) 6.2 cm (c) 4.4 cm (d) 10 cm

24. Sun light takes 115 10 second time interval to pass through a glass window of refractive index 1.5.

The thickness of the glass window is (a) 0.1 m (b) 1 mm (c) 0.5 cm (d) 1 cm 25. If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of focal length 50 cm are combined

together, what will be their resultant power, (a) +0.65 D (b) -0.65 D (c) -0.75 D (d) +0.75 D 26. A beam of light passes from medium 1 to medium 2 to medium 3 as

shown in figure. What may be concluded about the three indices of

refraction, 1 2 3,n n and n ?

(a) 3 1 2n n n (b) 2 1 3n n n

(c) 1 3 2n n n (d) 2 3 1n n n

Medium 1

Medium 2

Medium 3

1n

2n

3n

Chemistry Section – IV

1. What is the IUPAC name of 3 2 2

|

OH

CH CH CH CH COOH

(a) 4-hydroxy pentanoic acid (b) 2-hydroxy pentanoic acid (c) 1-carboxy pentanol (d) 3-hydroxy pentanoic acid 2. Sodium alkyl benzene sulphonate is used as (a) Soap (b) Fertilizers (c) Pesticides (d) Detergents 3. The characteristic reaction of alkanes is (a) addition (b) substitution (c) polymerization (d) reduction 4. To prevent misuse of ethanol produced for industrial use _____ is added

(a) methanol (b) methane (c) ethane (d) ethyne 5. How many isomers of OHHC 115 will be primary alcohols

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

6. The layers of carbon atoms in graphite are held by (a) hydrogen bonds (b) covalent bonds (c) vander waals forces (d) dipole forces

7. The IUPAC name of ||

3 3CH C CH

O

is

(a) Acetone (b) Propanone (c) Propanal (d) Propanoic Acid 8. Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol? (a) butanol-1 (b) butanol -2



(c) 3-methylbutan-2-ol (d) 3-methylpentan-3-ol 9. The general formulas 22 OHC nn could be for open chain

(a) Diketones (b) Carboxylic acids (c) Diols (d) Dialdehydes 10. Formamide is (a)

2HCONH (b) 23CONHCH

(c) 4HCOONH (d) )( 3NHHCHO

11. Heating a mixture of ethyl alcohol and acetic acid in presence of conc. 42 SOH produces a fruity

smelling compound. This reaction is called (a) Neutralisation (b) Ester hydrolysis (c) Esterification (d) Williamson's synthesis

12. Glycerol is a (a) Only Primary alcohol (b) Monohydric alcohol (c) Only Secondary alcohol (d) Trihydric alcohol 13. Absolute alcohol is (a) 100% pure ethanol (b) 95% alcohol + 5% OH 2

(c) Ethanol + water + phenol (d) 95% ethanol + 5% methanol 14. Open –chain saturated hydrocarbons are called (a) alkenes (b) paraffins (c) alkynes (d) olefenes

Biology Section – V

1. How many chromosomes does a normal, mature, human sperm cell contain? (a)2 (b)12 (c)23 (d)46 2. Mendel emasculated the garden pea plant. Emasculation is the (a) Removal of flower buds (b)Removal of anthers before dehiscence (c) Removal of carpel's before dehiscence (d) Removal of mature flowers 3. First menstrual cycle is called (a)Menopause (b)Implantation (c)Parturition (d)Menarche 4. Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection? (a) requires genetic variation (b) results in descent with modification (c) A only (d) both A and B 5. A cross between homozygous recessive and heterozygous plant is (a) Monohybrid cross (b) Dihybrid cross (c) Test cross (d) Back cross 6. Pollination by bats is called (a)Ornithophily (b)Entomophily (c)Cheiropterophily (d)Malacophily 7. Which of the following shows spore formation: (a) Amoeba (b) Mucor (c)Plasmodium (d) Paramecium 8. The size of chromosome is measured during (a)Metaphase (b)Anaphase (c)Telophase (d)Prophase



9. Chromatin has (a)DNA (b)DNA,RNA and proteins

(c)DNA and proteins (d)None of these 10. Human egg cells contain an X chromosome. Human sperm cells either have an X chromosome or a

Y chromosome. What combination of X and Y chromosomes must be found in the normal cells of a adult female?

