Question Code : B22103 U16Sub Code: CHC21 Sri S.Ramasamy ...srnmcollege.ac.in/file_upload/Question Papers April 2018.pdf · 9. The greater activity of carboxylic acids compared to

20. a) How will you prepare carboxylic acid from

i) Malonic acid ii) acetoacetic acid

b) Write notes on

i) Kolbe‟s reaction ii) HVZ reaction

Question Code : B22103 Sub Code: U16CHC21

Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur

END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018

ORGANIC CHEMISTRY – I

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75

Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks

1. A compound of formula C3H8 does not react with bromine in CCl4 in the

dark. The compound could be _______.

a) alkane b) cycloalkane

c) alkene d) cycloalkene

2. Markonikov‟s addition of HBr is not applicable to_______.

a) propene b) 1 – butene

c) 1 – pentene d) 2 – butene

3. 1,3-butadiene reacts with bromine to give

a) 3,4–dibromo–1–butene b) 4–bromo–1–butene

c) 1,4–dibromo–2–butene d) 1–bromo–2–butene

4. Which of the following compounds will give a white precipitate with

alcoholic AgNO3?

a) Vinyl benzene b) Chlorobenzene

c) Vinyl chloride d) Allyl chloride

5. Which of the bond in ethyl alcohol will undergoes heterolytic bond

fission most readily?

a) O–H b) C–H c) C–O d) C–C

6. When ethylene glycol is heated with concentrated HNO3 , it forms_____.

a) Ethylene oxide b) oxalic acid

c) dioxane d) diethylene glycol

7. Which of the following compound will give a positive test with

Fehling‟s solution?

a) Formaldehyde b) acetone

c) ethyl acetate d) acetic acid

8. The appearance of a silver mirror in Tollen‟s test indicate the

presence of _______.

a) An aldehyde b) A ketone

c) An alcohol d) An alkane

9. The greater activity of carboxylic acids compared to alcohol arises

primarily from_______.

a) the electron–donating effect of the hydroxyl group

b) the electron withdrawing effect of the carboxyl group

c) the acidity of alpha–halogens of carboxylic acids

d) the resonance stability associated with the carboxylate ion

10. Propane nitrile undergoes acid-hydrolysis to give ______.

a) formic acid b) propionic acid

c) acetic acid d) butyric acid

Part B

Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks

11. a) Write a note on hydroboration – oxidation.

(or)

b) Give the mechanism of addition of HBr to prepare in the presence

of peroxide.

12. a) How will you prepare the following

i) Westrosol ii) Freon iii) Allyl chloride

(or)

b) Describe any four important reactions of acetylene.

13. a) How do primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols differ in their

behaviour towards oxidation?

(or)

b) Write a short note on

i) Oxy mercuration ii) Deoxy mercuration

iii) Iodoform test

14. a) Describe the important chemical properties of diethyl ether.

(or)

b) Give the general mechanism of nucleophilic addition reactions of

carbonyl compounds.

15. a) Give the preparation and properties of lactic acid.

(or)

b) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing acidity and

explain your answer.

HCOOH, CICH2COOH, CH3COOH.

Part C

Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks

16. Write notes on

a) Addition of H2SO4 to alkene

b) Ozonolysis in alkene

c) Hydroxylation in alkene

17. Write down any five synthetic applications of Grignard reagents.

18. Write down preparations of the following.

a) Sulphonal b) Mustard gas c) Glycol

19. Describe the following :

a) Aldol condensation b) Tischenko reaction

c) Rosenmunds reduction




PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY - I


Part A


1. The temperature at which a real gas obeys the ideal gas laws over a wide

range of pressure is

a) critical temperature b) inversion temperature

c) boyle temperature d) reduced temperature

2. The unit of Vanderwall‟s constant „a‟ is

a) atm b) atmL2 c) atmL

2mol

–1 d) atmL

2mol

–2

3. Root mean square velocity of oxygen is calculated from

a) 16

3RT b)

32

3RT c)

4

3RT d)

8

2RT

4. On increasing the temperature of a gas, the mean free path ______.

a) decreases b) increases

c) remains unaffected d) decreases exponentially

5. Butter is a dispersion of

a) solid in liquid b) liquid in solid

c) liquid in liquid d) liquid in gas

6. The phenomenon of reversible sol–gel transformation is known as

a) imbition b) swelling

c) syneresis d) thixotrophy

7. The molecule which does not exhibit dipole moment is

a) H2O b) CHCl3 c) NH3 d) CCl4

8. Iron and cobalt are examples of

a) paramagnetic b) diamagnetic

c) ferromagnetic d) antiferrimagnetic

9. In adsorption of oxalic acid, the activated charcoal is called ______.

a) adsorber b) absorber

c) absorbate d) adsorbent

10. During Haber‟s process for the manufacture of ammonia, which of

the following act as catalytic poisons?

a) NO b) CO2 c) H2S d)N2

Part B


11. a) What are the main postulates of Kinetic theory of gases?

(or)

b) Derive ideal gas law from the kinetic gas equations.

12. a) State and explain Maxwell‟s law of distribution of molecular

velocities.

(or)

b) Explain average, most probable and root mean square velocity.

How are they related with each other?

13. a) Discuss the optical properties of colloidal solution.

(or)

b) Write any five applications of colloids.

14. a) Define the terms viscosity and molar viscosity. Explain.

(or)

b) Differentiate diamagnetism and paramagnetism giving examples.

15. a) Distinguish between psysisorption and chemisorptions.

(or)

b) Deduce langmiur equation of adsorption.

Part C


16. State law of corresponding state and derive the reduced equation of state

from vanderwaal‟s equation.

17. With reference to gases, explain the following terms.

i) Collision frequency ii) Collision diameter

iii) mean free path

18. How are colloids purified by dialysis and ultrafiltration?

19. Discuss the applications of dipole moment measurement.

20. Describe the theory of homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysis.

Question Code : B22202 Sub Code: U16CHA21



ORGANIC, INORGANIC AND PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY - II

Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. Building blocks of aminoacids are _______.

a) oil b) fat c) carbohydrate d) protein

2. Globulin is a _______.

a) Simple protein b) Compound protein

c) Conjugated protein d) derived protein

3. The substance on whose surface adsorption takes place is called

_______.

a) adsorbate b) absorbent

c) active substance d) none of these

4. Which of the following is used as a catalytic promoter in Haber‟s

process?

a) Copper b) Iron

c) Molybdenum d) Vanadium

5. _______ is an elastomer.

a) Terylene b) Freon c) Rubber d) Bakelite

6. Which one is used as developer in Thin layer chromatography?

a) Silica gel b) Methylene blue

c) Malachite green d) Iodine vapour

7. In nuclear reactors, heavy water is used as a ________.

a) fuel b) coolant c) moderator d) projectile

8. Binding energy per nucleon is maximum for _______.

a) Iron b) Gold c) Uranium d) Platinum

9. The structure of DNA is ______.

a) single helix b) double helix

c) α – helix d) β – helix

10. Which one of the following base is not present in RNA?

a) Thymine b) Adenine

c) Uracil d) Cytosine

Part B


11. a) Give the preparation and uses of the following.

(i) Malachite green (ii) Indigo

(or)

b) What are proteins? Give any two examples. What do you

understand by the term “denaturation of proteins”?

12. a) Discuss the applications of adsorption.

(or)

b) Explain the mechanism and kinetics of enzyme catalysed

reactions.

13. a) How are the following polymers synthesises? Mention their uses.

(i) Polyethylene (ii) PVC

(or)

b) Write a note on synthetic Rubbers.

14. a) Define and explain Binding energy? How will you explain the

stability of nuclei based on binding energy curve.

(or)

b) Describe any one type of nuclear reactor in detail.

15. a) Describe the structure of DNA.

(or)

b) Give the functions of various hormones in our body.

Part C


16. How amino acids are classified? Explain each type with examples.

17. Distinguish between physisorption and chemisorption.

18. Discuss the principle, description and applications of paper

chromatography and column chromatography.

19. Explain the following

(i) Disposal of radioactive waste

(ii) Carbon dating

20. What are enzymes? Explain the factors influencing enzyme activity.

Part B


4. (a) How is food classified based on the physiological functions?

(b) What is digestion? Explain physical and chemical digestion

processes.

5. (a) List out any five permitted food colorants and their uses.

(b) Write notes on: Intense sweeteners and Bulk sweeteners.

6. Discuss various food preservation techniques in detail.

7. (a) What is BMR? Explain the factors influencing BMR.

(b) Give an account of Flavouring agents.

8. (a) How is energy controlled in the human metabolic system through

chemical bonding?

(b) Write any five common food adulterants.

Question Code : B22402 Sub Code: U16CHS21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

FOOD CHEMISTRY


Part A


1. a) (i) Discuss the biological functions of water.

(ii) Explain malnutrition and good nutrition.

(or)

b) Give an account of biological functions of zinc, Copper, Magnesium,

Calcium and Sulphur.

2. a) Discuss the effect of cooking on Proteins, Fats and Vitamins.

(or)

b) Write notes on: Food preservation using chemical preservatives.

3. a) How will you analyse the food adulterants present in Ghee, Coffee

powder and Milk.

(or)

b) Explain the significance and functions of Antioxidants and

Acidulants.

Question Code : B32103 Sub Code: U17PAC21



FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING II

Time : 3 Hrs B.Com (PA) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. Under straight line method of charging depreciation, the depreciation is

________.

a) Increasing every year b) Decreasing every year

c) Fixed for all the year d) None of the above

2. Depreciation fund method is designed to ______.

a) Provide for depreciation of assets only

b) Provide for depreciation as also to accumulate the amount for the

replacement.

c) Provide for the payment of some liability

d) None of the above

3. Credit purchase are ascertained by preparing _______.

a) Total debtors account b) Total creditors account

c) Purchase account d) Sales account

4. Closing capital + drawings – opening capital = ?

a) Profit and loss account b) Additional capital

c) Opening creditors d) Opening debtors

5. Irrecoverable short workings account are transferred to _______.

a) Trading account b) Profit and loss account

c) P & L approximation account d) Balance sheet

6. Royalties are connected with which type of business?

a) Manufacturing business b) Mining industry

c) Construction business d) Trading business

1

7. Hire purchase price includes _______.

a) Cash price + interest b) Cash price + down payment

c) Down payment + interest d) Cash price – interest

8. When the hire purchase makes default in paying the installment the

hire vendor has ______.

a) The right to take repossession of the assets

b) No right to take repossession

c) The option to repossess or not to repossess

d) To go to the court

9. Rent and rates paid are apportioned among the departments on the

basis of _______.

a) Sales b) Purchase

c) Space occupied d) Value of machinery

10. Goods sent to branch at cost +25% the loading on the invoice price

is ________.

a) 16% b) 20% c) 25% d) 125%

Part B


11. a) The following balances appear in the books of mohan.

Rs.

1.1.90 Machinery a/c 50,000

1.1.90 Provision for depreciation 20,000

On 1.1.90 they decided to sell a machine for Rs.4,500. This machine

was purchased for Rs.9,000 in January 1986. You are required to

prepare machinery a/c and the provision for depreciation a/c on

31.12.90. Assuming the firm has been charging depreciation at

10%p.a. on straight–line method.

(or)

19. Kolkutta transport company purchased on 1st January 2008 from

Mumbai motors, three trucks costing Rs. 40,000 each on the hire

purchase system. Payment was to be made Rs. 30,000 down and the

reminder in three equal installments together with interest at 5%.

Kolkutta transport Co. wrote off depreciation @ 20% p.a. on diminishing

balance method. It paid the installments due at the end of the first year

but could not pay the next.

Mumbai motors agreed to leave one truck with the purchaser adjusting

the value of the other two trucks against the amount due. The trucks

were valued on the basis of 30% depreciation annually. Give necessary

ledger accounts in the books of kolkutta transport Co. for two years.

20. A madras head office has a branch at salem to which goods are invoiced

at cost plus 20%. From the following particulars, prepare Branch a/c in

the head office books;

Rs.

Goods sent to branch 2,11,872

Total sales 2,06,400

Cash sales 1,10,400

Cash received from branch debtors 88,000

Branch debtors on 1–1–96 24,000

Branch stock on 1–1–96 7,680

Branch stock on 31–12–96 13,440

2

7

17. The positions of manohar's business as on 1st January 1996 was as

under:

Sundry creditors Rs.1,70,000; Freehold premises Rs.5,00,000; stock

Rs.2,50,000; sundry debtors Rs.2,00,000 furniture Rs.20,000.

An abstract of the cash book is appended below:

Receipts Rs. Payments Rs.

Sundry debtors 1,50,000 Overdraft(1–1–96) 1,00,000

Cash sales 8,00,000 Expenses 5,00,000

Drawings 30,000

Sundry creditors 2,00,000

Cash in hand 20,000

Cash at bank 1,00,000

9,50,000 9,50,000

The following additional information is available; Closing stock Rs.

3,00,000; closing debtors Rs. 2,50,000; closing creditors Rs.

1,20,000. No additions were made during the year to premises and

furniture but they are to be depreciated @ 10% and 15%

respectively. A bad debts provision of 2.5% is to be raised.

Prepare a trading and profit and loss account for the ended

31st December, 1996 and a balance sheet as on the that date.

18. On 1.1.1982, Rama collieries Ltd, leaded a piece of land agreeing to

pay a minimum rent of Rs.2,000 in the first year, Rs.4,000 in the

second year and thereafter Rs.6,000 per annum, merging into a

royalty of 40 paise per tonne, with power to recoup short workings

over the first three years only.

The figures of annual output for the four years to 31st December

1985 were 1,000, 10,000, 18,000 and 20,000 tonnes respectively.

Record these transactions in the ledger of the company.

b) A company whose accounting year is the calendar year, purchased on

1–1–93 a machine for Rs.40,000. It purchased further machinery on

1st oct.1993 for Rs.20,000 and on 1

st July 1994 for Rs.10,000. On

1–7–1995, one fourth of machinery installed on 1–1–1993 became

obsolete and was sold for Rs.6,800.

Show how the machinery account would appear in the books of

the company for all the 3 years under diminishing balance method.

Depreciation is to be provided at 10% p.a.

12. a) Distinguish between single entry and double entry system?

(or)

b) Mr. Gopal started a business with Rs.30,800 on 1.1.2004. The

Drawings during the year amounted to Rs.16,400 and further Capital of

Rs.9,600 was introduced on 1st July 2004. Prepare statement to show

profit or loss made during the year from the following particulars, as on

31st Dec.2004.

Particulars Rs.

Creditors 34,800

Debtors 24,600

Furniture 4,800

Machinery 6,600

Cash 1,800

Investment 23,600

Bills payable 10,800

Stock 22,200

Bank O/D 7,600

Write off Rs. 1,200 towards Bad Debts and a further of 5% is to

be made towards Doubtful Debts. Depreciate Furniture by 5% and

machinery by 10% Outstanding salaries Rs.480 and prepaid Rent

Rs.320.

13. a) Bengal coal limited leased a colliery on 1st January. 2004 at a

minimum rent of Rs.15,000 merging into royalty of Re.1 per ton with a

stipulation to recoup short workings over the first three year of the lease.

3 6

The output for the first four years of the lease was 8,000, 13,000,

21,000 and 18,000 tonnes respectively. Draft the necessary journal

entries in the books of Bengal coal limited giving effect to the

above.

(or)

b) Ravi took a colliery on lease. The dead rent was Rs.750 a year,

merging into a royalty of 35 paise per tonne of coal raised, with the

right to recover short workings out of royalties of two subsequent

years from the period in which the short workings arose. the output

raised were:

I – 1,000 tonnes

II – 1,500 tonnes

III – 2,500 tonnes

IV – 1,500 tonnes

V – 1,000 tonnes

Show the analysis of Royalty table only.

14. a) From the following details of a businessman who sells goods of

small value at cost plus 50%. Prepare hire purchase trading account.

Rs.

1.1.90 Stock out with the customer at H.P price 9,000

Stock at shop at cost price 18,000

Instalments due but not received 5,000

31.12.90 Goods worth Rs.500 repossessed (Inst. not due

Rs.2000)

Cash received from customers 60,000

Purchase made during the year 60,000

Stock at cost at shop(excluding the goods repossessed) 20,000

Instalments due but not received 9,000

Stock out at hire – Purchase price with the customers 30,000

(or)

b) Write down the differences between hire purchase system and

instalments system.

15. a) Yule, the proprietor of a departmental store, decided to calculate

separate profits for his first two departments X and Y for the month

ending 31st January 2000. Stock on 31

st January could not be valued for

certain unavoidable reasons but his rates of gross profit (calculate

without reference to direct expenses) on sales for the two departments

are 40 and 30 percent. The following figures are given.

Dept X Rs. Dept Y Rs.

Stock on 1st January 2000 9,000 8,400

Sales 42,000 36,000

Purchases 27,000 21,600

Direct expenses 5,490 8,520

Indirect expenses for the whole business (containing five

departments) are 10,800 which are to be charged in proportion to

departmental sales, except as to one–sixth, which is to be divided

equally. Sales for remaining three departments were Rs.1,02,000.

Prepare a statement showing profits for the two departments X and Y.

(or)

b) What do you understand by "Interdepartmental transfer". Distinguish

between branch and department.

Part C


16. A company purchased a 3–year, lease on 1–1–1990 for Rs.50,000. It is

decided to provide for the replacement of lease at the end of three years

by setting up a sinking fund. It is expected that the investment will fetch

interest at 5%. Sinking fund tables show that to provide the requisite sum

at 5% at the end of three years, an investment at Rs.15,864 is require

every year. Investments are made to the nearest rupee.

On 31st December 1992, the investments were sold for Rs.30,500. On

1.1.1993, the same lease was renewed for a further period of 3 years by

payment of Rs.60,000.

Show the ledger account of sinking fund a/c and sinking fund investment

a/c. Calculations are to be made to the nearest rupee.

5 4

20. Solve graphically

Maximize P = 3x + 2y

subject to 2x – y 1 ; x + 2y 3 ;

and x 0 , y 0.

Question Code : B32104 Sub Code: U17PAC22



BUSINESS MATHEMATICS


Part A


1. A Set with no elements is called _______.

a) Finite set b) Infinite set

c) Empty set d) Sub set

2. Sum of money charged by the lender from the borrower for making use

of his money is called _______.

a) Interest b) Principal

c) Amount d) Time period

3. A Matrix that consist of only one row is called a _______.

a) row matrix b) square matrix

c) scalar matrix d) diagonal matrix

4. The order of matrix A = {4, 2, 5, 3} is

a) 4 x 1 b) 1 x 4 c) 4 x 4 d) 1 x 1

5. The relationship between the variables is called ______.

a) Function b) Co–efficient

c) Constants d) Range

6. The derivative of is

a) b) c) d)

7. Integral calculus deals with finding a function when its rate of change is

________.

a) Known b) Unknown c) Constant d) All of these

8. In case of Definite Integral ______ limits are given.

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five

9. Linear programming was developed by ______.

a) George. B. Dantzig b) W.W. Cooper

c) L.V. Kantorovich d) T.C. Koopmans

10. Linear programming is associated with _______.

a) objective function b) constraints

c) non–negative constraints d) al of these

Part B


11. a) Find simple interest on

i) Rs.1600 for one year at 10% p.a

ii) Rs.2500 for 15 months at 15% p.a

iii) Rs.10,000 for 73 days at 20% p.a

(or)

b) Find the Compound Interest for Rs.10,500 at 8% for 3 years.

12. a) If 543

321 A B

110

212 and

011

105 C

Verify A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C

(or)

b) Find the rank of

164

087

123

13. a) Evaluate : 23

2 lim

2

2

1 xx

xx

x

(or)

b) Find the Maxima and minima of the following function.

10 36 3 2 23 xxxy

14. a) Evaluate dxx 546

(or)

b) Compute Total Cost for the Marginal Cost Function 24 6 2 xxC , if total fixed cost is 50.

15. a) Briefly explain the concepts of Linear Programming.

(or)

b) Explain the Mathematical formulation of Linear Programming

Program.

Part C


16. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6} and U= {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9},

then verify that

(i)

(ii)

17. Solve the Simultaneous Equations

5x – y + 4z = 5 ; 2x + 3y + 5z = 2 ; 7x – 2y + 6z = 5

18. If , find .

19. Evaluate a) 2

0

2 )54 ( dxxx and

b) dxex x

4

0

Question Code : B32202 Sub Code: U17PAA21



MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS


Part A


1. Managerial Economics has been described as economics applied to

______

a) National Income b) Decision Making

c) Production d) None

2. Managerial Economics is _______.

a) Macro Economics b) Agricultural Economics

c) Micro Economics d) None

3. The relation of price to sales is known in economics as ______.

a) Law of demand b) Elasticity of demand

c) Demand forecasting d) None

4. No reduction in price is needed to cause an increase in demand ______.

a) Perfectly elastic demand b) Perfectly inelastic demand

c) Relatively elastic demand d) None

5. A production function with one variable input is called as _______.

a) Law of variable proportion b) Laws of Returns to scale

c) Isoquants d) None

6. Costs that are recorded in the books of account of a business firm are

called as _______.

a) Explicit costs b) Implicit costs

c) Sunk costs d) None

7. Imitative pricing is also called as _______.

a) Full cost pricing b) Going rate pricing

c) Product line pricing d) None

8. Which one of the following is not a stage in the life cycle of a

product.

a) Introduction b) Growth

c) Decline d) Conclusion

9. The market situation in which there is only one buyer for a product

is called as _______.

a) Monopoly b) Monopsony

c) Oligopoly d) Oligopsony

10. The market situation in which there are two buyers for a product is

called as ________.

a) Duopoly b) Duopsony

c) Bilateral Monopoly d) Oligopoly

Part B


11. a) What are the uses of Managerial Economics?

(or)

b) Enumerate the goals of a firm.

12. a) State the uses of Managerial Economics.

(or)

b) What is cross elasticity of demand?

13. a) Define Production Function. Bring out its Managerial uses.

(or)

b) Explain about returns to scale.

14. a) What are the objectives of pricing policy?

(or)

b) Explain the Marginal cost pricing.

15. a) What are the features of perfect competition.

(or)

b) Explain the concept of demand curve under oligopoly.

Part C


16. Examine the scope of Managerial Economics.

17. Explain the different types of price elasticity.

18. Examine the law of variable Proportions.

19. Explain the life cycle of a product.

20. How price is determined under Monopoly?

Part B


4. What are the benefits of corporate social responsibility?

5. Explain the reasons for conservation of natural resources.

6. What are the issues in environmental ethics?

7. Write the importance of ethical finance.

8. At the time of consumer protection, what are the points to be

considered?

Question Code : B32401 Sub Code: U17PAS21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

ETHICS IN BUSINESS


Part A

Answer ALL questions, 3 x 10 = 30 marks

1. a) Explain the scope of business ethics.

(or)

b) Explain the principles of corporate governance.

2. a) What are the benefits of ethics in workplace?

(or)

b) Explain the various ways to protect the natural environment.

3. a) Explain the common problems of ethics in finance.

(or)

b) Explain the major ethical issues in finance.

Part C


16. Calculate the mode of the following distributions:

Marks 0-9 10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 50-59

No.of.students 6 29 87 181 247 263

17. Fit a curve of the form xbeay to the following data:

Year (x) 1951 1952 1953 1954 1955 1956 1957

Production in tons (y) 201 263 314 395 427 504 632

18. The two variables x and y have the regression lines

02623 yx and 0316 yx . Find (i) the mean values of x

and y (ii) the correlation coefficients between x and y (iii) the

variance of y if the variance of x is 25.

19. Use the method of least squares and fit a straight line trend to the

following data given from 82 to 92. Hence estimate the trend value

for 1993.

Year 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92

Production in Quintals 45 46 44 47 42 41 39 42 45 40 48

20. One factory F1 produces 1000 articles, 20 of them being defective,

second factory F2 produces 4000 articles, 40 of them being defective

and the third factory F3 produces 5000 articles, 50 of them being

defective. All the articles are put in one stock pile. One of them is

chosen and it is found to be defective. What is the probability that it

is from the factory F1?

Question Code : B24202 Sub Code: U16CSA21



PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. Collect the data from materials available in published records, which is

called _______

a) Primary data b) Range

c) Secondary data d) None of these

2. The arithmetic mean of 18, 15, 18, 16, 17, 18, 15, 19, 17, 17 is

__________

a) 17 b) 18 c) 16 d) 19

3. The difference between the maximum and the minimum value of the

variate is called _______

a) Dispersion b) Deviation

c) Range d) Standard Deviation

4. If ,Axd then ._______2

a) 22 ds b) 22 ds c) 22 .ds d) 22 / ds

5. If the variable X and Y are uncorrelated, then .______),( YXCov

a) 1 b) –1 c) 0 d)

6. If one of the regression coefficient is greater than 1, then the other is

________.

a) Less than 1 b) equal to 1

c) equal to 0 d) equal to –1

60-69 70-79 80-89 90-99

133 43 9 2

7. If the period of oscillations for the periodic movements in a time

series is greater than one, then the time series is called the ______.

a) Period of cycle b) Cyclic variation

c) Seasonal variation d) None of these

8. Seasonal and cyclic variations are the classifications of ________.

a) Short term functioning b) Period of cycle

c) Irregular fluctuation d) None of these

9. The probability of an empty set is always ______.

a) S b) 1 c) 0 d) –1

10. ._______)()( APAP

a) 1 b) 0 c) –1 d) None of these

Part B


11. a) Calculate the Arithmetic Mean of the following frequency

distribution of the marks obtained by 50 students in a class.

Marks 05-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45

No. of students 5 6 15 10 5 4 3 2

(or)

b) Given that the mode of the following frequency distributions of 70

students is 56.75. Find the missing frequencies 1f and .2f

Class Frequency

52 – 55 15

55 – 58 1f

58 – 61 25

61 – 64 2f

12. a) Find the mean deviation from the mean and variance of the

arithmetic progression .2...,,2,, dnadadaa

(or)

b) Explain the method of fitting the curve of good ).0(aeay xb

13. a) Out of the two lines of regression given by 052 yx and

0832 yx , which one is the regression line of x on y.

(or)

b) Find the rank correlation coefficient between the height in c.m and

weight in kg of 6 soldiers in Indian Army.

Height 165 167 166 170 169 172

Weight 61 60 63.5 63 61.5 64

14. a) Calculate (i) three yearly moving average (ii) short term fluctuations

for the following data :

Year 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92

Production in Quintals 45 46 44 47 42 41 39 42 45 40 48

(or)

b) Write the short notes on (i) Method of curve fitting

(ii) Method of semi averages.

15. a) A bag contains 5 red and 3 black balls and a second bag has 4 red and

5 black balls. One of the bag is selected at random and a draw of 2 balls

is made from it. What is the probability that one of them is red and other

is black?

(or)

b) Let A and B be two events such that 3/2)(AP and .6/5)(BP

Show that the following (i) 3/2)( BAP (ii) 6/5)(2/1 BAP .

Question Code : B24102 Sub Code: U16CSC21



COMPUTER SYSTEM AND ARCHITECTURE


Part A


1. _______ is a group of bits that tell the computer to perform a specific

operation.

a) Instruction Register b) Instruction code

c) Instruction cycle d) Instruction format

2. _______ is a Memory reference instruction

a) CLA b) INC c) BUN d) INP

3. Microinstructions are stored in control memory in groups, with each

group specifying a _________.

a) Routine b) Address

c) Instruction d) Data

4. In _______ address mode, the content of the program counter is added to

the address part of the instruction in order to obtain the effective address.

a) Direct b) Indirect

c) Relative d) Indexed

5. Status bits are also called as ______ bits.

a) Code b) Flag

c) Condition d) None of these

6. _______ is not a basic type of data Manipulation Instructions.

a) Program instruction b) Shift instruction

c) Arithmetic instruction

d) Logical and bit manipulation instruction

7. Expand DMA : ________.

a) Defined Memory Access b) Direct Memory Access

c) Defined Memory Arguments d) Direct Memory Arguments

8. Data valid handshaking line is generated by the _______ unit.

a) Both source and destination b) Memory

c) Source d) Destination

9. The address used by the programmer is called________.

a) Physical address b) Virtual address

c) Auxiliary address d) Imaginary address

10. Auxiliary memory average access time is usually ______ times that

of main memory.

a) 1000 b) 10 c) 100 d) 10000

Part B


11. a) Write a note on Interrupt cycle.

(or)

b) Explain about the Accumulator registers with example.

12. a) Explain the following

(i) Relative Address mode

(ii) Indexed Addressing mode

(iii) Direct Address mode

(iv) Indirect Address mode

(or)

b) Explain the concept of control memory.

13. a) Explain the following concepts with example.

i) Shift instructions

ii) Data transfer instructions

(or)

b) Explain multiplication with signed –2‟s complement numbers

with an example.

14. a) Explain the concept of Handshaking.

(or)

b) Explain microprocessor interface.

15. a) Explain about the Memory connection to microprocessor with

diagram.

(or)

b) Write a brief note on the following topics given below.

i) Magnetic Disk

ii) Magnetic Drum

Part C


16. Discuss Timing and Control in detail.

17. Explain the concept of Address Sequencing.

18. Describe about program control.

19. Explain in detail about I/O interface.

20. Explain the concept behind cache memory.

Part B


4. Explain the following concepts in C++ with example

(i) Data types (ii) Looping statements

5. Explain the following concepts with suitable programs.

(i) Parameterized constructor

(ii) Copy constructor

(iii) Destructor

6. Discuss briefly the following concepts with examples.

(i) Static data members

(ii) Static member functions

(iii) Nesting of member functions

7. Discuss the virtual function and pure virtual function with suitable

program.

8. Write a program to arrange a given set of numbers in descending

order using pointers.

Question Code : B24402 Sub Code: U16CSS21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

PROGRAMMING IN C++


Part A


1. a) Explain the concept of function overloading with a suitable program.

(or)

b) Explain in detail about the operators available in C++.

2. a) Demonstrate the use of friend function through a simple program.

(or)

b) Explain unary operator overloading with an example program.

3. a) Explain the following concepts with example.

i) Multilevel inheritance

ii) Multiple inheritance

(or)

b) Explain the following concepts with example.

i) Hierarchical inheritance

ii) Hybrid inheritance

17. Discuss the (i) Schrodinger and (ii) Heisenberg representation for

describing the dynamic behaviour of a system. Obtain the equation

of motion for a state function and for an operator.

18. Solve the radial equation to obtain the energy eigen value of

Hydrogen atom.

19. Using time independent non–degenerate perturbation theory obtain

expressions for the first order corrections to the energy and

wavefunction.

20. Applying variational method to Helium atom and obtain its ground

state energy.

Question Code : B61105 Sub Code: P16PHC22



QUANTUM MECHANICS – I

Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. The uncertainty in the momentum of the particle when its position is

determined with 0.01 cm is _______.

a) 130 10 05.1 mskg b)

130 10 05.1 mskg

c) 130 10 05.1 msgm d) mskg 10 05.1 30

2. Debroglie wavelength associated with an electron mass em is given by

Xm

h

e

where X stands for

a) Momentum b) Position

c) Energy d) Velocity

3. In the quantum mechanical concept that only those dynamical variables

whose expectation values are _______ should be considered to be

directly measurable.

a) Imaginary b) Negative

c) Real d) None

4. If there exists only _____ eigen function belonging to given eigen value

is said to be non–degenerate.

a) one b) two c) three d) four

5. Rigid rotator serves as a good approximate model for the motion of

_____ molecules.

a) Polyatomic b) Triatomic

c) diatomic d) none

6. The tunnelling through the potential increases if ______.

a) height is reduced and width increased

b) height is increased and width reduced

c) height and width are reduced

d) height and width of the barrier increased.

7. The first excited state (n=2) of Hydrogen atom is _______ fold

degenerate.

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) None

8. The Hamiltonian 322

2

2

1

2xxm

m

pH differs from the

harmonic oscillator by the anharmonic term_______.

a) m

p

2

2

b) 22

2

1xm c)

3 x d) None

9. For a particle constrained to move between classical turning points

1xx and 2xx in a potential well, the energy levels are obtained

from the conditions

a) )(2

1

ndxxp

x

x

b) )1( )(2

1

nndxxp

x

x

c) 21 )(

2

1

ndxxp

x

x

d) )( 21

2

1

ndxxp

x

x

10. The variation method is used primarily for the estimation of ______

state energy.

a) Excited b) intermediate

c) metastable d) ground

Part B


11. a) State and prove Ehrenfest theorems.

(or)

b) Explain Debroglie‟s hypothesis and obtain an expression for

Debroglie wavelength.

12. a) Define Hermitian operator. Show that eigen values of a Hermitian

operator are always real. Also show that Two eigen finctions of a

Hermitian operator belonging to different eigen values are orthogonal.

(or)

b) If the Hamiltonian )( )( 10 tHHtH , show that the state vector

changes in accordance with )(1 tH whereas the dynamical variables

change in accordance with 0H in the interaction picture.

13. a) Discuss the problem of the three dimensional square well of finite

depth is defined by

ar

arVrV

0

0 )( 0

(or)

b) Derermine the energy eigen values and eigen functions of a rigid

rotator.

14. a) Discuss the effect of electric field on the n = 2. State of Hydrogen

atom.

(or)

b) Write short notes on “Spin orbit interaction”.

15. a) Outline the variation method used for obtaining approximate value of

ground state energy of the system.

(or)

b) Write down the connection formulas of WKB method and explain

them briefly.

Part C


16. Derive time dependent Schrodinger equation for a

(i) free particle (ii) Particle subjected to force.

Also write the physical significance of wave function.




STATISTICAL MECHANICS & THERMODYNAMICS


Part A


1. Out of the following, the physical quantity that relates with first law of

thermodynamics is_______.

a) Temperature b) Pressure

c) Energy d) Number of moles

2. Gibbs Potential is defined as ______.

a) G = U – PV + TS b) G = U + PV + TS

c) G = U – PV – TS d) G = U + PV – TS

3. The ratio of adiabatic and isothermal elasticities of a gas is ______.

a) b) 2 c)

1 d) . d

4. Internal energy of a real gas depends upon ______.

a) only on the temperature of the gas

b) only on the volume of the gas

c) only on the pressure of the gas

d) size of the molecule

5. Entropy is a measure of _______.

a) perfect order b) available energy

c) disorder d) none of the above

6. Entropy is maximum at which state ______.

a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) can be any

7. Deduction of Planck's law is possible on the basis of ______.

a) F.D statistics b) Classical statistics

c) M.B statistics d) B.E. statistics

8. According to which statistics, the energy at absolute zero cannot be

zero

a) M – B b) B – E c) F – D d) None of these

9. According to Debye's theory, the atomic heat of a solid at law

temperature varies as ______.

a) Proportional to its absolute temperature

b) Proportional to square of its absolute temperature

c) Proportional to cube of its absolute temperature

d) independent of temperature

10. The Spin of photon is _______.

a) zero b) 2

1 c) d) 2

3

Part B


11. a) Explain helmheltz function and Gibbs function.

(or)

b) State and explain second law and third law of thermodynamics.

12. a) Explain Joule Thomson effect for vander waal's gas in detail.

(or)

b) Write down the application of I law of thermodynamics.

13. a) Write a short note on (i) Canonical ensemble

(ii) Micro and Grand canonical ensemble

(or)

b) State and explain Liouville's theorem.

14. a) Obtain an expression for B.E distribution law.

(or)

b) Compare the basic postulates of M.B, B.E and F.D statistics.

15. a) Derive Einstein's theory of the specific heat capacity of a solid.

(or)

b) Write a short note on Bragg Williams approximation.

Part C


16. State and explain Nernst heat theorem.

17. Explain about two Tds equations and its applications.

18. (i) Write down the basic postulates of classical statistical

thermodynamics.

(ii) Write a note on phase space.

19. Derive the expression for F.D distribution law.

20. Derive the Debye theory of the specific heat capacity of a solid.

18. Give Maxwell's equations. Explain how the divergence equations

are obtained from the curl equations.

19. Describe the propagation of plane electromagnetic waves in good

conductors with necessary theory.

20. Obtain the electric and magnetic field components in the

electromagnetic wave propagation in TE mode in a hollow

rectangular wave guide.

Question Code : B61303 Sub Code: P16PHE21



ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY


Part A


1. The electric polarization is the_______.

a) number of dipoles per unit volume

b) number of dipoles in the given volume

c) dipoles moment per unit volume

d) dipoles moment in the given volume

2. Polar dielectrics are dielectrics which have_______.

a) permanent dipole moments b) non –conductors

c) conductors d) both (b) & (c)

3. Which one of the following is not the unit of magnetic induction?

a) tesla b) wber/meter2 c) weber d) gauss

4. Convection current occurs in _______.

a) good conductors b) semi conductors

c) insulators d) vacuum diodes

5. In the case of a changing magnetic flux, the induced electromotance

a) = 0 b) c) d) 0

6. First pair of Maxwell's equation is ______.

a) and

b) and

c) and

d) and

7. A medium whose properties do not vary from point to point is called

______.

a) linear medium b) homogeneous medium

c) isotropic medium d) linear and isotropic medium

8. The Poynting vector has the dimensions of ________.

a) energy / (area x time) b) energy / area

c) energy / time d) energy

9. A TE wave has _______.

a) a component of only along the z-axis

b) a component of only along the z-axis

c) component of both and along the z-axis

d) both and in a plane transverse to the z-axis

10. Electric dipole radiation is produced by ________.

a) any charge b) any charge distribution

c) any static charge distribution

d) any charge distribution with sinusoidal variation of dipole

moment.

Part B


11. a) Obtain expressions for the electric potential and electric field

intensity at a point due to an electric dipole.

(or)

b) Derive the Clausius - Mossotti equation. Also obtain an expression for

the molar polarization.

12. a) Write note on Ampere's circuital law.

(or)

b) Drive an expression for the magnetic vector potential due to a current

distribution using Biot-Savart law.

13. a) Give a detailed account on Faraday induction law.

(or)

b) Obtain the differential form of the law of conservation of free and

bound charges.

14. a) Describe the propagation of plane electromagnetic waves in non-

conducting media.

(or)

b) Show that plane electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the

speed of light.

15. a) Obtain an expression for the average Poynting vector due to an

oscillating electric dipole.

(or)

b) Describe the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a co-axial line

with necessary theory.

Part C


16. Obtain an expression for the force per unit volume of a dielectric exerted

by a nonuniform external electric field.

17. Obtain Legendre's equation.

Question Code : B80105 Sub Code: P16ELC21



BRITISH LITERATURE III

Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. ______ son of Ho–ti.

a) Bo–bo b) Chi–Cho c)Ho–Ho d) Di–Du

2. John is Lamb‟s _______.

a) Father b) Uncle c) Brother d) Grandfather

3. William Wordsworth‟s Michael is a ________.

a) Ode b) Elegy c) Ballad d) Pastoral poem

4. „Beauty is truth. Truth beauty‟ are the lines from ______.

a) Michael b) Ode on a Grecian Urn

c) Ulysses d) Dover Beech

5. Lord Alfred Tennyson belongs to ______ age.

a) Victorian b) Elizabethan

c) Jacobean d) Queen Anne‟s

6. My Last Duchess is narrated by ________.

a) Duke of wales b) Duke of Cowder

c) Duke of Ferrara d) Duke of Milan

7. In the castle of ________ De Bracy imprisoned Cedric‟s party.

a) Torquilstone b) Traquair

c) Totnas d) Tintagle

8. Darcy ________ Elizabeth when he visits her in the Collin‟s home.

a) Proposes to b) Kisses

c) Splaps d) Insults

9. Damon is in love with ________.

a) Eustacia b) Diggory

c) Clym d) Thomasin

10. _________ is Nancy‟s pimp.

a) Fagin b) Mrs.Brownlow

c) Marks d) Bill sikes

Part B


11. a) Critically analysis the story „A Dessertation Upon Roast Pig‟.

(or)

b) How does Charles Lamb narrates his early life to his children?

12. a) How does Coleridge create metaphors from natural objects and

scenes?

(or)

b) How do you justify the theme of Michael is taken from Bible‟s

prodigal son.

13. a) Bringout the autobiographical elements is the poem Ulysses.

(or)

b) Write a note on Browning‟s creating the ironic note in the poem

„My last Duchess‟.

14. a) What possible tension exists between the rules of Chivalry and

rules of behaviour that governs kings in the novel Ivanhoe?

(or)

b) Sketch the character of Elizabeth Bennet.

15. a) What role do superstition, Pagan culture and fantasy play in the novel

„The Return of the Native‟.

(or)

b) How does Dickens portrays the life of Poors in Oliver Twist.

Part C


16. Write an essay on Charles Lamb‟s style.

17. What role does imagination play in Coleridge‟s work, both as a source

and as a subject.

18. Arnold‟s poem is read as a record of the class between Science and

Religion – Disucss.

19. Sketch the character of Ivanhoe.

20. Justify the title of the novel „The Return of the Native‟.




HISTORY OF ENGLISH LITERATURE


Part A


1. Chaucer's poetic career is divided into ______ periods.

a) two b) three c) four d) five

2. Wyatt borrowed the sonnet form from ______.

a) Petrarch b) Surrey

c) Dante d) Spenser

3. In 'Paradise Regained' Satan tempts ________.

a) Adam b) Eve

c) Christ d) None

4. 'Voyage to Lisbon' is the last work of _______.

a) Fielding b) Goldsmith

c) Jane Austen d) Smollett

5. Wordsworth was born in ______.

a) 1770 b) 1777 c) 1780 d) 1788

6. "Confessions of an Opium Eater" is the autobiography of _______.

a) Thomas De Quincey b) Keats

c) Hazlitt d) Lamb

7. _________ is Browning's famous dramatic monologue.

a) Meeting at Night b) My Last Duchess

c) Evelyn Hope d) None of these

8. Which of the following novelist was awarded the Nobel Prize for

literature?

a) Kipling b) Conan Doyle

c) Meredith d) Hardy

9. 'The Lady is not for Burning' is ______ famous play.

a) Barrie's b) Sean O' Casey

c) John Osborne d) Christopher Fry

10. Samuel Beckett introduced a new type of drama called the ______.

a) Absurd Drama b) Poetic Drama

c) Prose Drama d) None of these

Part B


11. a) How does the Shakespearean sonnet form differ from the

Petrarchan form?

(or)

b) Write a note on the Cavelier poets of the 17th

Century.

12. a) Describe Milton's personal life.

(or)

b) What are the symbols used by Blake? Explain each one.

13. a) Write a note on Lamb's essays.

(or)

b) Discuss Jane Austen's women characters.

14. a) Explain about Macaulay's essays.

(or)

b) Describe Mathew Arnold's personal life.

15. a) Explain in detail about Samuel Beckett.

(or)

b) Write a note on Somerset Maugham.

Part C


16. Explain about the survey of the works of the University Wits.

17. Write a essay on Dryden as a dramatist.

18. Describe about the prominent aspects of Keats poetry.

19. Write an essay on Tennyson as a representative of the Victorian age.

20. Explain about the main themes of H.G.Well's fiction.




SHAKESPEARE


Part A


1. Viola is saved from the wreck by _______.

a) antonio b) a sea captain

c) a sailor d) one of orisino‟s men

2. Sir Toby, Olivia‟s uncle has the surname ______.

a) Snore b) Snout

c) Belch d) Aguecheek

3. In which Act does Caesar get assasinated?

a) Act 2 b) Act 1 c) Act 3 d) Act 4

4. Whose speech in the tragedy of Julius Caesar includes the famous

address „Friends, Romans, Countrymen‟?

a) Octavius Caesar b) Marc Antony

c) Marcus Brutus d) Julius Caesar

5. Why did Cassio most worry about after the punishment?

a) The drop in pay b) The less of his reputation

c) Desdemona‟s opinion on him

d) The expensive clothes that were rushed in the brawl.

6. How does Othello kill Desdemona?

a) He strangler her b) He stabs her

c) He beats her d) He poisons her

7. Who was considered the spirit on earth in the play „The Tempest‟?

a) Ariel b) Prospero

c) Caliban d) Tinculo

8. Who embodies fancy and imaginative genius of poetry in „The

Tempest‟ ?

a) Ferdinand b) Ariel

c) Miranda d) Prospero

9. Shakespeare began his dramatic career with _______.

a) Tragedies b) Romances

c) Comedies d) Historical plays

10. Shakespeare wrote ______ plays.

a) 36 b) 35 c) 37 d) 38

Part B


11. a) Give the character sketch of Viola.

(or)

b) Discuss the different types of love in “Twelfth Night”.

12. a) Why did cassius kill himself?

(or)

b) Analyse Antony‟s final speech over Brutus body? Is he insincere?

13. a) Why does Iago want to destroy Othello?

(or)

b) Describe how Othello‟s pride lead to his fall.

14. a) Describe the love between Ferdinand and Miranda.

(or)

b) Comment on the dramatic purpose of the supernatural elements in

the play „The Tempest‟.

15. a) Comment on any two most famous villains of Shakespeare.

(or)

b) Write briefly on the characteristic features of comedy.

Part C


16. „Twelfth Night‟ has been called the best of Shakespeare‟s Romantic

Comedies – Discuss.

17. Are Caesar and Antony really true friends? How is friendship defined

through the characters in the play?

18. Explain the ascendency which Iago obtains over Othello in the play

„Othello‟.

19. Analyse the theme of forgiveness in the play „The Tempest‟.

20. Write an essay on Shakespeare‟s treatment of History.




INDIAN WRITING IN ENGLISH


Part A


1. Which of the following Indian English authors may be classified as “The

most leaning Towards the left” ______.

a) Kamala Dass b) Mulk Raj Anand

c) R.K.Narayan d) Raja Rao

2. Which English Writer Wrote preface to Tagore‟s Gitanjali _______.

a) G.B.Shaw b) C.F.Andrews

c) E.M.Forster d) W.B.Yeats

3. Indian _______ which has always maintained itself even in the decline

of the national vitality;

a) ability b) spirituality

c) liberty d) fraternity

4. The word renaissance at all applies since India has always been awake

and stood in no need of ______.

a) reforming b) rejoice

c) reawakening d) rebirth

5. Tagore deals with the norms and dogmas which are very necessary to get

heavenly ______.

a) thought b) freedom

c) patriotic d) philosophy

6. The river is personified as a ______.

a) fortune b) destroy

c) god d) mother

7. What is a theme of Dattani‟s play “Tara” ______.

a) Feminism b) Gender Role

c) Identity d) Idealism

8. Mahesh Dattani was born in ______.

a) 1965 b) 1957 c) 1958 d) 1942

9. _______ murder Ram Lal for his moveable fortunes.

a) malli and his gang b) jugga

c) the police d) iqbal

10. Sudha receives packet from ______.

a) Gouri b) Ashok c) Sanghji d) her father

Part B


11. a) What is the tone of the works of Rabindranath Tagore?

(or)

b) Consider Asif Currimbhoy as a post Independent Indian writer.

12. a) What are the reasons for the declination of Indian spirituality

according to Aurobindo?

(or)

b) Examine Aurobindo‟s ideas regarding Indian Renaissance.

13. a) R.Parthasarathy‟s poem “River, Once” is highly suggestive –

Discuss.

(or)

b) Write a short note on the themes of the poem “Heaven of

Freedom”.

14. a) Justify the title Tara.

(or)

b) Sketch the character of Chandan.

15. a) Sketch the character of Juggut Singh?

(or)

b) In sister of Heart, how are Anju‟s problems related to economic

injustice?

Part C


16. Discuss Kamala Das as a confessional poet.

17. Examine Sri Aurobindo‟s views on The Renaissance in India.

18. Discuss the poem Poet, Lover and Bird Watcher shows how Ezekiel has

travelled a long way since the romantic idealism.

19. Examine the theme of identity in Mahesh Dattani‟s Tara.

20. Comment on the realism in Kushwant Singh‟s Train to Pakistan.

Question Code : B80303 Sub Code: P16ELE21



COMPUTER FOR EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION


Part A


1. Fifth generation computing devices were based on_______.

a) artificial intelligence b) integrated circuit

c) microprocessor d) transistors

2. Laptop is a ______ computer.

a) Super b) Mainframe c) Mini d) Micro

3. The Keyboard shortcut for selecting the entire document is _____.

a) ctrl + V b) ctrl + A c) ctrl + S d) ctrl + C

4. Microsoft was first released under the name of _______.

a) Rich Text format b) Microsoft Gallery

c) Multi–Tool word d) Wordstar

5. The first power point version was _____.

a) machintosh 1987 b) macintosh 1986

c) windows 1971 d) windows 1992

6. _____is an example of Exit Animation.

a) Fade in b) Fly out

c) Crow and Turn d) Spin Emphasis.

7. WWW stands for______.

a) World West Water b) World White Wood

c) World White Women d) World Wide Web

8. ______ is a process of identifying the words and expressions that

best describe the page.

a) retrieving b) relevancy

c) indexing d) crawling

9. The term “cyberspace” was first appeared in the visual arts in the

late______.

a) 1950‟s b) 1960‟s c) 1970‟s d) 1980‟s

10. The term „blog‟ was coined by _______.

a) Peter Merholz b) Jorn Barger

c) Dave Winer d) Evan Winer.

Part B


11. a) Write a short note on Minicomputers.

(or)

b) Describe the first Generation of Computers.

12. a) Describe the process of formatting a text.

(or)

b) Write a short note on Mail Merge.

13. a) Discuss the procedure of creating a PowerPoint Slide.

(or)

b) Explain the different kinds of Animations with examples.

14. a) Write a short note on Human powered directories.

(or)

b) Bring out the uses of Internet in our daily life.

15. a) Discuss the importance of Cyberspace.

(or)

b) Suggest some tips for writing Content for Blogs.

Part C


16. Trace the history of Windows Operating system.

17. Attempt an essay on the salient features of Microsoft Word.

18. Discuss the guidelines for Making Effective PowerPoint Presentations.

19. Explain the significance of Investigation tools and resources for private

investigators.

20. Enumerate the basic components of a web site.

Part C


16. i) Prove that U(x,y) = x2 – y

2 is a Harmonic function.

ii)Evaluate I = ∮ dz , where C is a circle with│z│= 4.

17. Prove . Using it find the value of

18. Drive an expression for electromagnetic field strength tensor and

dual field strength tensor.

19. State and explain the Great Orthogonality Theorem.

20. What is a binomial distribution? Obtain the constants of binomial

distribution.




