Production & Operation Management

UNIT 1- PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT

1 MARK QST

1. A measure of productivity which reflects a combination of some or all of the resources used to obtain a certain output is

Choose one answer.

a. materials productivity

b. multi-factor productivity

c. labor productivity

d. machine productivity

2. An operations strategy is developed using many sources of input.Which is the least likely to have input?

Choose one answer.

a. Planning

b. Top Management

c. Suppliers

d. Quality

3. Many factors impact productivity, one factor not generally stated as having a negative impact on productivity is:

Choose one answer.

a. Liability claims

b. Increased emphasis on services

c. Government regulations

d. Emphasis on short-term performance

4. Productivity is calculated by:

Choose one answer.

a. Adding inputs to outputs

b. Dividing outputs by inputs

c. Multiplying inputs by outputs

d. Dividing inputs by outputs

5. Which is the correct hierarchy of operations management decisions (highest first)?

Choose one answer.

a. Operating, strategic, tactical

b. Operating, tactical, strategic

c. Strategic, tactical, operating

d. Goals, missions, productivity

6. ___________ is the originator of ________________, which is used to identify the root cause of any problem.

Choose one answer.

a. Kaoru Ishikawa, Fishbone diagram

b. Kaoru Kaizan, Fishbone diagram

c. Kaoru Kanban, Pareto analysis

d. Taguchi , Affinity diagram

2 MARK QST

Question 1

Demand fluctuations, uncertainties of production owing to ________ and __________being created drag the productivity down

Choose one answer.

a. shortage of materials , crisis

b. Break down and inventories

c. strikes and mismanagement

d. power failures and frequent suspensions

Question 2

Fishbone diagram is

Choose one answer.

a. A visual representation of process showing the various steps

b. Graphical representation of distribution of data

c. Used for classitying problem areas according to the degree of importance and attending to the most important.

d. Used to identify the root cause of any problem

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Make or buy decisions have to be taken to meet the varying demands to smoothen deficits or excesses by two well known methods namely -

Choose one answer.

a. Supply and Demand capacities

b. CPM and LPP

c. Matching Demand and Level Capacity

d. Production capacity and financial feasibility

Question 4

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The two methods namely ___________and __________ methodologies were developed to minimize wastages across the organisation.

Choose one answer.

a. Critical path method and goal seeking method

b. optimization methods and critical analysis

c. sensitivity analysis method and what if analysis method

d. JIT and lean manufacturing

4 MARK QST

1. Identify true and false statements. 1.Kaoru Ishikawa promoted the concept of Quality Circles 2.Kaoru Ishikawa is the originator of fishbone diagram 3.Fishbone diagram is used to identify the root cause of any problem 4.The capital deployed in using quality circles is high

Choose one answer.

a. Statement 1, 2 and 3 are true

b. Statement 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true

c. Statement 2, 3, and 4 are true

d. Only statement 1 is false

Question 2

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Identify true and false statements. 1.Production management starts with Aggregate planning. 2.Aggregate planning data comes from marketing department 3.The marketing dept determines the various products neede to fullfill orders 4.MPS sets the quantity of each end item to be completed each week of the short range planning

Choose one answer.





Question 3

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Which one of these is not an element of a good forecast?

Choose one answer.

a. in writing

b. timely

c. low cost

d. meaningfull units

UNIT2 – ADVANCED METHODOLOGIES OF PRODUCTION.

1 MARK QST

1. The CAD software aids in

Choose one answer.

a. Creating design

b. Modifying design

c. Viewing images from different angles

d. All the above

Question 2

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The type of storage any organization provides depends on

Choose one answer.

a. Duration of Storage

b. Frequency of retrieval

c. Kind of item to be stored

d. All the above

Question 3

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Use of the Internet and Internet technologies can be integrated into the sales and marketing portion of the value chain

Choose one answer.

a. via software that permits customers to specify build-to-order configurations and having customer ordering capabilities at the website.

b. by providing sales personnel with real-time access to all kinds of customer account data.

c. Via online product catalogs containing extensive product information and product specifications.

d. via online price quotes and online announcements of special sales and promotions

Question 4

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1.What is CIM?

Choose one answer.

a. Computerized Integrated Manufacturing

b. Computer Integrated Manufacturing

c. Computer Initiated Manufacturing

d. Computer Integrated Modeling

Question 5

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Which of the following does not account for why growing use of the Internet tends to shift bargaining power away from sellers and towardbuyers?

Choose one answer.

a. The Internet makes it easy and convenient for buyers to gather extensive information about competing products and brands and thereby identify what is the best value for them the websites of rival vendors are only a few clicks away and are accessible on a 24/7 basis.

b. Extensive product and price knowledge on the part of buyers tends to reduce their switching costs there's little reason for buyers to remain loyal to their present brand unless it is providing them with the best value.

c. Buyers can switch their purchases to traditional brick and mortar retailers

d. Buyers of all types (manufacturers, wholesalers, retailers, and individuals) can readily join a buying group to pool their purchasing and approach vendors for better terms than could be gotten individually.

Question 6

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Which of the following is not among the major groups of firms that comprise the supply side of the Internet Economy?

Choose one answer.

a. The makers of digital cameras, video games, music CDs, and movie DVDs

b. The suppliers of computer components and computer hardware, and wireless handheld devices

c. The developers of specialized software

d. The providers of Internet-related communications components, communications equipment, and communications services

2 MARK QST

The Concept market period gets drastically cut, as CAD aids in

Choose one answer.

a. Reducing the time required to make a design.

b. Reducing the time required to modify a design.

c. Both a & b

d. None

Question 2

Marks: 1/1

The following results with the incorporation of CIM, except

Choose one answer.

a. better throughput

b. better utilization of space

c. faster deliveries

d. accumulation of materials

4 MARK QST

1. Batch Order Picking, Sort Immediate, Discrete Order Packing, Zone Picking with Chaining and Assemble - represent which of the below mentioned coding method of picking and packing.

Choose one answer.

a. BSDZCA

b. BMDZCA

c. BSDZRA

d. BSBZCA

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Radio Frequency Terminal (RFT) need which of the below mentioned for identifying orders for routing and sorting

Choose one answer.

a. Classification

b. Coding

c. Bar coding

d. All the above

UNIT 3 – OPERATION MANGEMENT

1 MARK QST

Identifying and adopting best practices

Choose one answer.

a. is a prerequisite to effective reengineering of core business processes and to creating strong core competencies.

b. is essential if a company is to effectively and efficiently implement and execute its strategy.

c. starts with benchmarking how well a company performs specific tasks and activities against best-in-industry or best-in-world performers

d. needs to be directed chiefly at manufacturing and customer service activities, since these two areas are generally the most critical to successful strategy implementation and execution.