(a)XY (b)YY (c)XX (d)YX 11. Vasectomies: (a)create physical changes that interfere with erections. (b)interfere with sex hormone production. (c)have high rates of complications and side effects. (d)can be reversed in many cases 12. The theory of Natural Selection was given by (a) Lamarck (b) Darwin (c) Weismann (d) None of them

The End



CLASS 10 PH – 3 NTSE (SAT) ANSWER KEY

SST

1.C 2.D 3.D 4.C 5.C

6.C 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.D

11.A 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.A

16.B 17.D 18.C 19.D 20.D

21.C 22.C 23.A 24.D 25.B

26.A 27.C 28.A 29.C 30. D

31.A 32.B 33.D 34.D 35.C

36. D 37.D 38.C 39.C 40.C

Mathematics 1.B 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.A 8.C 9.A 10.B 11.B 12.B 13.D 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.A 18.D 19.A 20.A

Physics 1. A 2. B 3.D 4. C 5. C

6. D 7. B 8. C 9.D 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. C 14.B

Chemistry 1.A 2.D 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.B 10.A 11.C 12.D 13.A 14.B

Biology

1.C 2.B 3.D 4.D 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.B 10.C

11.D 12.B



FIITJEE COMMON

TEST

PHASE TEST – 3

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) QP CODE:

Time: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 50 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :


pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer

Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.



electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work

8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on

duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test

Booklet with them.

B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :

1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.

2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.

Enrollment No. : Batch : Name :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:





MAT Section – I

1. Santosh goes first 7 km North then turns left and moves 10 km, again he turns left and

moves 7 km, how far is he from the starting point? (a) 7 km (b) 10 km (c) 17 km (d) 24 km

2. Mohan travels 7 km to the north direction from where he is standing and turns to his right. He then walks straight for another 3 km. Turning to his right he moves 7 km. How many kilometers away is he actually from his starting point?

(a) 1 km (b) 2 km (c) 3 km (d) 5 km

3. Ranuka stared walking from her house, she first walked for 3 km towards west, then she turned towards north and moved 4 km in that direction. How far Ranuka is from her house?

(a) 3 km South (b) 3 km South (c) 5 km West (d) 5 km N-W

4. Sambhav started on Monday morning for his office from his home in Mumbai suburbs. He first drove 4 km towards east and then turned right and moved for another 2 km and again he turned right and drove for another 2 km. From that very point he drive 1 km north and moved 2 km towards west. Then he is how far from the starting point and in which direction?

(a) 2 km east (b) 2 km west (c) 1 km south (d) 1 km north

Directions (5 – 9): Study the following information to answer these questions

All the roads of a city are either perpendicular or parallel to each other. The roads are all straight. Roads A, B, C, D and E are parallel to one another. Roads G, H, I, J, K, L and M are parallel to one another.

(I) Road A is 1 km east of Road B (II) Road B is ½ km west of Road C (III) Road D is 1 km west of Road E (IV) Road G is ½ km south of Road H (V) Road I is 1 km north of Road L (VI) Road K is ½ km north of Road L (VII) Road K is 1 km south of Road M

5. Which is essentially true? (a) E and B intersect (b) D is 2 km west of B (c) D is least 2 km west of A (d) M is 1.5 km north of L

6. If E is between B and C, then which of the following is false? (a) D is 2 km west of A (b) C is less then 1.5 km from D (c) E is less then 1 km from A (d) D is less then 1 km form B

7. If road E is between B and C, then distance between A and D is (a) ½ km (b) 1 km (c) 1.5 km (d) 1.5 – 2 km

8. Which of the following possibilities would make two roads coincide? (a) L is ½ km north of I (b) C is 1 km west of D (c) D is ½ km east of A (d) E and B are ½ km apart