MATHEMATICAL PHYSICS – II


Part A


1. If i = than ii is equal to

a) b) –1 c) d)

2. If i) f(z) = u + iv is an analytic function then u and v are harmonic

functions.

ii) u and v are harmonic functions then u + iv may or may not be an

analytic function

a) true , false b) true , true

c) false , true d) false, false

3. If f(z) = z−1

then U(x,y) and V(x,y) are

a) , b) ,

c) , d) , -

4. If f(z) is analytic in the entire z plane and z = a is a point in the z plane

then

a) –

b)

c) d)

5. IfAμ and B v are the components of a contravariant and covariant tensors of

rank one, than = Aμ B v are the components of a

a) mixed tensor of rank two b) mixed tensor of rank three

c) covariant tensors of rank one

d) contravariant tensors of rank one.

6. In the most general case, which one of the following quantities is

NOT a second order tensor?

a) stress b)strain

c) moment of inertia d) pressure

7. If G = { 1, -1, i, - i} is group under multiplication, then inverse of - i

is

a) 1 b) −1 c) i d) None of Above

8. The factor group of an abelian group is necessarily

a) Abelian group b) non Abelian group

c) cyclic group d) permutation group

9. Analysis of variance is concerned with:

a) Determining change in a dependent variable per unit change in an

independent variable .

b) Determining whether a qualitative factor affects the mean of an

output variable .

c) Determining whether significant correlation exists between an

output variable and an input variable.

d) Determining whether variance in two or more populations are

significantly different.

10. The Poisson random variable is given by

a)!

)( Prr

emrX

mr

b) !

)( Prr

emrX

mr

c)!

)( Prr

emrX

mr

d) none of the above.

Part B


11. a) Derive C-R differential equations.

(or)

b) If )(zf is an analytic function of z prove that

2

2

2

2

yx

2'2

)(4)( zfzf .

12. a) i)Find the zeros and poles of the complex function f (z) = .

ii) Find the residue of as infinity

(or)

b) Find the value of the integral where C is a closed contour,

defined by the equation traversed in the anticlockwise direction.

13. a) Show that symmetry properties of a tensor are invariant.

(or)

b) Explain Quotient law.

14. a) Explain Isomorphism and Homomorphism in group theory.

(or)

b) State and explain Caley‟s theorem.

15. a) What is Poisson distribution ? Calculate the mean and Standard

deviation for the Poisson distribution.

(or)

b) The life of army shoes is normally distributed with means 8 months

and standard deviation 2 months .If 5000 pairs are issued , how many

pairs would be expected to need replacement after 12 months

(Given: 0228.0)2( Pr Z andX

Z ).

Question Code : B90101 Sub Code: MP16CO11



RESEARCH METHODOLOGY IN COMMERCE

Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Commerce) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. a) What are the uses of Social Science Research?

(or)

b) What is the field survey? How does it differ from a survey?

2. a) What is meant by secondary sources? What are its features?

(or)

b) Briefly explain about the classifications of scales in research.

3. a) What are the types of analysis of data?

(or)

b) What is editing of data? For what is it done?

4. a) What is meant by hypothesis? What are the steps involved in testing

of hypothesis?

(or)

b) Memory capacity of 9 students was tested before and after training.

State the 5 percent level of significance whether the training was

effective from the following scores:

Student 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Before 10 15 9 3 7 12 16 17 4

After 12 17 8 5 6 11 18 20 3

Use paired t–test for your answer.

5. a) An experiment is conducted to judge the effect of brand name on

quality perception. 16 subjects are recruited for the purpose and are

asked to taste and compare two samples of product on a set of scale

items judged to be ordinal. The following data are obtained.

Pair 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Brand A 73 43 47 53 58 47 52 58 38 61

Brand B 51 41 43 41 47 32 24 58 43 53

11 12 13 14 15 16

56 56 34 55 65 75

52 57 44 57 40 68

Test the hypothesis, using Wilcoxon matched pairs test, there is no

difference between the perceived of the two brands. Use 5% level of

significance.

(or)

b) what are the features of non parametric test?

Part B


6. Discuss the sources from which the research problems are identified.

7. Enumerate the methods of non–probability sampling.

8. Describe the contents of a research report.

9. Setup an analysis of variance table for the following information

relating to three drugs testing to judge in reducing blood pressure for

three different groups of people.

GROUP OF PEOPLE DRUG

X Y Z

A 14

15

10

9

11

11

B 12

11

7

8

10

11

C 10

11

11

11

8

7

Do the drugs act differently? Are the different groups of people

affected differently? Is the interaction term significant? Also state

whether variety of differences are significant at 5% level.

10. Use the Kruskal – Wallis test at 5% level of significance to test the null

hypothesis that a professional bowler performs equally well with the four

bowling balls for the five Bowling Games are as follows :

With Ball No A 271 282 257 248 262

With Ball No B 252 275 302 268 276

With Ball No C 260 255 239 246 266

With Ball No D 279 242 297 270 258

Part B


6. Explain the various steps involved in Human Resource Planning.

7. Describe the nature and importance of employee selection. Explain

in brief the steps involved in selection procedure.

8. Explain the relative merits and demerits of seniority and merit as the

basis of promotion.

9. Explain in brief the traditional methods of performance appraisal.

What are the weaknesses in these methods?

10. How will you control the human resource cost of an organization.

Question Code : B90301 Sub Code: MP16COE11



HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT


Part A


1. a) Is HRM a profession? Explain.

(or)

b) What is man power planning? Why is it necessary?

2. a) Distinguish between Recruitment and Selection.

(or)

b) What are the various hurdles in a Selection Procedure?

3. a) How will you identify training needs of an Organization?

(or)

b) Describe the essentials of a good transfer policy.

4. a) What is post appraisal interview? Describe its uses.

(or)

b) Discuss the process of evaluating employee performance.

5. a) In what way it is useful to the management of human resources.

(or)

b) What are the advantages of human resource information system?

Current ratio = 2.5 :1

(i) Acid test ratio = 1.5 :1

(ii) Fixed Assets to Proprietors funds = 0.75 : 2

(iii)Working capital = Rs.90,000

(iv) Reserves and Surplus = Rs.60,000

(v) Bank Overdraft = Rs.15,000

10. From the following information, prepare a statement showing the

average working capital requirement:

i) Output per annum = 39,000 units

ii) 25% of the output is sold against cash.

iii)

Analysis of cost of each unit Rs.

Raw materials 5

Direct Labour 4

Overheads 3

Total Cost 12

Profit 3

Selling price 15

iv) Raw Materials are in stock on average for four weeks and

finished products for three weeks.

v) Factory processing will take on average two weeks.

vi) Credit allowed to debtors – 4 weeks

vii) Credit allowed by suppliers – 3 weeks

viii) Lag in payment of Labour –2 weeks

ix) Lag in payment of Overheads – 4 weeks

x) Cash on Hand in expected to be Rs.10,000

Assume that production is carried on evenly throughout the

year. Wages and Overhead accrue similarly.

Question Code : B90102 Sub Code: MP16CO12



ADVANCED FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT


Part A


1. a) Explain the “Wealth Maximisation” Objective of Financial

Management.

(or)

b) (i) Mr.X deposits Rs.5,000 at the beginning of each year for 5 years in

a Bank and the deposit earns a compound interest @ 8% p.a. Determine

how much money he will have at the end of 5 years?

(ii) Mr. X has to receive Rs.2,000 per year for 5 years. Calculate the

present value of the annuity assuming that he can earn interest on his

investment at 10% p.a.

2. a) What is Capital Budgeting? Explain its Singnificance.

(or)

b) A Company issues 10,000 10% Preference Shares of Rs. 100 each.

Cost of Issue is Rs. 2 per share. Calculate cost of preference capital if

these shares are issued (a) at par, (b) at a premium of 10%, and (c) at a

discount of 5%.

3. a) What is Leverage? Briefly explain the types of Leverages.

(or)

b) (i) A company expects a net operating income of Rs.1,00,000. It has

Rs.5,00,000, 6% Debentures. The overall capitalization rate is 10%.

Calculate the value of the firm and the equity capitalization rate(cost of

Equity) according to the Net Operating Income Approach.

(ii) If the debenture debt is increased to Rs.7,50,000. What will be the

effect on the value of the firm and the equity capitalization rate?

4. a) What are the advantages of Ratio Analysis?

(or)

b) The following figures relate to a company for the year ending

1979.

Rs. Rs.

Sales 5,20,000 Selling & Distribution

Expenses:

Purchases 3,22,500 Salaries 15,300

Opening Stock 76,000 Advertising 4,7000

Closing Stock 98,500 Travelling 2,000

Sales returns 20,000 Administrative Expenses:

Non–Operating Incomes: Salaries 27,000

Dividends 9,000 Stationary &

Postage

2,500

Profit on sale of

shares

3,000 Rent 2,700

Non–Operating Expenses

:

Depreciation 9,300

Loss on sale of

assets

4,000 Other Charges 16,500

Provision for tax 40,000

You are required to :

(i) Arrange the above figures in a form suitable for analysis

(ii) Calculate the following ratios

a) Gross Profit ratio b) Operating ratio

c) Operating profit and d) Net Profit ratio

5. a) What are the sources of working capital.

(or)

b) What are the advantages of Holding Inventory.

Part B


6. Finance Function is concerned with allocating funds to specific assets

and obtaining the best mix of financing in relation to the overall

valuation of the firm. Discuss.

7. A company is considering an investment proposal to purchase a machine

costing Rs.2,50,000. The machine has a life expectancy of 5 years and

no salvage value. The company‟s tax rate is 40%. The firm uses straight

line method for providing depreciation. The estimate cash flows before

tax after depreciation (CFBT) from the machine are as follows:

Year CFBT (Rs.)

1 60,000

2 70,000

3 90,000

4 1,00,000

5 1,50,000

Calculate : (a) Pay–back period (b) Average Rate of Return

(c) Net Present Value and Profitabilty Index at 10% discount rate. You

may use the following table:

Year 1 2 3 4 5

P.V. Factor at 10% 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683 0.621

8. From the given information you are required to calculate

(i) Degree of Operating Leverage

(ii) Degree of Financial Leverge

(iii) Degree of Combined Leverage

Particulars x y z

Output (in units) 30,00,000 7,50,000 50,00,000

Fixed cost Rs. 35,00,000 70,00,000 7,50,000

Variable Cost Per Unit (Rs.) 1.00 7.50 0.10

Interest Expenses(Rs.) 2,50,000 4,00,000 -

Selling Price Per Unit (Rs.) 3 25 0.50

9. From the following particulars, prepare a statement showing the

proprietors fund as at 31st December 1999 with as many details as

possible.

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Question Code : B11103 Sub Code: U16ELC21



BRITISH LITERATURE II (FROM DRYDEN TO GRAY)

Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks: 75

Part A

Answer ALL question s, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks

1. In the literature of the Johnsonian era ------------- who stands nearest to

Johnson himself.

a) John Dryden b) Oliver Goldsmith

c) John Milton c) James Thomson

2. The author of the Comedy „The Rivals‟ is -------------.

a) Richard Brinsley Sheridan b) David Hume

c) Edward Gibbon d) William Godwin

3. --------------- is a friend of Sir Roger de Coverly.

a) Will wimble b) The Temptar

c) Steele d) Clergyman

4. Sir Andrew Freeport is a -------------- of great eminence in the city of

London.

a) lawyer b) merchant c) member d) priest

5. The Herds provide the speaker with ------------ in the poem “Ode on

Solitude”

a) milk b) water c) honey d) sweets

6. ------------- is the father of music in Jewish Literature in St. Cecilia‟s Day

a) Eliphaz b) Jubel c) Jeremiah d) Ezekiel

7. -------------- is a brother of Joseph Surface.

a) Charles Surface b) Sir Peter Teazle

c) Sir Oliver Surface d) Rowley

8. ------------- is the President of the Scandalous College.

a) Mrs. Candour b) Mr. Crabtree

c) Lady Sneerwell d) Sir Benjamin Backbite

9. The first voyage of Gulliver is to --------------.

a) Lilliput b) Laputa c) Brobdingnag d) Houyhnhnms

10. Who are the only immoral and malicious people in Brobdingnag?

a) Greedy Farmers b) Members of the royal court

c) The deformed and children d) Women and elderly

Part B

Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)

11.a) Bring out the elements of drama in the Restoration period.

(or)

b) Discuss the salient features of poetry in the Age of Johnson.

12. a) Who were the members of the Spectator Club.

(or)

b) Sketch the character of Sir Roger.

13. a) Write a critical appreciation of the poem “Song for St. Cecilia‟s Day”.

(or)

b) What is Gray‟s attitude toward the people buried in the cemetery?

14. a) Write a note on the character of Charles Surface.

(or)

b) Examine the plot construction in “The School for Scandal”.

15. a) How Gulliver passed his time in the country of Lilliputs?

(or)

b) How is Gulliver‟s experience at court in Brobdingnag in Gulliver‟s

Travels Part II?

Part C

Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)

16. Attempt an essay on the development of drama in the Age of Johnson.

17. Sketch the character of Will Wimble.

18. Write a critical appreciation of the poem “Elegy Written in a Country

Churchyard”.

19. Explain the art of characterization in “The School for Scandal”.

20. How does Gulliver escape from the Lilliputans?

Question Code : B11104 Sub Code: U16ELC22



BRITISH LITERATURE III (THE AGE OF WORDSWORTH)


Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks

1. “If winter comes, can spring be far behind” is the concluding line of the

poem.

a) Ode to a Nightingale b) Ode on a Grecian Urn

c) Solitary Reaper d) Ode to the West wind

2. “Confessions of an English opium Eater” was written by

a) William Hazlitt b) Charles Lamb

c) Peacock d) Thomas De Quincey

3. Pick out the novel written by Jane Austen

a) Pride and Prejudice b) Kenilworth

c) Oliver Twist d) Great Expectations

4. Who is called “Critic‟s Critic”?

a) Wordsworth b) Shelley c) Hazlitt d) Coleridge

5. Lyre is _________

a) a song b) a prayer

c) the name of a person d) a musical instrument

6. Whom did Alice marry in “Dream Children: A Reverie”?

a) Charles Lamb b) John Lamb

c) Bartum d) Barron Field

7. “Behold her single in the field, Yon solitary Highland Lass” is the

opening line of

a) Daffodils b) Lucy Gray

c) Solitary Reaper d) Christobel

8. How many brothers does the Prisoner of Chillon have?

a) two b) three c) five d) six

9. Who is called “the father of historical novel?

a) William Hazlitt b) Sir Walter Scott

c) Dickens d) Jonathan Swift

10. “La Belle dame sans Merci” is a _________

a) Satire b) Ballad c) Drama d) One act play

Part B


11. a) Discuss the characteristics of Wordsworth‟s poetry.

(or)

b) Discuss the growth of the novel during the Age of Wordsworth.

12. a) How does Lamb portray Mrs Field in his essay “ Dream Children:

A Reverie”

(or)

b) What are Wordsworth‟s view regarding prose and the language of

poetry?

13. a) Describe the effect of the west wind on the land.

(or)

b) Discuss the central theme of Blake‟s “The Tyger”.

14. a) What great qualities do you find in Jane Austen‟s novels?

(or)

b) Estimate Hazlitt as an eminent prose writer.

15. a) Discuss the central theme of “The Prisoner of Chillon”.

(or)

b) “I fall upon the thorns of life, I bleed”. Why does Shelley grieve in his

poem “Ode to the west wind”?

Part C


16. Write a critical appreciation of Wordsworth‟s poem “The Solitary

Reaper”.

17. The west wind is a symbol of force and energy – Justify.

18. Bring out the auto biographical elements in Lamb‟s essays prescribed for

your study.

19. Estimate Wordsworth as an eminent critic based on his theory of poetry.

20. Examine Sir Walter Scott‟s interests in historical narratives with

reference to “Kenilworth”.

Question Code : B11202 Sub Code: U16ELA21



CLASSICS IN TRANSLATION


Part A


1. ____________ has a close relationship with the gods.

a) Achilles b) Agamemnon c) Thetis d) Chryses

2. Who sends a plague upon the Greek camp causing the death of many

soldier?

a) Venus b) Aros c) Apollo d) Odysseus

3. Kovalan was beheaded for stealing the queen‟s ____________.

a) Pearl anklet b) Gold ring

c) Diamond ear ring d) Pearl Bangle

4. Vanchikkandam have ____________ cantos.

a) Three b) Ten c) Five d) Seven

5. ________________ is the first literary asset left to posterity by the saga.

a) Cilapathigaram b) Shaguntalam

c) Arabian nights d) Tirukkural

6. ____________loses his divine right to rule Israel, by committing two

religious errors.

a) David b) Soloman c) Saul d) Jacob

7. Esther becomes queen of _________________.

a) Persia b) Arabia c) England d) London

8. The lady buys fresh and _________________.

a) fist b) dried fruits and wax candles

c) vegetables d) meat

9. The play Shakuntala has _________________ Acts.

a) Six b) Five c) Four d) Seven

10. Shakuntala‟s son name is _________________.

a) Dhushyanta b) Bharata c) Kanva d) Dhuriyothana

Part B


11. a) Write a short note on Agamemnon.

(or)

b) What is the role of women in The Iliad?

12. a) Why did Kannaki destroy the entire kingdom?

(or)

b) How does the education chapter from Tirukural helps to improve our

learning?

13. a) Write about the problem of Evil?

(or)

b) Explain : How does the first eleven chapters structuring the world?

14. a) Why did Hunch back swallow the fish bone?

(or)

b) Why did Werdan follow the lady and what he find out?

15. a) Explain the first meeting between the King and Shakuntala.

(or)

b) Why did not the kind Dushyanta recognize shakuntala?

Part C


16. What role does fate play in the emotional and psychological effect of the

Iliad?

17. What are the images used in biblical poetry to depict God, humans and

the conflict between good and Evil?

18. Describe the incidents that take place during the marriage of Kovalan &

Kannaki.

19. What are the adventures of the Butcher with the lady and the bear?

20. How does Shakuntala join her husband with the help of the ring?

Question Code : B23103 Sub Code: U16ZOC21



DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Number of Ootids produced during Oogenesis is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

2. During Spermatogenesis ---------------develop into acrosome

a) Mitochondria b) Golgi bodies

c) Ribosome d) Lysosome

3. In honey bees----------develops parthegenetically

a) Drone b) Queen c) Worker d) All the above

4. Superficial cleavage is seen in

a) Fishes b) Replies c) Birds d) Insects

5. Extra embryonic membrane which is not related with respiration is

a) Amnion b) Chorion c) Yolksac d) Allantois

6. Syndesmochorial placenta is seen in

a) Pig b) Sheep c) Dog d) Rabbit

7. Chordomesoderm acts as organiser in ----------- of amphibians

a) Fertilized egg b) Blastula

c) Early gastrula d) Late gastrula

8. In which type of regeneration whole body can be regenerated

a) Epimorphis b) Morphallaxis

c) Hetramorphosis d) Super regeneration

9. In menstrual cycle proliferative phase occurs during

a) 6- 14th

day b) 15-28th

day c) 1st -5

th d) None

10. First test tube baby was produced in the year

a) 1958 b) 1968 c) 1978 d) 1988

Part B


11. a) Write a brief account on preformation theory.

(or)

b) Describe the structure of mammalian sperm with sketch.

12. a) Comment on the planes of cleavage. Add examples.

(or)

b) Describe the patterns of Cleavage.

13. a) Discuss allantoids and yolk sac with their significance.

(or)

b) How placenta are classified on the basis of types of tissues involved?

14. a) Write down the physiological changes that occur during amphian

metamorphosis.

(or)

b) Write a brief account on the organizer concept.

15. a) Write short notes on parturition and lactation.

(or)

b) Illustrate the necessity for birth control.

Part C


16. Describe the process of Oogenesis.

17. Elucidate the mechanism of gastrulaion of frog.

18. Illustrate the development of heart in frog.

19. Narrate the morphological changes that occur in amphibian

metamorphosis.

20. Explain the different contraceptive devices.

Question Code : B23104 Sub Code: U16ZOC22



CELL BIOLOGY


Part A


1. Cell wall is

a) Permeable b) semi-permeable

c) differentially permeable d) impermeable

2. Mitochondria were first observed by

a) Robert Brown b) Altmann c) Robert Hooker d) T. Svedberg

3. Golgi apparatus is absent in

a) Liver cells b) Higher plants

c) Blue green algae d) yeast

4. Lysosomes are known as “suicidal bag” because of

a) Catalytic activity b) hydrolytic activity

c) parasitic activity d) saprophytic activity

5. Major function of Golgi body is

a) secretion b) regulation of cell temperature

c) active transport d) transportation

6. Autonomic genome system is present in

a) Mitochondria and Ribosomes b) Mitochondria and Chloroplast

c) Ribosomes and Chloroplast d) Golgi body and Mitochondria

7. Chromosomes are made up of

a) DNA and RNA b) DNA

c) RNA d) DNA and proteins

8. Lampbrush chromosomes are seen in which typical stage?

a) Mitosis b) Prophase

c) Mitotic metaphase d) meiotic prophase

9. Spindle fibres are made up of

a) Lipids b) cellulose c) pectin d) proteins

10. Chromosomal ends are known as

a) metamere b) centromere

c) telomere d) satellite

Part B


11. a) Explain the principle of centrifugation.

(or)

b) Explain the structure of plasma membrane.

12. a) Write an account of functions of Endoplasmic reticulum.

(or)

b) Describe the structure and functions of Ribosome.

13. a) Explain the Giant chromosome.

(or)

b) Give an account of functions of Nucleolus.

14. a) Briefly explain the Meiosis.

(or)

b) Write notes on Mitosis.

15. a) Comment on Oncogenes.

(or)

b) Describe about the types of Stem cells.

Part C


16. Describe the types of fixation and fixatives.

17. Explain the structure and functions of Mitochondria.

18. Describe the structure and functions of Chromosome.

19. Write an essay on Cell cycle.

20. Describe the causes, diagnosis and treatment of Cancer diseases.

Part B


4. How will you construct a home aquarium?

5. Write an essay on fish food and feeding.

6. Discuss the transport of ornamental fishes.

7. Write an essay on the diseases caused by ectoparasites.

8. Explain the causative agent, symptoms and preventive measures of

fungal and bacterial diseases in ornamental fishes.

Question Code: B23402 Sub Code: U16ZOS21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT – ORNAMENTAL FISH CULTURE


Part A


1. a) Describe the systematic position and general characters of Gold fish.

(or)

b) Write the biology of Angel fish.

2. a) Discuss the role of ingredients for fish feed formulation.

(or)

b) Define tubifex. Explain the procedure for the culture of tubifex.

3. a) Give an account on the white spot disease in ornamental fishes.

(or)

b) Write a note on dropsy disease.

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Question Code : B30103 Sub Code: U16COC21



MS OFFICE

Time : 3 Hrs B.Com Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The first general purpose computer was __________

a) ENIAC b) EDVAC

c) UNIVAC d) None of the above

2. A _________ computer is a computer with a microprocessor as its CPU

a) Mini b) Micro c) IBM d) All of the above

3. If you need an operating system that provides data redundancy, you

should select a _________ operating system.

a) Network b) Linux c) Embedded d) Windows

4. A program that runs in parts on several computer is said to be ________

a) Delegated b) Spread c) Distributed d) Recursive

5. The key F12 opens a ________

a) Save as dialog box b) Open dialog box

c) Save dialog box d) Close dialog box

6. Which option is not available in Insert table Auto fit behaviour ______

a) Fixed column width b) Auto fit to contents

c) Auto fit to window d) Auto fit to column

7. MS – Excel is based on __________

a) WINDOWS b) DOS c) UNIX d) OS /2

8. In the formula, which symbol specifies the fixed column or row

__________

a) $ b) % c) * d) &

9. Animation schemes can be applied to ________ in the presentation.

a) All slides b) Select sides

c) current slides d) All of the above

10. To open the existing presentation, press ___________

a) ctrl + I b) ctrl + n c) ctrl + a d) ctrl + o

Part B


11. a) Explain the characteristics of a computer.

(or)

b) Explain the various Input devices of a computer.

12. a) Briefly discuss the history of operating system?

(or)

b) How to i) open ii) close iii) delete iv) change the

size of the window?

13. a) Describe the features of Microsoft word 2007?

(or)

b) Describe how to check the spelling and grammar errors in a word

document?

14. a) How to edit a cell in MS Excel? Discuss.

(or)

b) Discuss chart creation in detail. What operations you can perform on

it in MS – Excel?

15. a) Discuss the print option provided in the slides of the presentation

window.

(or)

b) How to create a slide show? Discuss.

Part C


16. Briefly discuss the generations of a computer.

17. Explain the basic concepts of window operating system.

18. Explain how to edit a document in a word?

19. Write a procedure to create MS – Excel functions.

20. Discuss how to

a. Add background

b. Add and Modify animations

c. Add transitions

d. Add sound

Question Code : B30104 / B31104 Sub Code: U16COC22/ U16CAC22



FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING - II

Time : 3 Hrs B.Com & B.Com(CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. Statement of affairs is a ________

a) Statement of Income and Expenditure

b) Statement of assets and liability

c) Summary of cash transactions d) None of the above

2. Single entry system is converted into double entry system by _______

a) Profit and loss method b) Statement of affairs method

c) Conversion method d) All of these

3. Income and Expenditure account shows the balance of _________

a) Net profit or loss b) Cash and bank

c) Capital account

d) Excess of revenue over expenditure or vice versa

4. The person to whom the payment is to be mode is called __________

a) Drawer b) Drawee c) Payee d) Debtor

5. A bill is -------

a) A negotiable instrument b) Not Negotiable

c) Not Transferable d) Equivalent to cheque

6. Income and expenditure account is prepared by _________

a) non trading concerns b) business concerns

c) both business and trading concerns d) all the above

1

7. Average due date is also called as

a) negative due b) evaluated date

c) accurate date d) none of these

8. An average Due Date is _________ date on which a single payment

may be made in lieu of several payments due on different dates.

a) a base b) a closing c) a middile d) an equated

9. Sold ledger account is opened in _______

a) Creditors ledger b) Debtors ledger

c) General ledger d) Both

10. Reserve for doubtful debts account is opened in __________

a) Creditors ledger b) Debtors ledger

c) General ledger d) None of these

Part B

Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)

11. a) Mr. Ram informs you that he had started a business on 1.1.2004

with a capital of Rs.20,500 and on 31.12.2004 his capital was

Rs.32,800. Further, he informs you that he gave his son Rs.2,000

and he withdraws Rs.500 every month for personal purpose. He had

a Scooter, which had been sold for Rs.5,000 and invested the same

into the business. Further, there is no other information. Calculate

the amount of Profit made by him during the year 2004.

(or)

b) During the year 2004, the following transactions took place and

you are required to find out the amount of credit purchase made

during the year.

Balance of creditors on Jan 2004 16,000

Cash paid to creditors during the year 30,000

Bills payable accepted during the year 8,000

Purchase returns 1,000

Balance od creditors on Dec 2004 17,000

Figures for the year ended 30th

Sept 2004 cash received from customers

Rs.1,60,400.

Rs. Rs.

Discount allowed 4,500 Credit sales 1,85,000

Bad debts 6,000 Purchase Return 1,400

Payment to creditors 95,000 Sales return 2,600

Discount allowed by

Them 2,700 B/R received 7,500

Payments to customers 125 B/R granted 5,000

Credit purchases 1,10,000 Transfer from debtors ledger

to creditors to settle the

accounts 4,000

19. On 1st February, Ram received from Hari three acceptance for Rs. 6,000

Rs.8,000 and Rs.10,000 for two months.

The first bill for Rs.6,000 was endorsed to Mohan; the second

Bill for Rs.8,000 was held till due date and the third Bill for Rs.10,000

was discounted for Rs.50.

At maturity all the bills were dishonoured. Give journal entries in

the books of Ram and the ledger accounts in the books of Hari, in respect

of these transactions.

20. Mr. Mohan opened a current account with the Indian Bank on 1st January

2005 and deposited Rs.7,000. His deposits during the period were:

Jan 25 Rs.1,500; April Rs.2,500;

May 26 Rs.800; June, 20 Rs. 2,000

His wirthdrawals were:

Jan 20, Rs.4,000

Feb 10, Rs.3,000

March 5, Rs.2,000

May 20, Rs.1,800

June 8, Rs. 2,750

Calculate interest @10% p.a, on the customer‟s debit balances

and 6 % p.a. on credit balances and close the account on 30th

June 2005.

2

7

17. Mr. Premlal who is a doctor commenced practise on 1st January 2004

with a cash of Rs. 1,00,000. At the end of the year the following

details of his receipts and payments are available:

Rs. Rs.

To Cash introduced 1,00,000 By Furniture 10,000

To fees received 50,000 By Equipments 25,000

To Receipts from

dispensing 1,20,000 By Drugs 24,000

To Miscellaneous

Receipts 1,000 By Assistants salary 10,000

By Rent 12,000

By Stationery 500

By Electricity 1,000

By Journals 900

By Drawings 36,000

By Cash at Bank 1,50,000

By Cash in Hand 1,600

Other information:

1. Fees Rs.500 are still to be received

2. Salary to assistant unpaid Rs.750

3. Creditors for drugs purchased Rs.10,000

4. Stock of drugs still in hand Rs.10,000.

5. Depreciate furniture and equipment by 10% p.a.

Prepare Receipts and Payments accounts and Balance sheet

as on 31st December 2004.

18. In the absence of self – Balancing system, you are asked to compile

Total debtors and Total creditors accounts from the following

information:

Dr. Cr

Balances (1.10. 2003) Rs. Rs.

Debtors Ledger 35,700 500

Creditors Ledger 300 27,800

12. a) During the year 2004, the expenses actually paid were Rs.3,250. Find

out the actual expenses chargeable to income and expenditure account

for the year ended 2004, if prepaid and outstanding are as follows:

Prepaid expenses on 31.12.2003 300

Prepaid expenses on 31.12.2004 400

Outstanding expenses on 31.12.2003 450

Outstanding expenses on 31.12.2004 500

(or)

b) Calculate the amount of stationery to be debited to income and

expenditure account during 2004.

1. Amount paid for stationery during the year 2004, as per

Receipts and Payments amount Rs.1,750.

2. Stock of stationery on 1.1.2004 Rs.150

3. Paid advance for stationery on 31.12.2004 Rs.200.

4. Paid advance for stationery during Dec. 2003 Rs.250 but

received during the year 2004.

5. Creditors for stationery on 1.1.2004 Rs.370

6. Stock of stationery on 31.12.2004 Rs.415.

7. Creditors for stationery on 31.12.2004 Rs.300.

13. a) Below are given particulars from the books of a trader for the month

of January.

Rs. Rs.

Jan 1, Opening balance 30,000 Bills dishonoured 1,500

Jan 31, Total sales 90,000 Discount allowed on Drs 400

Sales return 500 Bad debts 350

Cash from debtors 40,000 Transfer from other ledger 750

B/ R 15,000

He wants to maintain his book on self – balancing system. You

are asked to journal the above transactions and raise relevant adjustment

accounts at the back of sales ledger and general ledger.

(or)

3 6

b) Write out the journal entries to correct the following errors when

self – balancing system is in use.

1. Sales book under cast by Rs.1,500.

2. Purchase made from Mr. A Rs.500 was posted Mr.B account

Rs.50.

3. Goods of the value of Rs.1,000 returned by Raju were entered in

sales Day book and posted their form to the credit of his account.

4. Robert company limited returned goods worth Rs.5,000. This

transaction was entered in the sales day book and posted to the

Robert company limited.

14. a) A accepted a four months draft for Rs.1,000 and drawn on him by

B on 15th

April. The bill was discounted with the bankers on the

next day at 12%. On maturity the bill was met. Make journal entries

in the books of A and B.

(or)

b) On 1st January, A sold goods to B for Rs.1,000 and drew upon

him a bill at three months for the amount B accepted the bill and

returned it to A. On 4th

March, B returned bill under rebate of 12%

p.a. Record these transactions in the journal of A and B.

15. a) On 1st January 2005, Mr. Arun owed Rs.3,000 to babu on

account. During the six months ended 30th

June 2005, the following

transactions took place:

Rs.

Jan, 1 Goods sold to Arun 4,000

Feb, 1 Amount received from Arun 3,000

March, 1 Goods sold to Arun 5,000

April, 1 Arun sold goods to babu 3,500

May, 1 Goods sold to Arun 2,500

June, 1 Cash received from Arun 4,000

July 1, Cash received from Arun 1,000

Prepare Account Current to be rendered to Arun on 30th

June 2005,

interest to be calculated at 12% p.a (in months)

(or)

b) Mr. B had the following transactions with A during the year 2005.

Rs.

July, 1 Balance due from A 600

July 15, Sold goods to A 1,900

Aug, 10 Received cash from A 1,100

Aug, 19 Purchased goods from A 700

Sept, 3 Returned goods from A 300

Sept, 16 Received cash from A 500

Prepare account current with Mr.B.

Part C


16. Mr. Gopal started a business with Rs.30,800 on 1.1.2004. The drawings

during the year amounted to Rs.16,400 and further capital of Rs.9,600

was introduced on 1st July 2004. Prepare statement to show profit or loss

made during the year from the following particulars, as on 31st

December 2004. Rs.

Creditors 34,800

Debtors 24,600

Furniture 4,800

Machinery 6,600

Cash 1, 800

Investments 23,600

Bills payable 10,800

Stock 22,200

Bank overdraft 7,600

Write of Rs.1,200 towards bad debts and a further of 5% is to be

made towards doubtful debts. Depreciate furniture by 5% and Machinery

by 10%. Out standing salaries Rs.480 and prepaid rent Rs.320.

5

4

Question Code : B30202 Sub Code: U16ECA21



ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT OF INDIA


Part A


1. Which one of the following is used to measure the economic

development?

(a) Per capita Income (b) Physical quality of life income

(c) Real Income (d) None

2. Various circle of Poverty is presented by _________

(a) Adam Smith (b) Nurkse (c) Marshall (d) None

3. IADP Means

(a) Integrated agricultural District Programmes

(b) Intensive agricultural District Programmes

(c) Implemented agricultural District Programmes

(d) None

4. Which one of the following is the instrument of price policy

(a) Fiscal Policy (b) Support Price

(c) Monetary Policy (d) None

5. One of the core area of new industrial policy 1991 is

(a) Decrease the Investment (b) Liberalize the license policy

(c) Reduce the private sector investment (d) None

6. The MNCs use their __________ in maximizing their profits.

(a) Political Power (b) Economic Power

(c) Oligopolistic Power (d) None

7. Which one of the following is the cause of poverty?

(a) Lock of Education (b) Poor Development

(c) Lock of Industry (d) None

8. _________is caused by the trade cycle at regular intervals.

(a) Technological unemployment (b) Frictional unemployment

(c) Cyclical unemployment (d) None

9. The planning commission of India was setup in _______________

(a) April 1950 (b) March 1950 (c) May 1950 (d) None

10. The second five year plan was based on _____________

(a) Harrod – Domar Model (b) Economic Model

(c) Mahalarobis Model (d) None

Part B


11. (a) Explain the determinants of economic growth.

(or)

(b) List out the importance of Capital formation.

12. (a) What are the causes of low agricultural productivity?

(or)

(b) Explain the concept of food Security system.

13. (a) Point out the evils of MNCs.

(or)

(b) Explain various problems faced by the small scale Industries in India.

14. (a) Explain the poverty line.

(or)

(b) State the causes of population growth in India.

15. (a) Enumerate the salient features of XII Five Year Plan.

(or)

(b) List out the achievements of planning in India.

Part C


16. Analyse the characteristics of a developing Economy.

17. What measures can be taken to improve agricultural productivity in

India?

18. Give arguments in favor of development of small and cottage industries

in India?

19. Examine the types of unemployment.

20. Evaluate the role of NITI AYOG in Indian Economic Development.

Question Code : B31103 Sub Code: U16CAC21



INTRODUCTION TO C PROGRAMMING

Time : 3 Hrs B.Com(CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. C program can be viewed as a group of building blocks called as

__________

a) Functions b) Data c) Program d) Instructions

2. Single character reading can be done by using the function________

a) Scanf b) Printf c) Getchar d) Putchar

3. The terminology used for finding the field width is ____________

a) % wf b) %s c) %d d) %wd

4. The header file used for the character handling in library function is

__________

a) <math.h> b) <stdio.h> c) <conio.h> d) <ctype.h>

5. A control structure is classified as __________

a) Exit and entry controlled loop b) Control and process

c) For and while d) Setting and initializing

6. Which of the statement transfers the control out of switch statement?

a) Default b) Break c) Switch d) Goto

7. An array elements are always stored in ________ memory locations.

a) Sequential b) Random

c) Sequential and random d) Systematic

8. The default range of subscript is _____________

a) 0 to size -1 b) 1 to n

c) N to n d) N to n-1

9. A Structure that handles a group of ____________

a) Relational items b) Logical items

c) Hierarchical items d) Logical related data items

10. Point out the error in the program.

struct emp {

int ecode;

struct emp*e;}

a) Error in structure declaration b) Linked error

c) No error d) Error in structure name

Part B


11. a) Explain about the C character set.

(or)

b) Write short note on the following:

i) keywords ii) identifiers iii) constants

12. a) Discuss the various types of operators in C?

(or)

b) Discuss the various types of expressions in C.

13. a) Explain while and do – while statements with an example program.

(or)

b) Explain the various types of if statement available in C.

14. a) Discuss about 1 – D and 2 – D array with an example program.

(or)

b) Write a program in C to sort an array of numbers.

15. a) Define user defined function. How the functions are declared and

defined in C?

(or)

b) Write a C program to find the factorial of a given number using

function.

Part C


16. Discuss the various data types available in C.

17. Discuss formatted input and output operations with examples.

18. Explain simple and nested for loops.

19. Write short note on the following string functions:

i) strlen ( ) ii) strcat ( ) iii) strcmp ( ) iv) strcpy ( )

20. Explain Structure in C with an example program.

Part C

Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 10 = 30 marks)

16. Illustrate the effect of substrate structure on aliphatic nucleophilic

substitution.

17. Write a brief note on the following:

(a) Hydroxylation b) Alhol condensation

18. Discuss the following:

a) Molecular vibrations b) Me lafferty rearrangement

19. a) Elucidate a brief study of starch.

b) Write a note on denaturation of proteins.

20. Give an account for the following:

a) Conformation of mono substituted cyclohexanes.

b) Stereo electronic factors.

Question Code : B62104 Sub Code: P16CHC21



ORGANIC CHEMISTRY – II

NATURAL PRODUCTS, CONFORMATIONAL ANALYSIS, AND

REACTION MECHANISM – II

Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75 Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. The neutral substrates the rate of SN` reaction ________.

a) Decrease with solvent polarity b) Increase with solvent polarity

c) Does not change with solvent polarity

d) Increase gradually with the polarity of solvent

2. The pour leaving groups in elimination reaction favours ________.

a) Both E1 and E2 b) E1 c) E2 d) E1CB

3. Hydroxylation of double bonds are carried with _______.

a) Pb OAC 4 b) HIO4 c) OSO4 d) NaBH4

4. Ketones reacts with formal dehyde and ammonia to give - amino

ketones _________ reaction.

a) Perkin b) Michael c) Mannich d) Wittig

5. The region of an IR spectrum for C = C stretching frequency is _______

cm–1

.

a) 1250 – 1050 b) 1800 – 2700

c) 1680 – 1600 d) 1780 – 1650

6. Aromatic hydrocarbons fragment at the bond________ to the ring.

a) b) c) d)

7. Lactose on hydrolysis with dil Hcl gives _________.

a) Glucose & Fructose b) Glucose & Mannose

c) Fructose and Mannose d) Glucose and Galactose

8. The Sesquiterepene is ________.

a) - pinene b) Limonene

c) Zingiberene d) Squalene

9. The size conformers of butane are __________.

a) Four staggered and two eclipsed b) All size staggered

c) Two staggered and four eclipsed

d) Three staggered and three eclipsed

10. The boat conformation of cyclohexane the most destabilizing

interaction is _________.

a) Flagpole – Flagpole b) Eclipsing

c) 1, 3 – diaxial d) 1, 3 – diexuitorial

Part B

Answer ALL questions. (5 x 7 = 35 marks)

11. a) Explain SN1 mechanism with example.

(or)

b) Discuss the orientation of double bond with example.

12. a) What is Perkin reaction? Explain the mechanism and synthetic use of

the reaction.

(or)

b) Write short notes on the following:

i) Addition of hypohalous acids on olefines.

ii) Darzen‟s reaction.

13. a) Calculate the UV absorption maximum for the following compounds.

a) b) c)

H2N COOH

(or)

b) Discuss the following:

i) meta stable peak ii) fragmentations of amines.

14. a) How will you determine the methods, used for in determination of size

in sugars?

(or)

b) Elucidate the structure of Zingiberene.

15. a) Describe the conformations of 1, 2 – dichloro ethane.

(or)

b) Derive Eliel – Ro – equation.

O

18. Discuss briefly the structure and function of vitaminB12.

19. Describe briefly any five typical reactions in liquid SO2 as a non-

aqueous solvent.

20. (a) What are high temperature superconductors? Explain in details with

suitable example.

(b) What is meant by Hall effect? Explain its importance.

Question Code : B62105 SubCode : P16CHC22



INORGANIC CHEMISTRY – II

(BIOINORGANIC AND SOLID STATE CHMISTRY II)

Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Any non-linear molecular system possessing degenerate electronic state

will be unstable and will undergo distortion to form a system of lower

symmetry and energy and thus will remove degeneracy. It is known as

a) Werner theory b) John-teller theorem

c) CFSE d) VB theory

2. [FeF6]3-

is

a) paramagnetic and high-spin complex

b) paramagnetic and low-spin complex

c) diamagnetic and high-spin complex

d) diamagnetic and low-spin complex

3. The number of pyrrole nuclei present in porphyrin is

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4

4. Ferredoxins and rubredoxins are

a) non-heme iron-sulphur proteins b) heme iron-sulphur proteins

c) blue copper proteins d) Carboxypeptidase A

5. In Na+/K

+ pump

a) Na+

goes out and K+ brings in

b) Na

+ brings in and K

+ goes out

c) Both go out d) Both bring in

6. Which of the following is used for cancer therapy?

a) trans-platin b) cis-platin c) sanocrysin d) [Cu-EDTA]2+

7. Which of the following is a Lux-Flood acid?

a) SiO2 b) CaO c) BaO d) Na2O

8. The order of increasing acid-strength is

a) CH4 < NH3 < H2O < HF b) H2O < NH3 < CH4 < HF

c) HF < H2O< CH4 < NH3 d) CH4 < HF < H2O < NH3

9. The crystal defect which arises due to the shifting of an ion from its

normal position to an interstitial in the crystal lattice is known as

a) Schottky defect b) Hall effect

c) Metal deficiency defect d) Frenkel defect

10. An example for insulator is

a) GaAs b) Cu c) diamond d) CdS

Part B


11. (a) What is meant by CFSE? Discuss its applications.

(or)

(b) Write a note on spin orbit coupling.

12. (a) What are metalloporphyrins? Explain with suitable example.

(or)

(b) Write short notes on iron-sulphur proteins.

13. (a) Discuss the structure and function of carbonic anhydrase.

(or)

(b) Name any four essential transition elements and explain their role in

biological systems.

14. (a) Explain briefly the Lewis concept of acids and bases? Mention its

limitation.

(or)

(b) Describe the following reactions in liquid ammonia as non-aqueous

solvent:

(i) Solvolysis reactions (ii) precipitation reactions

(iii) Acid-Base neutralization reactions

15. (a) What are crystal defects? Explain the stoichiometric defects in

details.

(or)

(b) What are semiconductors? How are they classified? Explain them.

Part C


16. (a) Discuss briefly Werner‟s theory of coordination.

(b) Applying VB theory, explain why [NiCl4]2-

is paramagnetic and

[Ni(CN)4]2-

is diamagnetic.

17. What are blue copper proteins? How are they classified? Discuss the

structure of azurin and plastocyanin.




PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY – II

(QUANTUM, CATALYSIS AND MOLECULAR SPECTROSCOPY)


Part A


1. The energy expression for the energy of rigid rotator (E) is_________

a) Ihll 21 b) Ihll 22 81

c) Ihll 22/1 d)

)1(

2

ll

Ih

2. The azimuthal quantum number of d orbitals is

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

3. The determinantal form of the wave function of a many electron system

is called as __________ determinant.

a) Schrodinger b) Born – Oppenheimer

c) Slater d) None of these

4. The total molecular electronic wave function is a product of

a) elec and nuc

b) elec and elec

c) nuc and nuc

d) nuc and vib

5. Partition function increases with _________ of temperature.

a) decreases b) increases c) no change d) all the above.

6. The internal energy per mole is

a) 5/2 RT b) ½ RT c) 3/2 RT d) RT

7. The inactive forms of enzymes are called as _______

a) Proenzymes b) Coenzymes

c) Apoenzymes d) Active

8. The optimum temperature for enzymatic process is _______

a) 25 c b) 30 c c) 37 c d) 40 c

9. The rotational energy (E) of a classical rotator is

a) 2IW b) 2

2

1IW c) 2

2

3IW d)

22W

I

10. The selection rule for vibrating diatomic molecule is

a) V = 1 b) V = 0

c) V = 2 d) V = 1, 2

Part B


11. a) Derive the wave function and energy for a particle in one –

dimensional box.

(or)

b) Obtain the expression for energy and wave function particle

moving in a ring.

12. a) Apply the variation theorem to the hydrogen atom.

(or)

b) Discuss the Slater rules.

13. a) Explain the Debye‟s theory of heat capacities.

(or)

b) Compare any five of the Fermi – Dirac and Bose- Einstein statistics.

14. a) Discuss the mechanism of acid – base catalysis.

(or)

b) Explain the Langmuir – Hinshelwood mechanism.

15. a) Write the information derived from rotational spectra.

(or)

b) Discuss about the diatomic vibrating rotator.

Part C


16. Discuss the following : i) Radial wave function

ii) Shapes of atomic orbitals.

17. Describe the time – independent perturbation theory.

18. Obtain the thermodynamic properties E, H and S using the partition

functions.

19. Discuss the types, characteristics and theory of catalysis reactions.

20. i) Derive the energy for vibrating diatomic molecule.

ii) Find out the number of normal modes of vibrations for the following

molecules. CO2, and H2O.

Question Code : B62304 Sub Code: P16CHE22



INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY


Part A


1. The operating intensity of an apparatus I = ________.

a) IS

VP b) PV

IS c)

PVI

S

d)

PVS

I

2. The Independence of the equilibrium constant, expressed in molar

fraction, on the pressure is given by the equation.

a) KP = KN P– N

b) KN = KP P– N

c) N = KN P–K

P d) KP = N P– K

N

3. The number of operating filters (n) = ________

a) F

fD

4

2

b) 2

4

fD

F c)

2

4

fD

F

d)

24 fDF

4. In calculations of trough – type machines, the length of the chamber

l = _________

a) IL

mS

b)

mS

IL

c)

Im

LS

d) L I S m.

5. Eutropthication is related to ____________ ion.

a) Carbonate b) Chromate c) Borate d) Phosphate

6. The chemical responsible for Bhopal tragedy is __________

a) Radium b) Uranium

c) Polonium d) Methyl isocyanide

7. Choose the standard higher fatty acid.

a) Palmitic acid b) Oleic acid

c) Linoleic acid d) Arachidonic acid

8. Bees wax contain ___________ alcohol.

a) Cetyl b) Ceryl c) Myricyl d) Prophyl

9. The thermosetting plastics is ________

a) P V C b) Bakelite

c) Polythene d) Polyvinylidene chloride

10. Contact insecticide is

a) nicotine b) lead arsenate

c) ethylene oxide d) parathion

Part B


11. a) Write about the new developments in chemical technology.

(or)

b) Describe in classification of technological processes.

12. a) What is Corrosion? Explain the types of corrosion. How is it

prevented?

(or)

b) Explain the following:

i) electromagnetic concentration ii) wet gravity concentration

13. a) Explain the toxic effects caused by pesticides and fertilizers.

(or)

b) Discuss the toxic effects caused by the following metals:

i) Mercury ii) Cadmium iii) Copper

14. a) Explain the theory of electroplating.

(or)

b) How is soap manufactured by batch process?

15. a) How the following are prepared? Mention their uses.

i) DDT ii) Nylon 6.

(or)

b) How is Portland cement manufactured?

Part C


16. a) Give a brief account on importance of chemical industry.

b) Write notes on Indian chemical industry today.

17. a) Explain the characteristics of raw materials and their resource.

b) Write notes on power and fuels.

18. How is industrial waste water treated?

19. Describe the preparation, properties and uses of Potassium chlorate.

20. a) How are neoprene and terelene manufactured?

b) Write notes on Ceramics.

5. a) Prove: i) If A is Noetherian and S is any multiplicatively closed

subset of A, then S–1

A is Noetherian.

ii) An Artin ring has only a finite number of maximal ideals.

(or)

b) Let A be an Artin local ring. Prove that the following are equivalent.

i) every ideal in A is principal.

ii) the maximal ideal m is principal.

iii) 1/dim 2 mm

k .

Part B

Answer Any FOUR questions (4 x 10 = 40 Marks)

6. How can we select a topic for research in Mathematics?

7. Discuss about the mathematical journals and other uses.

8. Explain the concept of impact factor and citation index.

9. Prove that the tensor product of A – modules exists and unique.

10. Suppose that M has a composition series of length n. Then show that

every composition series of M has length n, and every chain in M can

be extended to a composition series.

11. State and prove Hilbert‟s basis theorem.

12. State and prove the structure theorem for Artin rings.

Question Code: B91101 Sub Code: MP16MA11



RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Maths) Max. Marks: 75

Part- A


1. a) How do we consult the source materials?

(or)

b) Explain the general format of a dissertation.

2. a) Discuss about the different types of proof techniques.

(or)

b) Explain the AMS subject classification.

3. a) Let M, N, P be A – modules. Show that there exists a unique

isomorphism such that

.

(or)

b) Define: i) A – module ii) A – module homomorphism

iii) Sub module iv) Cokernel of an A – module homomorphism

4. a) Prove that M is a Noetherian A – module every sub module of M is

finitely generated.

(or)

b) Define the chain conditions and prove that M has a composition series

if and only if M satisfies both chain conditions.

11. i) Let be a bounded linear functional on A fix x A and define

x 1

)( exf . Then prove that f is holomorphic in

the component of (x) and f ( ) o as .

ii) Prove that for every x A, (x) is compact and not empty.

12. Suppose ,eCef inn

i nC and 0ief for every real

. Then prove that in

nie

ef

1with n .

Question Code: B91102 Sub Code: MP16MA12



ADVANCES IN ANALYSIS

Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Mathematics) Max. Marks: 75

Part- A Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)

1. a) Prove that Lp ( ) is a complete metric space, for 1 p and for

every positive measure .

(or)

b) If X is a locally compact Hausdorff space, then prove that Co (X) is

the completion of Cc (X) relative to the metric defined by the

supremum norm xfXxfSup

.