Question 2

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Motivational and incentive compensation practices that contribute to high levels of employee performance typically

Choose one answer.

a. incorporate a blend of positive and negative motivational features and also utilize both monetary and non-monetary rewards

b. entail paying the highest wages and salaries in the industry to high-performing employees and stressing non-monetary rewards for low-performing employees.

c. emphasize making employees happy and secure in their jobs through both hard times and good times, involve extensive job rotation to expand employee skill sets, and provide all employees (but especially those on the low end of the performance scale) with job training and professional development opportunities throughout their careers.

d. incorporate only positive motivational approaches and are carefully designed to avoid subjecting employees to job insecurity, stress, or anxiety.

Question 3

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Total quality management (TQM)

Choose one answer.

a. generally works better than reengineering because of quicker employee buy-in, lower implementation costs, and easier-to-achieve results.

b. is a philosophy of managing that involves convincing employees that superior product quality is the most reliable key to competitive success in the marketplace.

c. is a term used to describe companies that are best-in-industry in most of the relevant performance indicators.

d. is a philosophy of managing that emphasizes continuous improvement in all phases of company operations, 100% accuracy in performing activities, involvement and empowerment of employees at all levels to improve on how things are done, team-based work design, benchmarking, and efforts to fully satisfy customer expectations

Question 4

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Which of the following statements regarding the role and importance of internal support systems is inaccurate?

Choose one answer.

a. Well-conceived, state-of-the-art support systems reduce the need for rigidly prescribed policies and procedures.

b. Well-conceived, state-of-the-art support systems can strengthen organizational capabilities enough to provide a competitive edge over rivals.

c. State-of-the-art support systems typically have the effect of raising a firm's unit costs because of the high dollar outlays required to develop and install such systems.

d. Well-conceived, state-of-the-art support systems can help a company mobilize information, use knowledge effectively, redeploy resources quickly, and respond faster.

Question 5

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Which one of the following is not a valid reason why strategy-implementers need to be deeply involved in the budget-making process?

Choose one answer.

a. Too little funding of strategy-critical organizational units impedes their ability to execute their pieces of the strategic plan proficiently.

b. The funding requirements of any change in strategy need to drive capital allocations and the size of each unit's operating budget

c. Implementation of a new or revised strategy usually entails budget reallocation.

d. Without budget reallocations it is hard, if not impractical, to match organization structure to the chosen strategy; moreover, aggressive resource reallocation is a prerequisite to creating needed core competencies and organizational capabilities.

Question 6

Marks: --/1

______________ is mainly concerned with allocating time slots for different jobs

Choose one answer.

a. Estimating

b. Routing

c. Scheduling

d. Dispatching

2 MARK QST

Alan Robinsons 5W2H method'. 5W2H method is the modified version of ______________________.

Choose one answer.

a. Goal 5W1H method

b. Goal The Famous 5W method

c. Goal The Famous 5W1H method'

d. Goal The Famous 5W2H method

Question 2

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Operations Management includes all of these activities except:

Choose one answer.

a. Schedule work

b. Oversee the transformation process

c. Maintain quality

d. Secure financial resources

Question 3

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The major difference between goods and services is:

Choose one answer.

a. services lack the profitability that goods enjoy

b. it is difficult to inventory services

c. goods are always customized, services are always standardized

d. goods production usually requires more labor than services

Question 4

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________________ is resorted to, as a measure of identifying strengths in the organisation

Choose one answer.

a. TQM

b. JIT

c. Internal benchmarking

d. External benchmarking

4 MARK QST

An operations strategy is developed using many sources of input - which is the least likely to have input?

Choose one answer.

a. Planning

b. Quality

c. Top Management

d. Suppliers

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Identify true and false statements. 1.GANTT charts are used to record progress, comparing the actual against the planned activities, and to keep track of the flow of the material. 2.Line balancing and line of balance are two more tools to ensure that machining centres are loaded, as uniformly as possible to prevent build up stocks at intermediate stages. 3.Simulation models are used to predict utilisation of machines, and production levels 4.Operations strategy takes under its umbrella, the quality of the product or service, time taken to deliver the product, and flexibility for changing demands of customers.

Choose one answer.





Question 3

Marks: --/1

Pragmatic bench marking is a method of measuring a company's ___________, _________, and _________; in a way that all functions in great detail.

Choose one answer.

a. process, quality, service

b. quality, quantity, procedures

c. process, methods, procedures

d. strenght, position, goals

UNIT 4 – PRODUCTON TECHNIQUES

1 MARK QST

Automated flow lines are considered only when the product is required to be made in _______ volumes over a relatively_______period

Choose one answer.

a. low, short

b. high, short

c. low, long

d. high , long

Question 2

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Automation is ideal when the service provided or the product manufactured is ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. Customized

b. Standardized

c. Customized or standardized

d. in batches

Question 3

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Automation means increase in quality and productivity using _____________devices

Choose one answer.

a. sophisticated

b. partially automated

c. labour saving

d. simple

Question 4

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Fixed Automation designed for _______ volume production and their ________ ensures _________ variability

Choose one answer.

a. low, flexibility, more

b. high, rigidity, less

c. medium, flexilibity, more

d. high, rigidity, medium

Question 5

Marks: --/1

Flexible Manufacturing Systems are designed for _______ volume production and ________ varieity

Choose one answer.

a. low, more

b. high, less

c. medium, medium

d. high,medium

Question 6

Marks: --/1

What is WIP w.r.t automated flow lines?

Choose one answer.

a. Work in progress

b. Work in production

c. Work in process

d. Work in phases

2 MARK QST

Automated Flow Lines are considered when

Choose one answer.

a. Product is required in high volume, over a long period of time

b. Product is required in low volume, over a short period of time.

c. Customized products are required in low numbers

d. Customized products are required in high volume

Question 2

Marks: 1/1

High volume production and limited or very few product variety is the feature of which type of automation

Choose one answer.

a. Flexible automation

b. Programmable automation

c. Job Shop Automation

d. Fixed Automation

Question 3

Rapid Prototype Modeling process produce

Choose one answer.

a. Life size model of the object in small number

b. Actual scale model of different material

c. Functional Prototype of the model in large numbers

d. Functional/non functional prototype in small numbers & different materials

Question 4

Marks: 0/1

The types of Automation used in production system are

Choose one answer.

a. Fixed, Rigid, Flexible

b. Rigid, Programmable, Job Shop

c. Fixed, Programmable, Flexible

d. Mass, Batch, Job Shop

4 MARK QST

Flexible Manufacturing System are used to manufacture

Choose one answer.

a. Group of components having similar shapes, though varying in sizes

b. Group of components having similar shapes and similar sizes

c. Group of components having different shapes and sizes

d. Group of components having different shapes, though similar sizes

Question 2

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Rapid Prototype does not facilitate which of the following