9. If K is parallel to I and K is ½ km south of J and I km north of G, then which two roads would be ½ km apart?

(a) I and K (b) J and K (c) J and H (d) G and J Directions 10 – 12: Seven villages A, B, C, D, E, F, G are situated as followed

E is 2 km to the west of B



F is 2 km to the north of A C is 1 km to the west of A D is 2 km to the south of G G is 2 km to the east of C D is exactly in the middle of B and E 10. Which two villages are farther from one another? (a) F and E (b) G and E (c) D and C (d) F and G 11. How far is E and F (in km)

(a) 5 (b) 26 (c) 4 (d) 20

12. A is the middle of (a) E and G (b) E and C (c) G and C (d) F and G

13. A school going student starts from his house every morning and first travels 3 km to his left, then turns right and travels 4 km. His school from his house is

(a) 1 km (b) 5 km (c) 4 km (d) None of these

14. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4


(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4


(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4


(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4


(a) 1 (b) 2



(c) 3 (d) 4


(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image of the Fig. (X) from amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and(d) given along with it.

20.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

21.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

22.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

23.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

24.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)



Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image of the Fig (X) from amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it.

25.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

26.

(X) (a) (b) (c)

(d)

27.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) 28.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

29.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions (Q.No. 30 – 35) The following questions consists of a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of apiece of paper. Figure (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of figure (Z).

30.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4



31.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

32. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

33.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

34.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

35.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Directions (Q.No. 36 – 40) In each of the following problems, there is one question and three statements I, II and III given below the question. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and



find which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the given question. Choose the correct alternative in each question. 36. Question: What is Suman's rank from the top in a class of forty students ? Statements:

I. Suman is 3 ranks below Deepak from the top. II. Deepak's rank from the bottom is 23. III. Suman is 3 ranks above Deepak from the bottom.

(a) any two of the three (b) Only I and II (c) Only II and III (d) Only II and either I or III 37. Question: Five persons - A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row. Who is sitting in the middle? Statements:

I. B is between E and C. II. B is to the right of E. III. D is between A and E.

(a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and III (d) All I, II and III 38. Question: How is 'DATE' written in the code language ? Statements:

I. DEAR is written as $#@? in that code. II. TREAT is written as %?#@% in that code. III. TEAR is written as %#@? in that code,

(a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III (c) All I, II and III (d) Only I and either II or III 39. Question: In which year was Sanjay born ? Statements:

I. Sanjay is six years older than Gopal. II. Gopal's brother was born in 1982. III. Sanjay's brother is two years younger than Gopal's brother who was eight years younger

than Gopal. (a) Only I and II (b) All I, II and III (c) Only I and III (d) Only II and III



40. Question: Who among Siddhartha, Nikunj, Vipul and Mukul is the youngest? Statements:

I. Vipul is younger than Mukul but older than Siddhartha and Nikunj. II. Mukul is the oldest. III. Siddhartha is older than Nikunj.

(a) Only I and III (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and II (d) Only I Directions: (Q.No. 41 – 45) In each of the following questions, choose the correct water- image of the Fig(X) from amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it. 41.

(X)

(a) (b) (c) (d) 42.

(X)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

43.

(X)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

44.

(X)

(a) (b) (c) (d)



45.

(X)

(a) (b) (c) (d) Directions: (Q.No. 46 – 50) In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image of the Fig. (X) from amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and(d) given along with it.

46.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

47.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

48.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

49.

(X) (a) (b) (c)

(d)

50.

(X) (a) (b) (c)



(d)

The End



CLASS 10 PH – 3 NTSE (MAT) ANSWER KEY

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11.B 12. C 13. B 14.D 15.B 16.B 17.C 18.D 19.C 20..C

21.C 22.D 23.A 24.D 25.D 26.C 27.D 28.D 29.B 30.D 31.B 32.D 33.A 34.C 35.C 36.D 37.D 38.D 39.B 40.A 41.C 42.A 43.D 44.B 45.B

46.C 47.A 48.B 49.A 50.D

FIITJEE CBSE COMMON

TEST

Applicable for Class X

PHASE TEST – 3

MATHEMATICS Time: 1 ½ Hours Max Marks: 41 Instructions: 1. This paper consists of 17 questions only




3. Question No. 1 – 4 carries 1 mark each and 5 – 6 carries 2 marks, 7 – 9

carries 2 marks and 10 – 14 carries 3 marks and 15 – 17 carries 4 marks.