2. a) Let {u : A} be an orthonormal set in H. Prove that each of the

following four conditions on {u } implies the other three.

i). {u } is a maximal orthonormal set in H.

ii). The set P of all finite linear combinations of members of

{u } is dense in H.

iii). The equality A

xx 22ˆ holds for every x H.

iv). The equality A

)y,x(yx holds for all x H

and y H.

(or)

b) Prove that every non empty, closed convex set E in a Hilbert space H

contains a unique element of smallest norm.

3. a) Prove that if X is a complete metric space, the intersection of every

countable collection of dense open subsets of X is dense in X.

(or)

b) State and prove The Hahn – Banach theorem.

4. a) If f L1, then prove that oCf and

1ff

(or)

b) If is a complex homomorphism on a Banach Algebra A, then prove

that the norm of is atmost 1.

5. a) Prove that for every x A, xexn nn

1lim.

(or)

b) State and prove Gelfand – Mazur theorem.

Part B


6. a) Let p and q be conjugate exponents , 1 < p < . Let X be a space with

measure . Left f and g be measurable functions on X, with range in

[0, ]. Then prove that X XX

qq

pp

dgdffgd

/1/1

and

pq

pp

pp

dgdfdgfXXX

/1/1/1

)(

7. Let M be a closed subspace of a Hilbert space H. Prove that following.

a) Every x H has a unique decomposition x = Px + Qx ino a sum

of P x M and Q x M .

b) Px and Qx are nearest points to x in M and M respectively.

c) The mappings P : H M and Q : H M are linear.

d) 222

QxPxx .

8. State and prove open mapping theorem.

9. To each f L2 we can associate a function L

2 so that the following

properties hold. Prove

a) If 21 LLf , then f is the previously defined Fourier transform of f.

b) For every f L2,

22

ˆ ff .

c) The mapping ff ˆ is a Hilbert space isomorphism of L2 onto L

2.

d) If )x(dmexft ixtA

A

A and

A

A

A tdmetfx ixt ˆ)( then

0ˆ2

fA and 02

fA as A .

10. i) If f L1 then prove that tdmetf)t(Hxhf ixt .

ii) If g L and g is continuous at a point x, then prove that

xgxhg lim

0 .

Question Code: B91302 Sub Code: MP16MAE12



ADVANCES IN GRAPH THEORY

Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Mathematics) Max. Marks: 75

Part- A


1. a) Prove that every regular Sbipartite graph of degree is

1- factorable.

(or)

b) Prove that the cycle is graceful if and only if or

.

2. a) If S is a minimal dominating set of a graph G without isolated vertices,

then prove that V(G)-S is a dominating set of G.

(or)

b) For every bipartite graph G, verify that .

3. a) Define fuzzy forest with an example.

(or)

b) Let be a fuzzy graph such that

is a cycle. Prove that a vertex is a cutvertex of G if and only if w is a

common vertex of two bridges.

4. a) Define eccentric vertex of the graph G with an example.

(or)

b) For each pair a, b of positive integers with a, show that

there exists a connected graph G with and

5. a) Verify that every tree is cordial.

(or)

b) Let be an acyclic graphoidal cover of G.Show that

where denotes the number of vertices exterior to .

Part B


6. Examine: For every graph H without isolated vertices, there exists a

regular H-decomposable graph.

7. Prove that the complete graph is graceful if and only if

8. If G is a graph of order , then show that

i)

ii) ) .

9. Prove that a is a fuzzy forest if and only if any cycle of G, there is an

edge (x,y) such that , where is the

partial fuzzy subgraph obtained by the deletion of the edge (x,y) from G.

10. Verify that the center of every connected graph G is a subgraph of some

block of G.

11. Prove that a nontrivial graph G is the periphery of some graph if and

only if every vertex of G has eccentricity 1 or no vertex of G has

eccentricity 1.

12. For a graph G with , show that .

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m) 30 ehl;fs; M) 60 ehl;fs;

,) 15 ehl;fs; <) 7 ehl;fs;

7. Kfthpd; ,ufrpa mwpf;ifiaf; $Wk; gbt vz;

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8. ve;j Mz;L MAs; fhg;gPl;L fof rl;lk; ,aw;wg;gl;lJ.

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,) fhg;gPL nra;Ak; <) Muk;g

10. jP fhg;gPL Njhd;wpa ehL vJ?

m) ,e;jpah M) ,q;fpyhe;J

,) n[h;kdp <) mnkhpf;fh

gFjp - M

midj;Jf; Nfs;tpfSf;Fk; ,uz;L gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tpil jUf.

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M) fhg;gPl;bd; gzpfis tpthpf;f.

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M) Mz;Lj; njhif vd;why; vd;d? mjd; jpl;lq;fis

tifg;gLj;Jf.

13. m) MAs; fhg;gPl;Lg; gj;jpuj;jpd; epge;jidfs; ahit?

(my;yJ)

M) Kidkk; fzf;fPl;bd; topKiwfs; njhlh;ghd ruj;Jfis

$Wf.

14. m) ,e;jpahtpy; MAs; fhg;gPl;L tzpfk; jdpahh; kakhf MjuT

fUj;Jf;fis $Wf.

(my;yJ)

M) ,e;jpa MAs; fhg;gPl;Lf; fofj;jpd; Nehf;fq;fis tpthpf;f.

15. m) fly;rhh; fhg;gPl;L epge;jidfis gw;wp tpthpf;f.

(my;yJ)

M) jP fhg;gPl;Lg; gj;jpuq;fspd; tiffis $Wf.

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20. jP fhg;gPl;bw;Fk; MAs; fhg;gPl;bw;Fk; cs;s NtWghLfs; ahit?

Question Code : A23103 Sub Code: BZOCR21



DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY


Part A


1. Number of Ootids produced during Oogenesis is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

2. During Spermatogenesis ---------------develop into acrosome.

a) Mitochondria b) Golgi bodies

c) Ribosome d) Lysosome

3. In honey bees----------develops parthegenetically

a) Drone b) Queen c) Worker d) All the above

4. Superficial cleavage is seen in

a) Fishes b) Replies c) Birds d) Insects

5. Extra embryonic membrane which is not related with respiration is

a) Amnion b) Chorion c) Yolksac d) Allantois

6. Syndesmochorial placenta is seen in

a) Pig b) Sheep c) Dog d) Rabbit

7. Chordomesoderm acts as organiser in ----------- of amphibians

a) Fertilized egg b) Blastula

c) Early gastrula d) Late gastrula

8. In which type of regeneration whole body can be regenerated

a) Epimorphis b) Morphallaxis

c) Hetramorphosis d) Super regeneration

9. In menstrual cycle proliferative phase occurs during

a) 6- 14th

day b) 15-28th

day c) 1st -5

th d) None

10. First test tube baby was produced in the year

a) 1958 b) 1968 c) 1978 d) 1988

Part B


11. a) Write a brief account on preformation theory.

(or)

b) Describe the structure of mammalian sperm with sketch.

12. a) Comment on the planes of cleavage. Add examples.

(or)

b) Describe the patterns of Cleavage.

13. a) Discuss allantoids and yolk sac with their significance.

(or)

b) How placenta are classified on the basis of types of tissues involved?

14. a) Write down the physiological changes that occur during amphian

metamorphosis.

(or)

b) Write a brief account on the organizer concept.

15. a) Write short notes on parturition and lactation.

(or)

b) Illustrate the necessity for birth control.

Part C


16. Describe the process of Oogenesis.

17. Elucidate the mechanism of gastrulaion of frog.

18. Illustrate the development of heart in frog.

19. Narrate the morphological changes that occur in amphibian

metamorphosis.

20. Explain the different contraceptive devices.

Question Code : B10103 Sub Code: U16HYC21



HISTORY OF INDIA (900AD TO 1761AD)

Time : 3 Hrs B.A (History) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Qutb-ud-din Aibak was the first ruler of __________ Dynasty

a) Slave b) Khilji c) Tughluq d) Sayyid

2. Iltumish was succeeded by

a) Sultana Raziya b) Nasir-ud-din

c) Sikkandar Lodi d) Ramacandra Deva

3. Regulation of prices was introduced by

a) Balban b) Jalaludin

c) Alaud Din Khilji d) Khizer Khan

4. Muhammad Bin Tughluq was succeeded by

a) Alaud Din b) Jalaud din

c) Ferosshah d) Nasiruddin

5. At Battle of Kanwah, Babur defeated

a) RanaSanga b) Ibrahim Lodi

c) Prithiviraj d) Hemu

6. Grand Trunk Roads were built by

a) Babar b) Humayun

c) Akbar d) Sher shah

7. ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ was written by

a) Mubarak Shah b) Ahmad Shah

c) AbulFazl d) Khizar Khan

8. Akbar’s guardian was

a) AbulFazl b) Bairam khan

c) Todarmal d) Tansen

9. Who was Guru of Shivaji?

a) Sambaji b) DadajiKondadev

c) Ramdas d) Jijabai

10. The Mughal emperor who was nicknamed as ‘Alamgir’

a) Aurangazeb b) Akbar

c) Shah Jahan d) Babur

Part B

Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks

11. a) Briefly discuss the achievements of Qutbud din Aibak.

(or)

b) Write a short note on Sultana Raziya.

12. a) What do you know about Ibrahim Lodi?

(or)

b) Discuss about the sources of Vijayanagar Empire.

13. a) Explain the conquests of Babur.

(or)

b) Write about success and failure of Humayun.

14. a) Sketch out the achievements of Jahangir.

(or)

b) Give a brief account of contributions of ShahJahan to Mughal

architecture.

15. a) Describe Aurangazeb’s Deccan Policy.

(or)

b) What were the results of Third Battle of Panipat?.

Part C

Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks

16. Explain the career and achievements of Balban.

17. Describe the achievements of Krishnadevaraya.

18. Explain the administration of Sher Shah.

19. Mark on the outline map provided the extent of Akbar’s Empire and

write note on his religious policy.

20. Trace the growth of Maratha power under Shivaji.




HISTORY OF TAMILNADU (1336AD TO 1800AD)


Part A


1. Name the last ruler of Madurai Nayaks?

a) Chockanathan b) Muthu Virappa

c) Minaxi d) Rani Mangammal

2. Who was given assistance to Viswanatha Nayak for the introduction of

Poligan system?

a) Ramappaian b) Ariya Natha Muthaliar

c) Rayasam d) Ragunatha Sethupathi

3. Who was ‘Dalavay’ in the administrative system of the Nayaks?

a) Finance Officer b) Prime Minister

c) Revenue Officer d) Governor General

4. Who started Chithirai festival at Madurai?

a) Tirumalai Nayak b) Arianatha Mudaliar

c) Rani Mangammal d) Velu Nachiar

5. Who was the last ruler of Tanjore Marathas?

a) Ekoji b) Venkoji

c) Serfoji III d) None

6. Name the court poet of Tanjore Marathas?

a) Sugadev b) Ramabhatra Dikshitar

c) Ramadev d) Pattabi Ayyar

7. Name the founder of Sethupathis of Ramnad?

a) Tirumalan Sethupathy b) Bhavani Sankar

c) Baskara d) Sadaikka Teva

8. During which ruler shifting of the capital to Ramanathapuram?

a) Kilavan Sethupathi b) Baskara Sethupathi

c) Ragunatha Sethupathi d) None

9. When was Kattabomman hanged?

a) 1756 b) 1796 c) 1798 d) 1799

10. Which was the arsenal of the South Indian Rebellion?

a) Madurai b) Dindigul c) Kalayarkoil d) Sivagangai

Part B


11. a) Write short notes on Madhura Vijayam.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Rani Mangammal.

12. a) Write short notes on Meenakshmi Temple complex.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Christianity in Tamilnad during the Nayaks.

13. a) Write short notes on Saraswathi Mahal library.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Ekoji.

14. a) Explain briefly about the Sultanate of Madurai.

(or)

b) Evaluate the contribution of Sethupathi’s towards art and

architecture.

15. a) Write short notes on Poolithevan.

(or)

b) Write short notes on South Indian confederacy.

Part C


16. Explain briefly the Nayaks of Tanjore.

17. Evaluate the Nayaks art and architecture.

18. Estimate the contribution of the Marathas of Tanjore towards art and literature.

19. Enumerate the features of Nawab’s administration.

20. Elucidate the Karnatic wars in Tamilnad.

Question Code : A10202 Sub Code: BHYAS21



MODERN POLITICAL THOUGHT


Part A


1. Hobbes borrowed the concept ‘Law of Nature’ from ________

a) Prof. Dunning b) Grotius

c) Prof. Maxcy d) Marsilio

2. Who is considered as the father of Modern Political Philosophy?

a) Thomas Hobbes b) John Locke

c) Jean Jaures d) Karl Marx

3. One of the greatest figure in the history of English political thought was

_________

a) John Locke b) Thomas Hobbes

c) Thomas Davidson d) Arthur Bentley

4. Greatest Happiness of Greatest Numbers advocated by _________

a) Bradb b) Bentham

c) David Hume d) Edmund Burke

5. French Revolution occurred in the year _________

a) 1787 b) 1786 c) 1789 d) 1788

6. Who was the British Philosopher promulgated the Theory of

Individualism?

a) Karl Marx b) Lenin

c) Thomas Hobbes d) Bradley

7. Socialism aims at _________

a) Suppressing working class b) Abolition of capitalism

c) Equal distribution of wealth d) Accumulation of wealth

8. The world Socialism originated from _________.

a) France b) Greece c) Italy d) Germany

9. Founder of Nazism is ________

a) Hitler b) Mussolini c) Nazar d) none of the above

10. ‘Guild Socialism’ has been described as ‘the intellectual child of

English Fabianism and French Syndicalism’ by

a) Barker b) Rockow

c) Alexander Gray d) Hobson

Part B


11. a) Explain the ideas Hobbe’s on the State of Nature.

(or)

b) Describe John Lock’s concept of Human Nature.

12. a) Narrate Rousseau’s Social theory.

(or)

b) Bentham’s ideas are different from J.S. Mill - Discuss.

13. a) Examine the essential characteristics of Bradley’s absolute

idealism.

(or)

b) Mention the political ideas of Hebert Spencer.

14. a) What is Lenin’s contribution of Marxism?

(or)

b) What are the basic principles of Socialism?

15. a) Give an account of Fascism.

(or)

b) Give an account of Nazism.

Part C


16. Explain the political philosophy of David Hume.

17. Write an essay on Utilitarianism.

18. Write an essay of Idealist Theory of State.

19. Discuss Karl Marx’s about the Theory of Class War.

20. Bring out the main principles of Imperialism.

Part B


4. Give an account of the origin and development of Brahmi Scripts.

5. Assess the works of Venkayya.

6. Assess the works of Robert Swell.

7. Bring out the importance of Uttiramerur inscriptions.

8. Bring out the importance of Kannanur inscriptions.

Question Code: B10402 Sub Code: U16HYS21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT – EPIGRAPHY


Part A


1. a) Explain briefly about Phonograph.

(or)

b) Write about Vattelluthu.

2. a) Describe about Copper plates.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Palm leaves.

3. a) Explain – Mahendra Varman Cave Inscriptions

(or)

b) Explain – Thiruparankuntram Inscriptions.

Part C


16. Show that the straight lines whose direction cosines are given by the

equations al + bm + cn = 0, ul2 + vm

2 + wn

2 = 0 are

(i) perpendicular if a2 (v + w) + b

2 (w + u) + c

2 (u + v) = 0 and

(ii) parallel if 0w

c

v

b

u

a 222

.

17. (i) Find the distance between the parallel planes 2x – 2y + z + 3 = 0 and

4x – 4y + 2z + 5 = 0.

(ii) Show that the origin lies in the acute angle between the planes

x + 2y + 2z = 9, 4x – 3y + 12z + 13 = 0. Find the planes bisecting the

angles between them and point out which bisects the obtuse angle.

18. Find the equations of the image of the line2

3z

5

2y

2

1x in the

plane 2x – 3y + 2z + 3 = 0 .

19. The straight lines ;n

z

m

y

l

x and ;

n

z

m

y

l

x

1

1

1

1

1

1

are cut by a third whose direction cosines are , , . Show that the

length intercepted on the third line is given by

111

111

111

nml

nml

nml

nml

and deduce the length of the S.D.

20. The plane ABC, whose equation is 1c

z

b

y

a

x, meets the axes in A,

B, C. Find the equation to the circumcircle of the triangle ABC and

obtain the co-ordinates of its centre and radius.

Question Code : B20103 Sub Code: U16MAC21



ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF THREE DIMENSIONS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. The direction cosines of the internal bisector of the angle between the

lines whose direction cosines are )n,m,l( 111 and )n,m,l( 222 are

proportional to ______.

a) l1 – l2, m1 – m2, n1 – n2 b) l1 + l2, m1 + m2, n1 + n2

c) l1l2, m1m2, n1n2 d) l1 / l2, m1 / m2, n1 / n2

2. The distance between the points (5, 3, –2) and (3, 2, 1) is ________

a)15 b) 14 c) 14 d) 23

3. The intercepts on the coordinate axes of the plane ax + by + cz = 1 are

_______ respectively.

a) 1, 1, 1 b) a, b, c c)c

1 ,

b

1 ,

a

1 d) –a, –b, –c

4. The direction cosines of the normal to the plane 4x – 3y + 2z – 1 = 0 are

________.

a) 4, –3, 2 b) 2

1 ,

3

1- ,

4

1 c) 2, – ,

2

31 d)

29

2 ,

29

3- ,

29

4

5. The equation of the line joining the points (x1, y1, z1) and (x2, y2, z2) is

________

a) 12

1

12

1

12

1

zz

zz

yy

yy

xx

xx b)

12

1

12

1

12

1

zz

zz

yy

yy

xx

xx

c) 12

1

12

1

12

1

zz

zz

yy

yy

xx

xx d)

12

1

12

1

12

1

zz

zz

yy

yy

xx

xx

6. The direction ratios of the line 3z2

3y4

3

3x2 are ______.

a) 3, 2, 1 b) 1 ,2

1 ,2

3

c) 1, 2

3 , –3 d) 1, 3, 0

7. The shortest distance between the lines n

zz

m

yy

l

xx 111

and n

zz

m

yy

l

xx 222 is _____.

a) 0 b) 0

nml

nml

zzyyxx

222

111

111

c) 0

nml

nml

zzyyxx

222

111

121212

d) none of these

8. If l1 and l2 be the given two lines, then the shortest distance line is

_________.

a) perpendicular to only l1 b) perpendicular to l2 alone

c) perpendicular to l1 or l2 d) perpendicular to both l1 and l2

9. The centre of the sphere x2 + y

2 + z

2 + 2x – 4y + 6z + 5 = 0 is

______.

a) (–1, 2, –3) b) 3 c) (1, –2, 3) d) (–2, 4, –6)

10. The origin lies outside the sphere

x2 + y

2 + z

2 + 2ux + 2vy + 3wz + d = 0 if d _________.

a) 0 b) < 0 c) = 0 d) > 0

Part B


11. a) i) Show that the points (–4, 5, 2), (–3, 4, 1) and (–6, 7, 4) are

collinear.

ii) Show that the points(10, 7, 0), (6, 6, –1) and (6, 9, –4) form an

isosceles right-angled triangle

(or)

b) Show that the four points (3, 2, 2), (–1, 1, 3), (0, 5, 6) and lie

on a sphere whose centre is (1, 3, 4). What is the radius of the sphere?

12. a) Find the equation of the plane passing through the points (2, 2, –1),

(3, 4, 2) and (7, 0, 6)

(or)

b) Find the equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 1, 2) and

perpendicular to the planes 2x – 2y – 4z = 3 and 3x + y + 6z = 4.

13. a) Find the angle between the plane (given in general form) and the line

(given in symmetrical form). Hence find the condition that the line is

parallel to the plane.

(or)

b) Show that the lines 2x + y + 3z – 7 = 0 = x – 2y + z – 5 and

4x + 4y – 8z = 0 = 10x – 8y + 7z are at right angles.

14. a) Find the shortest distance between the lines ;1

2z

2

4y

1

3x

2

2z

3

7y

1

1x

(or)

b) Prove that the lines ;2

1z

8

10y

3

1x

1

4z

7

1y

4

3x

are coplanar. Find also their point of intersection and the plane through

them

15. a) A plane passes through a fixed point (a, b, c) and cuts the axes in A,

B, C. Show that the locus of the centre of the sphere OABC is

.2z

c

y

b

x

a

(or)

b) Show that the plane 2x – y – 2z = 16 touches the sphere

x2 + y

2 + z

2 – 4x + 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 and find the point of contact.

18. a) Prove that ffgraddivfcurlcurl 2

b) Prove tha div r

= 3 and curl r

= 0, where r is the position

vector of a point (x, y, z) in space.

19. Evaluate s

dsn.f

where f

= (x3 – yz) i

– 2x

2y j

+ 2 k

and S is the

surface of the cube bounded by x = 0, y = 0, z = 0; x = a, y = a,

z = a.

20. Verify stoke’s theorem for f

= (2x – y) i

–yz2

j

– y2z k

where S is

the upper half surface of the sphere x2 + y

2 + z

2 = 1 and C is

boundary.




TRIGNONOMETRY AND VECTOR CALCULUS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. If x = cosθ + i sinθ, write down the value of n

n

xx

1 is _________

a) nn cos2 b) 2n

in cos

nθ c) 2

nsin

nθ d) 2

n in sin

nθ

2. tanθ in powers of θ is ___________

a) . . .53

53

b) . . . 42

142

c) ...15

2

3

53

d) ...32

32

3. cosh2x = ___________

a)2

sinh1 2 x b)

2

sinh1 2 x

c) 2

2cosh1 x d)

2

2cosh1 x

4. Log i3 = ___________

a) log2 + iπ/6 b) log2 + i(π/6 + 2nπ)

c) log2 – iπ/6 d) log2 – i(π/6 + 2nπ)

5. If f

= (x + 3y) i

+ (y – 2z) j

+ (x + az) k

is solenoidal, then the value of

a is ___________

a) 2 b) –2 c) 1 d) 0

6. If f

= xy i

+ yz j

+ zx k

then curlf is ___________

a) y i

+ z j

+ x k

b) –y i

– z j

– z k

c) x i

+ y j

+ z k

d) y i

+ z j

– x k

7. If C is the straight line joining (0,0,0) and (1,1,1) then

c

dr.r

is___________

a) 1/2 b) 1 c) 3/2 d) 2

8. The value of 1/3 s

dsn.r

= __________

a) 0 b) 1 c) V d) 3V

9. In Qauss divergence theorem S

dsnf

=__________

a) dv)f (V

b) dv f V

c) S

ds f

d) V

dv f

10. Green’s theorem connects

a) line integral and double integral

b) line integral and surface integral

c) double integral and surface integral

d. surface integral and volume integral

Part B


11. a) Express cos8θ in terms of sinθ.

(or)

b) If 5046

5045sin , show that θ = 1

058” approximately

12. a) If cos(x + iy) = cosθ + isinθ, prove that cos2x + cosh2y = 2

(or)

b) Reduce (α + iβ) x+iy to form A + iB.

13. a) If kyzx3jzxixyz2 22333

then find φ(x, y, z) if

φ(1, –2, 2) = 4.

(or)

b) Prove that rfr

2rf)r(f 12

.

14. a) If f

= yz i

+ zx j

+ xy k

, find rd.f

where C is given by x = t,

y = t2, z = t

3 from (0, 0, 0) to (2, 4, 8)

(or)

b) If V is the volume enclosed by a closed surface S and

f

= x i

+ 2y j

+ 3z k

show thats

dsn.f

= 6V

15. a) Using Green’s theorem and evaluate for the function

f

= (x2 + y2) i

– 2xy j

and C is the rectangle in the xy-plane bounded

by y = 0, y = b; x = 0 and x = a

(or)

b) Evaluate by using Stoke’s theorem ,xydzzxdyyzdxc

where C is

the curve x2 + y

2 = 1, z = y

2.

Part C


16. Express sin

6sin in terms of cosθ.

17. Separate into real and imaginary parts tan-1(x + iy).

Question Code : A20202 Sub Code: BMAAS21



ALLIED SUBJECT – MATHEMATICS – II

Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. Mdx + Ndy = 0 is said to be exact if____________.

a) = b) = c) = d) = .

2. The complementary function of + 9y = 0 is ___.

a) A B b) (A+Bx)

c) A B d) A B .

3. L ( ) = ________.

a) b) c) d) .

4. L{ } = ________.

a) L(y) sy(0) (0) b) L(y) sy(0) (0)

c) L(y) sy(0) (0) d) L(y) sy(0) (0).

5. In partial differential equation ‘s’ stands for

a) x

z b)

x

z c)

yx

z2

d) 2

2

y

z

6. Which of the following method is used to solve a partial differential

equation?

a) Lagrange b) Leibnitz c) Bernoulli d) Charpit

7. Which of the following is not a group?

a) (Z, +) b) (N, +) c) (Q, +) d) (R, +)

8. Which of the following is not a subgroup?

a) { e } G b) union of subgroups

c) (n , +) d) H = { an | n } where a

9. If = and = then = ____.

a) b)

c) d)

10. The group formed by set of all permutations under composition of

functions is called ________ group.

a) abelian b) permutation c) symmetric d) cyclic

Part B


11. a) Solve : (yexy

2y3)dx + (xe

xy6xy

22y)dy = 0.

(or)

b) Solve : (D2

2D )y = cos 2x.

12. a) Evaluate : L .

(or)

b) Evaluate :

13. a) Form the partial differential equation by eliminating a, b, c from

+ + = 1.

(or)

b) Solve: yzp + zxq = xy.

14. a) Show that the set G = {a+b / a, b Q} is a group with respect to

addition.

(or)

b) Show that H1 = {0, 2, 4, 6} and H2 = {0, 4} are subgroups of ( , )

15. a) Express the following permutations as a product of disjoint cycles.

i. ii.

iii.

(or)

b) Define the following: i. symmetric group ii. Transposition

Part C


16. Solve : (x3

– 3xy2)dx – (y

3 – 3x

2y)dy = 0.

17. Using Laplace transforms, solve ;tsinydy

dxtcosx

dt

dy given

x(0) = 2 and y(0) = 0.

18. Solve : (x2

yz)p + (y2

zx)q = (z2

xy).

19. a) Let G be a group. Let H = { a | a G and ax = xa for all x G}.

Show that H is a subgroup of G.

b) Prove that intersection of two subgroups is again a subgroup.

20. a) Define generator of a cyclic group. Prove that G = { 1, i. –1, –i} under

multiplication is a cyclic group and find all the generators of G.

b) Prove that any cyclic group is abelian.

Part C


16. Use the graphical method to solve the following LPP:

Minimize

.

17. Use the Simplex method to solve the following L.P.P:

Maximise Subject to the constraints:

4 .

18. Solve by dual Simplex Method Minimize z = 10 + 6 + 2

Subject to - + + 1; 3 + -

, , ≥ 0

19. Determine optimum solution the following TP schedule so that the

cost is minimized.

D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 Supply

S1 20 28 32 55 70 50

S2 48 36 40 44 25 100

S3 35 55 22 45 48 150

Required 100 70 50 40 40

20. Find the optimal solution for the assignment problem with following

cost matrix

Area

W X Y Z

A 42 35 28 21

Salesman B 30 25 20 15

C 30 25 20 15

D 24 20 16 12

Question Code : B20203 Sub Code: U16MAA22



ALLIED SUBJECT - MATHEMATICS - III

Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. A feasible solution to an LPP

a) must satisfy all of the problem’s constraints simultaneously.

b) must be a corner point of the feasible region.

c) need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them

d) must optimize the value of the objective function.

2. If two constraints do not intersect in the positive quadrant of the graph,

then

a) one of the constraint is redundant.

b) the solution is infeasible.

c) the solution is unbounded

d) none of these

3. To convert maximization problem into minimization we use

a) min z = – max(–z) b) min z = – max(z)

c) min z = max(z) d) min z = max(–z)

4. If an optimim solution is degenerate, then

a) the solution is infeasible

b) there are alternative optimim solutions

c) the solution is of no use to the decision maker

d) none of the above

5. The dual of the dual is

a) Dual b) Primal

c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above

6. Dual simplex method is applicable to the LPP’s that start with

a) an infeasible solution b) an infeasible but optimum solution

c) a feasible solution d) a feasible and optimum solution

7. The solution to a transportation problem with m-sources and n-

destinations is feasible, if the number of allocations are,

a) m + n –1 b) m + n + 1 c) m + n d) m x n

8. If we were to use opportunity cost ( ) value for non-basic

cell to test optimality, it should be

a) most negative number b) most positive number

c) equal to zero d) any value.

9. An assignment problem can be solved by

a) transportation method b) simplex method

c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above

10. The minimum number of lines covering all zeros in a reduced cost

matrix of order n can be

a) at the most n b) at the least n

c) n – 1 d) n + 1

Part B


11. a) A company makes two kinds of leather belts. Belt A is high

quality belt, and belt B is of lower quality. The respective profits

are Rs.4.00 and Rs 3.00 per belt. Each belt of type A requires twice

as much time as a belt of type B, and if all belts were of type B, then

company could make 1000 belts per day. The supply of leather is

sufficient for only 800 belts per day (Both A and B combined). Belt

A requires fancy buckle and only 400 buckles per day are available.

There are only 700 buckles a day available for belt B. Determine the

optimal product mix.

(or)

b) Explain about the unbound solution cases of LPP.

12. a) Write the role of pivot element in simplex table.

(or)

b) Find the maximum value of subject to the

constraints. ;

13. a) Write the dual of the following linear programming problem.

Minimize subject to the constraints

;

(or)

b) Obtain the dual of the following L.P.P.

Maximize subject to the constraints:

14. a) Explain about degenerate Transportation Problem.

(or)

b) Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to be the following T.P. using

NWC rule

D1 D2 D3 Capacity

O1 5 4 2 6

O2 4 7 6 8

O3 2 5 8 12

O4 8 6 7 4

Demand 8 10 12

where Oi and Dj denote ith and jth destination respectively

15. a) Explain unbalanced Assignment problem.

(or)

b) Find the optimal solution for the assignment problem with the

following cost matrix.

Salesman/ jobs J1 J2 J3 J4

C1 15 27 35 20

C2 21 28 33 17

C3 17 25 37 15

C4 14 31 39 21

i) The total number of marks obtained in February 2002 is

what percent of the total marks obtained in April 2001?

ii) What are the average marks obtained by the student in all

the periodical exams during the session?

iii) What is the percentage of marks obtained by the student

in the periodical exams of August 2001 and October

2001 taken together?

iv) In which periodical exams did the student obtain the

highest percentage increase in marks over the previous

periodical exams?

8. The line-graph gives the annual percent profit earned by a company

during the period 1995 – 2000. Study the graph then answer the

question.

%Profit = eExpenditur

eExpenditurIncomex 100

i) If the income in 1998 was Rs.264 crores, what was

the expenditure in 1998?

ii) During which the following years was the ratio of

income to expenditure the minimum?

iii) What is the average profit earned for the given years?

iv) During which year the ratio of percentage profit

earned to that in the previous year in the minimum?

Question Code: B20402 Sub Code: U16MAS21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT – DATA INTERPRETATION

Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. a) The table gives the sales of batteries manufactured by a company of the

years. Study the table and answer the questions.

Number of different types of batteries sold by a company over the years

(Number in Thousands)

Year Types of Batteries

4AH 7AH 32AH 35AH 55AH Total

1992 75 144 114 102 108 543

1993 90 126 102 84 126 528

1994 96 114 75 105 135 525

1995 105 90 150 90 75 510

1996 90 75 135 75 90 465

1997 105 60 165 45 120 495

1998 115 85 160 100 145 605

i) The total sales of all the seven years is the maximum for

which battery?

ii) What is the difference in the number of 35AH batteries sold

in 1993 and 1997?

iii) In the case of which battery there was a continuous decrease

in sales from 1992 to 1997?

iv) What was the approximate percentage increase in the sales of

55AH batteries in 1998 compared to that in 1992?

(or)

b) The table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states

P, Q, R, S, T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex.

Study the table and answer the questions:

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

Per

cen

t P

rofi

t

1 8

1

45

40

45

30

45

35

50

40 40

50

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

M N P Q R

X Y

Z

State Percentage of

population below

poverty line

Proportion of Males and Females

Below

poverty line

M : F

Above

poverty line

M : F

P 35 5 : 6 6 : 7

Q 25 3 : 5 4 : 5

R 24 1 : 2 2 : 3

S 19 3 : 2 4 : 3

T 15 5 : 3 3 : 2

i) What will be the number of females above poverty line in the

state S if it is known that the population of state S is 7

million?

ii) If the male population above poverty line for state R is 1.9

million, then find the total population of state R.

If the population of males below poverty line for state Q is

2.4 million and that for state T is 6 million, then find the total

population of states Q and T are in the ratio?

2. a) The graph gives the data of the production of paper by three different

companies X, Y and Z over the years. Study the graph and then answer.

i) What is the difference between the production of

company Z in 1998 and company Y in 1996?

i. Which company earned the maximum percentage profit in the year

2001?

ii. The companies M and N together had a percentage profit/loss of:

iii. In 2001 what was the approximate percentage of profit/loss of all

five companies taken together?

7. In a school the periodical examinations are held every second month. In

a section during Apr 2001 – Mar 2002, a student of class IX appeared for

each of the periodical exams. The aggregate marks obtained by him in

each periodical exam are represented the line graph.

Maximum total marks in each periodical exam = 500

360 365370

385

400405

330340350360370380390400410

Quan

tity

in L

akh t

ons

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

2 7

Expenditure

Income

Periodical Exams

1

5. A soft drink company prepares drinks of three different flavour – X,

Y and Z. The production of the three flavours over a period of six

years has been expressed in the bar graph. Study the graph then

answer the questions.

i. For which of the following years the percentage of rise / fall in

production from the previous year is maximum for the flavour Y?

ii. For which flavour was the average annual production maximum in

the given period?

iii. To total production of flavour Z in 1997 and 1998 is what

percentage of the total production of flavours X in 1995 and 1996?

iv. What is the difference between the average production of flavour X

in 1995, 1996 and 1997 and the average production of flavour Y in

1998, 1999 and 2000?

6. The bar graph shows the Income and expenditures

(in million US $) of five companies in the year 2001. The percent

profit or loss of a company is given by (Profit / loss ) % =

100eExpenditur

eExpenditurIncome. Study the graph and answer the

questions

ii) What is the ratio of the average production of company X in

the period 1998 – 2000 to the average production of company

Y in the same period?

iii) What is the percentage increase in the production of company

Y from 1996 to 1999?

iv) For which company the average production for five years is

maximum?

(or)

b) A cosmetic company produces five different products. The sales of

these five products (in lakh number of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are

shown in the bar-graph. Study the graph and then answer for the

questions.

i) In which case the sales have increased by nearly 55% from 1995 to

2000?

ii) In which case the minimum rate of increase in sales during 1995 –

2000? iii) The sales of Lipsticks is 2000 was by what percent more than the

sales of nail enamels in 2000? (rounded off to the nearest integer)

iv) The sales of conditioners in 1995 was by what percent less than the

sales of Shampoos in 1995? (rounded off to the nearest integer)

3. a) The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure

incurred in publishing a book. Study the chart and answer the questions.

50

40

55

45

60

50

5560

50

55

50

55

4550

60 60

4540

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

20.15

5.93

14.91

7.885.01

48.17

37.16

29.14

12.2110.19

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

Lipst icks Nail Enamels Talcum Shampoo Condit ioners

1995

2000

6

3

3

X Y Z

i) What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to

the expenditure incurred on Royalty?

ii) Which two expenditures together have a central angle of

108 ?

iii) If for an edition of the book, the cost of paper is

Rs. 56250, then find the promotion cost for this edition?

iv) Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by?

(or)

b) The line graph gives the percent profit earned by two companies

X and Y during the period 1996 – 2001. Study the graph then

answer the questions.

% Profit / loss = 100eExpenditur

eExpenditurIncome

i) If the expenditure of company Y in 1997 was Rs. 220 crores,

what was its income in 1997?

ii) If the incomes of the two companies were equal in 1999,

then what was the ratio of expenditure of company X to that

company Y in 1999?

Part B


4. The table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in

six different subjects in an examination. Study the table and answer the

questions.

Subject

(max

marks)

Maths

(150)

Chem

(130)

Phy

(120)

Geography

(100)

History

(60)

Comp.

Sci

(40)

Students

Ayush 90 50 90 60 70 80

Aman 100 80 80 40 80 70

Sajal 90 60 70 70 90 70

Rohit 80 65 80 80 60 60

Muskan 80 65 85 95 50 90

Tanvi 70 75 65 85 40 60

Tarun 65 35 50 77 80 80

i. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal in all the six

subjects

ii. What is the overall percentage of Tarun?

iii. Find the number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in

all subjects.

iv. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?

Royalty15%

Transportation cost10%

Promotion cost10%

Binding20%

Printing cost20%

Peper cost25%

45

35

50

60

50

55

40

45

55

50

65

50

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001

X

Y

4 5

Question Code : B25103 Sub Code: U16NDC21



FOOD SCIENCE – I

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (N & D with CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Raw papaya contains an enzyme called

a) Ripening b) Browning c) Papain d) All of these

2. Acids are formed by the _________ of the plant.

a) stem b) respiratory c) plant d) during cooking

3. Hydrogenated and saturated fatty acids are resistant to________

a) changes in odour b) colour

c) oxidation d) flavour

4. Antioxidants naturally present in the food is _______

a) Betacarotene b) Vitamin E

c) Vitamin C d) All of these

5. Food additives used to __________

a) Increase selflife b) reduce waste

c) enhance appearance d) all of these

6. Volatie flavour components of onion is _________

a) disulphides b) dimethyl sulphide

c) butanoic acid d) hexanoic acid

7. A good example for nutraceuticals is

a) Isoflavours b) Lutcin

c) a & b d) Tomato

8. Omega-3 fatty acids present in __________ foods.

a) salmon b) tea c) cocoa d) apples

9. Probiotics are _________ intended to have health benefits.

a) non-digestible fibre b) line microorganisms

c) dietary supplements d) all of these

10. Foods that are high in prebiotic fibre is

a) Legumes b) Oats c) Berries d) All of these

Part B


11. a) Discuss the classification of pigments.

(or)

b) Write the notes on non enzymatic browning reaction.

12. a) How will you prevent the rancidity during storage?

(or)

b) Explain the fortification. How will you improve the nutrient

content?

13. a) Discuss the flavour components occurring in foods.

(or)

b) Explain the benefits and ill effects of flavour.

14. a) Write notes on health benefits of functional foods.

(or)

b) Explain the functional foods of fruits and vegetables.

15. a) Discuss the difference between functional foods and

nutraceuticals.

(or)

b) Explain the importance of probiotics. Give examples.

Part C


16. Explain the enzymatic browning reactions and how will you prevent the

enzymatic browning reaction.

17. Write the difference between enriched and fortified foods.

18. Discuss on the classification of food additives.

19. Explain the plant source of functional foods.

20. Explain the role of probiotics and health benefits.

Question Code : B25104 Sub Code: U16NDC22



FOOD MICROBIOLOGY


Part A


1. Mycotoxin is a toxic substance produced by__________

a) Algae b) Fungi c) Bacteria d) Molds

2. Microbial growth in a food reduces______

a) PH b) Water activity

c) Redox potential d) None of these

3. The common black bread mould which forms branching stolons is _____

a) Rhizopus b) Mucor

c) Pencillium d) Aspergilus

4. Canned fruits are normally treated with low heat because of__________

a) High pH b) Low pH

c) Neutral d) None of the above

5. ________ are responsible for the spoilage of Ultra high temperature

processed milk.

a) Virus b) Bacillius subtilis

c) Moulds d) Pseudomonas

6. Spoilage of vacuum packed meat develops _________ odor

a) Sour acid b) Sour alkaline

c) Bitter acid d) None of the above

7. Spoilage of water is caused by__________

a) B. alli b) B. cinerea

c) Saprophytes d) None of the above

8. Which one of the following micro organisms involved in

fermentation Process?

a) Yeast b) Hyphae

c) Bacteria d) None of these

9. Food poisoning is a term applied to diseases caused by ________

a) Chemical b) Insects c) Microbes d) All of the above

10. Common organism responsible for enteritis is _________

a) Pseudomonas b) Salmonella

c) Micrococci d) Lactobacilli

Part B


11. a) What are the chemical agents used in the control of micro

organisms?

(or)

b) Describe the structure of a bacterial cell.

12. a) Write about the factors that cause spoilage of fruits and

vegetables.

(or)

b) Explain the chemical agents that prevent the food spoilage.

13. a) What are the factors influencing the growth of micro organisms in

meat?

(or)

b) Give an account of micro organisms associated with egg.

14. a) Explain the microbial analysis of milk.

(or)

b) Write about food intoxication.

15. a) What are the signs and symptoms associated with food borne disease?

(or)

b) Write short note on Botulism.

Part C


16. Explain in detail about the chemical agents that preserve food spoilage.

17. Discuss the organisms spoiling fruits and vegetables and state its

preventive measures.

18. Enumerate the spoilage of milk and milk products.

19. Describe in detail the bacteriological analysis of drinking water.

20. Elaborate any three water borne diseases with suitable examples.

Question Code : A25202 Sub Code: BNDAS21



OFFICE AUTOMATION – I


Part A


1. Which items are placed at the end of a document

a) Footer b) Foot Note c) End Note d) Header

2. The space left between the margin and the start of a paragraph is called

a) Spacing b) Gutter c) Indentation d) Alignment

3. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal

template?

a) 9 pt b) 12 pt c) 14 pt d) None of Above

4. AutoCorrect was originally designed to replace _________ words as you

type.

a) Grammatically incorrect b) Short, repetitive

c) Misspelled d) None of the above

5. DropCap means

a) Small Caps b) Title case

c) All Caps d) None of the above

6. It is possible to _______ a data source before performing a merge.

a) Modify b) Sort c) Create d) all of the above

7. You can activate a cell by

a) Pressing the Tab key b) Clicking the cell

c) Pressing an arrow key d) All of above

8. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet

called ?

a) Column b) Value c) Address d) Cell

9. When you use the fill effects in the format data series dialog box,

you can not

a) rotate text on the chart b) select a fore ground color

c) select a pattern d) select a background color

10. Which function in Excel tells how many numeric entries are there?

a) NUM b) COUNT c) SUM d) CHKNUM

Part B


11. a) How to use find and replace options in word? Explain in detail.

(or)

b) What is the purpose of cut, copy and paste in Word? Explain

briefly.

12. a) How to made Text Formatting in word? Explain.

(or)

b) Give the steps to insert bullets in word document.

13. a) What are the various options in spell checking in word?

(or)

b) Explain Mail-Merge techniques in word.

14. a) How to enter formulas in worksheet cells? Explain.

(or)

b) How to working with fonts in Excel?

15. a) How to enhance excel sheet using various functions?

(or)

b) Write down the Steps to Print Worksheet.

Part C


16. How to create new documents in ms-word? Explain.

17. What are the formatting features in word? Explain

18. Give the various methods to introduce tables in word

19. Explain Editing Features in Excel

20. Write down the options to customizing charts in excel.

Part B


4. Elaborate the various methods used to test the flour.

5. Mention the external bread faults. State its causes and remedies.

6. Explain the process of bread making.

7. Analyse the characteristics of cake.

8. How do you prepare the following

a. Fatless sponge cake

b. Christmas cake

c. Plain biscuit

Question Code: B25402 Sub Code: U16NDS21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT – BAKERY


Part A


1. a) Explain the different types of fat and write its functions in baking.

(or)

b) State the types, functions and uses of yeast in baking.

2. a) Explain the following methods of bread making.

i) Straight dough method

ii) Salt delayed method

iii) No dough time method

(or)

b) Examine the internal bread faults. State its causes and remedies.

3. a) Write about the fondant icing and gum paste.

(or)

b) Write the role of the ingredients used in biscuits

Question Code : B50105/ B51104 Sub Code: P16COC21/

P16MCC21



OPERATIONS RESEARCH

Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Operations Research is a __________ science.

a) pure b) problem solving

c) decision making d) problem solving & decision making

2. LLP has __________ important features in common.

a) one b) two c) three d) four

3. In transportation problem, which method gives the best result?

a) NWC b) LCM c) VAM d) All the above

4. _________ method is used to solve an assignment problem.

a) Stepping Stone b) MODI

c) Hungarian d) All the above

5. _________ is a strategy, a player plays all the time.

a) Negotiable b) Strategy

c) Pure strategy d) Mixed strategy

6. A game in which bargaining coalitions threats between players are

allowed is called:

a) negotiable b) strategy

c) pure strategy d) mixed strategy

1

7. ________ is customers deciding not to join the queue if it is too

long.

a) Jockeying b) Balking

c) Reneging d) Patient

8. In queuing theory the distribution is used to describe service times

as________.

a) binomial b) normal c) exponential d) none of these

9. In the network diagram, an event is represented by ________

a) an arrow b) a circle

c) an arrow and a circle d) none

10. When more than one activity leaves an event, the event is known as

_________

a) merge b) burst c) merge & burst d) none

Part B


11. a) What do you mean by Model in Operations Research? State the

classification of Operations Research.

(or)

b) Explain the scope of Operations Research.

12. a) The following transportation problem involving three sources and

four destinations. The cell entries represent the cost of transportation

per unit.

Source

Destination

1 2 3 4 Supply

1

2

3

3

2

8

1

6

3

7

5

3

4

9

2

300

400

500

Demand 250 350 400 200 1200

2

19. The rate of arrival of customers at a public telephone booth follows

Poisson distribution, with an average time of 10 minutes between

one customer and the next. The duration of a phone call is assumed

to follow exponential Distribution, with mean time of 3 minutes.

i. What is the probability that a person arriving at the booth will

have to wait?

ii. What is the average length of the non-empty queues that form

from time to time?

iii. The Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. will install a second

booth when it is convinced that the customers would expect

waiting for at least 3 minutes for their turn to make a call. By

how much time should the flow of customers increase in order to

justify a second booth?

iv. Estimate the fraction of a day that the phone will be in use.

20. A Project has the following data:

Activity 1,2 1,3 1,4 2,5 2,6 3,6 4,7 5,7 6,7

Task A B C D E F G H I

Optimistic time 3 2 6 2 5 3 3 1 2

Pessimistic time 15 14 30 8 17 15 27 7 8

Most likely time 6 5 12 5 11 6 9 4 5

Determine:

i. Expected task times and their variance.

ii. The earliest and latest expected times to reach each event.

iii. The critical path.

iv. The probability of an event occurring at the proposed completion

date if the original contract time of completing the project is 27

days.

Obtain the initial basic feasible solution using the following methods:

i. Northwest corner method

ii. Least cost method

(or)

b) Assign four sales persons to four different sales regions as shown in

the following table such that the total sales is maximized.

salesman

Sales region

1 2 3 4

1 10 22 12 14

2 16 18 22 10

3 24 20 12 18

4 16 14 24 20

The cell entries represent annual sales figures in lakhs of rupees.

Find the optimal allocation of the sales persons in different regions.

13. a) What is ‘Game theory’? Discuss its importance in business decisions.

(or)

b) Consider pay-off matrix with respect to Player A and solve it

optimally.

Player B

1 2

Player A 1 6 9

2 8 4

14. a) The mean rate of arrival of planes at an airport during the peak period

is 20 per hour, and the actual number of arrivals in any hour follows a

Poisson distribution. The airport can land 60 planes per hour on an

average in good weather and 30 planes per hour in bad weather, but the

actual number landed in any hour follows a Poisson distribution with

these respective averages. When there is congestion, the planes are

forced to fly over the field in the stack awaiting for the landing of other

planes that arrived earlier;

i) How many planes would be flying over the field in the stack on an

average in good weather and in bad weather?

(ii) How long a plane would be in the stack and in the process of landing

in good and in bad weather?

6 3

(or)

b) An airlines organization has one reservation clerk on duty in its

local branch at any given time. The clerk handles information

regarding passenger reservation and flight timings. Assume that the

number of customers arriving during any given period is Poisson

distributed with an arrival rate of eight per hour and that the

reservation clerk can serve a customer in six minutes on an average,

with an exponentially distributed service time.

i. What is the probability that the system is busy?

ii. What is the average time a customer spends in the system?

iii. What is the average length of the queue and what is the

number of customers in the system?

15. a) A small maintenance project consists of the following twelve jobs

whose precedence relations are identified with their node numbers:

Job (i,j) (1,2) (1,3) (1,4) (2,3) (2,5) (2,6) (3,7) (4,5) (5,6) (6,7) (6,8) (7,8)

Duration

(in days) 10 4 6 5 12 9 12 15 6 5 4 7

i. Draw an arrow diagram representing the project.

ii. Calculate earliest start, earliest finish, latest start and latest

finish time for all the jobs.

iii. Find the critical path and project duration.

(or)

b) From the following information find the critical path:

Activity time (days) Preceding

activities

Activity time

(days)

Preceding

activities

A 2 - I 10 H

B 2 - J 7 I

C 4 - K 6 C,D

D 6 B L 2 C,D

E 1 B M 2 C,D

F 1 A,E N 1 J

G 3 C,D O 2 M

H 45 G

Part C


16. Maximize Z= 6x1 + 4x2

Subject to the constraints x1 + 2x2 720 ; 2x1 + x2 780;

x1 320; x1 0, and x2 0

17. A company has four factories F1, F2, F3 and F4 manufacturing the same

product. Production and raw material costs differ from factory to factory

and are given in the following table in the first two rows. The

transportation costs from the factories to the sales depots, S1, S2, S3 are

also given. The last two columns in the table give the sales price and the

total requirement at each depot. The production capacity of each factory

is given in the last row.

F1 F2 F3 F4 Sales

per unit

Requir

ement

Production cost

/ unit

Raw material

cost / unit

Transportation

cost / unit

Supply

S1

S2

S3

15

10

3

1

5

10

18

9

9

7

8

150

14

12

5

4

3

50

13

9

4

5

6

100

34

32

31

80

120

150

Determine the most profitable production and distribution schedule and

the corresponding profit.

18. Consider 4 X 4 game played by players A and B and solve it optimally.

Player B

1 2 3 4

1 6 2 4 8

Player A 2 2 –1 1 12

3 2 3 3 9

4 5 2 6 10

4 5

20. The following is a summary of the trading and profit and loss

account of Messrs Alpha Manufacturing Co. Ltd for the year ended

31st March 2017.

Rs. Rs.