Choose one answer.

a. Check the specification of the product design

b. Measure the performance characteristics of the product design

c. Check for serious defects in the product design, if any

d. Testing the product prototype under actual/real time working conditions

UNIT 5 – FACILITY MANAGEMENT

1 MARK QST

A production line is to be designed for a job with three tasks. The task times are 0.3 minutes, 1.4 minutes, and 0.7 minutes. The maximum cycle time in minutes is:

Choose one answer.

a. 2.4

b. 1.4

c. 0.7

d. 0.3

Question 2

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If a line is balanced with 90 percent efficiency, the balance delay would be:

Choose one answer.

a. 10%

b. 90%

c. unknown, since balance delay is not related to efficiency

d. 100%

Question 3

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In a job shop, volume is low, and product variety tends to be:

Choose one answer.

a. very low

b. low

c. moderate

d. high

Question 4

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In a product layout, the process of deciding how to assign tasks (w.r.t to time) to work stations is referred to as:

Choose one answer.

a. Task allocation

b. line balancing

c. process balancing

d. station balancing

Question 5

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The system that has the highest equipment flexibility is:

Choose one answer.

a. repetitive production

b. continuous processing

c. job shop

d. a batch production

Question 6

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Which one of the following is not generally regarded as an advantage of product layouts?

Choose one answer.

a. The system is fairly flexible to changes in volume of output

b. unit costs may be lower than with other processes

c. Labor costs are low per unit.

d. Material handling costs per unit are low.

2 MARK QST

Different types of layout are used in any plant, depending upon

Choose one answer.

a. Product

b. The Process

c. Type of Production

d. All the above

Question 2

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The factors influencing Plant location are broadly classified into two types, namely General factors and Special factors. Which of the following does not come under special factors?

Choose one answer.

a. Transport

b. Economic stability - outside investments

c. Cultural factors

d. Wages Not the right choice - It comes under special factors

Question 3

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Which of the following is not a method of determining the most likely location for establishing a Facility?

Choose one answer.

a. Rating Plan Method

b. Factor Rating Method

c. Fraction Rating Method

d. Point Rating Method

Question 4

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Which of the following is not true in case of Product Layout?

Choose one answer.

a. Only a few products are capable of being manufactured or assembled.

b. Use Special machines to perform specific operations to produce only one product at one time.

c. The skill required of the worker is high.

d. Supervision is minimal

4 MARK QST

Match the following:

Process Layout -BATCH PRODUCTION

Product Layout -MASS PRODUCTION

Cellular Layout -CELLULAR MANUFACTURING

Fixed Position Layout -JOB SHOP PRODUCTION

2. Identify true and false statements. 1.Facilities management is an important strategic level decision taken by an organisation 2.It involves planning and management of the plant location and layout. 3.A plant location cannot be changed frequently 4.Location decisions are made on the basis of parameters which make it suitable for various considerations of suppliers, and markets

Choose one answer.





Question 3

Marks: --/1

The Just In Time Philosophy which focuses on balancing the system does not consider which of them as wastes:

Choose one answer.

a. Inventory

b. Product defects

c. Efficient work methods

d. Waiting time

UNIT 6- TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT

1 MARK QST

Although closely associated with quality, this name is not on the list of quality gurus:

Choose one answer.

a. Malcolm Baldrige

b. M Juran Not the

c. Edward Deming

d. Philip Crosby

Question 2

Marks: 0.9/1

QC tool used for classifying problem areas according to the degree of importance and affecting to the most important.

Choose one answer.

a. Scatter Diagram

b. Pareto Analysis

c. Control Charts

d. Cause and Effect Diagram

Question 3

Marks: 0.9/1

The purpose of the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award is to:

Choose one answer.

a. recognize quality achievements of U.S. companies

b. publicize successful quality programs

c. stimulate efforts to improve quality

d. all the above

Question 4

Marks: 0.9/1

Which name is associated with a list of 14 points and PDCA approach?

Choose one answer.

a. Malcolm Baldrige

b. M Juran

c. Edward Deming

d. Philip Crosby

Question 5

Marks: 0.9/1

Which one of these is the conceptual basis for continuous improvement?

Choose one answer.

a. Benchmarking

b. Pareto analysis

c. Cause-and-effect diagram

d. The plan-do-check-act cycle

Question 6

Marks: 0.9/1

Who has published the buissness book "Quality is free" ?

Choose one answer.

a. Malcolm Baldrige

b. M Juran

c. Edward Deming

d. Philip Crosby

2 MARK QST

A run chart would be used to

Choose one answer.

a. collect and organize the data

b. track the values of a variable over time

c. list potential causes of an effect

d. identify a source of problem

Question 2

Marks: --/1

The term 80-20 rule is most closely associated with:

Choose one answer.

a. Control charts

b. Check sheets

c. Brain storming

d. Pareto Analysis

Question 3

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Which of the following is not Deming's 14 points?

Choose one answer.

a. Adopt the TQM philosophy for economic purposes.

b. Do depend on inspection to deliver quality

c. Improve the system of production and service constantly

d. Do not exhort, repeat slogans and put up posters.

Question 4

Marks: --/1

_________________ form the sequence of three sets of activities i.e Juran's quality trilogy to achieve total quality management.

Choose one answer.

a. Planning, Control and Improvement.

b. Improvement, control, planning

c. Control, improvement, control

d. None of the above

4 MARK QST


Deming -PDCA CYCLE

Juran -QUALITY TRILOGY

Corsby -ABSOLUTES OF QUALITY

Taguchi -QUALITY LOSS FUNCTION

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Identify true and false statements. 1.TQM is viewed from many angles - as a philosophy, as an approach and as a journey towards excellence 2.The main thrust of TQM is to achieve customer satisfaction by involving everybody in the organisation, across all functions with continuous improvement driving all activities 3.TQM systems are designed to prevent poor quality from occurring. 4.TQM helps to improvise only operations management aspect of the business process.

Choose one answer.





UNIT 7 – BUSINESS PROCESS MODELING

1 MARK QST

A companys competitive strategy

Choose one answer.

a. consists of the business approaches and initiatives it undertakes to attract customers and fulfill their expectations, to Withstand competitive pressures, and to strengthen its market position.

b. consists mainly of defensive actions.

c. consists mainly of offensive actions.

d. typically is broader and more wide-ranging than a companys business strategy, involves offensive actions, defensive actions, tactical maneuvers designed to deal with immediate conditions, and actions calculated to have longer-term impact.