Name of the Candidate : ................................................................................................. Enroll Number : ................................................................................................. Date of Examination : .................................................................................................



Mathematics Section – I

I. MCQ type 4 x 1

1. The quadratic equation whose roots are 4 15,4 15 is

(a) 2x 8x 1 0 (b) 2x 8x 1 0 (c) 2x 8x 1 0 (d) 2x 8x 1 0

2. Find 7

th term from end of AP given as 10, 20, 30, ……….. 100

(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) none of these 3. The length of the tangent to the circle of radius 5 cm from a point outside the circle at a distance of

13 cm from the centre of the circle is (a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 8 cm (d) none of these 4. From an external point, K tangents can be drawn to a circle, then K is equal to (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) infinity

II. MCQ type 2 x 2

5. If 'α ' is a root of 2f x x 3x 1 0, then 4

4

1α

α

(a) 40 (b) 43 (c) 45 (d) 47 6. If 10 times the 10

th term of an AP is equal to 15 times the 15

th term, then 25

th term is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

III. Short Answer Type I (SA I) 3 x 2 7. What is the nature of the roots of the quadratic equation 4x

2 – 12x – 9 = 0?

8. Prove that tangents drawn from an external point are equal in length. 9. Find the value of x for which (8x + 4), (6x-2) and (2x+7) are in A.P.

IV. Short Answer Type II (SA II) 5 x 3

10. 10th term from the end of an A.P. is its 11

th term from the beginning. Its value is 55. If its first term be

5, find the common difference, the number of terms and the last term. 11. Solve: abx

2 + (b

2 – ac)x – bc = 0.

12. The 7

th term of an A.P is 32 and its 13

th term is 62. Find A.P

13. The radii of two concentric circles are 13 cm and 8 cm. AB is a diameter of the bigger circle. BD is a tangent to the smaller circle touching it at D. find the length BD.



14. In a trapezium ABCD, AB|| CD and AD=BC. If P is the point of

intersection of diagonals AC and BD, prove that PA PC = PB PD

A

D

F B

C

P

E

`

V. Long Answer Type (LA) 3 x 4

15. If the roots of the equation ax

2 + bx + c = 0 are in the ratio m:n, prove that mnb

2 = ac(m+n)

2.

16. Draw a circle of radius 2cm with centre O and take a point P outside the circle such that OP = 4.5

cm. From P, Draw two tangents to the circle

17. If (m+1)th term of an A.P is twice the (n+1)

th term, Prove that (3m+1)

th term is twice the (m+n+1)

th

term

The End



Space for Rough Work



CLASS 10 PH – 3 CBSE (MATHS) ANSWER KEY

1. C 2.B 3. B 4.B 5.D 6. A SOLUTIONS 7.

2 24 12 4 9 4

144 144 228 0

b ac

Roots are real and unequal

8. Length 2 2 2 213 5 12op r cm

9.

2 6 2 8 4 2 1

12 4 10 11

152 15

2

x x x

x x

x x

10.

5 10 5 10 10 10

20 20

5 10 55 5

5 19 5 100n

d n d d nd d

d nd n

d d

t

11.

22 2 2 2 2

2 2 2 2

2

4

2 2

2 2

2 2

2 2

ac b b ac ab c ac b b acx

ab ab

ac b b ac ac b b acx x

ab ab

ac bx or x

ab ab

c bx or x

b a

12.