To material

consumed

27,40,000 By sales (1,20,000

units)

60,00,000

To wages 15,10,000 By finished stock

(4,000 units)

1,60,000

To factory expenses 8,30,000 By work in progress

To administration

expenses

3,82,400 Materials 64,000

To selling and

distribution expenses

4,50,000 Wages 36,000

To preliminary

expenses (written

off)

40,000 Factory

expenses

20,000

To goodwill (written

off)

20,000 1,20,000

To Net profit 3,25,600 By dividend

received

18,000

62,98,000 62,98,000

The company manufactures a standard unit. In the cost accounts

i) Factory expenses have been recovered from production at

20 percent on prime cost.

ii) Administration expenses at Rs.3 per unit on units

produced.

iii) Selling and distribution expenses at Rs.4 per unit on units

sold.

You are required to prepare a statement of cost and profit in cost

books of the company and to reconcile the profit disclosed with that

shown in the financial accounts.

Question Code : B50106 / B51105 Sub Code:P16COC22/

P16MCC22



COST ACCOUNTING

Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks: Part A


1. Basic objective of cost accounting is

a) Tax compliance b) Financial audit

c) Cost Ascertainment d) none of these

2. Warehouse rent is a part of

a) Prime cost b) Distribution overhead

c) Selling overhead d) Factory overhead

3. ABC analysis is

a) Always Better Control b) Advantage of Better Control

c) At Best Control d) None of the above

4. Time wages are paid on the basis of

a) Standard time b) Time saved

c) Output produced d) Actual time

5. Overhead is also known as

a) On cost b) Basic cost c) Extra cost d) Chargeable expenses

6. Appropriate basis for apportionment of material handling charges is

a) Material purchased b) Material in stock

c) Material consumed d) Material wasted

7. Job costing is the most suitable method for

a) Oil processing units b) Transport companies

c) Sugar industry d) Repair shops

1

1 8

8. Scrap value of normal loss is

a) Credited to P & L a/c b) Show in Balance sheet

c) Credited to Process a/c d) Debited to Process account

9. Reconciliation is usually done between

a) Gross profit and net profit

b) Previous year’s profit and current year’s profit

c) Costing profit and Financial accounts profit


10. Over valuation of opening stock in financial accounts

a) Decreases costing profit b) Increases Financial accounts profit

c) Decreases Financial accounts profit


Part B


11. a) Define cost accounting. What are its objectives?

(or)

b) M/s Indhu Industries Ltd are the manufacturers of moon light

torches. The following data relate to manufacture of torches during

the month of March 2017.

Raw materials consumed Rs. 20,000

Direct wages Rs. 12,000

Machine hours worked 9,500 hours

Machine hour rate Rs. 2

Office overheads 20% of works cost

Selling overheads 50 paise per unit

Units produced 20,000 units

Units sold 18,000 @ Rs.5 per unit

Prepare cost sheet showing the cost and the profit per unit

and the total profit earned.

H.P. Machines 60 30 50 10 -

Light points 10 15 20 10 5

Floor space (sq. ft) 2,000 2,500 3,000 2,000 500

The following figures extracted from the accounting records are relevant.

Rent and rates Rs.5,000 General Lighting Rs.600, Indirect wages

Rs.1,939; Power Rs.1,500; Depreciation on Machine Rs.10,000 and

Sundries Rs.9,695

The expenses of the Service departments are allocated as under:

P1 P2 P3 S1 S2

S1 20% 30% 40% - 10%

S2 40% 20% 30% 10% -

Find out the total cost of product ‘X’ which is processed for

manufacture in Department P1, P2 and P3 for 4, 5 and 3 hours respectively,

given that its Direct material cost is Rs.50 and Direct Labour cost Rs.30.

19. Bengal Chemical Co. Ltd produced three chemicals during the month of

July 2017 by three consecutive processes. In each process 2% of the total

weight put in is lost and 10% is scrap which from processes (1) and (2)

realizes Rs.100 a ton and from process (3) Rs.20 a ton.

The products of three processes are dealt with as follows:

Process 1 Process 2 Process 3

Passed on to the

next process

75% 50% -

Sent to warehouse

for sale

25% 50% 100%

Expenses incurred

Process 1 Process 2 Process 3

Rs. Tons Rs. Tons Rs. Tons

Raw materials 1,20,000 1,000 28,000 140 1,07,840 1348

Manufacturing

wages

20,500 - 18,520 - 15,000 -

General expenses 10,300 - 7,240 - 3,100 -

Prepare process cost accounts showing the cost per ton of each

product.

7 2

d) Interest charged but not considered in financial accounts –

Rs.6,000

e) Preliminary expenses written off – Rs.13,000

f) Overhead expenses charged in financial accounts are

Rs.1,21,200 but overheads recovered in cost accounts are

Rs.1,26,000

Find out the profit as per financial accounts by drawing up a

reconciliation statement.

Part C


16. State and explain the main differences between financial accounting

and cost accounting.

17. Show the stores ledger entries as they would appear when using:

a) The weighted average method

b) The simple average method of pricing issues, in connection with

the following transactions.

Unit Price Rs.

April 1 Balance in hand b/f 300 2.00

2 Purchased 200 2.20

4 Issued 150


11 Issued 150

19 Issued 200


27 Issued 150

In a period of rising prices such as the above, what are the

effects of each method?

18. Modern Manufacturers Ltd., have three production departments P1,

P2, P3 and two service departments S1 and S2 the details pertaining to

which are as under.

P1 P2 P3 S1 S2

Direct wages (Rs.) 3,000 2,000 3,000 1,500 195

Working hours 3070 4475 2419 - -

Value of

Machines(Rs.)

60,000 80,000 1,00,000 5,000 5,000

12. a) Find out the economic ordering quantity(E.O.Q) from the following

particulars and also show a graph identifying economic ordering

quantity.

Annual usage : 6,000 units

Cost of material per unit : Rs. 20

Cost of placing and receiving one order : Rs. 60

Annual carrying cost of one unit : 10% of inventory value

(or)

b) From the particulars given below, prepare labour cost per man-day of

8 hours

a) Basic Salary Rs. 2 per day

b) Dearness allowance 25 paise per every point over

100 cost of living index for

working class. Current cost of

living index is 700 points.

c) Leave Salary 10% of (a) and (b)

d) Employer’s contribution to

provident fund

8% of (a), (b) and (c)

e) Employer’s contribution to

state insurance

2.5% of (a) , (b) and (c)

f) Expenditure on amenities

to labour

Rs. 20 per head per mensem

h) Number of working days

in a month

25 days of 8 hours each

13. a) A company has three production departments and two service

departments their respective expenditures are given below.

Production Departments Service Departments

A – Rs. 800 X – Rs. 234

B – Rs. 700 Y – Rs. 300

C – Rs. 500

Service departments give service in the following manner to

various departments.

Service departments A B C X Y

X 20% 40% 30% - 10%

Y 40% 20% 20% 20% -

6 3

You are required to show the distribution of service

department overheads under simultaneous equation method.

(or)

b) Calculate Machine hour rate from the following:

i. Cost of machine Rs. 19, 200

ii. Estimated scrap value Rs.1,200

iii. Average repairs and maintenance charges per month Rs.150

iv. Standing charges allocated to machine per month Rs. 50

v. Effective working life of machine 10,000 hours.

vi. Running time per month 166 hours

vii. Power used by machine : 5 units per hour @ 19 paise per

unit.

14. a) Distinguish between Job costing and contract costing.

(or)

b) A newly appointed cost accountant, you find that the selling price

of Job No. 1234 has been calculated on the following basis:

Rs.

Materials 12.08

Direct wages – 22 hours at 25 paise per

hour

5.50

(Department A = 10 hours, B = 4 hours and

C = 8 hours)

17.58

Plus 33 31 % on prime cost 5.86

23.44

An analysis of the previous year’s profit and loss account

shows the following:

Rs. Rs.

Materials used 77,500 Factory overheads

Direct wages A 2,500

A 5,000 B 4,000

B 6,000 C 1,000

C 4,000 Selling costs 30,000

You are required to (a) draw up a job cost sheet (b) calculate

and enter the revised costs using the previous years figures as basis:

(c) add to the total job cost 10% for profit and give the final selling price.

15. a) Profit disclosed by a Company’s cost accounts for the year was

Rs.50,000, whereas the net profit as disclosed by the financial accounts

was Rs.29,750. Following information is available.

a) Overheads as per cost accounts were estimated at Rs.8,500.

The charge for the year shown by the financial accounts

was Rs.7,000

b) Director’s fees shown in the financial accounts only for

Rs.2,000

c) The company allowed Rs.5,000 as prevision for doubtful

debts

d) Work was commenced during the year on a new factory

and expenditure of Rs.30,000 was made. Depreciation at 5

percent p.a. was provided for in the financial accounts for 6

months

e) Share – transfer fees received during the year were

Rs.1,000

f) Provision for income tax was Rs.15,000

From the above, prepare a statement reconciling the figures

shown by the cost and financial accounts.

(or)

b) The profit as per cost accounts is Rs.1,65,300. The following details

are ascertained on comparison of cost financial accounts.

Cost accounts

Rs.

Financial

accounts Rs.

a) Opening stocks

Materials 32,600 33,000

Work-in-progress 20,000 21,000

b) Closing stocks

Materials 36,000 34,400

Work-in-progress 16,000 15,200

c) Interest remitted but ignored in cost accounts – Rs. 800

4 5

Question Code : B50107 Sub Code: P16COC23



COMPANY LAW

Time : 3 Hrs M.Com Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Neyveli Lignite Corporation is an example of

a) Registered Company b) Statutory Company

c) Chartered Company d) Government Company

2. A Company limited by shares

a) has unlimited liability b) has a perpetual succession

c) comes to an end on the death of all the members


3. The Charter of a Company is its

a) Articles of Association b) Prospectus

c) Statement in lieu of prospectus d) Memorandum of Association

4. The Articles of Association of a Company can be altered by passing

a) a special resolution b) an ordinary resolution

c) a resolution with special notice d) no resolution is required

5. The secretary of a company may be

a) any individual, firm or body corporate

b) only an individual

c) only a body corporate and

d) only a firm

6. Unless the Articles provide for the retirement of all directors at

every annual general Meeting, atleast

a) two thirds b) one third

c) one half of the total number of directors are liable to retire by

rotation

d) three fourth

7. The notice for a general meeting of a company must be given atleast

a) 7 days b) 14 days

c) 21 days d) 30 days before the meeting

8. A special resolution must be filed with the Registrar for registration

within

a) 14 days b) 21 days

c) 30 days d) 45 days of its passing

9. A company may be wound up by the court

a) by passing an ordinary resolution

b) by passing special resolution

c) If the Memorandum permits such winding up


10. An official Liquidator is appointed by the

a) Central Government b) Registrar of Companies

c) Court d) Creditors

Part B


11. a) Define a Company. What are its features?

(or)

b) What is a Private Company? What are its Privileges?

12. a) What is Memorandum of Association? What are its contents?

(or)

b) Enumerate the contents of Articles of Association.

13. a) State the Qualification and Disqualification of a Director in a

Company.

(or)

b) State the Provisions of the Companies Act regarding the appointment

of an Auditor in a company.

14. a) Briefly explain the Provisions relating to the conduct of Annual

General Meeting in a company?

(or)

b) Write a short notes on:

a) Agenda b) Quorum c) Minutes

15. a) State the provisions of the Companies Act with regard to winding up

of the company by Court.

(or)

b) State the consequences of Winding up order.

Part C


16. Briefly describe the documents to be filled with the Registrar of

Companies prior to incorporation.

17. Explain the Liabilities for misstatement in the Prospectus.

18. Discuss the powers and duties of a Director of a company under the

companies Act.

19. Explain the various types of resolutions which may be passed in a

meeting of the shareholders.

20. State the Duties and Powers of the Official Liquidator in case of winding

up.

Question Code : B50108 Sub Code: P16COC24



COMPUTER AND OFFICE AUTOMATION

Time : 3 Hrs M.Com Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Which characteristic is used to measuring the computing power of the

computer?

a) Speed b) Storage c) Word Length d) Accuracy

2. What is the second generation computer?

a) Vacuum Tubes b) IC

c) Microprocessor d) Transistor

3. Line spacing option is available in which dialog box?

a) Font b) Paragraph

c) Table Properties d) Page Setup

4. _________ option is used the text in rows and columns wise in MS

Word.

a) Table b) Chart

c) Columns d) None of these

5. =Average() is the function of __________

a) Financial b) Statistical

c) Math and Trig d) Text

6. One of the calculated graphical representation of data in MS Excel is

a) Chart b) Flowchart

c) Object d) Picture

7. PowerPoint is an _________ based application.

a) Document b) Database c) Table d) Slide

8. Continuous movement of slide content is called as

a) Imagination b) Animation

c) Slide Show d) None of these

9. ___________ provides the tools for creating fields in a table?

a) Design view b) Drawing view

c) Table view d) Both a and b

10. How many data types are available in table design view of MS-

Access?

a) 20 b) 8 c) 6 d) 10

Part B


11. a) Explain the characteristics of computers.

(or)

b) Define the following earlier computers.

i) ENIAC ii) EDSAC iii) UNIVAC.

12. a) How do you find and replacing the text in MS-Word?

(or)

b) How do we check the spelling errors in MS-Word?

13. a) Discuss about the moving and copying worksheets in MS-Excel.

(or)

b) Write notes on inserting and deleting rows and columns in MS-

Excel.

14. a) Explain the steps for creating the new slide.

(or)

b) What are the steps to inserting pictures and clip arts in slide?

15. a) Give the notes for creating forms using wizard.

(or)

b) Write shortly about creating reports using wizard.

Part C


16. Discuss about the Computer Architecture and Organization.

17. How to Format the document in MS-Word?

18. Explain about functions of Excel in detail.

19. Write short notes on creating the presentation.

20. Discuss about creating the tables in design view with figure.

Question Code : B50303/ B51303 Sub Code: P16COE21 /

P16MCE21



RESEARCH METHODS IN COMMERCE


Part A


1. ________ study is for assessing the effectiveness of social programmes

implemented on the development of the project area.

a) Descriptive b) Analytical

c) Evaluation d) Exploratory

2. Developing the ideas through discussion is known as _________

a) experience survey b) secondary data

c) primary data d) analytical survey

3. _________ sample is not a probability sample design.

a) cluster b) convenience c) stratified d) quota

4. _________ is suitable method of collecting data in cases where the

informants are literate and spread over a vast area.

a) Mailed questionnaire b) Information through agencies

c) Schedules d) Interview

5. The degree of contingency table is on the basis of __________

a) n –1 b) c – 1 c) r – 1 d) (c – 1) (r – 1)

6. In two tailed test, the acceptance region is represented as ________

a) Z = 1 b) Z = 0 c) Z 0 d) Z > 0

7. _________ scale is also known as summated scale

a) Judgement b) Arbitrary c) Social distance d) Likert’s

8. _________ attribute statements are asked to the respondents to agree

or disagree to test the attributes.

a) 10 to 15 b) 5 to 25 c) 1 to 5 d) 25 to 30

9. In chronological classification data are classified on the basis of

__________

a) attributes b) class interval

c) time d) location

10. _________ report is prepared for the consumption of the lay

audience

a) Summary b) Interim

c) Popular d) Research article

Part B


11. a) Define research. What are its characteristics?

(or)

b) Write short note on a) Descriptive Research

b) Action Research

12. a) Distinguish between Questionnaire and schedule.

(or)

b) What are the factors determining non-sampling errors?

13. a) Point out the limitations of hypothesis.

(or)

b) What are the characteristics of hypothesis?

14. a) What are the categories for measurement of scales?

(or)

b) Explain the classification of scales.

15. a) What are the techniques of Interpretation of data?

(or)

b) Define a research report and explain its purposes.

Part C


16. Enumerate the elements of research design.

17. Describe about the types of non-probability sampling.

18. Explain about the procedure for testing of hypothesis.

19. Explain in detail about the Likert five point scaling technique.

20. Discuss the contents of a research report.

Question Code : B51106 Sub Code: P16MCC23



JAVA PROGRAMMING

Time : 3 Hrs M.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10

marks

1. The Java compiler

a) create executable b) creates classes

c) translates java source code to byte code

d) produces java interpreter

2. Modulus (%) operator can be applied to

a) integers b) floats c) chars d) both a & b

3. The _____ is an exit-controlled loop statement

a) if b) while c) do-while d) for

4. The _____ statement is also known as multi way decision statement.

a) Switch b) while c) do..while d) for

5. _____ is used when objects are required to perform similar tasks but

using different input parameters.

a) Constructors b) Destructors

c) Overloading d) Recursion.

6. Objects in Java are created using the _____ operator.

a) new b) dot c) * d) none

7. _____ method gives substring starting from nth

character upto mth

.

a) s1.chartAt(n) b) s1.substring(n,m)

c) s1.length d) s1.substring(m,n)

8. The _____ method is the heart and soul of any thread.

a) run() b) stop() c) start() d) wait().

9. The applet code uses the services of two _____.

a) classes b) objects c) modules d) methods

10. Applets are small java programs that are primarily used in _____

computing.

a) distributed b) internet c) parallel d) hybrid

Part B


11. a) Explain about the Java tokens.

OR

b) Discuss various data types in java with examples.

12. a) Explain switch statement with example.

OR

b) Write a java program to count the even and odd numbers from the

given list

13. a) Describe Constructor with example.

OR

b) Briefly write about Visibility controls.

14. a) How will you extend thread class? Explain.

OR

b) What are the commonly used string methods? Explain..

15. a) How will you build applet code? Explain.

OR

b) Explain the attributes of APPLET tag.

Part C


16. Explain the different operators used in java.

17. With sample java code explain different looping statements in Java.

18. Illustrate the concept of Inheritance in java.

19. Explain about single dimensional and multi dimensional arrays in java

with example.

20. Explain applet life cycle with example.

Question Code: B63105 Sub Code: P16CSC21



RELATIONAL DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. DML is a language that enables users to________

a) Access and manipulate data b) To access data

c) To manipulate data d) None of the above

2. Data about data is normally termed as________

a) Directory b) Data bank

c) Metadata d) Operating system

3. The E-R data model represents________

a) Overall structure of table b) Overall structure of database

c) Mapping structure d) Entity relationship

4. A set of possible data values called________

a) Attributes b) Tuple c) Degree d) Domain

5. A transaction that is inserting a new tuple into database is given an________

a) Shared lock b) Mutual lock

c) Exclusive lock d) No lock

6. A time stamp-ordering scheme ensures________

a) Serializability b) Cascading

c) Atomicity d) Consistency

7. ________ query is a type of DDL

a) Insert b) Update c) Delete d) Create

8. WHERE clause can be used in ________ statements

a) Select b) Delete c) Update d) All of the above

9. The concept of joining multiple tables is called

a) Cross join b) Outer join

c) Equal join d) Inner join

10. How many types of indexes are there in sql server?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Part B

Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks

11. a) Describe the major advantages and disadvantages of Database

systems.

(or)

b) List the main functions of database administration.

12. a) Explain the distinction among the terms primary key, candidate key

and super key.

(or)

b) Write short notes about Decomposition using multivalued.

13. a) Write short notes about Deadlock handling.

(or)

b) Explain the categories of Failure classification.

14. a) Explain modifying data in a table with an example.

(or)

b) Explain about removing a record from a table with an example.

15. a) What is an index? How various types of indexes are created? Explain the

syntax with example.

(or)

b) Explain about subqueries with an example.

Part C


16. Explain the following :

a. Tuple relational calculus

b. Domain relational calculus

17. Briefly explain about ER diagram with an example.

18. Explain about transactions and concurrency control.

19. Create a table with an example. Explain how to insert and view a data from a

table.

20. Explain the structure of PL/SQL block, and create a simple program with

PL/SQL.




DATA COMMUNICATIONS AND NETWORKING


Part A


1. ___________ is a set of rules that govern data communication.

a) Protocol b) Medium c) Semantic d) Datagram

2. Which layer is concerned with the syntax and semantics of the information

exchanged between two systems?

a) Physical b) Presentation

c) Application d) Session

3. Which transmission mechanism requires only one communication channel?

a) Serial b) Parallel c) Universal d) Multiple

4. ___________multiplexing is a technique used when the data rate of an input

line is a multiple of other.

a) Slot b) Allocation c) Stuffing d) Multilevel

5. In __________ propagation, very high frequency signals are transmitted in

straight lines directly from antenna to antenna.

a) ground b) sky

c) line of straight d) tropical

6. Datagram switching is normally done at the __________

a) network layer b) physical layer

c) data link layer d) session layer

7. ___________refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of

data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgement.

a) Error control b) Flow control

c) Data control d) Line control

8. ____________technique is used to improve the efficiency of the

bidirectional protocol.

a) polling b) piggybacking c) stuffing d) framing

9. ____________is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the

same flow.

a) Jitter b) Delay c) Error flow d) Flow control

10. In__________ queueing, packets wait in a buffer until the node is ready

to process them.

a) LIFO b) FIFO c) sequence d) synchronous

Part B


11. a) Write about the key elements of a protocol.

(or)

b) Write about presentation layer and application layer.

12. a) Write about the serial transmission.

(or)

b) Write about delta modulation.

13. a) Write about coaxial cable.

(or)

b) Write about Block coding.

14. a) Write about bit oriented framing.

(or)

b) Write about channelization.

15. a) Write about closed loop congestion control.

(or)

b) Write about the four types of characteristics that are attributed to the flow

related to quality of service.

Part C


16. Explain periodic analog signals.

17. Explain digital to analog conversion.

18. Explain cyclic redundancy check.

19. Explain framing.

20. Explain integrated services related to quality of service.




SYSTEM SOFTWARE


Part A


1. In SIC/XE machine instructions are stored in _________format.

a) 48 bit b) 8 bit c)16 bit d) 24 bit

2. __________register contains the address of the next instruction to be

fetched for execution.

a) A b) X c) SW d) PC

3. Translator for low level language into machine level language is termed as

_________

a) Assembler b) Compiler c) Linker d) Loader

4. The assembler stores all the names and their corresponding values

in________.

a) Special purpose Register b) registers

c) Value map Set d) Symbol Table

5. The utility program used to bring the object code into memory for execution

called as __________.

a) Loader b) Fetcher c) Extractor d) Linker

6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always?

a) Text editor b) Assembler c) Linker d) Loader

7. A macro calls on another macro is called ________macro call.

a) nested b) repeat

c) overloading d) recursive

8. A macro within a macro is called________

a) macro-within-macro b) nested macro

c) macro-in-macro d) recursive

9. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is

called_________.

a) Ambiguous b) Unambiguous

c) Regular d) Recursive

10. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

a) Parser b) Code optimization

c) Code generator d) Lexical analyser

Part B


11. a) Give the description about the registers, data formats, instruction

formats, Instruction set and addressing modes of a SIC machine.

(or)

b) Write about RISC machines.

12. a) Describe how Multipass Assembler performs assembling process.

(or)

b) Explain the various design options of an assembler other than two

pass assembler.

13. a) What are the functions of Linkage Editor?

(or)

b) What are the functions of an Absolute Loader? Explain.

14. a) Give description about Conditional Macro Expansion in Macros.

(or)

b) What are Keyword Macro parameters? Discuss with examples.

15. a) Discuss about the code optimization phases of a compiler.

(or)

b) Write about the Machine Independent Compiler features.

Part C


16. Give the Architecture of SIC/XE machine.

17. Explain the functions of Two Pass Assembler Algorithm.

18. Explain about the working principles of a Loader.

19. Write in detail about the Macro processor algorithms.

20. What are the various types of Code Optimization techniques available?

Discuss.

Question Code: B63302 Sub Code: P16CSE22



UNIX AND SHELL PROGRAMMING


Part A


1. Unix Operating System is an __________.

a) Time Sharing Operating System b) Multi-tasking Operating System

c) Multi-User Operating System d) All of the Above

2. How do you get help about the command "cp"?

a) help cp b) cp ? c) man cp d) cat cp

3. dev/null ________.

a) is a file b) has write permission for all

c) is the UNIX built-in dustbin d) all of these

4. The command to change the file permissions and allow the owner to execute

the file is ________.

a) chmod b) chown c) chgrp d) None

5. Which command is used with vi editor to move the cursor one row up?

a) i b) h c) j d) k

6. Full form of sed is ________.

a) Sequential Data b) Stream Editor

c) Sequence Editor d) None of these

7. _________ command display the status of a process.

a) ls b) ps c) grep d) cat

8. The______command is used to control background process dispatch

priority.

a) nice b) nohup c) wait d) talk

9. case statement ends with ______.

a) end b) end case c) esac d) None of these

10. Which of the following results in error?

a) expr 4 + 5 b) expr 4 – 5 c) expr 4 * 5 d) expr 4 / 5

Part B


11. a) Explain the history and components of UNIX.

(or)

b) Explain the File system and Organizing the UNIX Files.

12. a) Explain the different File Attributes in UNIX.

(or)

b) Write short notes on handling of Databases in UNIX.

13. a) Discuss the following with the vi Editor.

i) Pattern Searching ii) Joining Lines.

(or)

b) Discuss configuring of vi Environment.

14. a) Write short notes on i) nohup command ii) time command.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Electronic Mail.

15. a) Discuss control structures of Shell Programming.

(or)

b) Explain the eval and exec command.

Part C


16. Discuss the following. i) Commands in UNIX ii) Categories of Files

iii) Directory Commands

17. Explain chmod and chown commands of UNIX.

18. Discuss in detail about Regular Expressions.

19. Write short notes on i) ps command ii) mesg command

20. Explain i) Positional Parameters ii) Sleep Command

iii) Script Command

Part B

Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 =45 marks

6. Define Plagiarism and its consequences.

7. Write an essay on the use of quotations, ellipsis and other alteration

of sources.

8. Write about Format of research.

9. Write an essay on the organizations of materials.

10. Discuss what is Abbreviation and its ways to be used in a

documentation with example

Question Code: B93101 Sub Code: MP17EL11



RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (English) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. a) What is Web source? Methods to collect Web sources.

(or)

b) How to overcome Plagiarism in a research?

2. a) Methods to use Punctuations in a document.

(or)

b) Describe the ways of writing title with the use of Mechanics of

writing. Give some examples.

3. a) What are the ways to arrange the chapters according to the format of

research?

(or)

b) How to write the Quotations in the research paper?

4. a) What are procedures to list out the work cited?

(or)

b) What is called as Sample reference with few examples?

5. a) Name some Style manuals.

(or)

b) When and where to use Abbreviation?

Part B

Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 =45 marks

6. The resistance to theory is the resistance to the rhetorical or

topological dimension of the language. Discuss.

7. Examine Hillis Miller’s views on the critic as host.

8. Why does Terry Eagleton consider that the utopian desire for fusion

of art and social praxis has become a dystopian reality?

9. How does Elaine Showalter analyse the nexus between gynocritics

and women’s texts?

10. Why does Fish feel that the normative meaning of an utterance will

no longer be the same in another situation?

Question Code: B93102 Sub Code: MP17EL12



CRITICAL THEORIES


Part A


1. a) What according to Paul de Man are the ‘reading functions’?

(or)

b) How does Gerard Genette view the role of a critic?

2. a) Differentiate ‘Differing’ from ‘Deferring’.

(or)

b) Examine Miller’s views on ‘Deconstruction’ and ‘Deconstructive

reading’.

3. a) What according to Terry Eagleton are the mistakes of the

Postmodernism?

(or)

b) Discuss Said’s charge on ‘falsity in the textual attitude’.

4. a) Discuss Elaine Showalter’s idea on the relation between Women’s

writing and Women’s culture.

(or)

b) Write a note on Hirsch’s analysis on the three realistic fallacies.

5. a) Why does Stanley Fish consider that determinacy and decidability of

the textual meaning can change?

(or)

b) How does Abrams justify his stance that language is implicitly

mimetic?

Part B


6. Discuss in detail all the characters of The Black Mate.

7. Discuss about the Miseries in the life of Martha.

8. Bring out the reasons for Mithilda’s problems and how it is solved?

9. Why is Pahour always worried and unsettled?

10. How does Jumpha Lahiri brief out the Indianness in Mrs. Sen.

Question Code: B93102 Sub Code: MP17ELE11



SHORT STORIES


Part A


1. a) Discuss various characters in ‘The Black Mate’.

(or)

b) Why was Martha always worried?

2. a) Discuss the conditions how the boy realises his true love in The Lost

Child.

(or)

b) What is the real misery in the life of Edna?

3. a) Why Matilda had to suffer so much depict her peaceful life?

(or)

b) Why was there a change of Behaviours in his wife in the house of

Darrow?

4. a) Discuss about the greed in the character of Pahour.

(or)

b) Discuss Johanka’s weekness and the result of her weakness.

5. a) Why does Mrs. Sen not about to come to terms with the American

culture?

(or)

b) What was the true intensions of the brothers?

Part B


9. a) Discuss the different generations of computers.

OR

b) List out and explain various I/O devices in brief.

10. a) Discuss the concepts of Data processing with example.

OR

b) Illustrate the features of windows.

11. a) Write about the find option in the start button.

OR

b) How to create a folder? Write the procedure to copy and delete a

file in a folder.

12. a) What is Internet? Discuss the basic uses of internet.

OR

b) Write a note on Domain Name System and how to register our

own domain name.

13. a) What is URL? Explain its different types.

OR

b) Explain File transfer system.

Sub Code: PDCA16C1


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2017

FUNDAMENTALS OF COMPUTERS AND INTERNET

TECHNOLOGIES

Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max.

Marks: 75

Part A

Answer any 5 questions 5 x 5 = 25 marks

1. How to classify computers? Describe in detail.

2. What are compilers and interpreters? Discuss.

3. Enumerate the features seen in the windows desktop.

4. Give an account on sub menus of START button.

5. Write a note on system tools.

6. Discuss the architecture of Web server and clients.

7. What is protocol? Explain.

8. Write a note on Gopher pace.

Part B


9. a) Discuss the basic concepts of windows operating systems.

OR

b) How to create, store, remove and print files in windows?

10. a) How to format a text and paragraph in word.

OR

b) Explain mail merge concept with example.

11. a) Discuss the usage of formulas and data formatting in excel.

OR

b) Write a procedure to create a chart in Excel. Explain different

types of charts.

12. a) Write a procedure to include object and slide animations? Explain

with example.

OR

b) What is sorter view? How to use sorter view and spell check in

PowerPoint?

13. a) Write the procedure to create table and to access it.

OR

b) Write a procedure to create reports in MS Access.

Sub Code: PDCA16C2



OFFICE AUTOMATION

Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. What is an operating system?

2. Describe basic file manipulation operations in word.

3. How to create table in MS word? Explain.

4. Discuss how to create excel functions and fill cells.

5. Write a procedure to create a PowerPoint presentation.

6. Discuss the usage of outline and slide tabs in PowerPoint.

7. How to create an Access Databases?

8. With example explain how to sort and filter records in Access.

Part B


9. Examine the role of Transport in the promotion of Tourism.

10. Enumerate the various forms of Tourism.

11. Estimate the impact of Tourism on Indian Economy.

12. Evaluate the functions of Indian Tourism Development

Corporation.

13. Elucidate the origin and growth of PATA

Sub Code: CCTTM11



FUNDAMENTALS OF TOURISM

Time : 3 Hrs CCTTM Max. Marks: 75

Part A

Answer any FIVE questions 5 x 6 = 30 marks

1. Define Tourism.

2. State the features of International Tourism.

3. Explain the present condition of Tourism in India.

4. Write a note on IRCTC.

5. Summarize the functions of World Tourism Organization.

6. Narrate the significance of Tourism Industry.

7. Mention the role of Archaeological Survey of India in the growth of

Tourism.

8. Bring out the works of International Air Transport Association.

Part B


9. Explain the duties and responsibilities of Tourist Guide.

10. Enumerate the works of Guides in the preparation of a Tour.

11. Estimate the role of Guide in conducting various types of Tours.

12. Evaluate the factors responsible for the personality development for

Tourist Guide.

13. Elucidate the personality grooming and physical fitness for Tourist

Guide

Sub Code: CCTTM12



GUIDING SKILL & PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT


Part A


1. Describe the meaning and concepts of Guides.

2. State the method of interpreting in historical sites.

3. Explain the abilities of Guide to deliver information.

4. Write a note on meaning of Personality.

5. Summarise the etiquettes of Tourist Guide.

6. Narrate the procedure for selection of Guide in Tourism Industry.

7. Mention the role of Guide in the establishment of security measures for

Tourist.

8. Bring out the importance of communicative skills for Tourist Guides.

Part B


9. a) With example, illustrate the use of various operators in C++.

OR

b) List out the control structures used in C++ and explain with

example.

10. a) i) What is function? How to declare and define a function?

ii) Write a function program to find the factorial of the given

number.

OR

b) Define function overloading? Write a program to find the area of

different shapes using function overloading.

11. a) What is constructor? List out and explain each type with sample

code.

OR

b) i) How to overload a binary operator using friend function.

ii) Write a program to overload an operator ‘+’ to add two

complex numbers.

12. a) Explain in detail about multiple and multilevel inheritances.

OR

b) How to assign pointers to objects? Explain ‘THIS’ pointer.

13. a) Explain unformatted I/O operations with example.

OR

b) Write in detail about C++ manipulators.

Sub Code: PGDCA13



OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING IN C++


Part A


1. Discuss the basic concepts of Object Oriented programming.

2. What do you mean by call by value and call by reference? Explain with

example.

3. Discuss different ways to define member functions in class.

4. With sample C++ code explain in detail about parameterized constructors.

5. What is Operator overloading? Discuss the rules for overloading.

6. With sample C++ code, explain the concept of single inheritance.

7. Write a note on I/O stream classes.

8. Explain i) inline functions ii) friend function

Part B


9. Write an essay on Definition of Hotel and Hotel Operation

10. Discuss the organization of the House Keeping Department

11. Enumerate the major Hotel chains in India

12. Describe about the International Hotels

13. Estimate the conditions and Guidelines for the approval of Hotel

Projects.

Sub Code: DITTM21



HOTEL MANAGEMENT

Time : 3 Hrs DITTM Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Write about the National Hotel Association and their operation.

2. Describe the organization chart of a Hotel.

3. Write a note on Resort Hotels

4. Give a brief note on Residential Hotels

5. Discuss the need and significance of Accommodation

6. Explain the basic elements of a Resort Complex

7. Describe the characteristics of Resort Management

8. Write about the Tools of Marketing in Hotel Management.

Part B


9. Write an essay on Travel Formalities.

10. Discuss the difference between Travel Agency and Tour Operators.

11. Enumerate the characters of Tour Operators.

12. Describe the various types of Package Tour

13. Estimate the role of ITDA in developing Tourism.

Sub Code: DITTM22



TRAVEL AGENCY MANAGEMENT

Time : 3 Hrs DITTM Max.

Marks: 75

Part A


1. What are the features of Travel Agency?

2. Trace the Rules for Travel Agencies.

3. Explain the meanings and Functions of Tour Operator.

4. Write about the types of Tour Operators

5. Discuss the various functions of a Travel agents.

6. Give a brief note on Tour Packaging.

7. Describe the functions of Travel Agency.

8. Give an account of TAAI.

Question Code: B21103 / A21103 Sub Code: U16PHC21/BPHCR21

Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur

END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2018

THERMAL PHYSICS AND SOUND

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. ( Physics ) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A

Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. Which of the following parameters is the same for molecules of all gases

at a given temperature?

a) mass b) speed

c) momentum d) kinetic energy

2. The critical temperature of a gas is c31 . The room temperature is 27

c. Then the gas in the room is ______.

a) can be liquefied b) can not be liquefied

c) will be solidified d) will break into electrons

3. If heat is supplied to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.

a) the internal energy of the gas will increase

b) the gas will do positive work

c) the gas will do negative work

d) the said process is not possible.

4. The entropy of a system in an irreversible process.

a) increases b) decreases

c) remains constant d) none of the above

5. Under steady state, the temperature of body

a) increase with time b) decrease with time

c) does not change with time and in same at all points of the body

d) does not change with time and can be different at different points of

the body

6. Average energy of a planck‟s oscillator is

a) E= h b) E = nh

c) E =

1kTh

C

h d) E = mc 2

7. Viscosity of a gas in due to transport of

a) momentum b) energy

c) mass d) none of these

8. The S. I unit of thermal conductivity is

a) 11 cmJS b) 111 cmJS

c)

cmJS 11 d) 11 cmJS

9. The reverbration time depends on

a) speed of sound b) volume of the hall

c) number of reflections d) wavelength of the sound wave

10. Ultrasonic waves are

a) electromagnetic waves b) 0 1A wavelength

c) not penetrating the liquid d) high energy content

PART –B


11. a) Derive ideal gas equation and also calculate the number of molecule in

each cubic metre of a gas at l atm and 27 c.

(or)

b) Explain in detail about Jonle – Thomson effect with neat diagram.

12. a) Explain the specific heat capacities of a gas.

(or)

b) Discuss Nernst‟s heat theorem.

13. a) Briefly explain Searle‟s method to determine thermal conductivity.

(or)

b) State and explain Stefan – Bolttz mann law and derive it from

Newton‟s law of cooling.

14. a) Derive clausius‟ expression fer mean freepath.

(or)

b) Explain in detail about self diffusion and the effect of torpresation

and pressure.

15. a) Define and explain the determination of Absorption coefficient.

(or)

b) Explain Briefly about SONAR.

PART – C


16. Describe Linde‟s method to liquify the air with a neat diagram.

17. a) Explain about Diesel engine.

b) Deduce an expression for entropy of a steam.

18. Describe Forbe‟s method to determine thermal conductivity of a good

conduct.

19. Derive an expression for thermal conductivity (k) of a gas on the bases

of Transport of thermal energy and show the effect of temperature on it.

20. Describe piezo electric method to produce ultrasonic waves with neat

diagram.

*******

Question Code: B21202/ A21202 Sub Code: U16PHA21/ BPHAS21



ALLIED PHYSICS - II


Part – A


1. The refractive index n of the material of a prism is given by

a)

2sin

sin

A

AD b)

2sin

DA

c)

2sin

2/sin

A

DA d) sin

2A

2. Spherical aberration can be removed by using

a) convex lens b) plano – convex lenses

c) concave lens d) cylindrical lens

3. The phenomenon used in grating is _____of light.

a) interference b) diffraction

c) polarisation d) scattering

4. Dextro – rotatory substance rotates the plane of polarisation in the

_____direction.

a) vertical b) horizontal

c) clockwise d) anticlockwise

5. 1 a.m.u is equal to

a) 931 MeV b) 9 31 MeV

c) 931 KeV d) 9 31 KeV

6. The expression for half life period is______.

a) 1 b) 0 6931

c) 0 6931/ d)

7. Atom bomb works under the principle of ______.

a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion

c) Nuclear reaction d) Radio Activity

8. In a transistor, the resistance in emitter –base junction is

a) high b) zero

c) low d) none

9. The boolean expression BAY is an output representation of which

logic function?

a) AND b) OR

c) NAND d) NOR

10. LSI stands for

a) Low Scale Integration b) Large Scale Integration

c) Limited Scale Integration d) Linear Scale Integration

PART –B


11. a) Obtain the condition to produce dispersion without deviation for a

combination of two narrow angled prisms.

(or)

b) Obtain the condition to produce deviation without dispersion for a

combination of two narrow angled prisms.

12. a) Differentiate between interference and diffraction.

(or)

b) Describe the construction, measurement and uses of Laurent‟s half

shade polarimeter to determine the specific rotatory power of sugarcane

solution.

13. a) State and explain the Weizacker‟s formula for the binding energy of a

nucleus.

(or)

b) What is meant life period? Derive an expression for mean life of a

radioactive element.

14. a) Explain the theory, construction and uses of LED.

(or)

b) Explain the biasing of transistors for active region.

15. a) Explain in detail the truth table of AND gate.

(or)

b) State and prove De Morgan‟s theorems.

PART – C


16. Find the condition for the achromatism of two thin lenses mounted

coaxially when

i) they are in contact

ii) they are separated by a distance.

17. Give the theory of a plane transmission grating and describe how it is

used to determine the wavelength of light.

18. What is nuclear reactor? Explain the components, working, merits and

demerits of a nuclear reactor.

19. Describe an experiment to measure the IV characteristics of a zener

diode. Explain the functioning of zener diode as a voltage regulator.

20. Explain NAND and NOR as universal building blocks of AND, OR and

NOT gates.

*******

PART –B


4. Explain the principle, construction and operation of a cathode ray

oscilloscope.

5. What are the various types of microphones? Describe about carbon

microphone.

6. Explain about Magnetic Tape Recorders.

7. Illustrate Inductive pressure transducer and capacitive pressure transducer

with diagrams.

8. What do you mean by Direct Recording? Mention its advantages and

disadvantages.

******

Question Code: B21401 Sub Code: U16PHS21


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018

SKILL BASED SUBJECT

FUNDAMENTALS OF INSTRUMENTATION


Part – A

Answer ALL questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks )

1. a) How do you use multimeter as ammeter?

(or)

b) Mention the applications of multimeter. Write notes on its sensitivity.

2. a) Describe the working of Resistive Position transducer with necessary

diagrams.

(or)

b) Illustrate the working of crystal microphone with diagram.

3. a) Describe about Stripchart recorders.

(or)

b) Describe about Pulse Duration Modulation (PDM) recording.

-1-

Question Code: B40103 Sub Code: U16BNC21



FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING

Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A. Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. Under ____concept, both debit and credit aspects of the transactions are

recorded.

a) Business entity b) Going concern

c) Dual aspect d) Match

2. _____means explanation entry of the journal.

a) Narration b) Ledger Folio

c) Journal Folio d) Goods in transit

3. Accounting errors that affect either debit or credit side of an account is

called _____.

a) Two sided errors b) Balancing errors

c) One sided errors d) Posting errors

4. _____is a book in which the monetary transactions of a business are

posted in the form of debit and credit.

a) Journal b) Ledger

c) Trading a/c d) Trail balance

5. ______is a statement of account of the customer maintained by the

bank.

a) Voucher b) Pass book

c) Cash book d) Sales book

6. _____gives a concise idea about the profitability and financial position

of a business.

a) Journal b) Trail balance

c) Cash book d) Final accounts

7. Depreciation is _____ from the fixed assets in the asset side of the

balance sheet.

a) multiplied b) divided

c) added d) subtracted

8. ____ is a non cash transaction.

a) Depreciation b) Rent

c) Salary d) Commission

9. ______is an expenditure which arises out of and in the course of regular

business transactions of a business.

a) Revenue loss b) Capital loss

c) Capital expenditure d) Revenue expenditure

10. Under income and expenditure account, the excess of expenditure over

income is known as _____.

a) deficit b) revenue

c) profit d) loss

PART –B


11. a) State the major functions of accounting.

(or)

b) Classify the types of accounts in detail.

12. a) Point out the objectives of preparing trial balance.

(or)

b) Prepare Trial Balance for the following data.

-2-

books of account every year on 31st March. Prepare machinery account

for four years from 2008 to 2011.

20. From the following, prepare Income and Expenditure account for the

year ended 31st March 1991.

Receipt Rs. Payment Rs.

To balance

Cash at bank

Cash in hand

4,550

550

By Salaries 36,000

To Subscription (including

Rs.2000 for 1991 -1992)

30,000 By Rent 6,000

To Interest on investment 15,000 By Printing and

Stationery

1,450

To Bank interest 100 By Postage and

Telegrams

250

To Sale proceeds of car 2,500 By Purchase of Bicycle 950

By Purchase of Govt.

Bonds

6,800

By Balance c/d

Cash in hand

Cash at bank

120

1,130

52,700 52,700

*******

Rs.

Capital 50,000

Debtors 60,000


Purchase return 2,000

Purchases 20,000

Creditors 50,000

Drawings 25,000

Sales return 3,000

Sales 30,000

Machinery 20,000

Salary 10,000

Loan from Raj 1,000

13. a) Write short notes about Capital expenditure and Revenue expenditure.

(or)

b) From the following particulars of Banu & Co, prepare Bank

Reconciliation statement as on 31st December 2016.

Cash at bank as per cash book Rs.10,500

i) Cheque Rs.1000 was deposited on 30th

December but is not yet

collected on 31st December 2016.

ii) Cheque issued for Rs.1339 is not encashed on 31st December

2016.

iii) Bank collected a bill for Rs.1500 on 31st December 2016 but the

intimation was received by Banu on 1st January 2017.

iv) The bank allowed interest Rs.203 and a commission was charged

Rs.92 on 31st December 2016.

14. a) Describe the importance of depreciation.

(or)

b) X & Co purchased a machinery on 01.01.2013 for Rs.3,85,000 and

spent Rs.15,000 for its erection. It charged depreciation 10% under

diminishing balance method. The accounts are closed on 31st December

-3-

-6-

every year. Prepare machinery account for 3 years from 01.01.2013 to

31.12.2015.

15. a) Write short notes about Income and Expenditure account.

(or)

b) From the following particulars, calculate the amount to be shown in

Income and Expenditure account during the year 2017.

Rs.

Subscription received during the year 30,000

Subscription outstanding on 1.1.2017 5,000

Subscription outstanding on 31.12.2017 7,000

Subscription received in advance on 1.1.2017 2,000

Subscription received in advance on 31.12.2017 6,000

PART – C


16. Describe the steps involved in accounting.

17. From the following prepare final accounts for the year ended 31st

December 2016.

Rs.

Capital 30,000

Drawings 5,000

Furniture 2,600


Creditors 13,300

Premises 20,000

Opening stock 22,000

Debtors 18,600

Salary 9,000

Rent (Dr) 1,000

Purchases 1,10,000

Sales 1,50,000

Sales return 2,000

Discount (Dr) 1,100

Discount (Cr) 2,000

Tax & Insurance 2,000

General expenses 4,000

Commission (Dr) 2,200

Carriage on purchase 1,800

Reserve for bad debts 600

Bad debts 800

Adjustments: i) closing stock Rs.20,000 ii) Rent to be paid Rs.300

iii) Write off bad debts Rs.600 iv) Depreciate premises at 5%

v) Prepaid insurance Rs.700

18. Rectify the following accounting errors through suspense account by

making Journal entries.

a) Purchase of goods from Mohit for Rs.2,500 was entered in the sales

book, however Mohit‟s account was correctly credited.

b) Cash received from Anil, a debtor Rs.3,200 was correctly entered in

the cash book but was omitted to be posted in his account.

c) Sales book was overcast by Rs.1,500.

d) Cash of Rs.4,000 paid to Hanif was credited to Rafique a/c Rs.1,400.

e) The total of purchase returns book of Rs.3,150 was carried forward

as Rs.1,530

19. On 1st July 2008, a company purchase a machine for Rs.3,90,000 and

spent Rs.10,000 on its installation. It decided to provide depreciation at

15% per annum, using written down value method. On 30th

November

2011, the machine was dismantled at a cost of Rs.5,000 and then sold

for Rs.1,00,000. On 1st December 2011, the company acquired and put

into operation a new machine at a total cost of Rs.7,60,000.

Depreciation was provided on the new machine on the same basis as had

been used in the case of the earlier machine. The company closes its

-4-

Question Code: B40202 Sub Code: U16BNA21


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April– 2018

ELEMENTS OF BANKING AND INSURANCE

Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. Which of the following is not a public sector bank in India?

a) Andhra Bank b) Federal bank

c) IDBI bank d) Vijaya Bank

2. Who among the following is the primary regulator of banking business?

a) Central Government b) RBI

c) State Government d) Parliament

3. Which of the following is not an asset held by commercial banks?

a) Bills of exchange

b) Current account deposits

c) Money lent at short notice

d) Credit balances with the Reserve Bank

4. What is the expanded form of the term ALM used in banking sector?

a) Asset Liability Maintenance

b) Asset Liability Management

c) Asset Liability Manipulation

d) Asset Liability Maximization

5. IRDA has the power to frame the regulations under --------- of the

Insurance Act, 1938.

a) Section 112A b) Section 114A

c) Section 114B d) Section 112B

-5-

6. If an organization wishes to venture into insurance business it has to

obtain a license first from which of the following?

a) IRDAI b) SEBI

c) TAC d) IBA

7. When was life insurance sector nationalized?

a) 1834 b) 1907 c) 1938 d) 1956

8. The Central office of the LIC is located at

a) Kolkata b) New Delhi

c) Mumbai d) Chennai

9. The main feature of the National Agriculture Insurance Scheme is to

insure which of the following?

a) Life of the farmer

b) Crop of the farmer

c) Animals who are used in agricultural activities

d) Land of the farmer

10. Which of the following is largest Non-life insurance company in India?

a) ICICI Lombard General Insurance Company Ltd

b) United Insurance Company Ltd

c) General Insurance Company Ltd

d) New India Assurance Company Ltd

PART –B


11. a) Describe the General Relationship between banker and customer.

(or)

b) Write down the objectives of Monetary Policy of India.

12. a) Classify Non-banking financial intermediaries.

(or)

b) Sketch out the balance sheet of a commercial bank.

13. a) Why do we need insurance?

(or)

b) Discuss the importance of Insurance.

14. a) Write down the essential features of Life Insurance.

(or)

b) Define Underwriting. State its purposes.

15. a) Discuss the kinds of Motor Vehicle Insurance policies.

(or)

b) Give your understanding on (i) Fidelity Guarantee

(ii) Crop Insurance

PART – C


16. Give the differences between Public Sector Banks and Private

Banks.

17. Name and explain the products and services of Corporate Banking.

18. Enumerate the types of Insurance Contracts.

19. List and explain the principles of Underwriting.

20. Give the steps in Fire Insurance Claim Procedure.

*******

Question Code: B81105 Sub Code: P16HYC21



SOCIO – CULTURAL HISTORY OF TAMILNADU

(From 1565 A.D to 2011 A. D.)

Time : 3 Hrs M. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. During whose period Robert – De-Nobili came to Tamilnadu?

a) Tirumalai Nayak b) Muthukrishnappa Nayak

b) Virappa Nayak d) Muthuvirappa Nayak

2. Name the German wriest who came to Tamilnadu during the period of

Tulaji.

a) Schienbalg b) Scwartz

c) Plutaza d) Robert –de - Nobili

3. Who started Temple entry movement?

a) Brahmine b) Nadars

c) Vellalar d) Vaisyas

4. Where was the first self respect conference held?

a) salem b) Virudhunagar

c) Chengalpattu d) Erode

5. When was justice party founded?

a) 1914 b) 1915 c) 1916 d) 1917

6. Who founded the first Trade Union in India?

a) Maraimalai Adigal b) Thiru. Vi. ka

c) Ayotidasa Pandithar d) Singaravelar

7. Which plan is considered as “Magna Carta of English Education”?

a) Charter Act, 1813 b) Macaulay Minute

c) Woodi Despatch d) Hunter Commission

8. When was Annamalai University established?

a) 1929 b) 1939 c) 1949 d) 1959

9. Who introduced “Samacheer Kalvi Scheme” in Tamilnadu?

a) Rajaji b) Annadurai

c) Karunanidhi d) Jayalalitha

10. Which of the following district is having highest population in

Tamilnadu?

a) Kanyakumari b) Coimbatore

c) Dharmapuri d) Tuticorin

PART –B


11. a) Describe the society under the Nayak.