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Companies pursuing a low-cost provider strategy can open up a cost advantage over rivals by

Choose one answer.

a. creating altogether new, lower-cost value chain systems or revamping the existing value chain to bypass some cost-producing activities that produce little value added insofar as customers are concerned.

b. using a high-volume/high-quality strategy keyed to first-mover advantages, having a more technologically-sophisticated value chain than rivals, reducing the numbers of cost drivers, and having world-class suppliers.

c. doing a better job than rivals of controlling the cost drivers.

d. lowering buyers switching costs, creating a state-of-the-art value chain, and having fewer cost drivers than rival firms

Question 3

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Creating buyer value via differentiation

Choose one answer.

a. can involve incorporating product attributes and user features that lower the costs of switching to substitute products and is an attractive competitive strategy when there are few ways to achieve differentiation that have value to buyers

b. has to be grounded in providing buyers with unique extras that deliver real value rather than perceived value.

c. can be achieved anywhere along the industry value chain.

d. can involve incorporating product attributes and user features that lower buyers' overall costs of using the product or that raise the performance a buyer gets from the product or that enhance buyer satisfaction in noneconomic or intangible ways.

Question 4

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Differentiation strategies

Choose one answer.

a. work best when the basis for differentiation is superior quality or superior customer service.

b. typically result in much greater buyer loyalty than low-cost provider strategies.

c. usually win out over a low-cost provider strategy unless buyers are inclined to shop solely on price.

d. are an attractive competitive approach whenever buyers needs and preferences are too diverse to be satisfied by a product that is essentially identical from seller to seller; moreover, a differentiation strategy can produce sustainable competitive advantage if the differentiating features possess strong buyer appeal and can not be copied or easily matched by rivals

Question 5

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Which of the following characterize a best-cost provider strategy?

Choose one answer.

a. The marketing emphasis is on matching the prices of rival brands having comparable features and attributes

b. The strategic target is price-conscious buyers.

c. A product line consisting of wide selection, many product variations, and emphasis on differentiating features

d. A competitive advantage based on more value for the money

Question 6

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Which of the following is not characteristic of a low-cost provider strategy?

Choose one answer.

a. The production emphasis is on continuously searching for ways to reduce costs without sacrificing acceptable quality and essential features.

b. The marketing emphasis is on making virtues out of product features that lead to low cost.

c. The strategic target is value-conscious buyers and sustaining the strategy depends on frequent advances in technology and occasional product innovations

d. The product line consists of a few basic models having minimal frills and acceptable quality.

2 MARK QST

Companies are motivated to enter into strategic alliances or cooperative arrangements

Choose one answer.

a. to help open up or improve access to attractive market opportunities

b. to improve supply chain efficiency and/or overcome deficiencies in their technical or manufacturing expertise and/or gain economies of scale in production and/or marketing.

c. to gain access to technology, expertise, competitive capabilities, and other resources that will help them in racing for global leadership or in building a stronger position in the industries of the future.

d. to collaborate on mutually-interesting technology or the development of promising new products.

Question 2

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Focused low-cost strategy

Choose one answer.

a. involves the use of guerrilla offensives to capture customers.

b. involves concentrating on a buyer segment whose requirements are less costly to satisfy compared to the rest of the market and a marketing emphasis on

touting the focusers unique ability to satisfy the specialized requirements of niche members

c. entails trying to wrest market share away from rivals via extra advertising, above-average expenditures for promotional programs, and heavy use of point-of-sale merchandising techniques.

d. is the hardest of the five generic types of competitive strategies to employ successfully.

Question 3

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Focusing on a limited market niche

Choose one answer.

a. works best when it is costly or difficult for multi-segment rivals to satisfy the specialized needs of niche members

b. is more attractive when the niche offers good growth potential, is big enough to be profitable, no other rivals are attempting to specialize in serving the same target segment, and the focuser can defend itself against challengers based on the customer goodwill it has built up and on its superior ability to serve niche members.

c. is more attractive when a focuser has the skills and resources to serve the segment effectively.

d. carries the risk that multi-segment competitors will find effective ways to match the focuser is serving the needs of niche members and also carries the risk that the preferences and needs of niche members will shift toward the product attributes desired by mainstream buyers, thus causing the size of the niche to shrink significantly and maybe even disappear.

Question 4

Marks: --/1

The strategy of being a best-cost provider

Choose one answer.

a. combines a strategic emphasis on low cost with a strategic emphasis on more than minimally acceptable quality, service, features, and performance

b. is almost always more profitable than focused or market niche strategies because of the potential for creating a much bigger competitive advantage but is

the hardest of the five generic types of competitive strategies to employ successfully

c. is the easiest of the five generic types of competitive strategies to copy or imitate.

d. is the most attractive of all the competitive strategies because it combines the best features of the four other generic types of competitive strategies.

4 MARK QST

Vertical integration

Choose one answer.

a. is the most dependable and frequently used way to achieve a cost advantage over rivals because it increases a firms flexibility in using its resources most advantageously.

b. forward into wholesale distribution and retail operations is one of the best strategic options to lowering the costs of accessing end-users and becoming the overall low-cost provider.

c. backward into the production of parts and components is a dependable and trustworthy way to reduce the costs of items purchased from suppliers (because internal manufacture is typically cheaper than outsourcing).

d. can be a good strategy if it enhances a firms competitiveness; otherwise, it is ill-advised, in part because it locks a firm into relying on its own in-house activities and sources of supply and/or distribution outlets (which later may prove more costly than having these value chain activities performed by outsiders).

Question 2

Marks: 0/1

Which of the following is not one of the basic types of strategic offensives?

Choose one answer.

a. Initiatives to change the rules of competition and alter the industrys key success factors

b. Initiatives to capitalize on competitors weaknesses

c. Guerrilla offensives and end-run offensives

d. Initiatives to match or exceed on competitors strengths and simultaneous initiatives on many fronts

Question 3

Marks: 0/1

Which of the following statements is inaccurate?

Choose one answer.

a. In considering offensive initiatives, a would-be challenger needs to analyze carefully which rivals to challenge as well as what kind of offensive to mount and how to mount it and also weigh the relative merits of targeting market leaders or runner-up firms or struggling enterprises or small local or regional firms with limited expertise and resources. Refer Section Number - 7.3

b. A strategic offensive aimed at going head-to-head against key competitors to match or beat their strengths may be an attractive way of winning market share away from weaker rivals whose strengths and resources can be outmatched; going head-to-head against a rivals strengths may be unavoidable if the competitive advantage of a stronger rival is to be narrowed or whittled away entirely.

c. Offensives aimed at attacking a strong rival stand the best chance of succeeding if they are predicated on a cost advantage that permits offering an equally good product at a lower price; otherwise the offensive is probably destined to hurt profitability and sap financial resources

d. A strategic offensive that involves guerilla warfare-style tactics nearly always should involve cutting price below those charged by the rivals being targeted if it is to succeed

UNIT 8- PROJECT MANAGEMENT & PLANNING PROCESS

1 MARK QST

A project is a temporary endeavor with a finite completion date undertaken to create a unique

Choose one answer.

a. Item or service

b. Item or Product

c. Product or service

d. Service

Question 2

Marks: --/1

DIN 69901 is a standardization from

Choose one answer.

a. British organization

b. Indian organization

c. American organization

d. German organization

Question 3

Marks: --/1

It consists of the various activities of operations, resources and the limitations imposed on them.