7 1332, 62

32 ________ 1

12 62 ________ 2

t t

a cd

a d

Subtracting (2) from (1) 6 30 5d d

Then A.P is 2, 7, 12, 17 . . . . . . . . . Note :



13. Let O be centre of the circles join OD. 2 2 2 169 64 105

105

OD BD

BD OB OD

BD

14. In ,

PDA and PCB

PDA PCB PAD PBC then

PA PDor PA PC PB PD

PB PC

PDA ~ PCB

15. Let , be roots of 2 0ax bx c such that m

n

them

2

22 2 2

2

2 22 2 2

2 2

2

b cand

a a

b cm n k and mn k

a a

b cm n k and mnk

aa

m n k m nb a b

c mn acmnk a

mnb m n ac

16. 1. Draw a circle with O as centre and radius 2cm 2. Mark a point P outside the circle such that OP = 4.5cm 3. Join OP and bisect it at M 4. Draw a circle with M as centre and radius equal to MP to intersect the given circle at T and T‟ 5. Join PT and PT‟ which are required Tangents 17. Given

3 1

1

3 1 1

2

2

3

2 3 4 2

2 2 ________ 1

2

2 _________ 2

1 2 2

m

m n

m m n

a md a nd

then a m n d

t a md

m n d md md nd

m n d

t a m n d

m n d m n d

m n d

From and t t

FIITJEE COMMON TEST




PHASE TEST – 3

SCIENCE

Time: 1 ½ Hours Max Marks: 48

Instructions:

i) This question paper contains three sections : Physics, Chemistry & Biology.

ii) Section A carries 15 marks, Section B carries 15 marks and Section C carries 18 marks.

iii) Marks are indicated against each questions.

iv) Use of Calculator/Logarithmic table is not permitted.

Useful data Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s

2


Kg


coulombs



= 2 Cal mol1


Planck‟s constant h = 6.625 1034 J sec.

Rydberg constant Rh = 109670 cm1

1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb 1 calorie = 4.2 Joule

Atomic No: Ca = 20, C = 6, O = 8, K = 19, Cl = 17, F = 9, N = 7, S = 16, Na = 11. Cu = 29, Co =27, Mn = 25, Y = 39, Zr = 40, Nb = 41, La = 57, Hf = 72, Ta = 73.

Atomic masses: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16, K = 39, Cl = 35.5, F = 18.998, N = 14, S = 32, Na = 23, Ag=108, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, I = 127, As = 75,

Name of the Candidate:

Registration Number :

Date of Examination : Centre:



Physics Section – I I. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) 1 x 1

1. Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object.

II. Short Answer Type I (SA I) 2 x 2

2. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?

3. A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located?

III. Short Answer Type II (SA II) 1 x 3

4. A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image at 10 cm from the lens? Also, find the magnification produced by the lens.

IV. Long Answer Type (LA) 1 x 5

5. (a) With appropriate ray diagram explain Refraction of light through a Rectangular Glass Slab. (3) (b) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm the lens. How far is the object placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.

(2)

V. MCQ type 2 x 1

6. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror must be

(a) plane. (b) concave. (c) convex. (d) either plane or convex.

7. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?

(a) At the principal focus of the lens (b) At twice the focal length (c) At infinity (d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus.



Chemistry Section – II

I. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) 1 x 1

1. The molecular formula of an ester is

3 7 2 5C H COOC H . Write the molecular formula of the

alcohol and the acid from which it might be prepared.

II. Short Answer Type I (SA I) 2 x 2

2. What is an homologous series? Explain with an example.

3. Why soap is not suitable for washing clothes with hard water?


4. Explain the following terms with example

(i) Esterification (ii) saponification

IV. Long Answer Type (LA) 1 x 5

5. (a) Explain the preparation of ethanol using fermentation process. Use chemical

equations appropriately

(b)Draw structures for the following

(i) 2-methyl propan-2-ol (ii) 2,2 Dimethyl butane

(iii) Ethyl-2-Methyl butanoate

V. MCQ type 2 x 1

6. Wood sprit is known as:

(a) Methanol (b) Ethanol (c) Acetone (d) Benzene 7. Which form of carbon has a two dimensional sheet like structure?