(or)

b) Trace the development of Education during the period of Marathan.

12. a) Evaluate the contribution of Christian Missionaries.

(or)

b) Write a note on Muthulakshmi Reddy.

13. a) Discuss about upper Garment Movement.

(or)

b) Give an account of Singaravelar.

14. a) Bring out the importance of Macaulay‟s Minutes.

(or)

b) Analyse the report of Kothari Commission.

15. a) Trace the origin of Press in Tamilnadu.

(or)

b) Mention the growth of small scale industries in Tamilnadu.

PART – C


16. Describe the socio – religions condition under the Marathas.

17. Discuss the Socio – religious reform movements of 19th

century.

18. Write an essay on subaltern movement.

19. Trace the growth of Education under British Rule.

20. Explain the development of Agriculture since 1947.

******

18. If A x =

31,2

3

11,2

1

3 and 1,0

xx

xx

xx

and

B x =

532

5

312

1

5 and 10

xx

xx

xx

find (A +B) (x), (A –B ) x, (A B) (x) and (A / B) (x).

19. Let be a fuzzy subset of G such that card Im < . Define fuzzy subgroups

Gi of G by oG = < } sup zxGxGz

; and

1G = kizxGxGGiGz

i 1, sup ,1 ~

1, where

k card Im and k is such that Gk = G. Then prove that the fuzzy subset of

G defined by

(x) = kiGGxSup

ifz

iiGiGz

z

1 ,~ if z

,G x sup

11~

0G

is the fuzzy subgroup generated by in G.

20. For a fuzzy subgroup of G, prove the following are equivalent :

i) is a fuzzy characteristic subgroup of G,

ii) Each level subgroup of is a characteristic subgroup of G.

******

Question Code: B60304/ A60304 Sub Code: P16MAE22/ P14MAE22



FUZZY ALGEBRA

Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. The support of a fuzzy set A is the set of all X x such that xA ______.

a) > 0 b) < 0 c) = 0 d) none

2. If A = 21 , aa , B = 21 , bb are fuzzy intervals then the condition for which

A + X = B has a solution if

a) 2211 a bba b) 2211 b aab

c) 2211 b aba d) none

3. Given any n – ary fuzzy relation, the number of different projections of the

relation is

a) n! b) n2

c) 2n

– 2 d) 2n

4. If is any fuzzy subgroup of G and if yx for some x, y G then

xx ____y .

a) b) c) = d) none

5. If is a fuzzy sylow p – subgroup of G then card Im ______ .

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) none

6. If A = xywv

3524 find 0 2 cut of A .

7. Define fuzzy number.

8. Define fuzzy similarity relation.

9. Define fuzzy sub groupoid.

10. When do you say that two fuzzy subgroups and to be equivalent?

PART –B


11. a) If A and B are fuzzy sets in X prove that A ( A B ) = A and

A ( A B ) = A.

(or)

b) State and prove third decomposition theorem.

12. a) Prove that every fuzzy complement has at most one equilibrium.

(or)

b) Explain fuzzy representation of linguistic variables.

13. a) If the fuzzy relation R =

0800

0040

1000

0057

defined on { a, b, c, d }. Is

R transitive?. If not find the smallest fuzzy relation on X which is

transitive.

(or)

b) If the fuzzy relation is

a b c d

a 1 7 0 1

b 0 1 0 9

c 5 7 1 1

d 0 0 0 1

and if A = { a, b } find the fuzzy upper bound of A.

14. a) Let be any fuzzy subset of a set S. Then prove that kxkx |sup

where x S.

(or)

b) Let be any fuzzy subgroup of G such that Im = {0, t }, where t ] 0, 1 ].

If = , for some fuzzy subgroups and of G, then Prove that

either or .

15. a) If 1 is a fuzzy subgroup of

1G then prove that 1f (

1) is a fuzzy subgroup

of G where G and G1 are multiplicative groups.

(or)

b) Let and be any two fuzzy sylow p – subgroups of G. If is

fuzzy normal, then prove that ~ .

PART – C


16. Define extension principle. If f : X Y is an arbitrary crisp function and for

XF iA and YF iB , i I prove that AifAifAiIi

and

Ii

IiAifAif

17. If the fuzzy relation is R =

100000000

010070000

001455000

004177000

075718800

005781100

000081100

000000018

000000081

verify that R is a compatibility relation. Find all complete - covers for

the compatibility relation.

R=

20. Prove that i) If I is the identity operator on nR , then det [ I ] =

det .1)...,( 1 nee

ii) det is a linear function of each of the column vectors jx , if the others are

held fixed.

iii) If [ A ]1 is obtained from [ A ] by interchanging two columns, then

det [ A ]1 = – det [ A ] .

iv) If [ A ] has two equal columns, then det [ A ] = 0.

******

Question Code: B60106 Sub Code: P16MAC22



ADVANCED MATHEMATICAL ANALYSIS

Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. The partition *P is said to be the common refinement of two partition

21 and PP if *P = ______.

a) 1P b) 2P c) 21 PP d) 21 PP

2. If then 2..., 1, ,10 , 1 22 nxxxnxfn

n xf nnlim

_____ for 0 1x .

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) e

3. xn

xx -e lim ____, for every n.

a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) n

4. If a vector space X is spanned by a set of r rectors where r is a positive

integer, then dim X _____.

a) r b) r c) 0 d) infinite

5. If [ A ]1 is obtained from [ A ] by interchanging two columns, then det

[ A ]1 = _____.

a) det [ A ] b) – det [ A ] c) 0 d) none

6. State the fundamental theorem of calculus of integration.

7. Define an equicontinuous family of functions.

8. Define the beta function.

9. Define a basis of a vector space X.

10. Define the department of a matrix [ A ] of a linear operator A on nR .

PART –B


11. a) If f is monotonic on [ a, b ] and if is continuous on [ a, b ], then

show that f .

(or)

b) Let f on [a, b] . For a bx , put F dt

x

a

tfx . Then prove

that F is continuous on [a, b], furthermore, if f is continuous at a point

0x of [a, b], then show that F is differentiable at 0x and 00 xfxF .

12. a) Suppose nf f uniformly on a set E in a metric space. Let x be a

limit point of E and suppose that nnxt

Atflim , n = 1, 2, …, Then

show that nA converges and nnxt

Atf limlim .

(or)

b) Prove that there exists a real continuous function on the real line

which is nowhere differentiable.

13. a) Suppose nc converges. Put 11 ,0

xxcxfn

n

n . Then show

that 0

1lim

n

nx

cxf .

(or)

b) If f is a positive function on (0, ) such that i) f (x + 1 ) = xf (x),

ii) f (1) = 1, iii) log f is convex, then show that f (x) = (x).

14. a) i) If A L ( n , m ), then prove that ||A|| < ∞ and A is a uniformly

continuous mapping of n into m .

ii) If A, B L ( n , m ) and C is a scalar, then prove that

|| A+B || A CA and CBA .

(or)

b) Suppose f maps a convex open set E nR into mR , f is differentiable

in E and there is a real number M such that Mxf for every

x E. Then show that abMafbf for all a E, b E.

15. a) If [ A ] and [ B ] are n by n matrices, then prove that det

( [ B ] [ A ] ) = det ( [ B ] det [ A ] ) .

(or)

b) Show that a linear operator A on nR is invertible if and only if

det [ A ] 0.

PART – C


16. If is continuous on [a, b], then show that is rectifiable and

( ) = dtt

b

a

| | .

17. State and prove Weierstrass theorem.

18. State and prove Parseval‟s theorem.

19. Suppose f is a – mapping of an open set E C nR into nR , af is

invertible for some a E and b = f (a). Then prove that

a) there exist open sets U and V in nR such that a U, b V, f is one to

one on U and f (U) = V.

b) if g is the inverse of f, defined in V by g (f (x) ) = x, x U, then

g (V).




SOCIO – ECONOMIC AND CULTURAL HISTORY OF INDIA

(From 1206 AD to 1757 AD)

Time : 3 Hrs M. A (History) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. Dharmapala constructed ______.

a) Viharas b) Monasteries

c) Stupas d) Temples

2. Who was the founder of the sena dynasty?

a) Vijaya sena b) Hemanta sena

c) Ballala sena d) Lakshmana sena

3. Burrakatha was a very popular folk lore art of ______.

a) Vijayanagar b) Sultanate

c) Rajputs d) Mughals

4. The Jahir system was introduced by _____.

a) Mauryas b) Guptas

c) Rajputs d) Sultans

5. The founder of Sikh religion was ______.

a) Gurunanak b) Kabir

c) Chaitanya d) Gobindsingh

6. Who were important disciples of Ramananda?

a) Sena b) Ravidas and Dhana

c) Kabir d) All the above

7. Ayakkara system was introduced by _____.

a) Cholas b) Pandyas

c) Vijayanagar d) British

8. In Vijayanagar empire, who looked after duties of police?

a) Kotwal b) Ayagar

c) Kavalkara d) Poligar

9. What position did Nana Phadnavis occupy in the Maratha

administration?

a) Peshwa b) Pratinidhi

c) Chief accountant d) Senathipathi

10. Which god was worshipped dearly by Chatrapathi Shivaji?

a) Kali b) Bhavani

c) Lakshmi d) Rudra

PART –B


11. a) Discuss about the Palas.

(or)

b) Narrate the cultural aspects of Prathiharas.

12. a) Write a note on the social system beat existed during the Sultanate.

(or)

b) Explain the educational system under the Delhi sultanate.

13. a) Write a note on Sufism.

(or)

b) Narrate the impact of Islam on Indian Society and culture.

14. a) Discuss about the Guild system during Vijaya nagar.

(or)

b) Write briefly about the society under Vijayanagar.

15. a) Explain the revenue settlement during the Mughals.

(or)

b) Describe the Social customs and manners of the people during the

Mughal period.

PART – C


16. Examine the architectural features of Rastrakutas.

17. Write an essay on the Market Policy of Alauddin Khilji.

18. Give an account on the Bhakti Movement.

19. Elucidate the economic condition of Vijayanagar.

20. Estimate the social condition under the Mughal period.

********




HISTORY OF EUROPE (From 1453 To 1919 A.D)


Part – A


1. The author of Social Contract was ______.

a) Voltaire b) Rousseau

c) Montesquieu d) Danton

2. The Revolution of 1830 was called as ________.

a) July b) August

c) September d) October

3. Who is known as the child of French Revolution who killed the

mother?

a) Napoleon Bonaparte b) Louis XVI

c) Voltaire d) Rousseau

4. Who became the King of France at the end of Revolution of

1830 .

a) Napoleon III b) Charles X

c) Louis Philippe d) Rousseau

5. Who was called as “The Emperor of the Workers”.

a) Napoleon III b) Charles X

c) Tsar Nicolas d) Napoleon Bonaparte

6. Name the English King during the revolution of 1830.

a) George II b) George IV

c) James III d) William III

7. Who was the empress of Napoleon III?

a) Maria Theresa b) Engenie

c) Josephine d) Hortense

8. Cavour was the Prime Minister of _______.

a) Mazzini b) Charles Albert

c) Garibaldi d) Emmanuel

9. The Balkan Wars consisted of two conflicts that took place in the

year______.

a) 1912 & 1913 b) 1913 & 1914

c) 1914 & 1915 d) 1915 & 1916

10. A Serbian soldier murdered ___________ Austrian Prince.

a) Peter Ferdinand b) Frederick Ferdinand

c) Archduke Ferdinand d) Louis Ferdinand

PART –B


11. a) Write a note on Renaissance.

(or)

b) Explain the consequences of the geographical discoveries.

12. a) Write a short note on Louis XIV.

(or)

b) Discuss about the partition of Poland.

13. a) Explain Napoleonic Wars.

(or)

b) Describe about the causes and courses of the French

Revolution.

14. a) Assess the sacrifices of Garibaldi.

(or)

b) Define the policy of “Blood and Iron”.

15. a) Write a note on Balkan Crises.

(or)

b) Describe about Treaty of Versailles.

PART – C


16. Describe the role of Martin Luther in the Reformation Movement in

Germany.

17. Discuss the work of Peter, the Great of Russia.

18. Bring out the causes and results of the revolution of 1848.

19. Describe the Unification of Italy.

20. Narrate the causes and results of Russian Revolution.

******

19. If n..., ,2 ,1,,,...,, 21 iCzxxxUini are independent solutions of

the equations R

dz

p

dx

p

dx

p

dx

n

n...2

2

1

1 then prove that the relation

0,...,, 21 nuuu in which the function is arbitrary is a general solution

of the linear partial differential equation Rx

zP

x

zP

x

zP

n

n...2

2

1

1 .

20. Explain Charpit‟s method and hence solve the equation .22 qzyqP

*****

Question Code: B60107/ A60107 Sub Code: P16MAC23/ P14MAC23



DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS


Part – A

Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. xP2 = _____.

a) 1 b) x c) 2

1

2

3 2x d) 12

1 2x

2. For the equation 0yyxyx , the indicial polynomial is ______ .

a) 22r b) r ( r – 1 ) c) 12r d) 12r

3. The real valued solution of xyy is

a) cxy 22 b) cxy 2 c) cxy 2 d) none

4. 221 , then ,sin ,cos Wxx = _____

a) –1 b) 1 c) 0 d) 2

1

5. The envelope of the one parameter system f (x, y, z, a , (a) ) = 0 is got by

eliminating a between this equation and _____.

a) 0a

f b) 0

x

f c) 0

y

f d) 0

z

f

6. When a function g is said to be analytic at a point 0x ?

7. Define indicial polynomial.

8. Define Lipschitz condition.

9. Define complete integral.

10. Define envelope.

PART –B


11. a) If n, ,... , 21 are n solutions of L (y) = 0 on an interval I, then prove that

they are linearly independent if and only if 0)( ),..., ( 1 xW n for all Ix

.

(or)

b) Prove that n

nnn xdxn

xP 1d

! 2

1 2n

.

12. a) Solve 0353 2 xyyxyx in the form 0

0 , k

k

k

rxxcxx .

(or)

b) Show that xKxxJx 1

1

01

1

0 K and J .

13. a) Let M and N be two real valued functions which have continuous first

partial derivatives on some rectangle R : byyaxx 00 , . Prove

that the equations 0,, yyxNyxM is exact in R if and only if

x

N

y

M.

(or)

b) Prove that the kth

successive approximation k to the solution of the

initial value problem 00 ,, yxyyxfy satisfies

xx k

K

K

ek

k

k

M

! 1

1

.

14. a) Find the general solution of . z

22 zyxy

zy

xx

(or)

b) Find the integral surface of the linear partial differential equation

z q p 2222 yxzxyzyx which contains the straight line

x + y = 0 and z = 1.

15. a) Show that the equations 22 and xqpxxqyxp are compatible and

hence solve them.

(or)

b) Find the complete integral of 22222222 yxqxyxqp .

PART – C


16. Show that if xPxP nm and are Legendre polynomials then

.,0

1

1

mnxPxP mn

17. Show that i)

2

1

2

2

12

1

xJx sin x . ii) xxJx cos

2

1

2

2

12

1

.

18. Explain the method of successive approximation and hence solve

10 ,1 yxyy .

5. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of TCP-F and

TCP-ELFN?

(or)

b) Explain the issues and challenges in security provisioning.

PART –B


6. Briefly describe the different steps involved in a research process.

7. Explain the different categories of research design.

8. Discuss interview as a technique of data collection.

9. Describe the significance of a research report and narrate the various

steps involved in writing such a report.

10. Discuss the applications of Ad Hoc wireless networks.

11. Explain briefly about on-demand routing protocols.

12. Discuss the issues in designing a transport layer protocol for Ad Hoc

Wireless network.

*******

Question Code: B92101 Sub Code: MP16CS11



RESEARCH METHODOLOGY AND AD HOC NETWORKS

Time : 3 Hrs M. Phil (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. a) How do you define a research problem? Describe the techniques of

defining a research problem.

(or)

b) Explain the meaning and significance of a Research design.

2. a) Examine the merits and limitations of the observation method in

collecting material. Illustrate your answer with suitable examples.

(or)

b) What points will you keep in mind while preparing a research report?

Explain.

3. a) What are the types of WLANS? Explain.

(or)

b) Explain about the routing in Mobile IP.

4. a) Describe the issues in designing a routing protocol for Ad Hoc wireless

networks.

(or)

b) What are the classifications of multicast routing protocols? Explain

briefly.

PART –B


6. Explain about the fundamental steps involved in Digital Image

Processing.

7. Discuss about Intensity transformation functions.

8. Briefly explain about color models.

9. Explain in detail about arithmetic coding.

10. Discuss various Thresholding Techniques.

*******

Question Code: B92301 Sub Code: MP16CSE11



DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING


Part – A


1. a) Explain the components of an Image Processing System.

(or)

b) Explain arithmetic and logic operations.

2. a) Discuss about Histogram Matching.

(or)

b) Explain about Sharpening Spatial Filters.

3. a) Explain about Noise Models.

(or)

b) Discuss about the Wiener Filter.

4. a) Explain about Huffman Coding.

(or)

b) Discuss the concept of water marking.

5. a) Explain about various morphological operations.

(or)

b) Write about Region Growing algorithm.

PART –B


6. Discuss data visualization.

7. Explain about data transformation and data discretization.

8. Discuss the concept of association rule mining.

9. Discuss in detail about the types of cluster analysis method.

10. Discuss about the concept of data mining and society.

*****

Question Code: B92102 Sub Code: MP16CS12



DATA MINING AND DATA WAREHOUSING


Part – A


1. a) What is data mining? What kind of pattern can be mined?

(or)

b) Discuss various technologies used in data mining.

2. a) Describe about data integration.

(or)

b) Explain Data cleaning and reduction.

3. a) Explain the concept of OLAP.

(or)

b) How can we improve the efficiency of Apriori algorithm?

4. a) Write a note on the nearest neighbour classifier.

(or)

b) Briefly explain about the concept of cluster analysis.

5. a) Summarize the concept of web content mining.

(or)

b) Explain about web usage mining and its importance.

Question Code: B21104 / A21104 Sub Code: U16PHC22/BPHCR22



ELECTROMAGNETISM


Part – A


1. Most sensitive galvanometer is _____.

a) elastic galvanometer b) vibration galvanometer

c) ballistic galvanometer d) Dvd galvanometer

2. The ampere law is based on which theorem?

a) Green‟s theorem b) Gauges divergence

c) stokes theorem d) Maxwell theorem

3. In majority of instruments, damping is provided by ______.

a) fluid friction b) spring

c) eddy currents d) all of the above

4. Direction of induced emf in a Circuit is in accordance with law of

_____.

a) Conservation of mass b) Conservation of charge

c) Conservation of energy d) Conservation of momentum

5. What is the time Constant of an inductive Circuit?

a) LR b) R / L c) 1 / LR d) L / R

6. Alternating Current is measured by ______.

a) induction ammeter b) permanent magnet type ammeter

c) electrostatic ammeter d) moving iNn repulsion type ammeter

7. The materials having very small susceptibility at all temperatures are

______.

a) Antiferro magnetic b) Diamagnetic

c) Ferromagnetic d) Paramagnetic

8. B – H Curve is used for the determination of ______.

a) Hysteresis loses b) iNn loss

c) Eddy Current loss d) both A and B

9. What is the unit for displacement current?

a) No unit b) Ampere

c) Coulomb d) Ampere / Coulomb

10. Poynting Vector gives the_______.

a) direction of polarization b) rate of energy low

c) intensity of electric field d) intensity of magnetic field

PART –B


11. a) State and explain Biot- Savant‟s law.

(or)

b) Discuss the experimental methods of comparison of Capacitance

using B. G.

12. a) State and explain Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction.

(or)

b) Determination of self inductance by Anderson‟s bride method.

13. a) Explain Maxwell‟s bridge.

(or)

b) Explain Owen‟s bridge.

14. a) Write short notes on :

i) Magnetic susceptibility and ii) Permeability

(or)

b) Discuss about the importance of hysteresis Curve.

15. a) Write the significance of displacement Current.

(or)

b) State and explain Poynting Vector.

PART – C


16. Explain the Construction, working principle of Ballistic Galvanometer.

17. Explain Lenz‟s law.

18. i) Derive the derivation of Growth and decay charge in LR and CR

Circuits.

ii) Explain power and power factor in ac Circuits.

19. Explain the experiments of M – H Curve and B – H Curve.

20. Explain Hertz experiment.

*******

Worker

Machine 1 2 3 4

1 41 42 40 35

2 35 42 43 36

3 42 39 44 47

Test whether there are significant differences between the machines and the

workers.

PART – C


16. Let X be 2

22

2

1 , be &, nYn . If n = w, m = 7, X = 4.2,

,32,49,4.3 2

2

2

1 SSY find 90% confidence interval for 21 and .

17. State and Prove Neyman factorization Theorem.

18. Let X have a Gamma distribution with 0,4 . Find the Fisher

information.

19. State and prove Neyman – Pearson Theorem. (For continuous type).

20. An investigator for a consumer cooperative organized a study of the

mileages obtainable from three different brands of gasoline. Using 15

identical motors set to run at the same speed, the investigator randomly

assigned each brand of gasoline to 5 of the motors. Each of the motors was

then run on 10 gallons of gasoline, with the total mileages obtained as

follows.

Gas 1 Gas 2 Gas 3

220 240 252

251 235 272

226 232 250

246 242 238

260 225 256

Test the hypothesis that the average mileage obtained is the same for all

three types of gasoline. Use the 5 percent level of significance.

Question Code: B60108 Sub Code:



ADVANCED MATHEMATICAL STATISTICS


Part – A


1. In Bayesian statistics, the probability density function h( ) is called _____.

a) prior p.d.f. of b) posterior p.d.f. of

c) subjective probability d) A Bayes‟ solution

2. Let C be the subset of the sample space which leads to the rejection of the

hypothesis under consideration. Then C is called _____to the test.

a) events b) critical region

c) simple hypothesis d) statistical hypothesis

3. Any statistic whose mathematical expectation is equal to the parameter is

called _____.

a) random sample b) unbiased estimator

c) parameter space d) family of distributions

4. The decision function given by y0 is such that, for all

yRyR ,max ,max 0 for every other decision function

y , then y0 is called _____.

a) maxmini decision function b) minimax decision function

c) minimum mean – square –error estimator d) square – error loss function

5. Let a random experiment be repeated n independent times and under

identical conditions. Then the random variables n21 X,...,X ,X (each of

which assigns a numerical value to an outcome) constitute the observations

of a ________.

a) random sample b) events


6. What is meant by best critical region of size .

7. Let n21 X,...,X ,X , denote independent random variables that are

N 2 ,i, i = 1, 2, …n and Y = i

X

i

n

i

0let and 2

1

2

. Find the

moment generating function of Y.

8. Let n21 X,...,X ,X , denote a random sample from the distribution with p.d.f.

fotherwise0

1 ,01

1x xx

x

,

where 0 1, Find the likelihood function.

9. Define unbiased minimum variance.

10. A Bayes‟ solution is a decision function that minimizes _____if is a

random variable of the continuous type.

PART –B


11. a) Given that .225 %,9511 2xxP Find n.

(OR)

b) Let 222111 ,nb be and ,nb be pYpY , where 1p is the mean of

1

1

nY

and 2p is the mean of 2

2

nY

. Determine a confidence interval for

1p - 2p .

12. a) Show that a die was cast n = 120 independent time & following data

resulted

Spots up 1 2 3 4 5 6

Frequency b 20 20 20 20 40-b

If we use a chi – sequence test, for what values of b would the hypothesis

that the die is unbiased, be rejected at the 0.025 significance level.

(OR)

b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from the distribution that has

probability density function

0

101 ,01 ;

1

elsewhere

xxf

xx

.

Prove that 1Y = n21 X...X X is a sufficient statistic for .

13. a) If 0.35, 0.92. 0.56 & 0.71 are the 4 observed values of a random sample from

13. the distribution having pdf.

elsewhere

xxxf

0

10 ;

1

find the maximum likelyhood estimate.

(OR)

b) State and prove Rao- Cramer inequality.

14. a) Let X be n , , 2 is known. Find the fisher information.

(OR)

b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from 21,n . Find the variance

covariance matrix.

15. a) To determine whether accidents are more likely to occur on certain days of

the week, data have been collected on all the accidents requiring medical

attention that occurred over the last 12 months at an automobile plant in

northern California. The data yielded a total of 250 accidents, with the number

occurring on each day of the week being as follows.

Monday 62 Tuesday 47

Wednesday 44 Thursday 45

Friday 52

(OR)

b) The following are the numbers of defective items produced by four

workers using, in turn, at three different machines.

18. If T A(V) has all its characteristic roots in F, then prove that there

is a basis of V in which the matrix of T is triangular.

19. Let F be a field of characteristic 0 and T AF (V) be such that tr Ti = 0

for all i 1. Prove that T is nilpotent.

20. Let A, B Fn . Prove that det (AB) = det (A) det (B).

******




LINEAR ALGEBRA


Part – A


1. If dimF V = n then dimF Hom (V, V) is ______

a) 2n b) n2 c) n / 2 d) n

2. If T A(V) and if S A (V) is regular, then r (T) = _____.

a) r (TST–1

) b) r (STS–1

) c) r (S) d) r (S–1

)

3. k is called the index of nilpotence of T A(V) if ______.

a) 0 and 0 1kk TT b) 0 and 0 1kk TT

c) 0 and 0 1kk TT d) 0 and 0 1kk TT

4. Every linear transformation T A(V) satisfies its characteristic

polynomial is ______.

a) Cayley Hamilton theorem

b) Lagrange‟s theorem

c) Sylow‟s theorem

d) Fundamental theorem of homomorphism

5. If A is invertible then for all B, det (ABA–1

) = ______.

a) det A b) det B c) det A–1

d) det B–1

6. Define annihilator.

7. Define characteristic root.

8. Let T = 3F

000

000

110

. With respect to the standard basis find the

invariants of T.

9. Write the properties of trace function.

10. Define Unitary.

PART –B


11. a) Let V be a finite-dimensional space. Prove that is an isomorphism

of V intoVˆ

.

(or)

b) i) Define inner product space.

ii) State and prove the Schwartz inequality.

12. a) Let V be a finite dimensional over F. Prove that T A(V) is

invertible if and only if the constant term of the minimal polynomial

for T is not 0.

(or)

b) Let V be a finite dimensional over F and S, T A (V) . Prove the

following i) r (ST) r (T) ii) r (TS) r (T)

iii) r (ST) = r (TS) = r (T) for S is regular in A(V)

13. a) Let V be n–dimensional over F and T A(V) has all its

characteristic roots in F. Prove that T satisfies a polynomial of degree

n over F.

(or)

b) i) If M, of dimension m is cyclic with respect to T, then prove that the

dimension of MTk is m – k for all k m.

ii) Let V = 21 VV , where 1V and 2V are subspaces of V invariant

under T. Let 21 and TT be the linear transformations induced by T

on 21 VandV respectively. If the minimal polynomial of 1T over F

is xp1 while that of 2T is xp2 , prove that the minimal

polynomial for T over F is the least common multiple of xp1 and

xp2 .

14. a) Let be a vector space isomorphism of V onto W. If S AF (V) and

T AF (W) are such that for any v V, (vS) = (v ) T. Prove that S

and T have the same elementary divisors.

(or)

b) i) If A is invertible, then prove that tr (ACA–1

) = tr C.

ii) IF T A(V ), then prove that tr T is the sum of the characteristic

roots of T.

15. a) Prove that if two rows of a matrix A are equal, then det A = 0.

(or)

b) Prove that the linear transformation T on V is unitary if and only if it

takes an orthonormal basis of V into an orthonormal basis of V.

PART – C


16. i) Let V be a finite dimensional inner product space and W be a

subspace of V. Prove that V = W + W .

ii) Let V be a finite dimensional inner product space and W be a

subspace of V. Prove that )(W = W.

17. i) If F is a characteristic root of T A(V), then prove that is the

root of the minimal polynomial of T.

ii) Let T, S A(V) and S be regular. Prove that T and STS–1

have the

same minimal polynomial.




HISTORY OF THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA

(from Reconstruction to Second World War)

Time : 3 Hrs M. A. ( History) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. Who found the American Federation of Labour?

a) James Weaver b) Samuel Gompers

c) Donelly d) Jerry Simpson

2. Who emerged as the leader of consolidation of oil industry?

a) Cornelous Vanderbilt b) Andrew Carnegie

c) John D. Rock feller d) Herbert Spencer

3. Who signed the Sherman Anti Trust Act?

a) Lincoln b) Johnson

c) Cleveland d) Benjamin Harrison

4. Which Amendment defined the relation between America and Cuba?

a) Teller Amendment b) Platt Amendment

c) Factory Amendment d) People Amendment

5. Who introduced Open Door Policy?

a) Mc Kinly b) Truman

c) William Taft d) John Hay

6. When was Land lease Act passed?

a) 1940 b) 1941 c) 1942 d) 1943

7. Who was elected as the president of America for four times?

a) Theodore Roosevelt b) Franklin D. Roosevelt

c) Woodrow unison d) William Taft

8. Mention the reforms of F. D. Roosevelt.

a) Progressive Legislation b) Ten Percent Plan

c) Fair Deal d) New Deal

9. Who passed the Civilian Corporation Act to solve the unemployment

problem?

a) Lincoln b) Johnson

c) F. D. Roosevelt d) Reagon

10. When was UNO formed?

a) 25 April 1945 b) 6 August 1945

c) 9 August 1945 d) 24 October 1945

PART –B


11. a) Give an account of Congressional plan of Reconstruction.

(or)

b) Write a note on Ku Klux clan.

12. a) Describe the internal policy of Theodore Roosevelt.

(or)

b) What is Dollar Diplomacy? Explain.

13. a) Explain the importance of Pairs Peace conference.

(or)

b) Critically analyse the Fourteen points of Wilson.

14. a) Examine the foreign policy of Hoover.

(or)

b) Write a note on National Recovery Act.

15. a) Bring out the significance of Pearl Harbour attack.

(or)

b) Discuss about the San Francisco conference.

PART – C


16. Examine the factors that led to the rise of Big Business and Giant Trust.

17. Describe the causes of the Spanish American War of 1898.

18. Why America entered into the First World War? Explain.

19. Evaluate the causes and results of Great Depression.

20. Explain the role of USA in the formation of UNO.

********

Question Code: B40104 Sub Code: U16BNC22



COMPUTER AWARENESS –II (HTML and Web Design)


Part – A


1. The Network that usually takes the form of a small office network

are called as _____.

a) LAN b) MAN c) WAN d) None of the above

2. Expansion of DNS

a) Domain Naming Server b) Domain Naming System

c) Domain Number System d) Domain Number Server

3. HTML stands for

a) Hyper Text Markup Language

b) High Text Markup Language

c) Hyper Tabular Markup Language

d) None of these

4. HTML is what type of language?

a) Scripting language b) Markup language

c) Programming language d) Network protocol

5. _____ is the command and control protocol sets up communication

between a client and a server and passes commands between the two

systems.

a) HTTP b) FTP c) UDP d) URL

6. _____specifies the exact location of a resource on the internet.

a) URL b) USB c) HTML d) FTP

7. How many types of bullets supported by HTML?

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One

8. The tags essential for an ordered list are _____.

a) < OL > < / OL >

b) < UL > < / UL >

c) < Ordered List > < / Ordered List >


9. Forms are constructed in the HTML documents by using

____element.

a) < Form > b) < Html >

c) < format > d) < Head >

10. Any text within the _____tag scroll sideways.

a) < MARQUEE > … < / MARQUEE >

b) < scroll > … < / scroll >

c) < side way > … < / sideway >

d) < End > < / End >

PART –B


11. a) What is ISDN ? Explain its types.

(or)

b) Describe about web server and clients.

12. a) Write short notes on HTML.

(or)

b) How will you format the HTML text?

13. a) How will you link page inside the same document in HTML?

(or)

b) Explain briefly about font tag enhancements.

14. a) Discuss ordered lists in HTML with example.

(or)

b) Describe briefly about directory lists.

15. a) Explain images and hyperlink anchors.

(or)

b) Describe about how to align the table in HTML.

PART – C


16. Explain briefly about DNS.

17. Describe about basic components of HTML.

18. How will you create the scrolling text in HTML?

19. Explain briefly about Lists in HTML. Give an example.

20. How will you create a Table in HTML and describe about row and

column spanning?

*******

Question Code: B81303 Sub Code: P16HYE21



INDIAN GEOGRAPHY


Part – A


1. The Himalayan mountain system belongs to which one of the following?

a) Fold mountains b) Volcanic mountains

c) Block mountains d) None of these

2. The oldest mountains in India according to geographical history

are_______.

a) Satpuras b) Nilgiris

c) Vindhyas d) Aravallis

3. The formation of laterite soil is mainly due to ______.

a) weathering b) erosion

c) leaching d) deposition

4. Which of the following is not a tropical type of soil?

a) Red soil b) Desert soil

c) Black soil d) Brown soil

5. Approximately what fraction of India‟s Gross Geographical area comes

under the Protected Areas?

a) 2% b) 3% c) 4% d) 5%

6. India possesses Haematite, a very high-grade iron ore in _______.

a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala

c) Rajastan d) Madhya Pradesh

7. Mostly wheat is grown in_________.

a) Punjab b) Bihar

c) Gujarat d) West Bengal

8. Which is the lowest poverty state in India?

a) Delhi b) Andhra

c) Karnataka d) Gujarath

9. Planning Commission said _______ billion people live below the

poverty line in India.

a) 1.01 b) 1.11 c) 1.21 d) 1.31

10. Disaster Management Act enacted by the Government of India in

________

a) 2005 b) 2006 c) 2007 d) 2008

PART –B


11. a) What is Physical geography? Explain in detail.

(or)

b) Describe about Island.

12. a) Name the agencies involved in exploration of minerals.

(or)

b) How does the deforestation happen?

13. a) Mention the difference between the Intensive and Extensive Farming.

(or)

b) Explain how far Climate effect on farming systems in India.

14. a) Distinguish between population growth and population change.

(or)

b) What are the significant features of the National Population Policy

2000?

15. a) What is Medvedev–Sponheuer–Karnik scale?

(or)

b) Describe about Tsunami.

PART – C


16. State the various seasons of India.

17. Give an account of the Tropical Deciduous Forests.

18. Enumerate various types of Farming.

19. Write about India‟s demographic achievements.

20. What is the need for Disaster Management in India?

********

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Medvedev%E2%80%93Sponheuer%E2%80%93Karnik_scale

01.09.04 31.09.2004

Raw materials 1,00,000 1,23,500

Finished Goods 71,500 42,000

Work –in-progress 31,000 34,500

Transactions during the month of

Sept-2004

Purchase of Raw materials 88,000

Direct wages 70,000

Work expenses 39,500

Administration Expenses 13,000

Selling and Distribution expenses 15,000

Sales 2,84,000

Prepare a statement of cost and profit.

18. Two components A and B are used as follows;

Minimum usage – 50 units per week each

Maximum usage – 150 units per week each

Ordering quantities – A – 700 units

B – 1050 units

Delivery period - A - 4 to 6 weeks

B – 2 to 4 weeks

Maximum Re-order period for emergency purchases

2 weeks both for A and B

Calculate a) Re – order level b) Maximum level

c) Minimum level d) Danger level

19. From the following particulars, calculate the earnings of workers A and B

under Taylor‟s differential piece rate system.

Standard time per piece – 30 seconds

Normal rate per hour Rs.2.40

80% of piece rate below standard

120% of piece rate at or above standard

Worker A produces 1000 units per day

Worker B produces 900 units per day

20. Enumerate the various classifications of overheads.

Question Code: A40103 Sub: Code: BBNCR21



COST ACCOUNTING

Time : 3 Hrs B. B.A Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. Cost centre refers to

a) An output b) A location c) Raw material d) a Segment

2. In cost Accounting, the stock is valued at _____.

a) cost price b) Market price

c) cost price or market price whichever is less

d) cost price or market price whichever is higher

-1-

3. Unit costing is also called

a) Process costing b) Job costing

c) Multiple costing d) single or output costing

4. The result shown in contract a/c refers to

a) Notional profit b) Net profit

c) Gross profit d) Net operating profit

5. In FIFO, closing stock reflects

a) Earlier rates b) Latest rates

c) Replacement rates d) Material rates

6. Danger level is ______.

a) Above the Re order Level b) Below the minimum level

c) Above the EOQ d) Below the maximum level

7. In Taylor‟s differential piece wage system, there are ______.

a) three wage rates b) Two wage rates

c) Four wage rates d) Multiple wage rates

8. What is considered under Gantt task and Bonus scheme?

a) time b) piece rate c) bonus d) all the above

9. „Recreation expenses‟ in factory are apportioned on the basis of

a) Material cost b) Wages c) Prime cost d) Number of employees

10. The expenses incurred over and above the prime cost are known

as_______.

a) direct expenses b) office expenses

c) total expenses d)overhead expenses

PART –B


11. a) Point out the differences between Financial Accounting and Cost

Accounting.

(OR)

b) Explain the different types of cost centre.

12. a) State the features of contract costing

(OR)

b) Define Job costing. What are its advantages?

13. a) Prepare a stores Ledger on FIFIO method

Date Receipts Issues

2001.Mar. 1 600 units at Rs.5 per unit -

16 400 units at Rs.6 per unit -

20 - 500 units

22 400 units at Rs. 7 per unit -

23 - 600 units

25 200 units at Rs. 8 per unit

31 - 200 units

(OR)

b) From the figures given below, calculate EOQ and number of

orders to be placed per year.

Total consumption of materials per year -10000 kg

Buying cost per order - Rs.50

Unit cost of materials - Rs.2 per kg

Carrying and storage cost - 8% on average inventory

14. a) Calculate the earnings of a worker under Halsey plan and Rowan

plan

Time allowed - 40 hours

Time taken - 50 hours

Rate - Rs. 3 per hour

(OR)

b) What are the various methods of wage payment?

15. a) Calculate machine Hour Rate to cover the overhead expenses

indicated below.

Per hour per Annum

Electric power 85 p Repairs Rs.530

Steam 10 p Rent Rs.270

Water 5 p Running hours 2000

Original cost of machine is Rs.12000. Book value Rs.2870 .

Present replacement value is Rs.11500. Depreciation being10% p.a.

(OR)

b) The following details pertain to the production department of a

factory

Material consumed Rs.60,000

Direct wages Rs.40,000

Machine hours 50,000

Labour hours worked 25000

Factory overhead relating to department Rs.50000

Calculate a) Direct material rate

b) Direct wages rate

c) Direct labour hour rate

PART – C

Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks) 16. What are the advantages and Limitations of Cost Accounting?

17. X Ltd. Submits the following information on 30-09-2004.

Question Code: A40104 Sub: Code: BBNCR22



COMPUTER AWARENESS – I (HTML and Web design)

Time : 3 Hrs B. B.A Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. Network that covers a city or large physical distance can be called

___________.

a) LAN b) MAN c) Internetwork d) None.

2. _______ is a collection of two or more distinct networks.

a) LAN b) MAN c) Internet d) None.

3. HTML is a ________ language.

a) Low level b) High level

c) structured d) None

4. All end tags are specified with ________ symbol in HTML.

a) < / > b) < \ > c) < end > d) None

5. Expand FTP _______.

a) Find Transfer Protocol b) File Transfer Protocol

c) File Transmission Protocol d) None

6. Expand TCP ________.

a) Transfer Control Protocol b)Transmission Control Protocol

c) Transaction Control Protocol d) None

7. ______ is an ordered list tag.

a) <ul> b) <li> c) < ol > d) None

8. List within list is called.

a) nested list b) continuous list

c) list within list d) None.

9. JPEG ________.

a) Joint Photographic Experts Group

b) Joint Picture Experts Group

c) Joint Photographic Extension Group d) None

10. <TR> means _______.

a) Table row b) Table column c) Table data d) None

PART –B


11. a) List out the advantages of network.

(OR)

b) What do you mean by URL ? Give example.

12. a) What do you mean by web page? Discuss.

(OR)

b) What are the specific HTML Extensions is supported by the

largest Software Company ?

13. a) Explain the concept of protocol.

(OR)

b) Explain the concept of Gopher.

14. a) Design a web page using different type of bullets.

(OR)

b) List the attribute of numbering system.

15. a) List and explain the classification of Hyper Link. Give Example.

(OR)

b) Define ROWSPAN and COLSPAN. Give example.

PART – C


16. Explain in detail the concepts of Dial-up connection.

17. Design a HTML Tag to the following

* Bold * Italic * Underline * Strike

* Big * Small * Sub * Sup

18. How do you link other html documents? Explain.

19. Design a web page for your college course details.

20. Design your Class Time Table using HTML table.

*******

Question Code: A63301 Sub Code: P14CSE21



VB . NET PROGRAMMING

Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. ------------ is the module that actually runs VB.NET applications.

a) CLR b) .NET c) IL d) MSIL

2. Import statement imports --------- into your code.

a) Keywords b) Namespaces c) Controls d) Properties

3. The checkbox control will have a shaded appearance when it is in -------

state

a) Checked b) Unchecked

c) Indeterminate d) All of the above

4. Which of the following method is used to add items to the list part of a

combo box.

a) Items.Insert b) Items.Add

c) Items.AddRange d) All of the above

5. ------- are controls that allow the user to make selections and also hide

when they are not needed.

a) Menus b) Item c) Box d) Tool

6. Accessibility of an element is indicated by ---------

a) Block b) Module c) Scope d) Namespace

7. -------- binding allows object variables to be used in a typeless way.

a) Late binding b) Early binding

c) Object binding d) Class binding

8. Now is an example of -------- function.

a) Mathematical b) Financial

c) Date & Time d) String

9. To do text file operations, which of the following classes can be used?

a) StreamWriter b) StreamReader

c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above

10. ------- are used to organize related files.

a) File name b) File group

c) Scope d) Directory

PART –B


11. a) Write a note on radio buttons with example and how it differs

from checkboxes?

(OR)

b) Write about the use of MsgBox() function and MsgBox constants

12. a) Write the syntax and uses of the four types of DO loop statement.

(OR)

b) Write the procedure to add Timer control.

13. a) Create your own simple menu application.

(OR)

b) Explain subroutines and functions in structured programming.

14. a) Explain the concept of inheritance with example.

(OR)

b) What is the necessity of data type conversion and write about type

conversion function?

15. a) How to handle files and folder using functions?

(OR)

b) Write a note on directory classes.

PART – C


16. Explain the following: a) Input Box() function

b) Select case statement

17. Briefly explain how to add Picture Box control and Group Box control.

18. Explain the steps to assign and remove shortcut keys to the menu.

19. List out the uses of various mathematical and string handling functions.

20. Describe the generic procedure of processing files.

*******

Question Code: A63105 Sub Code: P14CSC21



COMPUTER GRAPHICS

Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. The graphics tablet works on same principle as

a) Light pen b) monitor

c) projector d) mouse

2. An area fill approach, in which we start from an interior point and paint

outward from this point till we reach the boundary.

a) Scan-line fill b) Boundary-fill

c) Flood-fill d) Area-fill

3. The anti aliasing technique which allow shift if 1/4 , 1/2 and 3/4 of a pixel

diameter enabling a closer path of a line is

a) pixel phasing b) filtering

c) intensity compensation d) sampling technique

4. If the angle between 2 connected line segments is very small then _____can

generate a long spike that distorts the appearance of the polyline.

a) Mitter join b) Round join

c) Bevel join d) None

5. The process of extracting a portion of a database or a picture inside or

outside a specified region are called ______

a) Transformation b) Viewing

c) Clipping d) Projection

6. Which is used to connect a line to already drawn line?

a) Rubber band method b) Gravity field

c) Dragging d) Grid

7. In parallel projection, _____co-ordinate in discarded

a) z b) x

c) y d) xy

8. For 3-D rotation we have to specify

a) angle of rotation b) angle of axis

c) axis of rotation d) angle of rotation and axis of rotation

9. All the following hidden surface algorithms employ image space approach

except.

a) back face removal b) depth differ method

c) scan-line method d) depth sort

10. The objects within _____ will appear in the generated display.

a) view port b) view window

c) view volume d) window volume

Part B

Answer ALL the questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 Marks)

11. a) Write about Raster Scan system in detail.

(OR)

b) Discuss mid-point circle generating algorithm with example.

12. a) Explain Area –fill attributes.

(OR)

b) What is composite transformation? Derive a composite transformation

matrix to rotate an object about an arbitrary point.

13. a) What is viewing pipeline? Derive window to viewport co-ordinate

transformation.

(OR)

b) Discuss in detail about interactive picture construction techniques.

14. a) Write about 3-D Graphics packages.

(OR)

b) Explain 3-D rotation.

15. a) Describe Back face Detection.

(OR)

b) Write a note on Raster animations.

Part C

Answer Any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 Marks)

16. Describe Ellipse Generating algorithm.

17. Discuss in detail about antialiasing techniques.

18. What is Line clipping? Discuss various Line clipping algorithms.

19. Describe 3 –D display methods.

20. Illustrate different types of 3 –D projections.

******

PART –B


4. Detail on types of flour and its role in baking.

5. Explain in detail the causes for bread faults.

6. Detail on the process of dough making.

7. Discuss on types of cookies and the role of ingredients in preparation.

8. Enumerate the characteristics of cakes in detail.

******

Question Code: B25402 Sub Code: U16NDS21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

BAKERY

Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc. ( N & D with CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. a) Discuss on types and functions of yeast.

(OR)

b) Explain the types and role of sugar in baking.

2. a) Write notes on dough mixing, moulding and baking?

(OR)

b) Short notes on sponge dough method and fermented dough method in

bread making.

3. a) Discuss on types of icing sugar.

(OR)

b) Explain the types of biscuits.

Question Code: A30103 /A31103 Sub Code: BCOCR21 / BCACR21



M. S. OFFICE

Time : 3 Hrs B. Com & B.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. The process of LSI and VLSI technologies led to the development of

a) Vacuum tubes b) transistors

c) microprocessor d) integrated circuit

2. The process of copying files from secondary storage to the RAM before

execution is called

a) Memory unit b) Swapping

c) Register d) Accumulator

3. The function that allow to concentrate on one application by making its

window to cover the entire screen is ______

a) minimize b) maximize

c) resize d) close

4. ______ can be used to temporarily store information to move around

documents and windows.

a) Icon b) Desktop

c) Window d) Dialog box

5. Which of the following line spacing is invalid?

a) Single b) Multiple

c) Double d) Triple

6. _____function key is used to initiate spelling and grammar check.

a) F7 b) F12 c) F5 d) F2

7. The number of worksheets present in a workbook is ______

a) 225 b) 245 c) 235 d) 255

8. Excel displays the current cell address in the ______

a) Title bar b) Name bar

c) Formula bar d) Status bar

9. ______ is a computer software package used to display information in the

form of slide show.

a) Simulation program b) Animation program

c) Microsoft program d) Presentation program

10. Effects can be applied for the slides in powerpoint using ______menu.

a) Design b) Animation c) Review d) Insert

PART –B


11. a) Illustrate the Generations of Computers

(OR)

b) Describe Central Processing Unit.

12. a) Explain Start Menu.

(OR)

b) Discuss on Power control and Help Option.

13. a) Explain the Basic file manipulation.

(OR)

b) Describe Tables in MS Word.

14. a) How header and footer is created in Excel.

(OR)

b) Write the procedure to perform mathematical and Automatic

calculation in excel.

15. a) Characterize the features of Powerpoint Window.

(OR)

b) Illustrate how Outline, Slider Tabs and Sorter View are used in

powerpoint.

PART – C


16. List down all the Input devices.

17. Explain about Storing, Removing and Printing files.

18. Summarize the features for Editing a document.

19. Explain Chart in Excel.

20. Describe Spell Check and Print options in Powerpoint.

********

Question Code: A50303 / A51303 Sub: Code: P14COE21/ P14MCE21

/ MCOME21 / MCCME21



RESEARCH METHODS IN COMMERCE


Part – A


1. ______research uses descriptions, classifications, measurements and

comparisons to describe various phenomena.

a) Pure b) Applied

c) Descriptive d) Historical

2. ______is the blue print of the proposed study.

a) Scientific Research b) Research Design

c) Research Report d) Hypothesis

3. ______is filled by the interviewer at the time of interview.

a) Schedule b) Questionnaire

c) Interview d) Sampling

4. ______is filled by the interviewee.

a) Sampling b) Schedule

c) Questionnaire d) Pretest

5. Hypothesis means_______.

a) to suppose b) clear

c) Simplicity d) Research Gap

6. ______hypothesis is more frequently used in statistics.

a) Null b) Alternate

c) Null & Alternate d) Parametric

7. In _____scale, respondent is asked to tick his preference on a graph.

a) Likert b) Rank order

c) Graphic rating d) Paired comparison

8. ______scale is a five –point scale.

a) Likert b) Rank order

c) Graphic rating d) paired comparison

9. ______reports are not formally structured and are generally short.

a) Detailed b) Brief

c) Survey d) Basic

10. ______reports are more formal.

a) Detailed b) Brief

c) Survey d) Basic

PART –B


11. a) What are the steps involved in formulation of a Research problem.

(OR)

b) State the steps involved in Research.

12. a) Discuss the merits & demerits of secondary data.

(OR)

b) State the difference between questionnaire and schedule.

13. a) Write a note on Hypothesis.

(OR)

b) Bring out the difference between Null Hypothesis and Alternate

Hypothesis.

14. a) Write a note on Rank order scaling

(OR)

b) Write a note on Thurstone scale

15. a) State the different types of Analysis of data.

(OR)

b) Write a note on Editing of data.

PART – C


16. Explain briefly the contents of Research Design.

17. State the various types of sampling.

18. Discuss the procedure for hypothesis testing.

19. Write a note on Likert scale.

20. Determine the steps involved in drafting Reports.

*********

PART –B


4. Write short notes on

i) Sugar Industries in India. ii) Cane sugar and Beet sugar.

iii) Pre – preparation before the extraction of juice from Sugarcane.

5. Explain the following

i) Manufacture of CELOTEX.

ii) Testing and Estimation of sugar.

6. i) Describe the separation, drying and refining processes of sugar

manufacturing.

ii) Give the conditions favourable for fermentation.

7. i) Give an account on double Sulphitation process.

ii) Discuss the applications of bagasse.

8. How does we get power alcohol from molasses? Give its importance as

a fuel.

******

Question Code: A22402 Sub: Code: BCHSB21



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

SUGAR TECHNOLOGY

Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc. (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A

Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks )

1. i) Name the steps involved in the manufacture of Cane Sugar.

ii) Explain the defection process of manufacturing Cane Sugar.