Choose one answer.

a. Process

b. Product

c. Management

d. Project Cycle

Question 4

Marks: --/1

It is a part of the project which consists of simple and routine instructions to achieve a desired result of any activity of the project.

Choose one answer.

a. Process

b. Product

c. Management

d. Project Cycle

Question 5

Marks: --/1

Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements. This definition of Project Management is as per :

Choose one answer.

a. PMBOK

b. ISO

c. DIN

d. ANSI

Question 6

Marks: --/1

Projects bring form or function to____

Choose one answer.

a. Ideas or needs

b. products or items

c. items or necessity

d. items or needsd

2 MARK QST

Characteristics of project mindset are : i)Time - It is impossible to improve the pace of the project by reducing the time frame of the process. The mindset is normally to work a comfort mode by stretching the time limits. ii) Processes- Project mindset lays emphasis on rigid processes

Choose one answer.

a. false , true respectively.

b. true, false respectively

c. Both are True

d. Both are false

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Consider the following statements : i) The process in which interactions depends on the nature of work and dynamic and dependent on team innovations is closing process. ii) the process in which the project is reviewed , findings afe reporeted and project performacne is analysed is executing process.. The statements are :

Choose one answer.

a. false , true respectively.

b. true, false respectively

c. Both are True

d. Both are false

Question 3

Marks: --/1

TITLE : small projects, big results(Karen M Kroll. PM Network. Drexel Hill: Jul 2007. Vol. 21, Iss. 7; pg. 28) Small projects may not be as glamorous or prestigious as their larger counterparts, but theyre still important and still require project management. The most common mistake people make when executing small projects is thinking that because of the small amount of effort required, the project doesnt need planning at all, says Roberta Toledo, PMP, managing partner at Alpha Consultoria, a project management consultancy in Mexico City, Mexico. Project managers who opt to cut back on project management principles run several risks, says Margo OFarrell, a teacher of project management at TAFE Tasmania, a training organization in Tasmania, Australia. First, if the project manager becomes ill or otherwise unavailable, the project will probably come screaming to a halt. Failing to apply project management principles can also result in a lack of executive commitment, OFarrell says. A project managers reputation may be at stake, too. Even when a project is relatively small, the objective can be substantive. The amount of planning and process should be proportional to the projects scope. Finally, once the project is underway, project managers must find ways to keep team members focused on the goal-which can be particularly tricky on small projects. In the above description, which main principles of project management are being focused upon?

Choose one answer.

a. Schedule and staff

b. features and cost

c. quality and schedule

d. cost and quality

Question 4

Marks: --/1

Two of the process groups are initaiting processes and controlling processes. i) initiating process - recognition to start and establishing commitment. ii) controlling processes - formalizing acceptiace and bringing project to an ordelry end. The statements are -

Choose one answer.

a. Both are True

b. false , true respectively.

c. Both are false

d. true, false respectively

4MARK QST


Scope -it refers to the various parameters which effect the project

Resource -IT REFERS TO THE MANPOWER, MACHINERY,MONEY AND MATERIAL

Project Cost -- IT IS THE BUDJET EXPENDITURE OF THE PROJECT

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Calgary shareholders remove chief STANLEY PIGNAL. (Financial Times. London (UK): Apr 15, 2008) Shane OLeary, chief operating officer of the UK-Canadian group, will take over the reins from Mr [Richard Anderson]. High hopes over the gas explorer's intentions to develop a field in Algeria caused its share price to peak in 2005 but its failure to exploit the prospect has since caused its share price to slump. In spite of Mr [Khelil]s views, FCP yesterday announced that Mr [Michael Kroupeev]s proposed slate of directors would now be recommended by management, making their election virtually guaranteed, although two of his nominees would step down and make way for compromise board members. Mr Kroupeev, who controls nearly 10 per cent of FCP through an investment vehicle, also sounded a conciliatory tone. The minister has no grounds to be concerned. There has been no change in control of the board. We are fully committed to developing this project. Which of the following process is applicable to this context?

Choose one answer.

a. Closing Process

b. Intiating Process

c. Controlling process

d. Exceuting process

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Project ARBRE: Lessons for bio-energy developers and policy-makers(Athena Piterou, Simon Shackley, Paul Upham. Energy Policy. Kidlington: Jun 2008. Vol. 36, Iss. 6; ) Project Arable Biomass Renewable Energy (ARBRE) was a flagship project in the UK to demonstrate electricity generation from dedicated energy crops, employing the high efficiency of gasification combined cycle technology while also contributing to the waste management problem of sewage disposal. The plant never reached commercial operation and this paper provides the first detailed public account of the reasons, drawing on interviews with the main actors. Project ARBRE failed due to three unfortunate developments: the withdrawal for reasons of commercial strategy of the main company that initiated and financed the project; bankruptcy of the turnkey contractor appointed to oversee the project; and technical problems with the gasification technology, which could not be resolved within the financial and time constraints. All these factors acted in reinforcing manner and they were individually preventable: documenting the process of failure is a learning experience that can prevent their recurrence. Failures listed above may fall under one or more of the following categories. recurrence. Failures listed above may fall under one or more of the following categories. 1. Factors contributing to project success not emphasized 2. Overview of Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) projects: 3. Common problems encountered during projects 4. Incidence of project failure Identify the appropriate categories?

Choose one answer.

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 2, 3, and 4

c. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1,2 and 4

UNIT 9- PROJECT IMPLIMENTATION , CONTROL & CLOSURE

1 MARK QST

In this phase information is collected from the customer pertaining to the project and the requirements are analyzed.

Choose one answer.

a. Execution

b. Marketing

c. Design

d. Analysis

Question 2

Marks: --/1

In this phase the project manager and the teams members work on the project objectives as per the plan.

Choose one answer.

a. Execution

b. Marketing

c. Design

d. Analysis

Question 3

Marks: --/1

One can estimate the start time and the finish time for every event of the project in its WBS using the

Choose one answer.

a. SRA

b. WBS

c. CPM

d. PERT

Question 4

Marks: --/1

One can find out the variance and use the variance to analyze the various probabilistic estimates pertaining to the project in _______ method

Choose one answer.

a. SRA

b. WBS

c. CPM

d. PERT

Question 5

Marks: --/1

SRA stands for

Choose one answer.

a. Software requirement analysis Not the right choice

b. Support requirement analysis Not the right choice

c. Specification requirement analysis

d. Systems requirement analysis

Question 6

Marks: --/1

This phase involves the study of inputs and outputs of the various project stages.