(a) Diamond (b) Coal (c) Graphite (d) Coke



Biology Section – III

I. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) 1 x 1

1. Mention the types of reproduction II. Short Answer Type I (SA I) 2 x 2 2. Explain the terms heredity and variation 3. What are the hormones released by corpus leuteum


4. Explain different parts of a flower 5. Write a brief notes on Dihybrid cross:

IV. Long Answer Type (LA) 1 x 5 6. Draw the diagram of male reproductive system

V. MCQ type 2 x 1 7. During embryo development, the embryo is protected by (a) amnion (b) placenta (c) umbilical cord (d) oviduct 8. The process of release of an egg from the ovary is called (a) reproduction (b) menstruation (c) fertilization (d) ovulation

The End



CLASS 10 PH – 3 CBSE (SCIENCE) ANSWER KEY

Physics 6.D 7.B

Chemistry

6.A 7.C

Biology

7. C 8. D



SOLUTION

Physics Mark 1. Concave mirror. (when the object is placed between focus and pole). 1

2. Image formed by a concex mirror is always virtual, erect and smaller than the object. They are more helpful than the plane mirror because they can capture a wider range.

2

3.

i

0

hvm 3

u h

v 3u ....... 1

v 30 ( u 10)

Image islocated at 30 cm inf ront of mirror

10

2

4.

f 15

V 10

As image of a real object can be formed on left side only

Lens formula,

1 1 1

V u f

1 1 1

10 u 15

1 1 1

u 15 10

1 10 15

u 15 10

15 10u

5

u 30

Object should be kept at 30 cm from concave lens. v 10 1

mu 30 3

Magnification is 1

3i.e. image is virtual, erect and smaller in size than object.

3

5. (A) Refraction of light is the bending of light as it goes from one medium to another. If it goes from rarer to denser medium, it bends towards the normal, while it goes from

denser to rarer, it bends away from normal. If it is normally incident, it does not bend, but speed changes.

5

(B)

f 20

v 10

1 1 1

v u f

1 1 1

10 u 20

1 1 1

u 10 20

u 20 cm

Object is placed at the focus.

10 cm



6. (D) Plane mirror alway forms erect image. Convex mirror also forms erect image always.

Mirror must be either plane or convex.

7. (B)

vm 1

u

v u

1 1 1

v u f

1 1 1

u u f

u f

At twice the focal length.

CHEMISTRY

Mark 8. Alochol formed from ester 3 7 2 5C H COOC H is 2 5C H OH and acid formed is

3 7C H COOH

(1/2 + 1/2)

9. It is a group of organic compounds having similar structures and similar chemical

properties in which the successive compounds differ by 2CH group. (1)

Ex : 3 2 5 3 7CH OH, C H OH, C H OH are having similar chemical properties and they

can be prepared by similar methods. (1)

10. Soap reacts with calcium and magnesium ions in water to form insoluble precipitates,

which is known as scum. Scum sticks to clothes and Interferes with cleaning ability of soap.

2 2

2 2RCOONa Ca or Mg RCOO Mg or RCOO Ca

11. (i) When Carborfic acid compound reacts with alcholo In the Presence of con. 2 4H SO .

It produces sweet smelling compound called ester. This process is called Esterification.

2 4con.H SO3 2 5 3 2 5CH COOH C H OH CH COOC H

(1 ½ )

(ii) When ester is heated with NaOH solution. The ester gets hydrolyzed to form the

parent alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid. It is used in the preparation of soap.

3 2 5 3 2 5CH COOC H CH COONa C H OH

(1 ½)

12. (a) In the formation of sugar can Juice. It is forest converted to a mixture of glucose

and Aructose in the presence of Invertase inzyme.

Invertose

12 22 11 6 12 6 6 12 6C H O C H O C H O .

Both glucose and fructose converted into ethyalcohol and 2CO in the presenced

zymose enzyme.

6 12 6 2 5 2C H O C H OH CO

Both invertose and zymose enzymes, are present in yeast

(2)

(b) (i) (ii)



3 3CH C CH

OH

CH3

2- Methylpropan - 2 - ol

CH3

CH3

2, 2 - dimethylbutane

3 3CH C CH CH3

(iii)

3 2 2 5CH CH CH COOC H

CH3

Ethyl - 2 - Methyl Butonoate

Documents

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS - Fiitjee Allahabad paper class 10.pdf · OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers. C. Marking Scheme For All