2. Describe the process of extraction of juice from Sugar Cane.

3. Discuss about the concentration and Crystallization process in the

manufacturing of Cane Sugar.

4. How will you manufacture Sucrose from Beet root?

5. Write about the characteristics of enzymes.

-1-

Question Code: A30104/ A31104 Sub Code: BCOCR22 / BCACR22



FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING - II

Time : 3 Hrs B.Com & B.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. A bill of exchange is an acknowledgement of _______

a) Debt b) goods

c) credit extended d) purchase

2. When a bill is discharged, the acceptor debits ______

a) creditors a/c b) cash a/c

c) bills payable a/c d) bank a/c

3. When the due date of transactions falls on a public holiday, the due date

will be ____.

a) the same day b) one day after that holiday

c) one day before that holiday d) two days after the holiday

4. The method of account current usually employed by the banker is

known as ______

a) Daily balance method b) Red Ink interest

c) current a/c d) Epoque method

5. Bills receivable from A will be taken to ______

a) General ledger b) Debtors ledger

c) Creditors ledger d) Bills a / c

6. Creditors ledger is also known as _____

a) Sales ledger b) General ledger

c) Purchase ledger d) none of these

7. Receipts and Payment a/c is a _____

-2- -7-

a) Nominal a/c b) real a/c

c) Personal a/c d) Cash a/c

8. Subscription received in advance is ______.

a) an asset b) an income

c) a receipt d) a liability

9. Closing capital + Drawings – opening capital is ____

a) Profit / loss b) Capital

c) Creditors d) Debtors

10. Under single entry system, the following are recorded _____

a) Personal a/cs only b) cash book transactions only

c) both (a+b) d) either a (or) b

PART –B


11. a) What are the features of Bill of exchange?

(OR)

b) On 1.1.2011, A draws a bill on B at four months for Rs.1000 and

B draws on A for similar amount and term. Both the bills are

accepted and discounted at 6% p.a. A meets his own acceptance

at maturity but B‟s acceptance is dishonoured. B then accepts

new bill at 3 months for the amount due by him plus interest at

8% p.a which is duly met at maturity.

Give Journal entries in the books of both the parties.

12. a) Rs.40,000 lent by Sundaram to chatterjee on 1.1.2009 is repayable in

4 equal half yearly installments commencing from 1.1.2010. Calculate

average due date and interest at 15% p.a.

19. Briefly explain about the Receipt and Payment and Income and Expenditure

a/c.

20. Following balances are extracted from the books of Joseph, who keeps

incomplete records of his transactions:-

Items 1.1.2012

Rs.

31.12.2012

Rs.

Stock 2,400 3,000

Debtors 4,000 3,200

Creditors 1,700 3,900

Cash in hand 2,000 3,800

Bank overdraft 2,400 -

Furniture and fittings 800 1,000

Motor Bike 9,500 9,500

Bills Receivable 2,000 4,300

Drawings during the year amounted to Rs.2,800. Depreciate

Furniture and Fittings at 5% and write off Rs.500 on motor Bike. Rs.100

is irrecoverable and a further provisions of 5% for Doubtful debts are to

be provided. Further a provision of Rs.200 in respect of bills are also to

be provided.

Ascertain the profit (or) loss for the year ended 31st Dec.2012 and

prepare a statement of affairs as on that date

*****

-3-

-6-

17. Balaji had the following transactions with Ganesan

Rs.

Jan 20, 2011 Sold goods to Ganesan 400

Mar 2, 2011 Purchased goods from Ganesan 250

Mar 3, 2011 Accepted Ganesan‟s draft at 1 month due 200

April 11, 2011 cash paid to Ganesan 400

April 30, 2011 goods sold to Ganesan due end of May 100

May 11, 2011 Bought goods from Ganesan 300

June 11, 2011 Balaji drew a bill on Ganesan this day

Payable two months after date, and this

was duly accepted by Ganesan 300

Prepare an Account current to be rendered by Balaji to Ganesan as at 30th

June, bringing interest into account at 20% p.a.

18. Prepare the Bought Ledger Adjustment and the Sales Ledger Adjustment a/c

as would appear in the General Ledger of M/s. Hindustan Trader for the year

ended 31.12.2014 from the following information.

Opening Balance (1.1.2014)

Bought Ledger (Dr) – Rs.2,610, (Cr) – Rs.35,820

Sales Ledger (Dr) – Rs.43,860, (Cr) – Rs.720

Transactions during the year

Rs. Rs.

Purchases 1,98,540 Bills receivable received 12,360

Purchase Return 7,680 Bills payable issued 6,750

Sales 2,62,470 B/R dishonoured 750

Sales Returns 3,510 Transfer from Bought to

sales ledger

100

Cash received from

Drs

2,28,630 Transfer from sales to

Bought ledger

40

Discount allowed 8,460 Closing Balance

(31.12.2014)

Cash paid to the Crs 1,75,290 Sales ledger (Cr) 1,360

Discount received 4,980 Bought ledger (Dr) 2,310

Cash refunded to Drs 520

b) X owes Y the following sums of money due on the dates stated:-

Rs.400 due on 05.01.2009

Rs.200 due on 20.01.2009

Rs.800 due on 04.02.2009

Rs.100 due on 26.02.2009

Rs.50 due on 10.03.2009

Calculate a date when payment made by X in one instalment resulting in

no loss of interest to any one.

13. a) What are the Self – balancing ledger.

(OR)

b) From the following prepare a creditors ledger Adjustment a/c

Rs.

1.1.2013 Creditors Balance (Cr.) 12,000

Creditors Balance (Dr.) 150

31.12.2013 Total purchases 40,000

Cash purchases 4,000

Cash paid 20,000

Bills accepted 15,000

Returns outwards 2,000

Returns Inwards 1,000

Bills Receivable dishonoured 1,000

Bills Payable dishonoured 500

Discount earned 600

Discount allowed 200

Bills endorsed 800

Bills discounted 200

Creditors Balance (Dr.) 140

-5- -4-

14. a) From the following particulars, prepare Income and Expenditure a/c.

Rs.

Stock of stationery on 1.4.2010 250

Stock of stationery on 31.03.2011 100

Purchase of stationery during the year 2010 -11 2,800

Stationery bills o/s for 1.4.2010 120

Stationery bill o/s for 31.03.2011 200

Stationery paid in advance on 31.03.2010 140

Stationery paid in advance on 31.03.2011 180

(OR)

b) From the following information of Mohamadan sports club of Calcutta,

you are required to prepare the Receipts and Payment a/c for the year

ended 31.03.2013.

Balance on 01.04.2012 :- Cash 5,000, Bank 3,000

Transaction during the year:

Rs. Rs.

Entrance fee 4,500 Honorarium paid 8,000

Donation 27,000 Billiard Table

Purchased

40,000

Legacy 16,000 Sports meet collection 18,000

Life membership

fee

6,080 Sports expenses 12,000

Rent paid 9,000 Interest paid 5,600

Stationery

purchased

1,800 Purchase of News

paper

1,000

Subscription

2011 - 12

2012 - 13

2013 - 14

5,800

37,000

3,200

Sale of news papers

Balance on

31.03.2013

Cash

600

2,500

15. a) What are the differences between Balance sheet and statement of affairs?

(OR)

b) Mohan, a retail merchant commenced business with a capital of

Rs.12,000. on1.1.2009; Subsequently on 1.5.2009 he invested further

capital of Rs.5000. During the year, he has withdrawn Rs.2000 for his

personal use. On 31.12.2009, his assets and liabilities were as follows.

Rs.

Cash at Bank 3,000

Debtors 4,000

Stock 16,000

Furniture 2,000

Creditors 5,000

Calculate the Profit / loss made during the year 2009.

PART – C


16. A sold goods to B on 30th

October, 2012 for Rs.14,000 and received three

bills for Rs.2000, Rs.4000 and Rs.8000 at 2, 3 and 4 months duration

respectively. He kept the first bill till maturity, endorsed the second bill in

favour of his creditor C and discounted the third bill on 3rd

December, 2012 at

6% p.a. The first and second bills were duly met on maturity but the third bill

was dishonoured, the bank paying Rs.40 as noting charges. On 10th

April,

2012 „B‟ paid Rs.4,000 and the noting charges in cash and accepted a new bill

at 2 months after date for the balance plus Rs.80 as interest. The new bill was

met on maturity. Give journal entries in the books of A and B both.

Question Code: A10202 Sub Code: BHYAS21 / UHYAS21



MODERN POLITICAL THOUGHT

Time : 3 Hrs B.A. (History) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. Popular Sovereignty is a doctrine of ______

a) John Austin b) Prof Laski

c) Thomas Hobbes d) Rousseau

2. Glorious Revolution took place in ______

a) England b) France

c) Germany d) Italy

3. Who wrote the Frag on Government?

a) Bentham b) Montesquieu

c) James mill d) Stuart mill

4. ______ is the important work of Bradley

a) Das capital b) Social contract

c) Ethical values d) The Logic

5. Immanuvel kant was a _____ political thinker.

a) England b) French

c) Italy d) German

6. The objective of communism during 19th

century was ______

a) Classless Society b) Casteless Society

c) Plutocracy d) none of these

7. The term Scientific Socialism is associated with _____

a) Lenin b) Karl Marx

c) Hitler d) Spencer

8. The theory “Dialectic Materialism” was first adopted by_____.

a) The French b) The Romans

c) The Greeks d) The Indians

9. Nazi party was founded in _____.

a) 1917 b) 1918

c) 1919 d) 1929

10. Facism was developed in _____

a) Germany b) England

c) France d) Italy

PART –B


11. a) Social Contract theory of John Locke.

(OR)

b) Theory of Separation of Power by Montesquieu.

12. a) Define Utilitarianism.

(OR)

b) Bentham‟s view on Sovereignty.

13. a) Bradley

(OR)

b) Ethical philosophy of Kant.

14. a) Define communism.

(OR)

b) Communist Manifesto.

15. a) Define Imperialism.

(OR)

b) Emergence of Nazi principle.

PART – C


16. Evaluate various political theories of Thomas Hobbes.

17. Describe John Stuart mill‟s view on Liberty.

18. Explain individualistic views of Spencer.

19. Describe the importance of Leninism.

20. Trace the causes for the emergence of facism and its doctrines.

********

Question Code: A80105 Sub: Code: P14ELC21



BRITISH LITERATURE -III

Time : 3 Hrs M. A. -English Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. „Children in the wood‟ is a famous ballad in _____ “ Reliques on Ancient

Poetry”.

a) Lamb‟s b) Percy‟s c) John‟s d) Kelly‟s

2. ________inspired Lamb to write „A‟ Dissertation Upon Roast Pig‟.

a) Blake b) Alice c) Manning d) Wordsworth

3. The tiger is praised for its ______.

a) System b) Symmetry

c) Meekness d) gentle nature

4. The ancient mariner undertakes the voyage with ______companion‟s.

a) 800 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200

5. „To A Skylark‟ was composed by Shelley during his stay at ______.

a) Leghorn b) Lethe

c) London d) China

6. In „When We Two Parted‟, the split between the lovers was

accompanied by

a) nature b) silence and tears

c) happiness d) laughter

7. Prometheus is bound to ______.

a) Jupiter b) Panthea

c) Precipice d) Asia

8. Whom does Prometheus refer to as “Monarchs of Gods”?

a) Demogorgon b) Jupiter

c) Precipice d) Apollo

9. Who is the nephew of Giles Gosling?

a) Varney b) Tressilian

c) Lambourne d) Alasco

10. Mrs. Philp is ______

a) sister of Bingley b) sister of Darcy

c) Nephew of Mr. Bennet d) sister of Mrs. Bennet

PART –B


11. a) Write a note on the autobiographical element in „A Dissertation

upon roast Pig‟.

(OR)

b) Narrate the story of the „Children in the Woods‟ and its relevance to

the essay „Dream children‟.

12. a) Write a critical appreciation of „The Tyger‟.

(OR)

b) Write a note on the ancient mariners irresponsible act of killing.

13. a) What is the theme of “When We Two Parted”?

(OR)

b) Write a note on the themes discussed in „Ode to Nightingale‟.

14. a) Write a critical note on Shelley‟s symbolism in „Prometheus

Unbounded‟.

(OR)

b) The Last Speech of Demogorgon.

15. a) Why did Amy Robsart secretly marry Earl of Leicester?

(OR)

b) Sketch the character of Jane Bennet.

PART – C


16. Consider Charles Lamb as an essayist.

17. Discuss the supernatural element in „The Rime Of the Ancient Mariner‟.

18. Comment on the aptness of the title “To A Skylark”.

19. Consider „Prometheus Unbound‟ as a Lyrical Drama.

20. Jane Austen‟s portrayal of Mr. Collins has become immortal –

Substantiate.

*********

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2. _______ %yk; mYtyf mikg;G jpl;lj;ij Njitf;Nfw;g

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18. Nfhg;gPl;bd; ed;ikfs; ahit?

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20. mwpf;ifapd; mikg;G gw;wp tpthp.

**********

Part – B

Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)

9. a) State and explain various C++ tokens.

(OR)

b) Illustrate various control structures in C++.

10. a) Explain Function overloading with example.

(OR)

b) i) What is friend function? What are the merits and demerits of using

friend function.

ii) Write a program to implement the concept of friend function.

11. a) With sample program explain dynamic and copy constructors.

(OR)

b) Write a program to add and subtract two complex numbers using operator

overloading.

12. a) What is inheritance? List its different types and explain any two with

sample code.

(OR)

b) Explain virtual function.

13. a) With sample programs explain how to read and display line of text.

(OR)

b) Discuss the features of C++ used for formatting the output.

*******

Sub Code: PGDCA13


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, June – 2016

OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING WITH C++


Part – A


1. Discuss the basic concepts of object oriented programming.

2. Explain call by reference and return by reference with example.

3. How to define member functions in a class. Give examples.

4. Define constructor? Explain parameterized constructor with sample code.

5. State the rules for overloading an operator.

6. Explain THIS pointer.

7. Write a note on C++ stream classes.

8. How to manage output with manipulators in C++.

Part – B


9. Describe phased development process.

10. Explain any two types of Software Development process models.

11. List out the Metrics. Discuss with examples.

12. Elucidate Risk Management.

13. Illustrate Design Notation and Specification in detail.

14. Describe Static Analysis.

15. What is white –Box testing. Explain with examples.

16. Discuss Defect Analysis and how to prevent the defects.

*****

Sub Code: PGDCA14



SOFTWARE ENGINEERING


Part – A


1. Discuss in detail about Quality and productivity.

2. State the need for S.R.S.

3. Explain CoCoMo model.

4. Write about project monitoring plan.

5. Write short notes on : Coupling and Cohesion.

6. Briefly describe about PDL.

7. Illustrate Test plan and Test case Execution and Analysis.

8. Write short notes on Pair –wise testing.

The value of stock on 31.12.2005 was estimated at Rs.5,960 you are

required to make necessary closing the Trading & Profit & Loss a/c.

Balance sheet on 31.12.2005.

*******

Sub: Code: CCACS12


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, JUNE – 2015

BASIC PRINCIPLE OF ACCOUNTING

Time : 3 Hrs CCACS Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. What is accounting?

2. What are the Business Transactions?

3. What is meant by single entry system?

4. Give a list of Accounting.

5. What is Journal?

6. Write a Basic Rule of Accounting.

7. What is Purchase Return? How to handle the Purchases Returns and

Journal entries?

8. Journalise the following transaction and post them ledger in the book of

Mr. Marimuthu.

2003 April

1

Started Business with cash

Rs.

50,000

2 Bank Deposit 50,000

5 Purchases goods for cash 20,000

8 Sales goods 30,000

10 Purchases from Raj & Co. 25,000

15 Goods sold on Krish @ Co. 35,000

18 Telephone Rent 5,000

20 Cash paid to Raj & Co. 25,000

25 Cash Received from Krish @ Co. 35,000

30 Rent Rs.5,000, Salaries Rs.2,000 paid to cash .

Part – B

Answer any five questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)

9. What are the importance of Accounting?

10. Distinguish between Double Entry System / Single Entry System.

11. Explain the Trade Discount and Cash Discount.

12. Write short note on:- a) Contra Entry b) Purchases Return

c) Sales Return d) Direct Expenses

13. Journalise the following transaction in the Book of Mr. Senthil Raja

Post Ledger and prepare the Trail Balance.

2006 Jan.

1

Started Business

Rs.

25,000

2 Deposit into Bank 23,000

10 Purchases Furniture by cash 2,000

15 Cash Purchases 5,000

20 Sold goods 10,000

22 Paid Rent 2,000

25 Telephone Bill 1,000

30 Salaries paid 5,000

14. Explain the Subsidiary Books.

15. What is Bank Reconciliation Statement? Explain the Pass Book and

Cash Book.

16. The following is the Trail Balance of SANKR of Chennai as on 31st

December 2005.

Debit Balance Amount Credit Balance Amount

Opening stock 6,200 Sales 82,920

Building 34,000 Capital 24,000

Furniture 2,000 Bank Loan 6,000

Purchases 42,200 Sundry Creditors 9,840

Salaries 4,400 Return Outwards 840

Rent 1,200 Interest 260

Miscellaneous Expenses 1,000 Dividend 220

Postage 560

Stationery 520

Wages 10,400

Freight on purchases 1,120

Carriage on sales 1,600

Repairs 1,800

Sundry Debtors 12,000

Bad debts 240

Cash in hand 2,600

Return Inwards 2,040

Total 1,24,080 1,24,080

Part – B


17. Discuss about the components of computer system.

18. How would you manipulate windows?

19. Discuss about mail merge in MS Word.

20. How would you check spelling and grammatical errors in Word?

21. Discuss various Input Output devices in detail.

22. Explain how to create charts in Excel.

23. Discuss the various views of a slide.

24. Discuss in detail about the Microsoft Power Point window.

********

Sub Code:



INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND OFFICE AUTOMATION

Time : 3 Hrs CCMET Max. Marks: 75

Part – A

Answer any FIVE questions: (5 x 5 = 25 marks)

1. Brief about the characteristics of computers.

2. Write about basic concepts of Internet.

3. Write about the history of operating systems.

4. What are the basic concepts of Windows Operating System?

5. What are the features of help option in MS Word?

6. How would you format text in Word?

7. Give any five formulas in Excel.

8. How would you create your first Power Point presentation?

Part – B


9. Discuss in detail about the structure of vertebral column with suitable

diagram.

10. Enlist the functions of cell.

11. Give an account of the structure of heart.

12. Write an essay on the types of muscle.

13. Describe in detail about the organs of respiration.

14. Comment on the various types of endocrine glands.

15. Give an elaborate account on the structure of digestive system.

16. Explain the structure of female reproductive system with suitable

diagram.

********

Sub: Code: CCMET12



BASIC ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY


Part – A


1. Describe the structure of a cell.

2. Give an account of classification of bones.

3. Explain the composition of blood.

4. Write short notes on cardiac muscle.

5. Enlist the functions of respiratory system.

6. Give an account of the structure of kidney.

7. What are the functions of hormones?

8. Explain the structure of nerve cell.

Part – B


9. State the importance of ledger and explain the methods for preparation of

ledger in tally.

10. Explain the procedure of balancing of trading account and profit and loss

account.

11. Explain the procedure for applications of compound interest and how it is

used in tally.

12. State the methods for creating discount transactions.

13. State the ways to install Bill of materials in tally.

14. Explain the print outstanding statement.

15. Describe the stock category movement analysis in primary cost centre.

16. State the ways to prepare Budget controls in tally.

**********

Sub Code: DIACS21



COMPUTERIZED ACCOUNTING WITH TALLY

Time : 3 Hrs DACS Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. Analyze the method for using Trail balance and Balance sheet.

2. Discuss the objectives of balance sheet and why it is prepared?

3. Write a note on procedure to setup compound interest and its

calculations in tally.

4. Explain the nominal rate and effective rate of interest.

5. What are the purposes of receivables? Explain.

6. How to control receivables? And how it will use in tally.

7. Explain the procedure for cost centre in tally.

8. What are the essentials of Budget? Explain.

Sub Code: DIACS22




Time : 3 Hrs DACS Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. i)

3

2

3

b

a ii)

5

2

23

y

x iii) 25 77 iv)

252 43

v) 3223 ba

2. Find the sum of the series 3 + 7 + 11 + …... to 40 terms.

3. Divide 81 in the ratio of 2 : 7.

4. 20 men can do a job in 90 days. How many days are needed for 30 men to do

the same job?

5. Find compound interest on Rs.10,000 for 4 years. The rates of interest for the

successive years being 4% , 2

14 % , 5% and

4

14 %.

6. A bill of Rs.5,000 was drawn on 10th

April at 3 months and discounted on

May 1st at 12% p.a. For what sum the bill was discounted? How much did

the banker gain?

7. Solve the following transportation problem using the North – West Corner

method.

A B C D Available

I 11 13 17 14 250

II 16 18 14 10 300

III 21 24 13 10 400

Requirement 200 225 275 250

8. Solve the following assignment problem.

A B C D

18 26 17 11

13 28 14 26

38 19 18 15

19 26 24 10

Part – B


9. Find the value of 64

53

510

432

53

57

34

53

51

41

31

21

.

10. A contractor under took to build a road in 200 days. He employed 140 men.

After 60 days, he found that only ¼ of the road could be built. How many

additional men should be employed to complete the work in time?

11. The ratio of the prices of 2 bicycles was 16:23. Five years later when the

price of the first had increased by 20% and that of the second by Rs.617 the

ratio of their prices became 13:22. What was the original price of the

bicycles?

12. If the 3rd

and 6th

terms of an A.P are 7 and 13 respectively. Find the first term

and the common difference and hence find the sum of first 30 terms.

13. Find the compound interest in following cases

a) On Rs.10,000 for 2years at 10% p.a paid annually.

b) On Rs.6,000 for 2½ years at 10% p.a paid annually.

c) On Rs.5,000 for 1½ years at 5% p.a CI is paid half yearly.

d) Rs. 1,000 for one year at 10% p.a CI is paid quarterly.

14. Find the present worth of Rs.8175 due 5 months hence at 5¼ %.

15. Solve the following transportation problem using the Vogel‟s Approximation

method.

D E F G Available

A 11 13 17 14 250

B 16 18 14 10 300

C 21 24 13 10 400

Demand 200 225 275 250

16. Explain the nature of a travelling salesman problem.

********

Part – B

Answer any THREE questions (3 x15 = 45 marks)

9. Examine the duties and responsibilities of tourist guides.

10. Interpreting the tourism centers to the tourists is very needful – Discuss.

11. Examine the role of travel agencies in co-ordination in organizing tours.

12. Write an essay on communication channels.

13. Personality development is not an automatic process- Discuss.

******

Sub Code: CCTTM12



GUIDING SKILL & PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT


Part – A


1. Define the tem tourist guide

2. What are the qualifications of a Tourist guide?

3. What are the key point to remember in planning an Itinerary?

4. Write a note on the General Instruction given to the participants at

monuments.

5. Classify the various types of tourism

6. What are the needs of the clients on tour?

7. Define the term personality development

8. Write a note on the skill of behavior with male and female clients.

Class Frequency

0-10 10

10-20 20

20-30 ?

30-40 40

40-50 ?

50-60 25

60-70 15

Total 170

The median is 35. Find the missing frequencies.

17. The scores of two cricketers A and B in 10 innings are given below.

Find who is a better run getter and who is more consistent player?

A scores ix 40 25 19 80 38 8 67 121 66 76

B scores iy 28 70 31 0 14 111 66 31 25 4

18. The following data relate to the marks of 10 students in the internal test and the

university examination for the maximum of 50 in each.

Internal marks 25 28 30 32 35 36 38 39 42 45

University marks 20 26 29 30 25 18 26 35 35 46

Obtain the two regression equations.

19. Use the method of least squares and fit a straight line trend to the following

data given from 82 to 92. Hence estimate the trend value for 1993.

Year 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92

Production

In quintals

45 46 44 47 42 41 39 42 45 40 48

20. One factory 1F produces 1000 articles 20 of them being defective, second

factory 2F produces 4000 articles 40 of them being defective and third

factory, 3F produces 5000 articles 50 of them being defective. All these

articles are put in one stock file. One of them in chosen and is found to be

defective. What is the probability that it is from the factory 1F ?

*****

Question Code: B24202 Sub Code: U16CSA21



PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. ( Computer Science ) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A

Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks) 1. In a symmetrical distribution if mean is 24.6 and mode is 26. 1 then the median

is

a) 25.1 b) 25. 2 c) 25 d) none

2. The algebraic sum of the deviation of a set of n values from their arithmetic

mean is

a) zero b) > 0 c) < 0 d) none

3. If ix = 99 , n = 9 and 2

10ix = 79 then 2

ix is

a) 1059 b) 1080 c) 1159 d) none

4. The most popular method for curve fitting is

a) The principle of least squares b) Newton‟s method

c) Lagrange‟s method d) none

5. If x and y are independent then is

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) 1/ 2

6. The equation of the regression line of y on x is 8x – 10y + 66 = 0 and the

equation of the regression line of x on y is 40 x – 18 y = 214. The correlation

coefficient between x and y is

a) 5

2 b)

5

3 c)

5

4 d)

5

1

7. In a cyclical variation the period of oscillation for the periodic movements in a

time series is

a) greater than one year b) greater than two years

c) within a year d) none

8. Seasonal index for thi month is

a) 100ix

x b) 100

x

xi c) 100x

xi d) x

xi

9. If P (A) = 0.4, P (B) = x and BAP = 0.7 where A and B are two mutually

disjoint events, then the value of x is

a) 0.3 b) 1. 3 c) -0.3 d) 0.28

10. If A and B are independent events then

a) APBAP b) BPAPBAP

c) APBAP 1 d) BPAPBAP

PART –B


11. a) Calculate the mean for the following frequency distribution.

class

interval

0-8 8-16 16-24 24-32 32-40 40-48

frequency 8 7 16 24 15 7

(OR)

b) The four parts of a distribution as follows

Frequency Mean

Part -1 50 61

Part -2 100 70

Part -3 120 80

Part -4 30 83

Find the mean of the entire distribution.

12. a) Find arithmetic mean x and standard deviation of the following frequency

distribution.

Marks 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Frequency 1 5 11 15 12 7 3 3 0 1

(OR)

b) Fit a straight line to the following data

X 0 1 2 3 4

Y 2.1 3.5 5.4 7.3 8.2

13. a) Prove that the rank correlation coefficient

1

6

12

1

2

nn

dn

i

.

(OR)

b) Calculate the correlation coefficient for the heights (in inches) of father

(x) and their sons (y)

x 65 66 67 67 68 69 70 72

y 67 68 65 68 72 72 69 71

14. a) Compute the seasonal indices for the following data by simple average

method.

Season 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994

Summer 68 70 68 65 60

Monsoon 60 58 63 56 55

Autumn 61 56 68 56 55

Winter 63 60 67 55 58

(OR)

b) Explain the measurement of trends in a time series.

15. a) If A and B are independent events prove that BA and are also independent

events.

(OR)

b) The chances that 4 students A, B, C, D can solve a problem are 2

1,

3

1 ,

4

1,

4

1 respectively. If all of them try to solve the problem, what is the

probability that the problem is solved.

PART – C


16. An incomplete distribution is given below

Question Code: B80105 Sub Code: P16ELC21



BRITISH LITERATURE –III

Time : 3 Hrs M. A (English) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A


1. _______organized an annual banquet for young chimney-sweepers in

Smithfield.

a) James White b) Elia c) Bo bo d) Mary Poppins

2. _____ lived in a great house in Norfolk.

a) John b) Field c) Lamb d) Alice

3. The Mariner sees ______ standing next to the bodies of all his crewmates.

a) guests b) angels c) ghosts d) hermit

4. Grecian urn is written by ______.

a) John Keats b) William Wordsworth

c) Browning d) Tennyson

5. _______ sketched the pen portrait of the last Duchess.

a) Ferrara b) King

c) Duke d) Fra Pandolf

6. The __________ is the speaker of the poem “My Last Duchess”.

a) Duke of Ferrara b) Keats

c) Browning d) Duchess

7. Mr.Bingley lived at ________.

a) Long bourn b) Nethufield Park

c) Meryton. d) London

8. _________ is in love with Ivanhoe.

a) Rebecca b) Rowena

c) Lydia d) Charlotte

9. ________was the cousin of Clym Yeobright.

a) Amy Dorrit b) Eustacia

c) Vye d) Thomasin

10. _______ is a trusted and resourceful member of Fagin's gang.

a) Mrs. Sowerberry b) Nancy

c) Agnes Fleming d) Charlotte

PART –B


11. a) How does Charles Lamb bring out the fatal working conditions?

(OR)

b) Charles Lamb‟s “A Dissertation upon Roast Pig” is packed with

fun and humour.- Discuss.

12. a) Give a short account on the loneliness and hopelessness suffered

by the mariner.

(OR)

b) Write a critical appreciation of Keats‟ “Ode on a Grecian Urn”.

13. a) Write a brief note on the character of the last Duchess in “My Last

Duchess”.

(OR)

b) “Matthew Arnold uses the means of 'pathetic fallacy', when he

projects the human feeling of sadness” – Elucidate.

14. a) Sketch the character of Wilfred of Ivanhoe.

(OR)

b) Comment on the theme of Pride and Prejudice.

15. a) “Eustacia isn't all that bad; she's more flawed than anything

else” – Explain.

(OR)

b) Explain the role played by Oliver.

PART – C


16. Write an essay on the autobiographical elements present in

Charles Lamb‟s “Dream Children: A Reverie”.

17. Write an essay on „The Rime of the Ancient Mariner‟ as a

myth of crime and punishment.

18. Evaluate the thoughts expressed in Tennyson‟s Ulysses.

19. Discuss Pride and Prejudice as a domestic comedy.

20. Justify the significance of the title The Return of the Native.

******




SHAKESPEARE


Part – A


1. Olivia marries __________.

a) Cesario b) Orsino

c) Sebastian d) Malvolio

2. Twelfth Night has __________.

a) Two heroines b) no heroines

c) three heroines d) one heroine

3. Julius Caesar returns to Rome after conquering the sons of _______.

a) Lepidus b) Octavius

c) Pompey d) Casca

4. Caesar suffers from _______.

a) Hysterical fits b) Epileptic fits

c) Lunatic fits d) none of these

5. Cassio describes Desdemona as ______.

a) heavenly b) celestial

c) godly d) divine

6. Desdemona‟s handkerchief was picked up by_______.

a) Emilia b) Othello

c) Iago d) Cassio

7. Ariel is thirsting for ______.

a) Miranda b) money

c) his liberty d) power

8. ______ was the first to jump out of the burning ship.

a) Gonzalo b) Antonio

c) Sebastian d) Ferdinand

9. „Twelfth Night‟ is a ______ comedy.

a) romantic b) pastoral

c) dark d) tragic

10. The first scene of „Julius Ceasar‟ opens in ______.

a) Roman Court b) Senate

c) a street in Rome d) King‟s palace

PART –B


11. a) Sketch the character of Viola in „Twelfth Night‟.

(OR)

b) Discuss the different kinds of love in the play „Twelfth Night‟.

12. a) What effect has Antony‟s brilliant oration on the Roman mob?

(OR)

b) Write briefly about the assassination of Caesar.

13. a) Describe the circumstances leading to Othello‟s dismissal of Cassio.

(OR)

b) Write a paragraph on Iago‟s grudge against Othello.

14. a) Write a note on Prospero‟s treatment of Caliban.

(OR)

b) True freedom lies in service – Substantiate.

15. a) Comment on the importance of the opening scene of Shakespeare‟s plays.

(OR)

b) Shakespeare‟s tragedies evoke pity and terror. – Justify.

PART – C


16. Consider „Twelfth Night‟ as a romantic comedy.

17. Describe the plot construction of „Julius Caesar‟.

18. Discuss the tragic flaw in the character of Othello.

19. Write an essay on the autobiogrphical note in „The Tempest‟.

20. Attempt an essay on the characteristic features of Shakespeare‟s sonnets.

******

Question Code: B80303/ A80302 Sub Code: P16ELE21/ P14ELE21



COMPUTER FOR EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION


Part – A


1. ______is the process of entering data and programs into the computer

system.

a) output b) input c) typing d) inserting

2. One nano second is equal to _____second.

a) 1 x 10 3 b) 1 x 10 6 c) 1 x 10 9 d) 1 x 10 12

3. Which operation you will perform if you need to move a block of text?

a) copy & paste b) cut & paste

c) paste & delete d) paste & cut

4. Bold, Italic and Regular are known as ______.

a) font styles b) font effects

c) word art d) text effects

5. A file which contains readymade styles that can be used for a

presentation is called

a) auto style b) template c) wizard d) preformatting

6. Which is the shortcut key to jump to the first slide of the presentation?

a) Home b) Ctrl + Home

c) Alt + Home d) shift + Home

7. HTML stands for ______.

a) Hyperlink markup language b) Hypertext markup language

c) Hypertext madeup language d) Hyperlink madeup language

8. ______will make finding things on the internet easier.

a) CPU b) key board c) mouse d) search engines

9. To get started blogging we can click the _____.

a) start b) open c) start blogging d) blog

10. The parent term of cyberspace is _____derived from the ancient Greek.

a) cybertics b) cyberical

c) cybernetics d) cybernatical

PART –B


11. a) Write an essay on the types of computer.

(OR)

b) Write a note on second generation computer.

12. a) What is meant by formatting the text? How is it done?

(OR)

b) Write a brief note on checking spelling and grammatical errors.

13. a) Explain what are the operations to be performed on the slides?

(OR)

b) Discuss how to add and modify animations to the slides.

14. a) What is internet? How information travels on the internet?

(OR)

b) Explain how to connect to the internet.

15. a) Write a note on blogger.

(OR)

b) Define cyberspace with examples.

PART – C


16. What is a computer? Define the different categories of computer.

17. Define mail merge with various steps involved in it.

18. Discuss the procedure to create a power point presentation.

19. Write down the procedure to create a Gmail account.

20. Explain how a blog can be created.

******

-8-

-1-

( Number of

vehicles in

thousands )

1. What is the difference between the total productions of the two

companies in the given years?

2. What is the difference between the number of vehicles manufactured

by company Y in 2008 and 2009?

3. What is the average numbers of vehicles manufactured by company

X over the given period.

4. What is the difference between the productions of companies X and

Y was the maximum among the given years?

5. The production of company Y in 2008 was approximately what

percent of the production of company X in the same year?

*******

Question Code: B20402/ A20402 Sub Code: U16MAS21/ BMASB21

Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2017

DATA INTERPRETATION

Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A

Answer ALL questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks ) 1. a) The following table gives the sales of batteries manufactured by a

company over the years

Year Types of Batteries

4AH 7AH 32AH 35AH 55AH Total

1992 75 144 114 102 108 543

1993 90 126 102 84 126 528

1994 96 114 75 105 135 525

1995 105 90 150 90 75 510

1996 90 75 135 75 90 465

1997 105 60 165 45 120 495

1998 115 85 160 100 145 605

a) The total sales of all the seven years is the maximum for which battery?

b) What is the difference in the number of 35AH batteries sold in 1993 and

1997?

c) In the case of which battery there was a continuous decrease in sales from

1992 to 1997?

d) What was the approximate percentage increase in the sales of 55AH

batteries in 1998 compared to that in 1992?

(OR)

b) The following table gives the expenditures of a company (in Lakh

Rupees) per annum over the given years.

Item of

Expenditure

Year

Salary Fuel

&

Transport

Bonus Interest

on

Loans

Taxes

2005 288 98 3.00 23.4 83

2006 342 112 2.52 32.5 108

2007 324 101 3.84 41.6 74

2008 336 133 3.68 36.4 88

2009 420 142 3.96 49.4 98

Production in

(10,000

tonnnes)

Years

s

-7-

-2-

a) What is the ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the

years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years.

b) What is the total expenditure of the company over these items during

the year 2007?

c) What is the average amount of interest per year which the company

had to pay during this period?

d) Total expenditure on all these items in 2005 was approximately what

percent of the total expenditure in 2009.

e) The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given

period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary

paid during this period?

2. a) The following bar – graph is the production of fertilizers by a company (in 10000

tonnes) over the years.

1. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers

more than the average production of the given years?

2. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers

From 2007 to 2008?

3. What was the percentage increase in production of fertilizers in

2012 compared to that in 2005?

(OR)

b) The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of total

expenditure of a company under various expense heads during 2015.

7. The pie graph shows the spendings of a country on various spots during a

particular year.

1. What percent of the total spendings is spent on Tennis?

2. How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?

3. How much percent less is spent on football than that on cricket?

4. What is the amount spent on cricket and Hockey together if the total

amount spent on sports during the year was Rs.2 crores?

5. What is the amount spent on basketball exceeds that on tennis, if the

total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs.1,80,00,000.

8. Two componies are manufactured the veticles (in thousands) study the

following line graph & answer the questions.

Hockey,

63°

Football, 54°

Golf, 36°

Basket

Ball, 50°

Cricket ,

81°

Market

Borrow ing

29952

External

Assitance 11486

Annuity

600

0Tol

l 491

0

SP

VS

5252

Sales in

(1000)

-6-

-3-

1. The foreign exchange reserves in 2007 -2008 was how manny times that in 2004 -05?

2. What was the percentage increase in the foreign exchange reserves in 2007 -08 over

2003 -04?

3. For which year the percent increase of foreign exchange reserves over the previous year

is the highest?

4. The foreign exchange reserves in 2006 -07 were approximately what percent of the

average foreign exchange reserves over the period under review?

6. The bar graph gives the sales of books (in thousand numbers) from six branches of a

publishing company during two consecutive 2010 and 2011.

1. What is the total sales of branches B1, B3, & B5 together for both the years ?

(in thousand numbers).

2. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of

branch B3 for both the years?

3. What is the average sale of all the branches for the year 2010?

4. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales

of branch B4 for both years?

5. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2011 is the

average sales of branches B1, B3 & B6 in 2010?

Present

spent

1. What is the ratio of the total expenditure on infrastructure and transport to the

total expenditure on taxes and inteest on loans?

2. If the expenditure on advertisement is Rs.2.10 crores. What is the difference

between the expenditures on transport and taxes?

3. The total amount of expenditures of the company is how many times the

expenditure on research and development?

3. a) The following pie chart shows the sources of funds to be collected by the National

Highways Authority of India (NHAI) for its projects. Total funds to be arranged for

projects is 57600 corers

1. What is the central angle corresponding to market Borrowing?

2. What is the approximate ratio of the funds to be arranged through

Toll and that through market Borrowing?

3. If NHAI could receive a total of Rs.9695 crores as External Assistance,

Projects in crores

2010

2011

Years

(in Million US $)

percentage

-4- -5-

by what percent should it increase the market Borrowings to arrange for

the shortage of funds?

(OR)

b) The following line graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who

qualified an examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the

examination over a period of seven years from 1994 to 2000.

1. If the number of candidates qualified in 1998 was 21200, what was the

number of candidates appeared in 1998.

2. The total number of candidates qualified in 1999 and 2000 together was

33500 and the number of candidates appeared in 1999 was 26,500. What was

the number of candidates appeared in 2000.

3. The difference between the percentages of candidates qualified to appeared

was maximum in which of the following pairs of years. 1994 & 95, 1997 and

98, 1999 & 2000, 1994 & 1997.

PART –B


4. The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven

students in six different subjects in an examination.

Subjects

(Max.

marks)

Student

Maths

(150)

Chem.

(130)

Phy.

(120)

Geogra

(100)

Hist

(60)

C.S

(40)

Ayush 90 50 90 60 70 80

Aman 100 80 80 40 80 70

Sajal 90 60 70 70 90 70

Rohit 80 65 80 80 60 60

Muskan 80 65 85 95 50 90

Tanvi 70 75 65 85 40 60

Tarun 65 35 50 77 80 80

1. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal in all six subjects?

2. What is the overall percentage of Tarun?

3. How many students who obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjets.

4. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven studens in physics?

5. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?

5. The bar graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a company

(in million US $) from 2001 -02 to 2008 -09.

i) Who were playing in the garden?

ii) Describe the garden?

iii) How many peach trees are there in the garden?

iv) “How happy we are there!” – Who told this?

12. Dialogue writing ( 3 x 1 = 3)

Sugavarna : Are you coming from the library?

Varnesh : _______

Sugavarna : What book are you having?

Varnesh : _______

Sugavarna : Are you a member of the library?

Varnesh : ______

Sugavarna : Ok. See you. Bye.

Varnesh : Bye

13. Hints Development (1 x 5 = 5)

A rich woman – blind – doctor promises to recover her vision

– demands Rs.5,000/- the women agrees to pay after the cure –

doctor takes away costly things everyday – woman gets cured –

but refuses to pay – doctor goes to court she says not cured – can‟t

see any of her costly things in the room.

******

Question Code: Sub Code: BLAEN21



Prose, Short stories, Remedial Grammar and Composition

Time : 3 Hrs B.A / B.Sc./ B.Com / B.B.A Max. Marks: 75

Section – A (Proso 25 marks)

1 . Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below

them in a sentence or two each. Attempt any TWO out of three.

( 2 x 3 = 6 )

a) I was born into a middle – class Tamil family in the island town of

Rameshwaram in the erstwhile Madras state. My father Jainulabdeen,

had neither much formal education nor much wealth; despite these

disadvantages, he possessed great innate wisdom and a true generosity of

spirit.

1. Here „I‟ refers to whom?

2. Who is Jainulabdeen?

3. What did he possess?

b) Galileo‟s full name was Galileo Galilei, but as he grew to manhood he

preferred to be known only by his first name. The baby Galileo was born

in Pisa, 1562.

1. What was Galileo‟s full name?

2. Where did he born?

3. In which year he was born?

c) On a London bus you will never hear the conductor cry, „Ticket, Ticket ;

He approaches the passenger and says „Thank you‟ and on receiving the

fare says again. Thank you, sir‟. A man who wants to pass you always

says „Excuse me‟.?

1. Where the conductor will never cry?

2. Who will say thank you on receiving the fare?

3. Who will say „Excuse me‟?

2. Answer any THREE of the following four questions in

about 100 wards each. ( 3 x 3 = 9 )

a) Sketch the character of the doctor.

b) How did Galileo‟s father influence his son‟s education?

c) What is author‟s attitude in the essay “Toasted English”?

d) Sketch the biography of Dr. Abdulkalam.

3. Write an essay on any ONE of the following two questions in about 250

words ( 1 x 10 = 10 )

a) How did the good Sanaritations help in the resurrection of the

forborn young man in „The Best investment I ever made‟?

b) What did Dr. Kalam learn from his father about the power of prayer?

Section – B (Short stories 15 marks)

4. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two ( 5 x 1 = 5 )

a) At what time the astrologer opened his bag?

b) Who wrote „The Tiger in the Tunnel‟?

c) What was the art which the second son learnt?

d) What do you mean by Burgundy?

e) Who is the author of „The Judgments of Paris‟?

5. Write an essay on any one of the following two questions in about

250 words (1 x 10 = 10)

a) Narrate briefly the story of Guru Nayak and the astrologer.

b) Bring out the heroism of Baldeo, the Khalasi.

Section – C (Remedial Grammar 20 marks)

6. Fill in the blanks with correct modals (5 x 1 = 5)

i) ______you lift this box?

ii) It _____rain today.

iii) _____ I help you?

iv) We _____meet tomorrow.

v) We _____eat to live.

7. Write question tags for the following (5 x 1 = 5)

i) you aren‟t going out.

ii) you do not know the answer.

iii) She can‟t speak.

iv) She can Swim well.

v) Your sister is tall.

8. Change into Passive voice (5 x 1 = 5)

i) I opened the door.

ii) Children love animals.

iii) The hunter killed the bird.

iv) They enjoy bathing

v) I gave the baby a doll.

9. Change into Active voice (5 x 1 = 5)

i) The diagrams are being drawn by her.

ii) Thirukural was being recited by the child.

iii) The pots were being molded by the potters.

iv) The queen is called by the king.

v) A pen was given by Ram.

Section – D (Composition 15 marks)

10. Expansion of proverbs: Attempt any ONE out of three in about 100

wards (1 x 3 = 3)

i) The face is the index of the mind.

ii) Too much of anything is good for nothing.

iii) Look before you leap.

11. Read the following passage and answer the questions below. (4 x 1 = 4)

Every afternoon, as they were corning from school, the children used to

go and play in the Giant‟s garden. It was a large lovely garden, with soft

green grass. Here and there over the grass stood beautiful flowers like stars,

and there were twelve peach – trees that in the spring time broke out into

delicate blossoms of pink and pearl, and in the autumn bone rice fruit. The

birds sat on the trees and sang so sweetly that the children used to stop their

games in order to listen to them “ How happy we are here!” the children

cried to each other.

Worker

Machine 1 2 3 4

1 41 42 40 35

2 35 42 43 36

3 42 39 44 47

Test whether there are significant differences between the machines and the

workers.

PART – C


16. Let X be 2

22

2

1 , be &, nYn . If n = w, m = 7, X = 4.2,

,32,49,4.3 2

2

2

1 SSY find 90% confidence interval for 21 and .

17. State and Prove Neyman factorization Theorem.

18. Let X have a Gamma distribution with 0,4 . Find the Fisher

information.

19. State and prove Neyman – Pearson Theorem. (For continuous type).

20. An investigator for a consumer cooperative organized a study of the

mileages obtainable from three different brands of gasoline. Using 15

identical motors set to run at the same speed, the investigator randomly

assigned each brand of gasoline to 5 of the motors. Each of the motors was

then run on 10 gallons of gasoline, with the total mileages obtained as

follows.

Gas 1 Gas 2 Gas 3

220 240 252

251 235 272

226 232 250

246 242 238

260 225 256

Test the hypothesis that the average mileage obtained is the same for all

three types of gasoline. Use the 5 percent level of significance.

Question Code: B60108 Sub Code:





Part – A


1. In Bayesian statistics, the probability density function h( ) is called _____.

a) prior p.d.f. of b) posterior p.d.f. of

c) subjective probability d) A Bayes‟ solution

2. Let C be the subset of the sample space which leads to the rejection of the

hypothesis under consideration. Then C is called _____to the test.

a) events b) critical region

c) simple hypothesis d) statistical hypothesis

3. Any statistic whose mathematical expectation is equal to the parameter is

called _____.

a) random sample b) unbiased estimator


4. The decision function given by y0 is such that, for all

yRyR ,max ,max 0 for every other decision function

y , then y0 is called _____.

a) maxmini decision function b) minimax decision function

c) minimum mean – square –error estimator d) square – error loss function

5. Let a random experiment be repeated n independent times and under

identical conditions. Then the random variables n21 X,...,X ,X (each of

which assigns a numerical value to an outcome) constitute the observations

of a ________.

a) random sample b) events


6. What is meant by best critical region of size .

7. Let n21 X,...,X ,X , denote independent random variables that are

N 2 ,i, i = 1, 2, …n and Y = i

X

i

n

i

0let and 2

1

2

. Find the

moment generating function of Y.

8. Let n21 X,...,X ,X , denote a random sample from the distribution with p.d.f.

fotherwise0

1 ,01

1x xx

x

,

where 0 1, Find the likelihood function.

9. Define unbiased minimum variance.

10. A Bayes‟ solution is a decision function that minimizes _____if is a

random variable of the continuous type.

PART –B


11. a) Given that .225 %,9511 2xxP Find n.

(OR)

b) Let 222111 ,nb be and ,nb be pYpY , where 1p is the mean of

1

1

nY

and 2p is the mean of 2

2

nY

. Determine a confidence interval for

1p - 2p .

12. a) Show that a die was cast n = 120 independent time & following data

resulted

Spots up 1 2 3 4 5 6

Frequency b 20 20 20 20 40-b

If we use a chi – sequence test, for what values of b would the hypothesis

that the die is unbiased, be rejected at the 0.025 significance level.

(OR)

b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from the distribution that has

probability density function

0

101 ,01 ;

1

elsewhere

xxf

xx

.

Prove that 1Y = n21 X...X X is a sufficient statistic for .

13. a) If 0.35, 0.92. 0.56 & 0.71 are the 4 observed values of a random sample from

13. the distribution having pdf.

elsewhere

xxxf

0

10 ;

1

find the maximum likelyhood estimate.

(OR)

b) State and prove Rao- Cramer inequality.

14. a) Let X be n , , 2 is known. Find the fisher information.

(OR)

b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from 21,n . Find the variance

covariance matrix.

15. a) To determine whether accidents are more likely to occur on certain days of

the week, data have been collected on all the accidents requiring medical

attention that occurred over the last 12 months at an automobile plant in

northern California. The data yielded a total of 250 accidents, with the number

occurring on each day of the week being as follows.

Monday 62 Tuesday 47

Wednesday 44 Thursday 45

Friday 52

(OR)

b) The following are the numbers of defective items produced by four

workers using, in turn, at three different machines.

ab S2

= 2

2

11

XXbXX i

b

j

iij

a

i

PART – C


16. Find the confidence interval for difference of means.

17. State and Prove the factorization theorem of Neyman.

18. Derive Rao – Cramer inequality.

19. State and prove Neyman – Pearson Theorem.

20. Discuss about a test of the Equality of several means.

*****






Part – A


1. Any statistic that converges in probability to a parameter is called

_____estimator of that parameter .

a) a biased b) an unbiased

c) a consistent d) an inconsistant

2. Define a test of a statistical hypothesis.

3. Define a sufficient statistic for .

4. The square – error loss function is , L = ____.

a) | – | b) – c) ( – )2 d) | – |

2 + b

5. What is a Bayes‟ solution ?

6. The statistic Y is called an efficient estimator of if and only if the variance

of Y attains the ______lower bound.

a) Rao – Cramer b) efficient

c) estimator d) statistic

7. What do you mean by a best critical region?

8. Let W be N ( , 1 ) and V be 2 ( r ). Suppose W and V are independent.

Then _____is said to have a non central t – distribution with r – degrees of

freedom and non centrality parameter .

a) T = r

VW b) T =

rV

W

c) W =

rV

T d) W =

r

VT .

9. The symbol 0 ,2 r is equivalent to ______.

a) 02 b) r2

c) 12 d) rr ,2

10. If 2

22

21

nS then , , ison that distributi a from are ,... , NXXX n is _____.

PART –B


11. a) Let nXXX ,... , 21 denote a random sample from a distribution that is

221 0 , , , ,N . Find the maximum likely hood

estimators of 21 and .

(or)

b) Let 21 Y and Y be two independent random variables with binomial

distributions b ),( 11 pn and b ) ,( 22 pn respectively. Find a 95 4 percent

confidence interval for the difference 1p - 2p of the means 1

1

nY

and

2

2

nY

when 1n and 2n are known.