Choose one answer.

a. Execution

b. Marketing

c. Design

d. Analysis

2 MARK QST

At a node 11 there are 4 successors. LCT wrt each of the 4 successors is 27,43,18,37 days. What is the LCT of the node 11?

Choose one answer.

a. 27 days

b. 37 days

c. 18 days

d. 43 days

Question 2

Marks: --/1

At a node 15 there are 4 predecessors. EST wrt each of the 4 predecessors is 35,32,30,31 days. What is the EST of the node 15?

Choose one answer.

a. 32 days

b. 35 days

c. 31 days

d. 30 days

Question 3

Marks: --/1

If tm=7days, to=1days, tp=7days what is the value of sd (standard eviation) ?

Choose one answer.

a. 0.5 day ( tp-to/6)2=1=1

b. 0 day

c. 1 day

d. 2 day

Question 4

Marks: --/1

In a)PERT method the variance is found is used to analyze the various probabilistic estimates pertaining to the project b)In CPM the start time and finish time of every event of the project in its WBS is found

Choose one answer.

a. A is true, B is False

b. A is False, B is true

c. Both a & b are false

d. Both a & b are true

4 MARK QST


Design Phase –STUDY INPUTS AND OUTPUTS OF VARIOUS STAGE

Marketing Phase -PREPARE STRATEGIC PROJECT PROPOSAL

Execution Phase –WORK ON PROJECT OBJECTIVES AS PER PLAN

Question 2

Marks: --/1

In the analysis and evaluation phase, the following two are i) Feasibilty Study - To analyze whether the project is technically, economically and practically feasible to be undertaken. ii) Trade-off analysis: To understand and examine the various alternatives which could be considered Which of the following is correct?

Choose one answer.

a. Statement 1, 2 true

b. Statement 1 is true 2 is false

c. Statement 1, 2, are false


Question 3

Marks: --/1

In the analysis and evaluation phase, the following two are i) Project Evaluation : Evaluate expected profit, cost and risks involved. ii) Estimation : Estimate the project cost, effort required and functionality. Which of the following is correct?

Choose one answer.

a. true and false respectively

b. false and true respectively

c. Both are true

d. Both are false

UNIT 10 –MODERN TRENDS IN PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1 MARK QST

An information system dealing with project management tasks is known as __________

Choose one answer.

a. Decision Support System

b. Transaction processing system

c. Project Management Information System

d. Knowledge Management System

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Assist the team members, stakeholders, managers with necessary information and summary of the information shared to the higher level managers is one of the aspects of ___

Choose one answer.

a. PMIS

b. DSS

c. KBS

d. EIS

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Assists the managers in doing what if analyses about project staffing, proposed staffing changes and total allocation of resources is one of the aspect of ____

Choose one answer.

a. KBS

b. DSS

c. PMIS

d. EIS

Question 4

Marks: --/1

Help organizational learning by helping the members of the organization learn about project management is one of the aspects of ____

Choose one answer.

a. KBS

b. DSS

c. PMIS

d. EIS

Question 5

Marks: --/1

Provide information to the major stakeholders i.e. the right information at the right time is one of the aspects of ____

Choose one answer.

a. KBS

b. DSS

c. PMIS

d. EIS

Question 6

Marks: --/1

__________ involves using various analysis techniques and procedure to identify major external factors or forces which could affect development process

Choose one answer.

a. Continusous Business Process Improvement

b. Management Assurance Measures

c. Information Risk Management

d. Force Field Analysis

2 MARK QST

DMAIS represents

Choose one answer.

a. define, measure, analyse, integrate, system

b. define, measure, analyse, improve, standardize

c. define, monitor, analyse, improve, system

d. define, monitor, analyse, integrate, standardize

Question 2

Marks: --/1

The agenda for a review should be well structured in terms of _________ and __________

Choose one answer.

a. content and list of participants

b. list of participants and time

c. roles and responsibilities

d. time and content

Question 3

Marks: --/1

The team should exhibit better control of their project ____________ and then demonstrate better control about business ___________

Choose one answer.

a. Portfolio, profitability

b. Prospects, growth

c. Portfolio , prospects

d. prospects, expandability

Question 4

Marks: --/1

__________ and ___________ are well established certification systems, several world organizations are now working on P-CMM and total quality assurance.

Choose one answer.

a. SEI-CMM & ISO Certification

b. Information Risk Management and Strategic inflection point

c. Strategic Inflection Point and ISO certification

d. Management Assurance Measure and Strategic Inflection point

4 MARK QST


Define- bench mark, customer requirement,process flow map,quality function

Improve-desighn of experiments, modelling

Standardize -control charts, time series,procedural adtherance

Question 2

Marks: --/1


Analyse -cause and effect, failure models, reliability, risk

Improve - -desighn of experiments, modelling

Standardize -control charts, time series,procedural adtherance

Question 3

Marks: --/1


Analyse --control charts, time series,procedural adtheranc

Improve - desighn of experiments, modelling

Measure -data collection, detect metric, sampling

UNIT 11-SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT

1 MARK QST

Better utilization of resources men, material, equipment and money.

Choose one answer.

a. TPS

b. MRP

c. SCM

d. EIS

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Effective integration of multiple systems like ERP, communication systems, documentation system and secure is an objective of __

Choose one answer.

a. TPS

b. SCM

c. MRP

d. EIS

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Enhancement of participation level and empowerment level is one of the objectives of

Choose one answer.

a. TPS

b. KBS

c. SCM

d. DFSS

Question 4

Marks: --/1

Increase in functional effectiveness of existing systems like ERP, Accounting Software and Documentation like Financial reports/ Statements/ ISO 9000 Documents etc. is one of the objectives of ___

Choose one answer.

a. TPS

b. KBS

c. SCM

d. DSS

Question 5

Marks: --/1

Increase in functional effectiveness of existing systems like ERP, Accounting Software and Documentation like Financial reports/ Statements/ ISO 9000 Documents etc. is one of the objectives of ___

Choose one answer.

a. TPS

b. SCM

c. MRP

d. EIS

Question 6

Marks: --/1

The following is not a Domain application of SCM

Choose one answer.

a. ERP Systems

b. Design Systems like Auot-CAD, Pro-E

c. ISO 9000 Systems

d. Six Sigma Systems

2 MARK QST

The elements of SCM are inventory, transportation, __________ and ___________

Choose one answer.

a. Chain and links

b. Chain and location

c. Location and production

d. Chain and transportation

Question 2

Marks: --/1

The elements of SCM are location, production, ________ and ________

Choose one answer.