12. a) Let nXXX ,... , 21 be a random sample of size n > 1 from a distribution that

is N ( , 1 ). Prove that U 1X is an unbiased estimator of

cxc Pr

(or)

b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from the distribution with p.d.f.

, 0

10, ;

1

elswhere

xxxf

Prove that n21 ....X ,X X is a sufficient statistic for .

13. a) Let the random sample n21 ....X ,X X arise from N ),( 21 . Find the

approximate variance – covariance matrix of the maximum likelihood

estimators.

(or)

b) Let 2S denote the variance of a random sample of size n > 1 from a

distribution that is N( , ) , 0 < < ∞, where is known. Find the

efficiency of the estimator 1

2

n

nS.

14. a) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from a distribution which has

p.d.f. f(x) that is positive on and only on the nonnegative integers. Test the

simple hypothesis

elsewhere, 0

,...2 ,1 ,0,!)(:

1

0

xx

exfH is known against the

alternative hypothesis

, 0

,...2 ,1 ,0,2

1 :

1

1

elsewhere

xxfH

x

(or)

b) Suppose n21 X,...,X ,X and n21 Y,...,Y ,Y are the independent random

samples from the distributions 31 ,N and N 42 , respectively. Test

the hypothesis 430 :H unspecified with 21 and also unspecified

against all alternatives.

15. a) Discuss the non – central F –distribution

(or)

b) Let 2S be the variance of the random sample of size n = ab. Prove that

Part – B


9. Discuss about the Generation of computers.

10. Discuss in detail about Basic computer organisation.

11. How would you store, remove and print files.

12. Write the procedure to create a Table in Microsoft word and explain with

example.

13. Discuss about bulleting and numbering list in Microsoft word.

14. Discuss in detail about the Microsoft Excel window.

15. How would you manipulate functions in Excel?

16. How would you create slide animations?

********

Sub Code: CCMET11


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, May – 2017

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND OFFICE AUTOMATION


Part – A


1. Write about the History of computers.

2. What are the types of computers? Brief on them.

3. Give the objectives of operating system.

4. How would you open and close an application? Explain.

5. How would you edit a document?

6. What are the steps in formatting a paragraph?

7. How would you fill the cells and print them in Excel?

8. Write about the spell check option available in power point.

Part – B


9. Discuss in detail about the structure of a cell with suitable diagram.

10. Describe the parts of vertebral column.

11. Write an essay on the structure of heart.

12. Describe the organs of digestive system.

13. Explain the structure of lungs.

14. Give an elaborate account on the structure and functions of kidney.

15. Explain the structure of nerve cell with labeled diagram.

16. Enlist the functions of endocrine glands.

********

Sub Code: CCMET12



BASIC ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY


Part – A


1. What are the functions of a cell?

2. Describe the structure of skull.

3. Give an account of skeletal muscle.

4. Enumerate the functions of respiratory system.

5. Discuss the glands associated with digestive system.

6. Comment on the role of thyroid gland.

7. Describe the various parts of brain.

8. Explain the structure of male reproductive system.

Part – B


9. a) With a sample program, describe the basic structure of a C program.

(OR)

b) Define variable: How to declare variable and assign values to variables?

Give examples.

10. a) Explain i) Bitwise ii) Relational & iii) Logical operators.

(OR)

b) Explain formatted input / output operations.

11. a) With sample program explain IF – Else statement and Else If ladder.

(OR)

b) With sample program explain switch statement.

12. a) Explain FOR loop in detail.

(OR)

b) Write a program to multiply two matrices.

13. a) What is function? How to define functions? Describe the elements of a

function.

(OR)

b) i) What is Recursion? Discuss.

ii) Write a program to find the factorial of a given member using

recursion.

*******

Sub Code: PDCA16C3



PROGRAMMING IN C


Part – A


1. Write a program to calculate the simple and compound interest.

2. With example explain conditional operator.

3. How to read and write a character in C? Give example.

4. Explain simple IF statement with example.

5. Describe the syntax of WHILE statement.

6. What is an array? How to initialize an array?

7. Write a function program to generate the first n fibonacci numbers.

8. With sample code explain the category of functions that return multiple

values.

Part – B


9. a) Explain in detail about WWW.

(OR)

b) Explain the Netscape Navigator window and its menu bar.

10. a) Discuss how to create colorful web page.

(OR)

b) How to insert pictures and images in a HTML document? Give sample

HTML code.

11. a) What is an ordered list? Explain its various attributes and develop a

HTML document using this list.

(OR)

b) How to create table in HTML? Write about cell alignment.

12. a) Write a set of frames to show your bio - data in a colorful form with

suitable links.

(OR)

b) Develop a webpage to describe your skills in various area.

13. a) With example explain the attributes of Drop down list.

(OR)

b) Write notes on i) Check boxes ii) Radio buttons

iii) Submit & Reset buttons

*****

Sub Code: PDCA16C4



WEB DESIGNING USING HTML


Part – A


1. Discuss the role of computers in Business.

2. Write a short note on Favorites menu.

3. Illustrate the use of < title > tag in HTML documents.

4. Write about Horizontal rule.

5. Give an account on Nested list.

6. How to prefer cell spanning in multiple rows / columns.

7. Define Frameset.

8. Explain different form attributes.

2. prevention is better than cure

3. A friend inneed is a friend indeed.

XI. Read the following passage and answer the questions below. (4 x1 = 4 )

Books are the greatest treasure of mankind and the habit of reading them is the

source of pleasure. He who is in the habit of reading books should buy books

for himself. He should start collecting books in his youth. The books collected

and arranged properly in a room not only decorate the room, but also make

the presence of their authors felt. Books contain in them are eternal truths and are

better friends than those of flesh and blood as they not only entertain but also guide

us.

1. What are the treasures and what gives pleasure?

2. When should one start collecting books?

3. What do books contain in them?

4. Mention any two uses of books.

XII Dialogue writing (3 x 1 = 3)

Book seller : Hello sir ! What do you want sir?

Customer : Sir, would you allow me to exchange this book with another

book?

Book seller : ____________?

Customer : A few pages are missing in this book.

Book seller : ____________?

Customer : I bought the book this morning.

Book seller : ____________?

Customer : Here is the bill, can I have another book?

XIII. Hints Development (5 marks)

An ant – to drink water – went to a river – fell in to it – cried for help – a

dove sitting on the tree – threw a leaf – ant climbed – reached the share –its life

saved – days passed –a hunter came there –tried to shoot the dove – dove did

not see the man – ant saw him – ran and bit his leg – man cried – dove noticed

him – flew away safely.

Question Code: B02102 Sub Code: U16LAE21/U17LAE21



B. A. / B.Sc. / B. Com (PA) - Part II – English

PROSE , SHORT STORY, REMEDIAL GRAMMAR AND COMPOSITION

Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks : 75

Section – A (prose - 25 Marks)

I . Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below

them in a sentence or two, Attempt any TWO out of three: (2 x 3 = 6)

a. Excuse me, Doctor, I wonder if I might introduce myself. If you could

spare a few minutes _____my wife and I would so like to have a word

with you‟

1. Whom does the „Doctor‟ refer to?

2. Who is referred as „my wife‟?

3. Explain the context.

b. Galileo passed away at the age of seventy eight and was buried without a

monument because he died a prisoner‟.

1. Who is Galileo?

2. Where do you come across this passage?

3. Galileo died as a ______.

c. “One noticeable result of this toasting is that most of the formalism

surrounding the use of English has been abandoned”.

1. Who says this and where?

2. What does he mean by „toasting‟?

3. Where has much of formal English been abandoned?

II. Answer any THREE of the following questions in about 100 words each:

(3 x 3 = 9)

a. Give a short note on „looking –tube‟ by Galileo?

b. How did the fellow traveller serve the society in A.J cronin‟s The Best

Investment I Ever made‟?

c. Define “mongrelisation‟?

d. What has Abdulkalam achieved in his work from “Wings of Fire”?

III. Write an essay on any one of the following two questions in about

250 words (1 x 10= 10 marks)

a. „Galileo is honoured as a great benefactor to mankind and his discoveries

are held in grateful memory‟: - Explain.

b. Write an essay on the childhood experiences of Dr. A.P. J. Abdulkalam.

SECTION –B (Short stories - 15 marks)

IV. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

a. Who came to drop the blind girl to the compartments in the story

“The Eyes are not Here”?

b. What is the name of Cabuliwallah?

c. How many years Loisel worked hard to buy the Diamond Necklace?

d. Who was the Minister of culture?

e. Who wrote the short story „The Eyes are not Here‟?

V. Write an essay on any one of the following two questions in about

250 wards: (1 x 10 = 10 marks)

a. Critically comment on „The voter‟ by Chinua Achebe?

b. How did Tagore portray the relationship between a father and

his daughter in his short story „The Cabuliwallah‟.

Section – C ( Remedial Grammar )

VI. Fill in the blanks with correct Auxiliary verbs (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

i. We ____ cross the river.

ii. We _____ to obey the elders.

iii. I _____like to be with you.

iv. We ____help you.

v. _____ you join us to sing?

VII. Write Question Tags for the following : (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

i) She can solve the problem easily ______.

ii) She did not love me _____.

iii) I am not interested in watching cricket _____.

iv) Please treat him immediately _____.

v) He seldom goes to cinema______.

VIII. Change into passive voice : (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

i) She is writing a book.

ii) I finished my work yesterday.

iii) He will have written a letter.

iv) When did you buy the car?

v) Do not tell him about this.

IX. Change into Active voice: (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

i) Gitanjali was written by Tagore.

ii) English is spoken by our students.

iii) The poor should be helped by us and we will be praised by them.

iv) The portions were completed and a test was conducted by the

teacher.

v) I will be visited and given a watch by my uncle on my birthday.

SECTION –D (Composition -15 Marks)

X. Expansion of proverbs

Attempt any one out of three in about 100 words (3 x 1=3 marks)

1. Slow and steady wins the race.

tpdhj;jhs; vz;: A01302 ghlf; FwpaPL : BLAOT21



mYtyf Nkyhz;ik Neuk;: 3 kzp B. B. A. kjpg;ngz;fs; : 75

gFjp – m

midj;Jf; Nfs;tpfSf;Fk; tpil jUf rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;T nra;f : (10 x 1 = 10)

1. mYtyfk; ,Uf;fpd;w ,lj;jpw;Fs; kidJizg; nghUl;fisAk; rhjdq;fisAk; xOq;FgLj;jp itj;jNy_______ MFk; m) mYtyf Nkyhz;ik M) mYty fl;blk; ,) mYtyf mikg;Gj;jpl;lk; <) mYtyfk;

2. _______ %yk; mYtyf mikg;G jpl;lj;ij Njitf;Nfw;g

khw;wpf;nfhs;syhk;. m) jLg;Gfs; M) tiuNtw;giw ,) Jiwfs; <) Rth;fs;

3. jftyhs; my;yJ mQ;ryj;jpd; %yk; vOj;J %ykhd jfty;

njhlh;G nfhs;Sjy; _______vdg;gLk;. m) jfty; M) jghy; ,) mwpf;if <) mwptpg;G

4. _______ vd;gJ ifnaOj;J my;yJ jl;nlOj;jpd; %yk;

gjpTfisr; nra;tjw;fhd jiyg;GfSld; $ba mr;rbf;fg;gl;l jhs; my;yJ ml;ilahFk; . m) mYtyfk; M) gbtk; ,) njhlh;G <) mYtyfg; gbtk;

5. mfu vOj;Jf;fs; xt;nthd;Wk; ntspNa njhpAk;gb FwpaPL cs;s Gj;jfj;jpd; gf;fq;fs; mikf;fg;gLkhdhy;, mjw;F_______ FwpaPL vd;W ngah;. m) Nfhl;L M) ml;il ,) jd; <) rf;fuk;

6. $h;Kid topahf jhs;fs; Jisaplg;gl;L fk;gpf;Fs; nrhUfg;gLk; Kiwf;F _______ Nfhg;Gfs; vd;W ngah;. m) $h;Kid M) Gwhf;$l;LKiw ,) ngl;b <) mr;Rg;gpujp

7. Kd; ml;il my;yJ Kd; gf;fj;jpy;______ ,Uf;f Ntz;Lk;. m) Kfthp M) jiyg;G

,) nghUslf;fk; <) ifnaOj;J

8. ______ fzpg;Gg; nghwp kpd;rhuj;jpdhy; ,af;fg;gLfpwJ. m) Row; M) jhdpaq;fp ,) kpd;dpaf;f <) (m) kw;Wk; (M)

9. $l;lj;jpy; eilngWk; Ngr;R thh;j;ijfspd; Kf;fpa tpguq;fis kl;Lk; njhFj;J mwpf;ifapy; Nrh;j;jhy; mt;twpf;if_____ mwpf;if vdg;gLk;. m) njhopy;El;g M) rl;lg;G+h;t ,) Kiwrhuh <) RUf;fkhd

10. ______ vd;gJ XU Fwpg;gpl;l nghUs; gw;wpa cz;ikfs; xd;W

Nrh;f;fg;gl;l gl;bayhFk;. m) mwpf;if M) mwptpg;G ,) mikg;G <) Mw;wy;

gFjp - M

midj;Jf; Nfs;tpfSf;Fk; ,uz;L gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tpil jUf (5 x 7 = 35)

11. m) mYtyf Nkyhz;ikapd; gzpfs; ahit? (my;yJ)

M) mjpfhu xg;gilg;G nfhs;iffs; ahit?

12. m) njhlh;; vOJnghUspd; tiffs; ahit?

(my;yJ) M) fbjg; Nghf;Ftuj;ij jhahhpg;gjpy; cs;s epiyfis tpsf;Ff.

13. m) ey;y Nfhg;gPl;L Kiwapd; mk;rq;fs; ahit? (my;yJ) M) Nfhg;gPl;L Kiwfis tpsf;Ff.

14. m) mYtyf ,ae;jpuq;fspd; tiffs; ahit? (my;yJ)

M) fzpg;nghwpapd; mq;fq;fs; ahit?

15. m) xU ey;y mwpf;ifapd; Kf;fpa mk;rq;fs; ahit? (my;yJ) M) mwpf;iffspd; tiffs; ahit?

gFjp - ,

vitNaDk; %d;wDf;F ehd;F gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tphpthd tpil jUf (3 x 10 = 30)

16. mYtyf Nkyhz;ikapd; mbg;gilf; $Wfs; ahit?

17. fbjg; Nghf;Ftuj;jpd; tiffis tpthp.

18. Nfhg;gPl;bd; ed;ikfs; ahit?

19. mYtyf ,ae;jpuq;fis Njh;e;njLg;gjw;fhd Nfhl;ghLfis tpthp.

20. mwpf;ifapd; mikg;G gw;wp tpthp.

**********




CONTEMPORARY HISTORY OF INDIA (1947 to 2000)


Part A


1. When did congress pass Quit India Resolution?

a) 17 August 1942 b) 8 August 1942

c) 20 October 1942 d) 23 September 1942

2. The National Integration Day is observed on

a) 14th

November b) 19th

November

b) 1st November d) None

3. Which of the following Article is related to Panchayat Raj?

a) Article 243 b) Article 324

c) Article 124 d) Article 73

4. Which sector is the backbone of Indian Economy?

a) Service sector b) Financial sector

c) Tourism sector d) Agricultural sector

5. Telegraph was invented in the year ________

a) 1844 b) 1855 c) 1866 d) 1837

6. ICT stands for __________

a) Inter Connected Terminals b) Intera Common Terminology

c) International Communicational Tech

d) Information and Communicational Tech

7. Who is the current Chairman of the National Commission for SCs?

a) K.G. Balakrishnan b) Dilip Singh Bhuria

c) P. L. Punia d) D. Suraj Bhan

8. Which educational institution was named after India‟s first PM?

a) JNU b) BHU c) DU d) CISR

9. India has signed Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement

(CEPA) with ________

a) USA b) Singapore c) Russia d) Canada

10. India has Kalapani and Susta Territorial dispute with ________

a) Bangladesh b) Bhutan c) Nepal d) Myanmar.

Part B

Answer ALL the questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)

11. a) Explain about Rehabilitation in India after Independence.

(or)

b) Define Nehru‟s opposing communalism.

12. a) Write the objectives of the planning commission of India.

(or)

b) Explain about 3rd

Five year plan of India.

13. a) Explain about the developments of Transport and communication

methods in India after Independence.

(or)

b) Briefly explain about the development of Information Technology

in India.

14. a) Explain about Untouchability in India.

(or)

b) Discuss about women‟s development in freedom India.

15. a) Explain about the basic principles of non – alignment.

(or)

b) Discuss about India‟s relationship with USSR.

Part C


16. Sketch the causes and results of the Indo – China war 1962.

17. Analyse about Panchayat Raj System in India.

18. Analyse about Civil Aviation in India.

19. Discuss about women‟s Education in India after Independence.

20. Explain about various foreign policies of India.

Question Code : B10303 Sub Code: U16HYE41



HISTORY OF USA (1776 to 1964 A.D)


Part A


1. Which one was the 13th

colony of America?

a) Virginia b) Texas c) Massachssets d) Jamestown

2. Who was the first Chief Justice of USA?

a) John Jay b) Hamilton c) Tecumsch d) George Washington

3. Who founded the town Tippecanoe on the river Wabash?

a) Tecumseh b) Monroe c) Madison d) Rufus

4. In which year the Monroe Doctrine was signed?

a) 1823 b) 1822 c) 1820 d) 1821

5. In which year the American Colonization Society was formed?

a) 1815 b) 1816 c) 1818 d) 1819

6. In which place Abraham Lincoln was born?

a) Kenteky b) Lousiana c) Illinois d) Virginia

7. In which year the League of nations was formed?

a) 1920 b) 1919 c) 1918 d) 1916

8. Which date was called as the „Black Tuesday‟ in the history of USA?

a) October 24, 1929 b) April 10, 1928

c) January 11, 1930 d) February 16, 1927

9. Which nation was termed as Arsenal of Democracy?

a) America b) Russia c) France d) Britain

10. In which year the Yalta conference was held?

a) 1945 b) 1943 c) 1942 d) 1941

Part B

Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)

11. a) Write a note on the treaty of Paris.

(or)

b) Give an account about the articles of confederation.

12. a) Analyse the election of 1811.

(or)

b) How the violation of Neutral rights took place in USA.

13. a) Write a note on Wade – Davis Bill 1864.

(or)

b) Mention the achievements of Andrew Carnegie.

14. a) Write the importance of Big Stick Policy.

(or)

b) Give an account about the Atlantic Charter.

15. a) What do you know about the historical importance of Yalta

conference?

(or)

b) Mention the significance of Berlin Crisis.

Part C


16. Analyse the role of George Washington in the history of United States of

America.

17. Write the historical significance of Monroe Doctrine?

18. What do you know about the Era of Reconstruction?

19. Sketch the historical significance of the great Depression.

20. Write an essay about the role of USA in the Second World War.

Question Code : B10204 Sub Code: U16HYA41



GENERAL ECONOMICS-II


Part A


1. The personal income after deducting direct taxes is called as

a) Per capita income b) Disposable personal income

c) National income d) Personal income

2. The measurement of social accounting method (National Income)

introduced by

a) Richard Stone b) JM Keynes

c) Chamberlin d) Joan Robinson

3. The demand for labour is _________

a) effective demand b) direct demand

c) derived demand d) elastic demand

4. “Wages depend upon the proportion between population and capital”

This theory known as the

a) Standard of living theory of wages b) Wages fund theory

c) Bargaining theory of wages d) Market theory of wages

5. The purchasing power of money income is called

a) Real income b) Per capita income

c) National income d) Disposable personal income

6. The role played by modern a commercial banks in the promotion of

regional development of the country is

a) Static b) Dynamic c) Insignificant d) Moderate

7. Which of the following is debit item in balance of payments?

a) Export of services b) Investment income from abroad

c) Receipt of transfer payments d) Import of goods

8. Bertil Ohlin‟s theory of international trade is also known ________

a) Classical theory of international trade

b) Modern theory of international trade

c) Inter – regional theory of trade

d) Opportunity cost analysis of international trade

9. Who classified public expenditure on the basis of function?

a) Dalton b) Adam Smith c) Nicholson d) Ricardo

10. Funded debt is sometimes referred to as ________

a) Floating debt b) Short – term debt

c) Forced debt d) Non – redeemable debt

Part B


11. a) Bring out the importance of national income.

(or)

b) What are the factors determining national income?

12. a) Write a short note of Uncertainty – Bearing theory of profit.

(or)

b) Point out the assumptions of Ricaridian theory of rent.

13. a) State the quantity theory of money.

(or)

b) Point out the functions of Reserve bank of India.

14. a) What are the causes of disequilibrium in the balance of payments?

(or)

b) Bring out the arguments in favour and against free trade.

15. a) What are the advantages of direct taxes?

(or)

b) What are the disadvantages of indirect taxes?

Part C


16. Describe the methods of estimating national income.

17. Explain the modern theory of wages.

18. Discuss the role of commercial banks in economic development of

India.

19. Critically examine the theory of comparative costs.

20. What causes are responsible for the recent increase in public

expenditure in India?

Part B


4. Explain the forms of Government.

5. Enumerate the powers of Prime Minister.

6. Bring out the principles of Cabinet System.

7. “Indian Judiciary is powerful and independent” – Analyse.

8. Elucidate the composition and powers of High court.

Question Code : B10502 Sub Code: U16HYN41



NON MAJOR ELECTIVE

WORKING ON INDIAN CONSTITUTION


Answer ALL questions (3 x10 = 30 marks)

1. a) Write a note on Framing of Indian Constitution.

(or)

b) Give an account on Drafting Committee.

2. a) Describe the election and qualification of Indian President.

(or)

b) State the role of Speaker in Lok Sabha.

3. a) Narrate the Jurisdiction of Supreme Court.

(or)

b) Illustrate the procedure of Appointment of Judges.

Question Code : A03502 Sub Code: BNCNE41



NON MAJOR ELECTIVE – NATIONAL CADET CORPS- II


Part A

Answer any THREE questions 3 x10 = 30 marks

1. Write short notes on types of grounds.

2. Write a short note on section formation.

3. What are the social service organizations in India?

4. Write a short note on Family planning.

5. Write some important diseases which affect human beings.

Part B


6. Write an essay on Patrolling.

7. Write an essay an anti-dowry drive.

8. Write about the aims and types of social services.

9. Write an essay on antimalaria drive.

10. Write an essay on Personal hygiene.

Part C


16. Give detail explanation of all the four quantum numbers.

17. Explain the following:

i) ionic crystals ii) Defects in solid state

18. Draw the phase diagram for water system explain in details.

19. Explain the influence of ionic strength on reaction rate.

20. Derive an expression for the kinetics of photochemical formation of

HCl.




PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY - II

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The total values of magnetic quantum number for a given value of

azimuthal quantum number is

(a) 2L (b) 2L+1 (c) 2L-1 (d) 2L-2

2. In Schrodinger‟s wave equation, the symbol represents

(a) wavelength of the spherical wave

(b) amplitude of the spherical wave

(c) frequency of the spherical wave

(d) none of these

3. In frenkel defect

(a) some of the lattice sites are vacant

(b) an ion occupies interstial positions

(c) some of the cations are replaced by foreign ions

(d) none of these

4. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess

negative electrons are called

(a) n-type conductor (b) p-type conductor

(c) good conductor (d) none of these

5. The phase rule was first discovered by

(a) Nernst (b) Arrhenius (c) Gibbs (d) Lech atelier

6. The reduced phase rule for a condensed system is

(a) F‟ = C– P + 2 (b) F‟ = C – P

(c) F‟ = C – P + 1 (d) F = C – P + 3

7. Reaction rates can change with

(a) temperature (b) the addition of a catalyst

(c) reactant concentration (d) all of these

8. Which concentration plot is linear for a first-order equation?

(A is one of the reactant)

(a) [A] versus time (b) square root of [A] versus time

(c) ln [A] versus time (d) [A]2 versus time

9. “It is only the absorbed light radiations that are effective in producing a

chemical reaction” This is the statement of

(a) Lambert law (b) Lambert-Beer law

(c) Grothus-Drapper law (d) Stark-Einstein law

10. The glow of fireflies is due to the aerial oxidation of luciferin. It is an

example of

(a) phosphorescence (b) chemiluscence

(c) fluorescence (d) none of these

Part B


11. a) Write down postulates of quantum theory.

(or)

b) Write a short note on the following:

i) Photoelectric effect ii) Zeeman effect

12. a) Describe covalent crystals with suitable examples.

(or)

b) Discuss rotating crystal method of crystal analysis.

13. a) Explain the phase – diagram of Pb – Ag system.

(or)

b) What is steam distillation? Give the experimental details of the

process.

14. a) Write notes on bimolecular collision theory.

(or)

b) The activation energy of a reaction is 225 kcal mol–1

and the value

of rate constant at 40 C is 1.8 x 10–5

sec–1

. Calculate the frequency

factor A.

15. a) What is quantum yield / How will you determine experimental?

(or)

b) Write note on the following:

i) Photosensitization ii) Chemiluminescence

Part C


16. a) What are the components of blood? Explain their importance.

b) What is ELISA? Give its applications.

17. What are synthetic narcotics? Discuss briefly the structure and

functions of pethidine and methadone.

18. Describe briefly the Phase – I chemical pathways of metabolism of

drugs.

19. Discuss the synthesis and therapeutic applications sulphanilamide and

barbitone.

20. a) Discuss the structure and functions of thyroxin.

b) Mention the sources, deficiency and uses of vitamin K.

Question Code : B22303 Sub Code: U16CHE41



MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY


Part A


1. The concentration of blood glucose levels determined by 0 – toluidine

method varies from _____________

a) 65 – 110 mg / 100 ml blood b) 80 – 120 mg/ 100ml blood

c) 60 -95mg/ 100ml blood d) none of these

2. ELISA is used for determining ________ antibody concentrations.

a) Serum b) Plasma c) Platelet d) Lipid

3. _________- is a natural narcotic analgesic.

a) Morphine b) Naloxone c) Fentanyl d) Meperidine

4. Local anesthetics inhibits the ability of the phospholipid to bind

__________

a) Cu+ 2

ions b) Ca+ 2

ions c) K+ ions d) Fe

+ 2 ions

5. The drugs used to decrease the activity of specialized cells by causing

depression is _______________

a) Histamine b) PABA c) Morphine d) Barbiturates

6. The iodine is present as a trace element in the human body as _____

a) Constituent of glutathione peroxidase

b) Constituent of thyroid hormones

c) Constituent of vitamin B12 d) Carbohydrate metabolite

7. Ibuprofen is ___________

a) Anesthetic b) Antipyretic

c) Anti – inflammatory d) Analgesic

8. Aspirin is derivation of _______

a) Salicyclic acid b) Para - aminophenol

c) Pyrazole d) Indoly acetic acid

9. Vitamin C deficiency causes ____________

a) Anaemia b) Ricket c) Scurvy d) Pellagra

10. The release of which of the following is inhibited by thyroxin?

a) LH b) TSH c) PRL d) FSH

Part B


11. a) Discuss briefly the storage and preservation of blood samples.

(or)

b) How is blood urea estimated? Explain its clinical interpretation.

12. a) Distinguish between general anesthetics and local anesthetics.

Name any two anesthetics and explain their advantages and

disadvantages.

(or)

b) What is meant by drug? Distinguish between drug and medicine

with suitable examples.

13. a) Name any four macro elements and microelements. Point out their

functions.

(or)

b) Write a note on mechanism of drug action.

14. a) How is ciprofloxacin synthesised? Give its therapeutic

applications.

(or)

b) Discuss the synthesis and therapeutic applications of naproxen.

15. a) What are the sources of vitamin – C? List out its uses. Explain its

structure.

(or)

b) Discuss the structure and functions of Oxytoxin.

Part B

Answers any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)

4. Explain briefly about the uses of Potash fertilizers.

5. Describe about the various common air borne diseases.

6. Write a brief account of Water borne diseases.

7. Differentiate between thermoplastics and thermo setting polymers.

8. Write brief notes on homo polymers.

Question Code : B22502 Sub Code: U16CHN41



NON MAJOR ELECTIVE

CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE – II


Answer all questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)

1. a) What are phosphatic fertilizers? Mention their uses.

(or)

b) Discuss briefly about the uses of

i) Urea ii) Calcium ammonium nitrate

iii) Ammonium sulphate

2. a) Write an about the symptoms, prevention and treatment of

Jaundice.

(or)

b) Name any two common insect borne diseases. Discuss their causes

and treatment.

3. a) Give the classification of polymers based on their occurance with

examples.

(or)

b) Discuss the applications of i) Starch ii) Terylene

iii) Polyethylene

Question Code : B40108 Sub Code: U16BNC41



FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT

Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. Financial decision involves __________

a) Investment, financing and dividend decision

b) Investment, financing and sales decision

c) Financing, dividend and cash decision

d) Financing and working capital investment

2. Bank credit is __________

a) Short term sources b) Long term sources

c) Medium – term sources d) Both a and b

3. _________ is called revolving or circulating capital.

a) Equity share capital b) Working capital

c) Preference capital d) Debt capital

4. The use of long – term fixed interest bearing debt and preference

share capital along with equity shares is called ______

a) Operating leverage b) Combined leverage

c) Financial leverage or trading on equity

d) Cost of capital

11 1

5. Receivables constitute a significant portion of ________

a) Fixed assets b) Current assets

c) Share holders fund d) Reserve and surplus

6. Lock box system a method for

a) Accelerating cash out flow b) Accelerating cash inflow

c) Both a & b d) Managing fund flow

7. Cost of capital refers to

a) Maximum rate of return expected by its supplier

b) Minimum rate of return expected by its investors

c) Moderate rate of return expected by its investors

d) Maximum rate of return expected by firm

8. Cost of retained earning can be computed with the help of the following

formula

a) K = D1 / NP + G b) K = D/ MP

c) K = D / P d) K = NP / D + G

9. Which one of the following dividend bears interest and accepted as a

collateral security?

a) Liquidation dividends b) Profit dividend

c) Stock dividend d) Scrip dividend

10. Which one of the following is traditional method of capital budgeting?

a) Net Present Value b) Internal Rate of Return

c) Profitability Index d) Average Rate of Return

20. Electronics Co. Ltd is considering the purchase of a machine. Two

machines A and B are available, each costing Rs.50,000. In

comparing the profitability of these machines a discount rate of 15%

is to be used. Net cash flows are expected to be as follows:

Year Cash inflow (Rs.)

Machine A

Cash inflow (Rs.)

Machine B

P.V Factor at

15%

1. 15,000 5,000 0.870

2. 20,000 15,000 0.756

3. 25,000 20,000 0.658

4. 15,000 30,000 0.572

5. 10,000 20,000 0.497

Calculate :

(a) The Net present value at 15%.

(b) The Profitability index.

11 7 2

2

Additional information:

1. The customers are allowed a credit period of 2 months.

2. A dividend of Ra.10,000 is payable in April.

3. Capital expenditure to be incurred: Plant purchased on 15th

January

for Rs.5,000: a building has been purchased on 1st March and the

payments are to be made in monthly instalments of Rs.2,000 each.

4. The creditors are allowing a credit of 2 months.

5. Wages are paid on the 1st of the next month.

6. Lag in payment of other expenses is one month.

7. Balance of cash in hand on 1st January, 2009 is Rs.15,000.

19. From the following capital structure of a company, calculate the

overall cost of capital, using book value weights:

Sources of funds Amt (Rs.) Proportion

(%)

After – tax cost (%)

Equity share capital

(Rs.10 shares)

45,000 45 14

Retained earnings 15,0000 15 13

Preference share

capital

10,000 10 10

Debentures 30,000 30 5

Total 1,00,000 100

Part B


11. a) Define financial management and explain its approaches.

(or)

b) Difference between debentures and shares.

12. a) Raju brothers private limited sells goods on a gross profit of 25%.

Depreciation is taken into account as a part of cost of production.

The following are the annual figures given to you:

Rs.

Sales (Two months credit) 18,00,000

Material consumed (One month credit) 4,50,000

Wages (one month lag in payment) 3,60,000

Cash manufacturing expenses (one month lag in payment) 4,80,000

Administration expenses (one month lag in payment) 1,20,000

Sales promotion expenses (paid currently in advance) 60,000

Income tax payable in 4 instalments of which one lies in

next year

1,50,000

The company keeps one month stock of raw material and finished

goods. It also keeps Rs.1,00,000 in cash. You required to estimate the

working capital requirements of the company assuming 15% safety

margin.

(or)

February 30,000 20,000 3,000 1,050 1,150 620

March 35,000 22,500 2,400 1,100 1,220 570

April 40,000 25,000 2,600 1,200 1,180 710

11 3 2

6

b) Give a critical appraisal of the traditional approach and Modigliani –

Miller approach to the problem of capital structure.

13. a) Explain the factors influencing the size of the receivables.

(or)

b) Write short note on: a) Decentralised collections

b) Lock box system

14. a) A company issues 10,000 10% preference shares of Rs.100 each cost

issue is Rs.2 per share. Calculate cost of preference capital if these shares

are issued (a) at par, (b) at a premium of 10% & (c) at a discount of 5%.

(or)

b) Enumerate the problems in determination of cost of capital.

15. a) Explain various types of dividend policy.

(or)

b) A project requires an investment of Rs.5,00,000 and has a scrap

value of Rs.20,000 after 5 years. It is expected to yield profits after

depreciation and taxes during the 5 years amounting to Rs.40,000,

Rs.60,000, Rs.70,000 Rs.50,000 & Rs.20,000. Calculate the average rate of

return on the investment.

Part C


16. Discuss the scope of financial management and explain how it is related

to other business function.

17. ABC Company has currently an all equity capital structure consisting of

15,000 equity shares of Rs.100 each. The management is planning to raise

another 25 lakhs to finance a major programme of expansion and is

considering three alternative methods of financing:

i) To issue 25,000, equity shares of Rs.100 each.

ii) To issue 25,000, 8% debentures of Rs. 100 each.

iii) To issue 25,000, 8% Preference shares of Rs.100 each

The company‟s expected earnings before interest and taxes

will be 8 lakhs. Assuming a corporate tax rate of 50 percent,

determine the earnings per share (EPS) in each alternative and

comment which alternative is best and why?

18. From the following forecast of income and expenditure, prepare a cash

budget for the month January to April 2009.

Year

and

month

Sales

(credit)

Rs.

Purchase

(Credit)

Rs.

Wages

Rs.

Manufacture

expenses Rs.

Administrative

expenses

Selling

Expense

Rs.

2008,

Nov

30,000 15,000 3,000 1,150 1,060 500

Dec 35,000 20,000 3,200 1,225 1,040 550

2009,

Jan,

25,000 15,000 2,500 990 1,100 600

11 5

2

4

Question Code : B40109/ A40109 Sub Code: U16BNC42/ BBNCR42



FUNDAMENTALS OF DISASTER MANAGEMENT

Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. _____________ refers to the increase in the temperature of the earth‟s

atmosphere.

a) Emission b) global warming c) flood d) tsunami

2. A ___________ is a wave train or series of wave generated in a body

of water.

a) Tsunami b) landslide c) volcanic d) mining

3. __________ is the acquisition of information via aerial or satellite

sensors.

a) Satellite b) frequency c) remote sensing d) data

4. _________ provides the capability to remotely observe surface areas

regardless of weather or availability of sunlight.

a) Aerial b) radar c) electro optical d) server

5. _________ is the probability of a harmful occurrence with a specific

force at a specific location and at a specific time.

a) Vulnerability b) risk c) preplanning d) eliminating

6. _________report should build on earlier reports providing

additional and more precise information.

a) Flash b) Initial c) Interim d) Damage

7. _________ deputy collectors will make up the staff on call.

a) 3 b) 1 c) 5 d) 2

8. Small scale disaster can be managed through ___________ without

comprehensive desk arrangement.

a) Collectors office b) disaster manager

c) relief camps d) feeding centers

9. Vibrational energy transmitted through the earth‟s surface from

depth is called ___________.

a) Flood b) earthquake c) landslide d) tsunami

10. _______________ efforts are focused on maintaining and

implementing agreements reached, often with monitoring functions.

a) Peace-making b) Peace-keeping

c) Peace-building d) Rehabilitation

Part B


11. (a) Write the risk resettlement to people affected by disaster.

(or)

(b) Narrate the process of earthquake.

12. (a) Explain the fundamental of remote sensing.

(or)

(b) Write the steps involved in area map preparation.

13. (a) Write the requirements need to prevent health problem caused by

environmental hazards.

(or)

(b)What are the existing environmental characteristics of project area?

14. (a) Elucidate the components of relief camps.

(or)

(b) Write the categories of staff suggested for the DCR.

15. (a) Explain the types of rehabilitation measures.

(or)

(b) What do you mean by community based disaster management?

Write down the essential features.

Part C


16. Explain the process of disaster.

17. Write the history of geodetic survey and the utilization of GPS.

18. Explain the main steps involved in cost benefit analysis.

19. Write the institutional arrangements at the district level in disaster

management.

20. Government of India have adopted mitigation and prevention as

essential components of the development strategy. Discuss.

Part C


16. Explain the different approaches to the study of OB.

17. Describe the various techniques of group decision making.

18. Explain the Maslow's need hierarchical theory.

19. Explain and discuss the various stages in conflict in an organisation.

20. Define organizational development. Explain its process.

Question Code : B40110 Sub Code: U16BNC43



ORGANISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR

Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75

Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1=10 marks)

1. __________requires a formal structure of authority & responsibility.

a) Planning b) Organizing

c) Directing d) Controlling

2. Organisation Behaviour is not a /an___________

a) Separate field of study b) Applied science

c) Normative science d) Pessimistic approach

3. __________ is the attractiveness of the members towards the group or

resistance to leave it

a) Group norms b) Group behaviour

c) Group cohesiveness d) Group structure

4. Believes, attitudes, traditions and expectations which are shared by

group members is called_________

a) Group norms b) Group communication

c) Group cohesiveness d) Group structure

5. ERG theory of motivation was proposed by __________

a) Maslow b) F.Herzberg c) Alderfer d) McGregor

6. _________ exists when employee attitudes are favourable to the total

situation of a group and to the attainment of its objectives.

a) Low morale b) High Morale c) Group morale d) morale

7. _________is a state of discord caused by the actual or perceived

opposition of needs, values and interests between people working

together.

a) Organizational conflict b) personal conflict

c) Intra group conflict d) Intergroup conflict

8 __________ is “the reactions of individuals to new or threatening

factors in their work environments”.

a) Attitude b) Stress

c) Dissonance d) Disappointment

9. Reviewing and modifying management structures and business

processes. Small businesses must adapt to survive against bigger

competitors and grow

a) Organizational change b) Organizational spirit

c) Organizational culture d) Organizational effectiveness

10. The sets of structured/planned activities adopted by groups or

individuals in an organization as a part of the organization development

program are known as _____________

a) organization development b) OD techniques

c) Sensitivity Training d) Inter group Development

Part B


11. a) Discuss the role of organizational behaviour in an organization.

(or)

b) Explain the process of human behaviour.

12. a) Explain the types of groups.

(or)

b) Discuss the advantages of group decision making.

13. a) Discuss the process of motivation.

(or)

b) What are the causes of low morale of the employee?

14. a) Explain the features of conflict management.

(or)

b) Briefly explain the consequences of stress.

15. a) Explain the various types of organizational change.

(or)

b) Explain the benefits of Organizational Development.

Question Code : B40303 / A40302 Sub Code: U16BNE41/ BBNME41



MARKETING MANAGEMENT


Part A


1. Which of the following is not a marketing objective?

a) positioning b) volume sales

c) cash flow d) none of the above

2. Selling warm coats to Icelanders is an example of:

a) Geographic segmentation b) Behavioural segmentation

c) Demographic segmentation d) None of the above

3. A product has ________ levels and each level adds more customer value.

a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3

4. ___________ is done for the purpose of delivering the articles to the

consumer or for the purpose of transport.

a) Labelling b) Branding c) Packaging d) Positioning

5. In ________ pricing the response of consumers to the price is analysed

and, later a price is fixed.

a) Negotiated pricing b) Expected pricing

c) Dual pricing d) Monopoly pricing

6. Converters and assemblers are comes under which classification?

a) manufacturer‟s agent b) selling agents

c) speciality wholesalers d) commission merchants.

7. In DAGMAR “M” stands for

a) Maintain b) Machinery

c) Measured d) None of the above

8. In _________ the advertisement should have lasting impression on the

reader‟s mind.

a) Attention value b) Suggestive value

c) Memorising value d) Conviction value

9. _________may or may not involve face – to face contact with the

buyer.

a) Advertising b) Personal selling

c) Sales promotion d) Publicity

10. ________means something offered either free or at low cost as an

incentive to buy a product.

a) Price – off offer b) Coupons c) Samples d) Premium

Part B


11. a) Explain the nature of marketing.

(or)

b) What are the benefits of market segmentation?

12. a) Explain the significance of product planning.

(or)

b) What is meant by product life cycle? Explain its stages.

13. a) What are the factors influencing the price of a product?

(or)

b) Briefly explain about the objectives of pricing.

14. a) Explain the choice of advertising media.

(or)

b) What are the objectives of advertising?

15. a) Explain the reasons for increasing use of sales promotion.

(or)

b) What are the major stages in the consumer buying decision process?

Part C


16. Explain the functions of marketing.

17. Explain in detail about the steps in new product development.

18. Discuss about the various kinds of pricing decisions.

19. Examine the various kinds of advertising.

20. Explain about the methods or levels of sales promotion.

18. Find the differential co – efficient of

3

234 108879

xxxxx .

19. Evaluate dxx

xxx4

237 534.

20. Explain the types of Matrices.

Question Code : B40204 / A40204 Sub Code: U16BNA41/ BBNAS41





Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x1=10 marks)

1. Set of all even prime numbers is

a) singleton set b) null set c) infinite set d) finite set

2. Set of fixed collection of all elements needed for the analysis

a) Universal set b) Finite set c) Empty set d) Infinite set

3. In what ratio, does the point (2, 14) divide the line segment (11, –16) and

(5, 4) externally?

a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 3 d) 1 : 4

4. A circle with centre P (–2, 2) has one end of a diameter at Q(4, 6).

Determine the coordinates R (x, y) of the other end.

a) (–1, 2) b) (–2, 2) c) (–8, –2) d) (8, 2)

5. The derivative of Y = 70 is

a) 7 b) 70 c) 700 d) 0

6. The derivative Y = X10

is

a) 10 X b) X10

c) 10 X9 d) 100 X

9

7. Integration with limit is called

a) Definite Integral b) Indefinite integral

c) Integral d) None of the above

8. The value of dx is

a) x + c b) 1 + c c) cx

1

d) 2 + c

9. A matrix that consists of only one column is called

a) row matrix b) column matrix

c) square matrix d) null matrix

10. Number of elements in a matrix of order 2 x 3 is

a) 5 b) 2 c) 6 d) 10

Part B


11. a) If A = {a, b, d, f}, B = {b, c, e, h} C = {b, c, d, f, i}. Find A (B C).

(or)

b) If A = {1, 2}, B = {2, 3} and U = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Find (A B) and

(A B) .

12. a) Show that the points (4, 2), (7, 5) and (9, 7) are collinear,

(or)

b) Prove that the lines 3x – 4y + 5 = 0, 7x – 8y + 5 = 0 and 4x + 5y = 45

are concurrent.

13. a) Differentiate 1

12x

with respect to x.

(or)

b) Differentiate (2x + 5)3 with respect to x.

14. a) Evaluate dxx

x1

.

(or)

b) Evaluate dxxxx 8343 21 .

15. a) If A = 521

243 and B =

35

02

14

find A x B.

(or)

b) If A = 41

32 then find A

2.

Part C


16. If A = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}, B = {1, 5, 8, 10, 11}

find A – B and B – A.

17. Find the equation of the line through the intersection of 2x + y = 8 and

3x + 7 = 2y and parallel to 4x + y = 11.

Part - B


4. Enumerate the various types of Hospitals and the significance of

Hospital Management.

5. Explain the role of Medical services in Hospital Management and the

different categories of Personnel needed for hospitals.

6. Discuss the universal characteristics and the La Guardia Model of

Leadership.

7. Describe the Types of Records and state the various Dimensions of

Record Management.

8. Elucidate the different sections of Medical Records and the internal

audit in Hospital Management.

Question Code : B40502 Sub Code: U16BNN41



NON MAJOR ELECTIVE

CONCEPTS OF HOSPITAL MANAGEMENT


Part A


1. a) Explain the relationship of Hospital Personnel with the Patients.

(or)

b) Describe the essential attributes of an ideal Hospital Manager.

2. a) Elucidate the role of Auxiliary services in Hospital Management.

(or)

b) What are the factors to be considered while formulating a product

plan for the Hospital?

3. a) State the various Internal sources of Hospital Financing.

(or)

b) Discuss the different forms of Hospital record.

Question Code : B81113 Sub Code: P16HYC41



HISTORY OF CONTEMPORARY INDIA (Since 1947 AD)

Time : 3 Hrs M.A (History) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Constitution of India was accepted by the constituent assembly in

a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1949 d) 1950

2. The chairman of the Drafting committee was ________

a) K.M. Munshi b) Rajendra Prasad

c) Madhava Rao d) Ambedkar

3. Name of the author of the book “Planned Economy”?

a) Dadabai Naoroji b) Nahru

c) Visweswarayya d) Pasavaiyya

4. How many states were formed as per Fazl Ali Commission?

a) 14 b) 15 c) 16 d) 17

5. In which year Mrs. Gandhi nationalised 14 private banks?

a) 1966 b) 1967 c) 1968 d) 1969

6. How many days Charan Singh served as Prime Minister of India?

a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23

7. When the supreme court of India delivered judgement in the Shah Banu

case?

a) 1985 b) 1986 c) 1987 d) 1988

8. Name the Education Minister who was associated with the New

Education Policy of 1986?

a) Abul Kalam Azad b) Nurul Hassan

c) K.C. Pant d) Arjun Singh

9. When the Mandal commission Report was implemented?

a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992 d) 1993

10. Who conducted Rath Yatra in connection with Ayodhya Issue?

a) Vajpayee b) Jaswant Singh

c) Advani d) Uma Bharathi

Part B


11. a) Write an account on the framing of Indian Constitution?

(or)

b) Narrate the accession of Junagadh and Hyderabad with the Indian

Union.

12. a) The second five year plan is considered as a “Great Leap forward” –

Justify this statement?

(or)

b) Define the Kamaraj plan and discuss its results.

13. a) Trace the features of the Twenty Points Programme of Mrs. Indira

Gandhi.

(or)

b) What were the circumstances that led to teh declaration of internal

emergency in 1975?

14. a) Bring out the significance of the mid – term poll of 1980.

(or)

b) List out the various provisions of Anandapur Sahib Resolution?

15. a) Estimate the achievements of Dr. Manmohan Singh Govt?

(or)

b) Assess the role of India in combating terrorism?

Part C


16. Why Jawaharlal Nehru is called Nation Builder?

17. How the Indian States were reorganised on the basis of language?

18. Estimate the services of Lal Bahadur Sastri as the Prime Minister of

India.

19. Describe the Salient features of the domestic policy of Prime Minister

Rajiv Gandhi?

20. Analyse the Indo – Sri Lankan Relations since 1947.




HISTORY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY (Since 1453 A.D)


Part A


1. In 1609 the telescope was invented by ___________.

a) Galileo b) Kepler c) Francis Bacon d) Issac Newton

2. The Scientist who defined the law of Universal gravitation.

a) Torricelli b) Rene Descarte

c) Immanuval Kant d) Issac Newton

3. Who invented the Water frame?

a) Samuel Crompton b) Richard Arkwright‟s

c) Joseph Marie d) John Kays

4. Who invented the vaccination?

a) John Hunter b) Edward Jenner

c) Carilinnaevs d) Countde Buffon

5. The inventor of cycle is ________

a) Rudolf b) Macmillan

c) Herbert d) George Stephenson

6. Louis Pasteur is a scientist of ____________

a) England b) France c) Russia d) Holland

7. Which is the significant study of Sigmund Freud?

a) Physiology b) Sociology

c) Mental disorders d) Electricity

8. X – Ray was invented by __________

a) Roentgen b) Marconi c) Robert Watson d) Edison

9. Hargobind Khurana got the Nobel prize for

a) Peace b) Literature c) Medicine d) Physics

10. J.C. Bose received in 1917 __________

a) Knight b) Ph.D c) D. Phil d) Sir

Part B


11. a) What do you know about the scientific ideas of Leonardo Davinci?

(or)

b) Examine the contribution made by Gutenberg in the field of printing

technology.

12. a) Estimate the achievements of Henry Cavendish.

(or)

b) Discuss the achievements of Antoine Lavoisier.

13. a) Describe the role of Petrol Engine car in the modern world.

(or)

b) What are the uses of Telegraphs and Telephones in the modern world?

14. a) Narrate the invention of X – ray.

(or)

b) Explain the findings of Sigmund Freud.

15. a) Write a note on Atomic Energy commission of India.

(or)

b) Mention the contributions of Ramanujam.

Part C


16. Bring out the contributions of William Harvey in the growth of Medical

Science.

17. Explain the reforms of James watt in the invention of Steam engine.

18. Examine the important inventions of John Dalton.

19. Estimate the services of Marconi.

20. Examine the services of P.C. Roy to the progress of Chemistry.




HISTORY OF MODERN CHINA (1842 TO 2000 A.D)


Part A


1. The last dynasty which ruled China was ___________

a) Hun b) Tang c) Manchu d) Chin

2. “Taiping” means __________

a) Fortunate b) Perfect Peace

c) Sons of soil d) God is supreme

3. Who was called as “Father of Modern China”?

a) Mao Tse Tung b) Chou En Lai

c) Dr. SunYatSen d) Yuan Shi Kai

4. May Fourth Movement was took place in _________

a) 1919 A.D b) 1929 A.D c) 1939 A.D d) 1949 A.D

5. The Chinese Communist Party was started in ____________

a) 1920 A.D b) 1921 A.D c) 1930 A.D d) 1945 A.D

6. Chiang Kai Shek was the leader of _________

a) Communist Party b) Taiping Party

c) Chinese Republican Party d) The Kuomingtang Party

7. Who was the author of magazine “New Youth”?

a) Chen TuHsiu b) Yuan Shi Kai

c) Chou En Lai d) Chiang Kai Shek

8. Who formulated his ideas of “New Democracy”?

a) Chiang Kai Shek b) Mao Tse Tung

c) Chu Tch d) Chou En Lai

9. The Long March was undertaken by __________

a) Yuan Shi Kai b) Dr. SunYatSen

c) Chiang Kai Shek d) Mao Tse Tung

10. Who was the Prime Minister of China in the year 1949?

a) Chiang Kai Shek b) Mao Tse Tung

c) Yuan d) Chou En Lai

Part B


11. a) Explain the circumstances that led to Boxer Rebellion.