a. Chain and transportation

b. Inventory and transportation

c. Location and inventory

d. Inventory and chain

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Two broad categories of the decisions in SCM are _______ and _________

Choose one answer.

a. Strategic & operational

b. Strategic & tactical

c. Strategic & managerial

d. Tactical & operational

Question 4

Marks: --/1

Two great name in SCM are _________ and _________

Choose one answer.

a. Ram Chandran and Terry P Harrison

b. Ram Ganeshan and Terry P Harrison

c. Ram Ganeshan and Terry P Alderman

d. Ram Chandran and Terry P Alderman

4 MARK QST


Fiscal discipline & control - CONSERVATION OF FUNDS

Integrated network of info-SCIENTIFICALY DESIGHNED SYSTEMOF INFO

Idling of assets -BALANCIFIING JUSTIFIED AND INJUSTIFIED ASSETS

Question 2

Marks: --/1


Upstream -activities of a manufacturing company withits supplier

Internal -process the input from the supplier to output

Downstream -involved in the delivering the product to the final customer

Question 3

Marks: --/1

The following statements are the views on supply chain a) SCM is a static system of interconnected and interdependent individuals, groups, companies, organization, and relationships aimed at satisfying the customers b) SCM optimizes information and product flows from the purchase of raw materials to the delivery of finished goods with a vision of achieving significant strategic objectives involving productivity, quality, innovative service and collaborations. Which of the following is correct :

Choose one answer.

a. both are true

b. both are false

c. a) is true, b) is false

d. a) is false, b) is true

UNIT 12- PLANT LAYOUT AND MATERIAL HANDLING

1 MARK QST

CDS algorithm was given by

Choose one answer.

a. Charles, Duke, Schnider

b. Campbell, Dudek and Smith

c. Chaudhary, Darshan, Srinivas

d. Christopher, Dale, Sam

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Ergonomics is taken from the Greek words, "Ergon" and "Nomos" which means

Choose one answer.

a. Work, Laws

b. Law, Work

c. Rule, Work

d. Work, Nature

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Johnson's algorithm is used for sequencing of ___________ jobs through__________ work centres

Choose one answer.

a. 2, 2

b. n, 2

c. 2, n

d. n, m

Question 4

Marks: --/1

The objective of material handling is to make the everyday businesses more ________ and ________ effective.

Choose one answer.

a. Efficient, Cost

b. convenient, cost

c. cheaper, cost

d. smoother, cost

Question 5

Marks: --/1

The purpose of Johnson's algorithm is to 1. minimise idle time on machines 2.reduce the total time taken for completing all the jobs 3. increase throughput 4. reduce balance delay

Choose one answer.

a. 1 & 2 only

b. 2 & 3 only

c. 3 & 4 only

d. all the above

Question 6

Marks: --/1

Who developed a technology called Lumbar Motion Monitor by studying the low back injuries, which is famous as, LMM?

Choose one answer.

a. Dr. Bill Marris

b. Dr. Chritopher Marris

c. Dr. Sam Marris

d. Dr. David Marris

2 MARKS QST

The factors taken into account during production for material flow are 1. Quantities produced 2. Rate of production at each centre 3. Number of operations 4.Total production required

Choose one answer.

a. 1 & 2 only

b. 1 & 3 only

c. 1,2 & 3 only

d. 1,2,3 & 4

Question 2

Marks: --/1

The first step in Johson's algorithm is to

Choose one answer.

a. Find the maximum among the time taken by machine 1 and 2 for all the jobs

b. Find the minimum among the time taken by machine 2 for all the jobs

c. Find the minimum among the time taken by machine 1 and 2 for all the jobs

d. Find the minimum among the time taken by machine 1 for all the jobs

Question 3

Marks: --/1

The purpose of balancing of material is to see that 1. no shortages occur between work centres 2. minimum inventory gets created.

Choose one answer.

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 & 2

d. None

Question 4

Marks: --/1

Which of the below mentioned factors pertaining to material properties effect the selection of equipment : 1 Size, weight and nestability 2. Carton counts, pallet counts 3. Value 4. Environment

Choose one answer.

a. 1 & 2 only

b. 1 & 3 only

c. 1,2 & 3 only

d. 1,2,3 & 4

4 MARK QST


SMD - one product all tasks time known

SMS - one product all tasks time variable

MMD - many product all tasks time known

MMS -many product all tasks time variabl

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Identify true and false statements. 1.For sequencing of jobs, Johnson's algorithm is a useful staring point and CDS algorithm is the advanced methodologies used for sequencing multiple jobs 2.Balancing the production is a very important aspect of achieving maximum throughput and reduce inventory 3.Sequencing decides the order in which jobs are loaded on different machines. 4.Dr. Bill Marris developed a technology called Lumbar Motion Monitor by studying the low back injuries, which is famous as, LMM

Choose one answer.





UNIT 13- JUST IN TIME

1 MARK QST

A basic requirement for operating with low inventories in JIT systems is:

Choose one answer.

a. Major problems must be uncovered.

b. Major problems must have been solved.

c. Adequate space is available to store inventory

d. Inventory investment must be saved.

Question 2

Marks: --/1

In the JIT philosophy, the ideal lot size is:

Choose one answer.

a. The economic order quantity

b. The economic run size

c. Capacity of a standard container

d. One unit

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Inventory management requires two questions to be answered: How many and when. JIT answers those two questions with:

Choose one answer.

a. economic order quantities, reorder point

b. exact quantity, first of each month

c. exact quantities, when orders are received

d. economic run sizes, reorder point

Question 4

Marks: --/1

Which is not a benefit of JIT?

Choose one answer.

a. Work Cells

b. Lower total setup costs

c. Flexibility

d. Lower Inventories Not the right choice - Is a benefit

Question 5

Marks: --/1

Which one of these is not generally associated with JIT?

Choose one answer.

a. Low inventories

b. Push system

c. Preventive Maintenance

d. Problem solving

Question 6

Marks: --/1

Which one of these is not usually associated with JIT?

Choose one answer.

a. Manufacturing cells

b. Preventive maintenance

c. Large lot sizes

d. Multifunctional workers Not the right choice - Is associated with JIT

2 MARK QST

Which is not a benefit of small lot sizes?

Choose one answer.

a. Problems are more apparent

b. Increased production flexibility

c. Reduced inventory

d. More frequent setups

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Which one is not a building block of JIT?

Choose one answer.

a. manufacturing planning and control

b. customized parts

c. process design

d. product design

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Which one of the following is not a pre requisite for implementation of JIT?

Choose one answer.

a. shorter setup times

b. Control inventories

c. Reduce product defects

d. training employees

Question 4

Marks: --/1

Which one of these is generally avoided in JIT systems?

Choose one answer.

a. Short lead times

b. Waiting lines

c. Management by consensus

d. Reduced space requirements

4 MARK QST

Breakdown programs include all of the following except:

Choose one answer.

a. Inventories of spare parts.

b. Periodic inspections

c. Operators who can perform minor repairs.

d. Backup equipment.

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Cost of equipment breakdown can include:

Choose one answer.

a. loss of output

b. damage to other equipment

c. cost of idle workers

d. all the above

Question 3

Marks: --/1

Preventive maintenance is not usually scheduled:

Choose one answer.

a. by operating time.

b. by planned inspections.

c. irregularly, as breakdowns occur

d. by calendar time.

UNIT14 – VALUE ENGENEERING

1 MARK QST

Cost of manufacture of processes can be reduced by

Choose one answer.

a. Standardizing the processes

b. Simplifying the processes

c. Both a & b.


Question 2

Marks: --/1

In Value Engineering simplification of processes used to manufacture a product leads to

Choose one answer.

a. Reduction In labour required

b. Reduction in Inventory

c. Improved quality

d. Reduction in cost of manufacturing

Question 3

Marks: --/1

The concept of value engineering was developed by

Choose one answer.

a. Ford

b. Toyota

c. The General Electric Corporations (GEC)

d. Volkswagen

Question 4

Marks: --/1

The different aspects of value engineering are encapsulated into a sequence of steps known as :

Choose one answer.

a. Process Plan

b. Job Plan

c. Value Plan

d. Engineering plan

Question 5

Marks: --/1

The procedure of involving suppliers from the design stage is called

Choose one answer.

a. pro-sourcing

b. out-sourcing

c. post-sourcing

d. pre-sourcing

Question 6

Marks: --/1

Value Analysis looks at the manufacturing activities with a view to make the

Choose one answer.

a. components simpler

b. processes faster

c. products better

d. All the above

2 MARK QST

During the Analysis and Valuation of Functions, the description of the function of each part should be ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. elaborate

b. cryptic - two or three words right choice

c. short

d. any of the above

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1. With previous penalties this gives 0.8/1.

Question 2

Marks: 0.8/1

Engineering starts at the product concept and design and is carried down the ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. Process chain

b. Product chain

c. Value chain right choice

d. All the above

Correct


Question 3

Marks: 0.7/1

The implementation of the Value analysis should take place at the ________.

Choose one answer.

a. Design stage of product

b. Development stage of product

c. Processing stage of product

d. Both a & b right choice - has to be at both the stages

Correct


Question 4

Marks: 0.9/1

VA along with ________ approach, is used to attain a good balance of cost.

Choose one answer.

a. DFMA - Design For Manufacturability and Assembly right choice - Value Analysis and DFMA together help enhance the product value and reduce the cost of production and improve the performance

b. PDCA - Plan Do Check Approach

c. Deming's

d. Jaran's Quality Trilogy

4 MARK QST

Value is as defined, is the ratio of function / cost which is equivalent to

Choose one answer.

a. Total Functionality / Life cycle cost

b. Total Performance / Life cycle cost

c. Total Productivity / Life cycle cost


Question 2

Marks: --/1

What is Value Engineering?

Choose one answer.

a. The systematic application of recognized techniques which identify the function of a product or service, and provide the necessary function reliably at lowest overall cost.

b. A discipline of engineering that studies the relative monetary values of various materials and construction techniques, including the initial cost, maintenance cost, energy usage cost, replacement cost, and life expectancy.

c. Is a systematic method to improve the "value" of goods or products and services by using an examination of function

d. Any of the above

UNIT 15- QUANTITATIVE MODELLING

1 MARK QST

Providing which of the following conditions will help increase in productivity.

Choose one answer.

a. A temperature range of 24 to 32 degrees Celsius would be suitable

b. Good illumination at the workplace helps productivity

c. Using pleasing colours for the walls and surroundings

d. All the above

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Reasons which might lead to imbalance in the production system is/are : 1.Rate of production 2.Absenteeism of workers 3.Breakdown of equipment 4.Delayed arrival of material 5.Uncertain lead times

Choose one answer.

a. 1 & 4

b. 1.2 & 4

c. 1,2,3,4,& 5

d. 2,3 & 5

Question 3

Marks: --/1

The International Labour Organization headquarters is situated in

Choose one answer.

a. Italy

b. Geneva

c. Paris

d. Washington

Question 4

Marks: --/1

The term Ergonomics is derived from the Greek words ergo & nomos meaning -

Choose one answer.

a. Work & Natural laws respectively

b. Natural Laws and work respectively

c. Work & Physical laws respectively

d. Natural & Physical laws respectively

Question 5

Marks: --/1

Work measurement can be defined as a systematic application of various techniques that are designed to establish the content of work involved in performing a specific task. The task is performed by _____________ .

Choose one answer.

a. Layman

b. Skilled worker

c. Qualified worker

d. Engineer

Question 6

Marks: --/1

Work study comprises of a) work measurement b) method study

Choose one answer.

a. a is true, b is false

b. a is false, b is true

c. a & b both are true

d. a & b both are false

2 MARK QST

Companies can increase productivity in a variety of ways. The methods may involve a) automation and computerization b) involve ergonomic design c) Maintain good work environment

Choose one answer.

a. a is false, b & c are true

b. a & b are true, c is false

c. a & c are true, b is false

d. a, b & c are true

Question 2

Marks: --/1

Quantitative methods deal with a) using models for a particular situation b) applying statistical tools to analyse data and make decisions.

Choose one answer.

a. a is true, b is false

b. a is false, b is true

c. a & b both are false

d. a & b both are true

Question 3

Marks: --/1

The ________ model is used when it is not possible to formulate a mathematical model.

Choose one answer.

a. Waiting Line

b. Simulation

c. PERT/CPM

d. Assignment

Question 4

Marks: --/1

Which of the following is/are the main aims of ILO (International Labour Organization) 1 to promote rights at work 2. to encourage decent employment

opportunities 3.to enhance social protection 4. to strengthen dialogue in handling work-related issues.

Choose one answer.

a. 1 & 2

b. 3 & 4

c. 1,2 & 3

d. 1,2,3 & 4

4 MARK QST

Linear Programming Technique -optimize given objectives

Transportation Technique -model to economize

Assignment Model -solve allocation problem

PERT/CPM -estimate the time required for the allocation of the project

Question 2

Marks: --/1


Work Measurement- establish a content of work involved in performing a task

Motion Study -method of performing the task

Machine - worker Interface-amount of time spends on the machine

Work Study -analysis of work method

Question 3

Marks: --/1


X-bar Chart -the mean measurement in the sample

R-Chart -the range of measurement in the sample

P-Chart -defectives in the sample

C-Chart -the no.of defects in the sample