(or)

b) Describe the three principles of Dr. SunYat Sen.

12. a) Explain about the Twenty one Demands of Japan.

(or)

b) Write about the May Fourth Movement.

13. a) Discuss about the origin of Chinese Communist Party.

(or)

b) Write about the internal administration of Chiang Kai Shek.

14. a) Write about the Long March in the history of China.

(or)

b) Point out the importance of First Five Year Plan.

15. a) Explain about the Cultural Revolution.

(or)

b) Describe the Sino – Soviet Relation under Mao Tse Tung.

Part C


16. Why did the First Sino-Japanese War take place?

17. Assess the role of Yuan Shi Kai in the history of China.

18. Examine the origin and growth of Kuomingtang Party.

19. Discuss the growth of Chinese Communist Party.

20. Trace out Economic Reformations of China in Post Mao Period.

Question Code : B81308 Sub Code: P16HYE42



WOMEN STUDIES IN INDIA


Part A


1. The world feminism is derived from _________ language.

a) Greek b) Latin c) English d) Spanish

2. The International women‟s year was celebrated in _______

a) 1970 A.D b) 1975 A.D c) 1980 A.D d) 1985 A.D.

3. The poet Avvaiyar belonged the period of ________

a) Sangam Age b) Vedic Age c) Epic Age d) Age of Manu.

4. The Newspaper “New India” was started by _______

a) Annie Besant b) Rajaram Mohan Roy

c) Sarojini Naidu d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit.

5. _________ was the first women Chief Minister in India.

a) Janaki Ramachandran b) Lakshmi Segeal

c) Sucheta Kirupalani d) Kiran Bedi

6. The National Commission for women was set up in _______

a) 1992 A.D b) 1982 A.D c) 1929 A.D d) 1991 A.D

7. __________ was the first women freedom fighter against the colonial

rule.

a) Jansi Rani Lakshmi Bai b) Velu Nachiar

c) Mangammal d) meenakshi

8. The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act was passed in _________

a) 1967 A.D b) 1956 A.D c) 1856 A.D d) 1857 A.D

9. The first home for widows started by

a) Ramabai Saraswathi b) Annie Besant

c) Rajaram Mohan Rai d) Sarojini Naidu

10. Theosophical society in Calcutta formed by __________

a) Annie Besant b) Swarnakumari Devi

c) Ramabai Saraswathi d) Lakshmi Bai

Part B


Write short notes on the following:

11. a) Marxist Feminism.

(or)

b) Muslim period women.

12. a) Factors responsible for women education.

(or)

b) Educational status of women.

13. a) The Dowry Prohibition Act.

(or)

b) Sexual Harassment.

14. a) Green Belt Movement.

(or)

b) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy.

15. a) Self Employed Women‟s Association.

(or)

b) National Commission for women.

Part C


16. Explain the main objectives of women‟s studies.

17. Discuss the condition of women during the epic age.

18. Narrate the role of Indian women in freedom struggle.

19. What are the general problems faced by working women?

20. Elaborate the legal protection of women.

To day we hear a lot about drug abuse. This is the misuse

of drugs – drugs obtained illegally and taken for the purpose of getting

pleasure and thrills. The practice can ruin a person‟s life and even

lead to death as has happened to many young people. Knowing the

dangers of drug abuse, the governments of many countries have often

taken various steps to deal with the problem.

Questions

1. What is drug abuse ?

2. Why do people take drugs illegally?

3. What is the danger of misusing drugs?

4. Which of these medicines can be taken orally?

( creams, solutions, tablets, pills, capsules )

ii. Prepare a resume‟ for the post of a clerk in a concern. ( 4 marks )

iii. Write a newspaper report on the fire accident at Meenakshi Amman

temple , Madurai. ( 2 marks )

iv. Prepare a memorandum for an employee who has the habit of taking

frequent breaks during the working hours. ( 2 marks )

v. Prepare the minutes of your department‟s HOD retirement party.

( 3 marks )

Question Code : B02104 Sub Code: U16LAE41



B.A / B.Sc - Part II - English

FICTION AND CAREER ENGLISH


Section – A (Fiction) 30 marks

1) Write an essay on any ONE of the following (1 x 10 = 10)

a) What is the role played by Captain Smollet?

b) Describe the preparations for voyage.

2) Write an essay on any TWO of the following: (2 x 10 = 20)

a) Antony knows the mob psychology. Elucidate this with reference to

his funeral speech on the occasion of Julius Caesar‟s death.

b) How does Macbeth murder Duncan ?

c) The Trial scene of Shakespeare‟s play “ The Merchant of Venice”

is called the real climax of the play. Do you agree?

Section – B (Vocabulary) 20 marks

3) A) Write sentences of your own to distinguish the meaning (3 x 2 = 6)

i) later – latter

ii) Illusion – allusion

iii) beside - besides

B) Fill in the blanks choosing the right pair of words ( 3 x 1 = 3)

i) Doctor can ------------ disease before it has --------- itself by

studying the Person‟s ill

a) Locate – affected b) Find out – come

c) Identity – occurred d) Diagnose – manifested

ii) An --------------- irritated voice --------------- the telephone.

a) Obvious – spoke b) Obviously – answered

c) Aptly – spoke d) Accurately – attended

iii) The speaker has quoted --------- to ---------- his argument.

a) A lot – support b) Liberally – defend

c) Massively – emphasize d) Extensively – substantiate

C. Choose the right pair that best expresses a relationship that is

similar to the original pair ( 3 x 1 = 3 )

i) actor - act

a) Flower – blossom b) Trees – leaves

c) House – wall d) Dogs – sit

ii) sweet – sour

a) Serious - light b) Old - age

c) Ugly - untidy d) Strong – bold

iii) winter – cold

a) Boys - - run b) Women – dance

c) Emptiness – full d) Summer – hot

D. Write suitable single word for the following expressions ( 5 x 1 = 5)

i) one of two possibilities

ii) very big

iii) ancient times

iv) hundreds of years

v) the gradual development.

E. Write sentences using the following Idioms. ( 3 x 1 = 3)

i) To kill two birds with one stone.

ii) to hit nail on the hand.

iii) you can‟t judge a book by its cover.

Section – C (Grammar) 10 marks

4. Rewrite the sentences after correcting the errors

i) Columbus has discovered America.

ii) He will reach home before the sun will set.

iii) A new theatre has been started last Monday.

iv) My sister, along with her children have arrived.

v) Twenty kilometers were a long distance.

vi) Each participant have to pay twenty rupees.

vii) Ramesh did not write the test well, didn‟t he?

viii) We visited the zoo last week, do we?

ix) He entered into the building.

x) This is different to that.

Section – D (Composition) 15 marks

5. i. Read the passage and answer the following questions ( 4 marks)

Modern drugs can heal a wide range of diseases including those

once thought to be incurable. These drugs come in the form of pills,

tablets, capsules and creams. Some are taken orally. Others are

injected into the blood stream or applied over the diseased part of the

body. Different diseases require treatment with different drugs.

Usually, it is the doctor who prescribes the drug and the dosage to be

taken.

Question Code : B21106 Sub Code: U16PHC41



NUCLEAR PHYSICS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Proton-electron hypothesis explains

a) - decay b) - decay

c) - decay d) - decay and - decay

2. Another name of shell model is

a) independent particle model b) particle model

c) pauli‟s model d) newtons model

3. Betatron works on the principle of

a) laser b) diode c) transformer d) transistor

4. Hadrons are

a) combination of baryons and mesons

b) baryons

c) mesons

d) leptons

5. Geiger-NuHal law is

a) log = B log R b) log = A + B log R

c) log = A d) log = A – B log R

6. In - decay, linear momentum is

a) conserved b) not conserved

c) partly conserved d) zero

7. In ( , p) reaction

a) protons are injected b) protons are ejected

c) electrons are injected d) electrons are emitted

8. The source of stellar energy is

a) fission b) thermonuclear fission

c) fusion d) thermonuclear fusion

9. The level of exposure to ionizing radiation is detected by

a) dosimeter b) ammeter c) voltmeter d) multimeter

10. In boiling water reactor, the fuel is

a) Thorium b) Irridium c) Polonium d) Uranium

Part B


11. a) Explain proton-electron hypothesis.

(or)

b) Explain briefly nuclear forces.

12. a) Give the principle and working of synchrocyclotron.

(or)

b) What are elementary particles? Explain briefly.

13. a) Explain the half life period and mean life.

(or)

b) Explain the internal conversion related with radioactivity.

14. a) Explain Photo disintegration.

(or)

b) Explain thermonuclear reactions.

15. a) Give the principle and constructing of atom bomb.

(or)

b) Explain briefly the working of pressurized water reactor.

Part C


16. Explain the shell model of nucleus.

17. Explain the photographic emulsion technique of nuclear detection.

18. Give the neutrino theory of beta decay.

19. Bring out the origin of cosmic rays.

20. Explain the principle and working of fast breeder reactor.

Question Code : B21303 Sub Code: U16PHE41



MATERIALS SCIENCE


Part A


1. The number of types of lattices in the crystal system is

a) 7 b) 14 c) 3 d) 10

2. Type of chemical bond formed by shasing unequal number of

electrons is

a) metallic bond b) ionic bond

c) co-valent bond d) Van der wall‟s bond

3. According to classical theory, the value of specific heat capacity of

solids at high temperature is

a) R b) 2R c) 3R d)

4. Momentum of phonons is equal to

a) mv b) k c) hk d) h

5. The value of magnetic susceptibility in paramagnetic substance is

a) > 1 b) < 1 c) negative value d) zero

6. Current flow in the super conductor is

a) maximum b) zero c) infinity d) minimum

7. The value of local field depends upon

a) Polarisation b) current

c) permittivity d) strength of dielectric

8. Types of electric polarization in dielectric material is

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 7

9. Which material is used in semi conductor laser?

a) Ga As P b) Ga As c) Zn Se d) Silicon

10. In spontaneous emission, the number of atoms in the ground state is

a) more than excited b) greater

c) less than excited d) zero

Part B


11. a) List out the properties of co-valent bond.

(or)

b) Explain about the face entered cubical structure of crystals with

an example.

12. a) What are super conductors? Explain about the effect of magnetic

field on them.

(or)

b) Describe the Einstein‟s theory of lattice heat capacity in solids.

13. a) Explain about the different types of magnetic materials.

(or)

b) Give the Langevin‟s theory of diamagnetism and obtain an

expression for diamagnetic susceptibility.

14. a) Explain about the frequency and temperature effects on

polarization.

(or)

b) Derive the Clausius–Mosotti relation in dielectrics.

15. a) Explain about the principle and characteristics of Laser.

(or)

b) Explain the Nd-YAG Laser in detail.

Part C


16. Explain about the different types of chemical bonds.

17. Describe the Debye‟s theory of Lattice heat capacity and obtain an

expression for the same.

18. Give the Langevin‟s theory of Paramagnetism and obtain an

expression for magnetic susceptibility.

19. Explain about the different types of electric polarization in detail.

20. Explain the construction and working of semi conductor laser with a

neat diagram.

18. Explain the principle of demodulation. Draw the circuit diagram of

an AM diode detector and explain its function.

19. Using block diagram, explain the function of television transmitting

system and receiving system.

20. Draw the block diagram and explain the fibre optic communication

system

Question Code : B21205/ A21205 Sub Code: U16AEA41

/ BAEAS41



APPLIED ELECTRONICS – II


Part A


1. A second order band pass filter can be obtained by cascading a low-

pass second order section having cut off frequency, fOH with a high

pass second order section having cut-off frequency, fOL provided

a) fOH > fOL b) fOH < fOL c) fOH = fOL d) fOH ½ fOL

2. In an phase locked loop, lock occurs when the

a) input frequency and the vco frequency are the same

b) phase error is 180

c) vco frequency is double the input frequency

d) phase error is 90

3. A SCR is a semi conductor device which is made up of

a) Two layers and one junction b) Three layers and two junction

c) Four layers and three junction d) None of the above

4. The triac is a device which conducts during

a) +ve half cycle of the input voltage

b) –ve half cycle of the input voltage

c) both +ve and –ve half cycles of the input voltage


5. Modulation is done in

a) Transmitter b) Radio receiver

c) between transmitter and radio receiver d) amplifier

6. AM is used for broadcasting because

a) it is more noise immune than other modulation systems

b) it requires less transmitting power compare with other system

c) its use avoids receiver complexity

d) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth

faithful transmission.

7. Television signals are

a) Frequency modulated b) Amplitude modulated

c) both frequency and amplitude modulated

d) phase modulated

8. The maximum range, dmax of radar is

a) proportional to the cube root of the peak transmitted power

b) proportional to the fourth root of the peak transmitted power

c) proportional to the square root of the peak transmitted power

d) not related to the peak transmitted power at all

9. In an optical fibre, the diameter of the core is nearly

a) 10-2

m b) 10-4

m c) 10-8

m d) 1A

10. The attenuation in optical fibre is mainly due to

a) absorption b) scattering

c) neither absorption not scattering d) both (a) and (b)

Part B


11. a) Explain Low pass filter with the help of gain versus frequency

response graph.

(or)

b) Discuss the difference between a low-pass and a high-pass filters.

12. a) Explain the V-I characteristics of an SCR. What do you infer from

them?

(or)

b) Write short notes on the following

i) UJT relaxation oscillator ii) Triac as an a.c. switch

13. a) Discuss the limitations of amplitude modulation.

(or)

b) Explain the advantages of frequency modulation.

14. a) Explain the function of a Vidicon camera tube.

(or)

b) Define scanning. Discuss interlaced scanning.

15. a) Define numerical aperture. Explain briefly about the two types of

optical fibres.

(or)

b) Explain briefly abart fibre (optical) construction and discuss the

light propagation in fibres.

Part C


16. Describe the various units in phase-locked loop and explain its

working.

17. Draw the circuit diagram of

i) SCR Half wave rectifier

ii) SCR Full wave rectifier. Also explain their working

Question Code : A21206 Sub Code: BPHAS41



ALLIED PHYSICS - II


Part A


1. When a white light undergo dispersion, violet ray

a) deviates less b) deviates more

c) violet ray is not formed

d) does not deviate from the straight line path

2. For thin prism, the refracting angle is

a) < 10° b) > 10° c) 60° d) 0°

3. If the path difference between two waves interfering with each other

is 2 , then the interference is

a) constructive b) destructive

c) both d) none of the above

4. The transverse nature of light waves is demonstrated by the

phenomenon

a) interference b) diffraction

c) polarization d) reflection

5. The half period of a certain radioactive element with disintegration

constant 0.06931 per day

a) 10 days b) 14 days c)140 days d) 1.4 day

6. The explosion of atom bomb is based on the principle of

a) uncontrolled fission reaction b) controlled fission reaction

c) fusion reaction d) thermonuclear reaction

7. The P region of a PN junction diode has_______ as majority charge

carriers

a) electrons b) neutral atom

c) alpha particles d) holes

8. Current gain in common emitter mode is _________ common base

mode

a) less than b) equal to

c) more than d) zero compared to

9. The logic gate whose output is „1‟, if any or all the inputs are in „1‟

state is

a) NOT gate b) OR gate

c) NAND gate d) AND gate

10. According to Boolean algebra A ?BA

a) A + B b) A – B c) A B d) A/B

Part B


11. a) Describe how would you combine two prisms to produce

dispersion without deviation.

(or)

b) Derive an expression for minimum spherical aberration of two

thin lenses separated by a distance.

12. a) How will you determine wavelength of light using transmission

grating?

(or)

b) Describe an experiment to demonstrate double refraction.

13. a) What are thermonuclear reactions? Give an account of proton-

proton cycle releasing solar energy.

(or)

b) State and explain the law of radioactive disintegration with a graph.

14. a) Explain the working of PN junction diode under forward and

reverse bias.

(or)

b) Explain the principle of working of a common emitter transistor

amplifier.

15. a) Explain the action of two input OR gate with an electrical circuit.

(or)

b) Explain the action of NOT gate with an electrical circuit.

Part C


16. Describe how would you combine two prisms to produce deviation

without dispersion

17. Explain Michelson‟s method of determination of velocity of light

18. Give an account of Semi-empirical mass formula by explaining

various terms in it.

19. Draw the circuit diagram to study and explain the characteristics of a

transistor in common base mode.

20. Is NAND gate universal gate? If so, construct AND, OR, NOT gates

using it

5. Explain the working of an AC generator with a neat diagram

6. Derive an expression for the power in A.C circuit and RMS value of

alternating voltage.

7. Discuss the A.C circuit with inductance only and also write a note on

P type and N type semiconductor.

8. i) Discuss the A.C circuit with resistor only.

ii) Explain the action of forward and reverse biased PN junction

diode with neat diagram

Question Code : B21502/ A21502 Sub Code: U16PHN41

/ BPHNE41



NON MAJOR ELECTIVE

BASIC PHYSICS – II



1. a) State Ohm‟s law and Kirchhoff‟s laws in electricity. Also define the

term resistivity and temperature coefficient of resistance.

(or)

b) What are primary and secondary cells? Describe the construction and

working of a lead acid accumulator

2. a) Write a note on choke and wattles current

(or)

b) Write a note on power production in hydro and RMS value of AC

current.

3. a) Explain the working of a bridge rectifier with neat diagram.

(or)

b) Discuss the A.C circuit with capacitance only

Part B


4. Obtain the expressions for the resultant resistance of three resistances

connected in series and parallel.

Question Code : B24104/ A24104 Sub Code: U16CSC41 /

BCSCR41



OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING WITH JAVA

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. What is the numerical range of a char in Java?

a) -128 to 127 b) 0 to 256

c) 0 to 32767 d) 0 to 65535

2. What is the output of relational operators?

a) Integer b) Boolean c) Characters d) Double

3. Which of the following is a method having same name as that of it‟s

class?

a) finalize b) delete c) class d) constructor

4. Which of these keywords can be used to prevent inheritance of a class?

a) super b) constant c) class d) final

5. Which of these keywords is used to define packages in Java?

a) pkg b) Pkg c) package d) Package

6. Which of these interface is implemented by Thread class?

a) Runnable b) Connections

c) Set d) MapConnections

7. Which of these keywords must be used to monitor for exceptions?

a) try b) finally c) throw d) catch

8. Which of these methods can be used to output a string in an applet?

a) display( ) b) print( ) c) drawString( ) d) transient( )

9. What does AWT stands for?

a) All Window Tools b) All Writing Tools

c) Abstract Window Toolkit d) Abstract Writing Toolkit

10. Which of these methods can be used to writing console output?

a) print() b)println() c) write() d) All of the mention

Part B


11. a) Discuss about Java Runtime Environment.

(or)

b) Discuss about various operators in Java.

12. a) Write a program to check whether the given number is prime or not. ( Note : Use constructor).

(or)

b) Discuss about declaring and intialising arrays in Java with suitable

illustration.

13. a) Write a program in Java to perform arithmetic operations using

package concept.

(or)

b) How will you create threads using Runnable interface. Explain.

14. a) Write a Java program to handle the following built in exception

i) ArithmeticException

ii) NumberFormatException

(or)

b) How will you design a web page using Applet tag ? Explain.

15. a) Discuss about different Methods of the Graphics class.

(or)

b) Discuss Byte Stream Classes in Java.

Part C


16. Explain about Java features.

17. How multiple inheritance concept is implemented in Java. Explain.

18. Explain the life cycle of a thread.

19. Explain the life cycle of Applet.

20. Discuss I/O Stream classes in Java.

Question Code : B24204 Sub Code: U16CSA41



OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES


Part A


1. In Graphical method, if there is no common region, then the problem

has _________.

a) feasible solution b) infeasible solution

c) unbounded solution d) no solution

2. Any feasible solution which optimize the LPP is called ________

solution.

a) optimum b) bounded c) infeasible d) none of these

3. In Big-M method if atleast one artificial variable is present in the

basis, then the LPP have _____________ solution.

a) pseudo optimum b) unbounded

c) infeasible d) none of these

4. In simplex method if all yir 0 ( i = 1, 2, ... m), then there is _______

solution.

a) a bounded b) an unbounded

c) no d) an infeasible

5. A basic feasible solution for the general transportation problem must

consist of __________ occupied cells.

a) m + n –1 b) m + n + 1 c) m + n d) m – n + 1

1

6. The transportation problem is balanced if

a) Total demand and total supply are equal and the number of

sources equals the number of destinations

b) Total demand equals total supply irrespective of the number of

sources and destinations

c) number of sources matches with the number of destinations


7. The assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem

in which number of origins

a) equals the number of destinations

b) is greater than the number of destinations

c) is less than the number of destination

d) is less than or equal to the number of destination

8. Which of the following is correct?

a) an assignment problem cannot be of maximization type

b) an assignment problem can be solved only if the number of rows

and columns are equal

c) the transportation method can be used to solve an assignment

problem

d) unbalance assignment problem cannot be solved

9. The shortest path between only one pair of nodes can be determined

using a ________.

a) Dijkstra‟s algorithm b) Floyd‟s algorithm

c) Kraskal‟s algorithm d) none of these

10. A tree that links all the nodes of the network with no cycles is called

_________.

a) directed path b) spanning tree

c) link capacity d) none of these

19. A salesman estimates that the following would be the cost on his

route, visiting the six cities as shown in the following table below:

To City

From

City

1 2 3 4 5 6

1 20 23 27 29 34

2 21 19 26 31 24

3 26 28 15 36 26

4 25 16 25 23 18

5 23 40 23 31 10

6 27 18 12 35 16

The salesman can visit each of the cities once and only once.

Determine the optimum sequence he should follow to minimize the

total distance travelled. What is the total distance travelled?

20. Use Dijkstra‟s algorithm to determine a shortest path from A to C for

the following network:

1 3 6

4 7

5 2

A

B

C

D

E

7 2

Part C


16. Solve the following LPP by using graphical method:

Minimize Z = 20x1 + 40x2

subject to the constraints 36x1 + 6x2 108,

3x1 + 12x2 36,

20x1 + 10x2 100

x2 700,

x1, x2 0.

17. Solve the following LPP by using simplex method:

Maximize Z = 4x1 + 10x2

Subject to the constraints 2x1 + x2 50,

2x1 + 5x2 100,

2x1 + 3x2 90,

x1, x2 0.

18. Given x13 = 50, x14 = 20, x21 = 55, x31 = 30, x32 = 35 and x34 = 25. Is

it an optimal solution to the transportation problem

Available

6 1 9 3 70

11 5 2 8 55

10 12 4 7 90


If not, modify it to obtain a better feasible solution.

Part B


11. a) i) The manager of an oil refinery must decide on the optimum mix

of two possible blending processes of which the input and output

production runs are as follows.

Process Input Output

Crude A Crude B Gasoline X Gasoline Y

1 6 4 6 9

2 5 6 5 5

The maximum amounts available of crudes A and B are 250

units and 200 units respectively. Market demand shows that

atleast 150 units of Gasoline X and 130 units of Gasoline Y must

be produced. The profits per production run from process 1 and 2

are Rs 4 and Rs 5 respectively. Formulate the problem for

maximizing the profit

(or)

b) Use graphical method to solve the following LPP:

Mazimize Z = 6x1 + x2

subject to the constraints 2x1 + x2 3,

x1 – x2 0,

x1, x2 0

12. a) Give the algorithm of Two phase method.

(or)

b) Solve the following LPP by using Big-M method:

Maximize Z = 3x1 + 2x2

subject to the constraints 2x1 + x2 2,

3x1 + 4x2 12,

x1, x2 0

3 6

13. a) Use Vogel‟s Approximation method to obtain an initial basic

feasible solution of the transportation problem.

D1 D2 D3 D4 Supply

S1 3 7 6 4 5

S2 2 4 3 2 2

S3 4 3 8 5 3

Demand 3 3 2 2

(or)

b) Use North West corner method to obtain an initial basic feasible

solution of the transportation problem

D E F G Available

A 11 13 17 14 250

B 16 18 14 10 300

C 21 24 13 10 400


14. a) A department has four subordinates and four tasks to be

performed. The subordinates differ in efficiency and the task differ

in their intrinsic difficulty. His estimate of the time each man would

take to perform each task is given in the matrix below.

Subordinates

Tasks

E F G H

A 18 26 17 11

B 13 28 14 26

C 38 19 18 15

D 19 26 24 10

How should the task be allocated one to a man, so as to

minimize the total man hours?

(or)

b) The following is the cost matrix of assigning 4 clerks to 4 key

punching jobs. Find the optimal assignment if clerk 1 cannot be

assigned to job 1

Job

Clerk

1 2 3 4

1 - 5 2 0

2 4 7 5 6

3 5 8 4 3

4 3 6 6 2

What is the total minimum cost?

15. a) Determine (i) two paths (ii) a cycle (iii) two directed cycles (iv) a

tree and (v) a spanning tree for the following network

(or)

b) Write some applications of the minimal spanning tree problem and

give the algorithm for solving minimal spanning tree problem

1

2

3 4

5

5

4

Question Code : A24403 Sub Code: BCSSB41



COMPUTER ALGORITHMS


Part A


5. Discuss on the complexity of algorithms.

6. Explain priority queue with its applications.

7. Analyze the binary search algorithm.

8. How would you apply Greedy method to solve Knapsack problem?

9. Give a brief note on the basic traversal methods for binary trees.

Part B


10. Give a detail account on the Heap data structure.

11. Explain and analyze the algorithms for finding the maximum and

minimum using divide and conquer method.

12. Discuss the working of Prim‟s algorithm and Kruskal‟s algorithm to

obtain the minimum spanning tree.

13. Explain the techniques used for searching and traversal in graphs.

14. Give an account on Connected components and spanning tree.

Question Code : B24502 / A24502 Sub Code: U16CSN41/

BCSNE41



NON MAJOR ELECTIVE - OFFICE AUTOMATION



1. a) Describe the features of MS-Word.

(or)

b) How will you format the text in MS-Word? Give an Example.

2. a) Explain Bulleting and Numbering feature in MS-Word.

(or)

b) How will you perform spell check and grammatical errors

operation in MS-Word?

3. a) How will you create chart in MS-Excel? Explain with an example.

(or)

b) Write a short note on Microsoft Excel Window.

Part B


4. Explain about the various editing features available in MS-Word.

5. How will you create a Table in MS-Word? Explain with an example.

6. Explain mail-merge concept in with an example.

7. Explain any five mathematical functions in MS-Excel.

8. How will you create a powerpoint presentation? Give an example.

18. Suppose that (s) is continuous on the arc . Then prove that the

function Fn(z) = ds)zs(

)s(n

is analytic in each of the regions

determined by , and its derivative is Fn (z) = nFn+1(z).

19. State and prove Taylor‟s theorem.

20. State and prove Schwartz‟s theorem.

Question Code: B60113/ A60113 Sub Code: P16MAC41 /

P14MAC41



COMPLEX ANALYSIS

Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc ( Maths) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A Answer all questions, choose the correct answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. The quotient )x(g

)x(fof two continuous functions f(x) and g(x) is defined

and continuous at „a‟ if

a) g(x) 0 b) g(a) 0 c) f(x) 0 d) f(a) 0

2. If a linear fractional transformation = kz, |k| = 1, then the

transformation is

a) parallel b) homothetic c) rotation d) inversion

3. Cauchy‟s integral formula f(z) = dszs

)s(f

i2

1is valid only when

a) n( , s) = 0 b) n( , s) = 0

c) n( , z) = 1 d) n( , z) = 0

4. The residue of 2

z

)az(

e at z = a is

a) ea b) 1 c) 0 d) none of these

5. Laplace‟s equation u =

a) y

u

x

u b)

y

u

x

u

c) 2

2

2

2

y

u

x

u d)

2

2

2

2

y

u

x

u

6. State Luca‟s theorem.

7. Define Symmetric.

8. State Cauchy‟s theorem for a rectangle.

9. Define meromorphic function.

10. Write Poisson‟s formula.

Part – B


11. a) Show that u = x2 – y

2 is harmonic and find its conjugate harmonic.

(or)

b) State and prove Abel‟s Limit theorem.

12. a) State and prove the Symmetric principle.

(or)

b) An analytic function in a region whose derivative vanishes

identically must reduce to a constant. Prove that the same is true if

either the real part, imaginary part, the modulus or the argument is

constant.

13. a) If the piecewise differentiable closed curve does not pass through the

point a prove that the value of the integral 0z

dzis a multiple of 2 i

(or)

b) State and prove Cauchy‟s theorem in a disk.

14. a) State and prove Rouche‟s theorem.

(or)

b) State and prove the maximum principle for analytic function.

15. a) If u1 and u2 are harmonic in a region , then prove that

0duuduu 1221 for every cycle which is homologous to zero in

.

(or)

b) If the function fn(z) are analytic and 0 in a region , and if fn(z)

converges to f(z), uniformly on every compact subset of , then prove

that f(z) is either identically zero or never equal to zero on ,

Part – C

Answer any THREE questions: ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks )

16. State and prove Abel‟s theorem on radius of convergence of a power

series.

17. Prove that the cross ratio (z1, z2, z3, z4) is real iff the four points lie on a

circle or on a straight line.

19. State and prove Riesz representation theorem.

20. Let A BL (H). Then prove the following:

i) Let A be self adjoint. If 0x , )x(A for all x H then A = 0.

ii) Let K = C then A is self adjoint if Rx , )x(A for all x H.

Let K = R then A is self adjoint if x , )y(Ay , )x(A x, y H.

iii) A is unitary if and only if ||A(x)|| = || x || for all x H and A is onto.

iv) A is normal if and only if ||A(x)|| = || A*(x)|| for all x H.

Question Code: B60114/ A60114 Sub Code: P16MAC42/

P14MAC42



FUNCTIONAL ANALYSIS



1. Let X and Y be normed linear spaces over K. They are said to be

________ if there exists a linear map F: X Y which is homomorphism

onto

a) linearly homeomorphic b) linearly isometric

c) equivalent d) unequal

2. A normed linear space is _________ if 12

yxwhenever x, y X, || x

|| = 1 = || y || and x y

a) bounded b) strictly convex c) greater d) unequal

3. Let X be a normed linear space over K and E be a convex subset of X

with non empty interior. If b E then there exists a nonzero f X such

that Re f(x) Re f(b) for all x E. Then the functional f is called

a) support b) even c) real d) imaginary

4. If y,x = 0 for x, y X an inner product space then X and Y are said to

be ________

a) parallel b) equal c) orthogonal d) unequal

5. Let A BL (H). A is called self adjoint if __________

a) AA* = I b) A* = A c) A* = A–1

d) A*A=AA*

6. Define a normed linear space.

7. Define Banach space.

8. State Uniform boundedness principle.

9. Define inner product space on a linear space over K.

10. Define Unitary of A BL(H)

Part – B


11. a) Let X be a normed linear space and Y a closed subspace of X with

Y X. Let 0 < r < 1 be a real number. Then prove that there exists

xr X such that || xr || = 1, and r d(xr, Y) 1.

(or)

b) Prove that two nls X and Y over K are linearly homeomorphic if and

only if there exists a linear map F : X Y which is onto and satisfies

|| x || || F(x)|| || x || for all x X and some , > 0.

12. a) Let X be a normed linear space over K and E1, E2 nonempty disjoint

convex subsets of X with E1 open. Then prove that there exists f X

and R such that Re f(x1) Re f(x2) for all x1 E1 and x2 E2.

(or)

b) Prove that a normed linear space X is banach space if and only if

every absolutely summable series of elements in X is summable in X.

13. a) State and prove closed graph theorem.

(or)

b) Let X be a Banach space over C, D an open subset of C and

F : D X. Prove that F is analytic in D if and only if x F is analytic

on D for every x X .

14. a) Prove the following:

i) Let { x1, . . . xn }be an orthogonal set in an inner product space X.

Then || x1 + . . . + xn||2 = || x1||

2 + . . . + || xn ||

2

ii) If E is an orthogonal subset of nonzero elements of an inner product

space X, then E is linearly independent.

iii) If E is an orthonormal subset of an inner product space then

|| u – v || = 2 for any u v E.

(or)

b) Let F be a non empty closed subspace of a Hilbert Space H. If F

denotes the set of all elements of H which are orthogonal to F then

prove that H = F + F , F

is a closed subspace of H with

F F = { 0 } and F = F

15. a) Let A, B BL (H) and k K. Then prove that

i) (A + B)* = A* + B*, (kA)* = kA*, (AB)* = B*A* and **A =A.

ii) || A* || = || A || and || A*A|| = || A ||2

(or)

b) Let K = C and A BL(H) then prove that there are unique self-adjoint

B, C BL (H) such that A = B + iC; Prove that A is normal if and

only if BC = CB and A is unitary if and only if BC = CB as well B2 +

C2 = I.

Part – C

Answer any THREE questions: ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)

16. Let X be a normed linear space. Then prove that the closed unit ball in X

is compact if and only if X is finite dimensional.

17. Prove that if X be a normed linear space and Y a closed subspace of X

then Y with the induced norm and X/Y with the quotient norm are

Banach if and only if X is Banach.

18. State and prove Open mapping theorem.

Question Code: B60115/ A60115 Sub Code: P16MAC43/

P14MAC43



OPERATION RESEARCH



1. A network consists of a set of ________ linked by arcs.

a) nodes b) flow c) model d) dual

2. SIRO expands

a) Service In Route Out b) Service In Random Order

c) Service Out d) Service In Risk Area

3. In single server models, the general formula for Pn = _________

a) 1 + b) 1– c) (1– ) n d)

01

4. L (x , ) = f(x) – g(x) the function L is called ________

a) Lagrangean function b) Poisson function

c) Queue size d) Floid model

5. A function f(x1, x2, . . . xn) is ________ if it can be expressed as the sum

of n-single variable functions f1(x1), f2(x2). . . fn(xn).

a) separable b) minimal c) network d) CPM

6. Expand CPM and PERT.

7. In the following situation identify the customer and the server: Planes

arriving at an airport.

8. State Little‟s formula.

9. Define bordered Hessian matrix.

1

10. Define Polynomial.

Part – B


11. a) For each network in figure determine (i) a path ii) a loop

iii) a directed loop or circuit iv) a tree and v) a spanning tree

(or)

b) Determine the critical path for the project network in following

figure

12. a) A service machine always has a standby unit for immediate

replacement on failure. The time to failure of the machine is

exponential and occurs every 45 minutes, on the average. The machine

2

5 1

3 4

2

3

2

3

2

11

1

3

2

2

2 4

5

6 7

2

5 7

6

2 3

Job arrive of Keenco according to a Poisson distribution with a mean of

four jobs per 24 hour day. Job size is random but averages about

10,000 sheets per job. Contracts with the customers specify a

penalty cost for late delivery at the rate of $80 per jobs per day.

Which copier should Keenco purchase?

19. Consider the problem Maximize f(x) = 21

2

3

2

2

2

1 xx5x10x2x

subject to g1(x) = x1 + 2

2x + 3x2x3 – 5 = 0

g2(x) = 2

1x + 5x1x2 + 2

3x – 7 = 0

Apply the Jacobian method to find f(x) in the feasible

neighbourhood of the feasible point (1, 1, 1). Assume that this feasible

neighbourhood is specified by g1 = –0.01, g2 = 0.02 and x1 = 0.01.

20. Consider the problem Maximize z = 6x1 + 3x2 – 4x1 x2 – 2 2

2

2

1 x3x

subject to x1 + x2 1;

2x1 + 3x2 4

x1 , x2 0

Show that z is strictly concave and then solve the problem using

the quadratic programming algorithm

operator claims that the machine „has the habit‟ of breaking down every

night around 8.30P.M. Analyse the operator‟s claim.

(or)

b) The springdale public library receives books according to a Poisson

distribution with mean 25 books per day. Each shelf in the stacks

holds 100 books. Determine the following

i) The average number of shelves that will be stacked with new books

each (30 day) month.

ii) The probability that more than 10 book cases will be needed each

month, given that a book case has 5 shelves

13. a) A fast-food restaurant has one drive-in-window. Cars arrive according

to a Poisson distribution at the rate of 2 cars every 5 minutes. The space

in front of the window can accommodate at most 10 cars, including the

one being served. Other cars can wait outside this space if necessary. The

service time per customer is exponential, with a mean of 1.5 minutes.

Determine the following:

i) The probability that the facility is idle.

ii) The expected number of customer waiting to be

served.

(or)

b) An investor invests $1000 a month in one type of stock marked

security. Because the investor must wait for good „buy‟ opportunity,

the actual time at which the purchase is made is totally random. The

investor usually keeps the securities for about 3 years on the average

but will sell them at random times when „sell‟ opportunity presents

itself. Although the investor is generally recognised as a shrewed

stock market player, past experience indicates that about 25% of the

securities decline at about 20% a year. The remaining 75% appreciate

3 6

at the rate of about 12% a year. Estimate the investors average

equity in the stock market.

14. a) Consider the problem Minimize f(x) = 2

3

2

2

2

1 xxx

subject to g1(x) = x1 + x2 + 3x3 – 2 = 0

g2(x) = 5x1 + 2x2 + x3 – 5 = 0

determine the constrained extreme points

(or)

b) Develop the Kuhn-Tucker condition for the following problem

Minimize f(x) = 2

3

2

2

2

1 xxx

subject to g1(x) = 2x1 + x2 – 5 0

g2(x) = x1 + x3 – 2 0

g3(x) = 1 - x1 0

g4(x) = 2 – x2 0

g5(x) = - x3 0

15. a) Consider Maximizing the function f(x1, x2) = 4x1 + 6x2 2x12 –

2x1x2– 2x22 . f(x1, x2) is a quadratic function where absolute optimum

occurs at 21 x,x = 3

4;

3

1. Solve by the steepest ascent method.

(or)

b) Solve by restricted basis method maximize z = x1 + 4

2x subject to

3x1 + 2

2x2 9; x1, x2 0

Part – C


16. For the network in figure, find the shortest routes between every two

nodes. The distance (in miles) are given on the arcs. Arc (3,5) is

directional so that no traffic is allowed from node 5 to node 3. All the

other arcs allow traffic in both directions.

17. B & K groceries operators with three check out counters. The sign by the

check-out area advises the customers that an additional counter will be

opened any time the number of customers in any lane exceeds three. This

means that for fewer than four customers, only one counter will be in

operation. For four to six customers, two counters will be opened. For

more than six customers, all three counters will be opened. The customers

arrive at the counters area according to a Poisson distribution, with a

mean of 10 customers per hour. The average check-out time per customer

is exponential with mean 12 minutes. Determine the steady-state

probability Pn of n customers in the check out area.

18. Keen Co publishing is in the process of purchasing a high speed

commercial copier. Four models whose specifications are summarized

below have been proposed by vendors.

Copier

model

Operating cost

($/hr)

Speed

(sheets/min)

1 15 30

2 20 36

3 24 50

4 27 66

·

2

5

6

10

3

5

1

2

2

2

3

5

4

4

4

15

4 5

.

Question Code: B60308 / A60308 Sub Code: P16MAE42/

P14MAE42



NUMBER THEOREY AND CRYPTOGRAPHY



1. If (a,b) = 1 then (a+b, a2

– ab + b2 ) is

a) either 2 or 3 b) either 1 or 2

c) either 1 or 3 d) either 1 or 4

2. The inverse of Euler‟s function -1

=

a) u * N b) u * c) u * N d) u * N

3. The number of solutions of the linear congruence 2x 3 (mod 4) has

a) 0 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3

4. We represent the situation schematically by the diagram

Pf

C1f

P. Any such set-up is called

a) crypto system b) encryption

c) decryption d) plain text

5. One of the most important parts of a message in the authentication is

________

a) single matter b) signature c) name d) date

6. Define the Mobius function (^).

7. Define the divisor functions (^).

8. Write the Wilson‟s theorem.

9. Define deciphering or decryption.

10. Define private key cryptosystem.

Part – B


11. a) State and prove the Euclidean algorithm.

(or)

b) Prove that if n 1 then n | d

.n)d(

12. a) Let f be multiplicative. Then prove that f is completely multiplicative

if and only if f -1

(n) = (n) f(n) for all n 1.

(or)

b) Prove that for every n 1 prove that n | d otherwise 0

square a isn if 1)d(

also prove that for|)n(| )n(1 all n.

13. a) i) Assume (a, m) = 1. Then prove that the linear congruence

ax b (mod m) has exactly one solution.

ii) State and prove Euler-Fermat theorem.

(or)

b) State and prove the Lagrange‟s theorem.

14. a) Solve the following systems of simultaneous congruences.

i) 2x + 3y 1 mod 26, 7x + 8y 2 mod 26

ii) x + 3y 1 mod 26, 7x + 9y 2 mode 26

(or)

b) Suppose we know that our adversary is using an enciphering matrix

A in the 26 – letter alphabet. We intercept the ciphertext

„WKNCCHSSJH‟, and we know that the first word is „GIVE‟. Find

the deciphering matrix A-1

and read the message.

15. a) Write about algorithms for finding discrete logs in finite fields.

(or)

b) Write the Knapsack problem and solve the superincreasing knapsack

problem.

Part – C


16. i) Prove that the infinite series 1n

np

1diverges.

ii) Prove that for n 1, (n) = n p

11

n | p

17. i) Prove that if f is multiplicative then f(1) = 1.

ii) Prove that if f and g are multiplicative, so is their Dirichlet product

f g.

iii) Prove that if both g and f g are multiplicative then f is also

multiplicative.

18. i) Prove that for any prime p all the coefficients of the polynomial

f(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) . . . (x – p +1) – xp-1

+1 are divisible by p.

ii) State and prove the Chinese remainder theorem.

19. Working in the 26 letter alphabet, use the matrix A = 87

32to encipher

the message unit „NO‟. Also encipher the plain text „NO ANSWER‟. In

the above situation decipher the ciphertext “FWMDIQ”.

20. Find the discrete log of 28 to the base 2 in *

37F using the Silver-Pohlig-

Hellman algorithm ( 2 is a generator of *

37F ).

·

2

5




WORLD CLASSICS IN TRANSLATION

Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Who is the judge for the contest called by Pluto in „The Frogs‟?

a) Dionysus b) Aeschylus c) Xanthias d) Heracles

2. Dionysus dressed up as _________.

a) Xanthias b) Heracles c) Demeter d) Jupiter

3. Who is the god of winds in „The Aeneid‟?

a) Neptune b) Aeolus c) Juno d) Cupid

4. _______ is the god of desire in „The Aeneid‟.

a) Cupid b) Dido c) Venus d) Neptune

5. ________ is the husband of Anna.

a) Vronsky b) Karenin c) Levin d) Kitty

6. Who struggles with her role as a wife and mistress in the novel „Anna

Karenina‟?

a) Anna b) Kitty c) Dolly d) None of these

7. Who is the owner of the Bridge Inn?

a) Hans b) Barnabas c) Arthur d) Jeremiah

8. Who does help Josef K to find ways to go to the castle?

a) Olga b) Amalia

c) Hans, the student d) Arthur

9. _________ is a beautiful boy who comes in „Death in Venice‟.

a) Tadzio b) Jashu

c) Gustav Von Aschen Bach d) none of these

10. ________ is the theme of „Death in Venice‟.

a) lust b) love c) death d) frustration

Part – B


11. a) „The Frogs‟ is the best example of Old Attic comedy – Discuss.

(or)

b) Analyse the main themes of „The Frogs‟.

12. a) Critically analyse the Women characters in „The Aeneid‟.

(or)

b) Write an essay on the character of Aeneas.

13. a) Is „Anna Karenina‟ a love story? Explain.

(or)

b) What is the main theme of „Anna Karenina?

14. a) Is „The Castle‟ a story of alienation, frustration and bureaucracy?

– Discuss

(or)

b) Why does Josef K feel isolated in „The Castle‟?

15. a) How is the conflict between rationality and irrationality developed

in „Death in Venice‟?

(or)

b) Write an essay on the character of Tadzio.

Part – C


16. What is the irony discussed by Aristophanes in „The Frogs‟.

17. Critically examine the character of Turnus in „The Aeneid‟.

18. Write the critical appreciation of Tolstoy‟s „Anna Karenina‟

19. Is „The Castle‟ an allegorical novel? Explain.

20. Symbolism and irony on „Death in Venice‟

Question Code: A80114 Sub Code: P14ELC42



INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE LITERATURE


Part A


1. The term „General Literature‟ was coined by _________

a) Paul Van Tieghem b) Harry Levin

c) Weisstein d) Prawer

2. In Tamil, comparative literature is generally called ________.

a) Oppilakkiam b) Oppiyal Ilakkium

c) Oppumai Ilakkium d) Oppittu Ilakkiam

3. In the French sense, comparative literature is nothing but a statement of

________

a) French Literary Theory b) French Literary History

c) French Literary Criticism d) French Literary Genre

4. Harry Levin is ________.

a) a French comparatist b) a Russian comparatist

c) a Britist comparatist d) an American comparatist

5. The noun „theme‟ points to the _______

a) style b) meaning c) structure d) technique

6. _________ is a compilation of 50 scholars belonging to different

languages but concentrating on a single theme, the meeting of lovers at

dawn.

a) Eros b) Eos c) Echoes d) Erose

7. Northrop Frye‟s approach to genres is called _______

a) meta criticism b) intric criticism

c) intrinsic criticism d) extrinsic criticism

8. „Simple Forms‟ is a work on genres written by _________.

a) Andre Jolles b) Ulrich Weisstein

c) Allan Rodway d) Paul Van Tieghem

9. According to Freud, „Id‟ refers to _________

a) the conscious b) the unconscious

c) the pre-conscious d) the post-conscious

10. Marxism is associated with _______

a) Inductive materialism b) inductive spiritualism

c) dialectical materialism d) dialectical spiritualism

Part – B


11. a) Give a brief account of National literature.

(or)

b) Write a note on General literature.

12. a) Write a short note on Russian school of comparative literature.

(or)

b) Why is French school considered narrow in its approach to

comparative literature?

13. a) Discuss briefly the views of Wellek and Warren on genre studies.

(or)

b) Mention any five difficulties observed by Weisstein in genre studies.

14. a) Summarize Trousson‟s views on themes and types.

(or)

b) Give a brief account of the following terms as discussed by Weisstein:

i) motif ii) situation iii) trait

iv) image v) leitmotif vi) topos

15. a) Discuss the theory of Collective Unconscious.

(or)

b) Explain the relationship between ideology and literature.

Part – C

Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)

16. Write an essay on definition and scope of comparative literature.

17. Discuss in detail the role of different schools of comparative literature for

the growth of comparative literature.

18. What are S.S.Prawer‟s views on Thematology?

19. Write an essay on Freud‟s contribution to the study of literature.

20. Discuss elaborately the relevance of sociology in the study of literature.




LITERARY CRITICISM AND THEORY

Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. Whose work Abrams cite for pragmatic criticism?

a) Johnson b) Wordsworth c) Dryden d) Pope

2. Whom does T.S.Eliot answer in the essay The Functions of criticism?

a) F.R. Leavis b) I.A. Richard c) Murry d) W.B.Yeats

3. According to Ransom the best critics of poetry are the __________

a) poets b) dramatists c) essayists d) novelists

4. The study of the principles of literature, its categories and criteria is

known as________

a) literary study b) literary theory

c) literary history d) philology

5. What is the first thing to be said of Restoration drama according to

L.C.Knight is _________

a) dull b) interesting c) tragic d) comic

6. Apart from Politics, yet another cause for the decline of language is

__________

a) nouns b) verbs

c) phrases d) economic cause

7. Jung calls psychology as a study of the _________ process.

a) thinking b) scientific c) psychic d) mind

8. Archetypal criticism owes its origin to James G. Frazer‟s __________.

a) The Golden Bough b) The Golden gate

c) The Golden Bowl d) The Golden Arrow

9. In many psychological novels, the hero is described from __________

a) outside b) within c) outdoors d) indoors

10. Freud revealed through psychoanalysis that a creative writer was not a

__________

a) ghost b) neurotic c) mere artist d) critic

Part – B


11. a) How does Abrams analyse the four coordinates of literary theories.

(or)

b) What is the function of criticism according to T.S.Eliot?

12. a) Who do have the competence of critics according to John Crow

Ransom?

(or)

b) Bring out Wellesk‟s definition of literary theory.

13. a) How does L.C.Knight‟s judge Restoration comedies?

(or)

b) Why does Orwell criticise English as ugly an inaccurate during his

time?

14. a) Bring out the examples given by Jung for the visionary mode of

writing.

(or)

b) Enumerate the importance of myth.

15. a) Explain the relationship between fantasies and Day Dreams.

(or)

b) Cite Freud‟s influence on other writers.

Part – C


16. Summarize Abram‟s orientation of critical theories.

17. How does John Crow Ransom view the critical enterprise?

18. What set of conventions are appropriated in Restoration comedies?

19. What is Yung‟s contribution to literature?

20. How does Trilling trace the legacy of Sigmund Freud?

Question Code: B80307 Sub Code: P16ELE41



ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEACHING


Part A


1. English Language Teaching is a branch of ________.

a) Applied Linguistics b) Anatomy

c) Archaeology d) Applied Physics

2. ________ function conveys information to the listeners.

a) Phatic b) Creative c) Referential d) Educative

3. ________ refers to an unconscious process that involves the naturalistic

development of language proficiency through using language for

meaningful communication.

a) Learning b) Development

c) Teaching d) Acquisition

4. The _________ hypothesis states that learners acquire language only

when they are willing to acquire and when they are not suffering from any

mental worries.

a) Input b) Affective Filter

c) Natural Order d) Monitor

5. In the __________ method the language to be taught is viewed as a

system of rules seen in the text and the rules are mentioned and

followed by practice.

a) Grammar-Translation b) Direct

c) Dr. Michael West d) The Silent Way

6. The Language learner must master the sound system of the language,

inflections of words, word order, and use of structural words in the

________ Approach.

a) Situational b) Dr. Michael West

c) Structural d) Notional

7. Understanding the relationship of words in a passage is a micro skill

under the macro skill _________.

a) Writing b) Speaking c) Listening d) Reading

8. Note- taking and Note- making from the reference books is an activity

for developing ________ skill.

a) Speaking b) Writing c) Reading d) Listening

9. _________ Grammar is application – oriented.

a) Formal b) Advanced c) Basic d) Functional

10. ________ tests are used to measure the degree of success of the

instructional programme.

a) Achievement b) Aptitude c) Diagnostic d) Proficiency

Part – B


11. a) What is the aim of teaching English as a Second Language?

(or)

b) Discuss some of the problems faced by the teachers of English

language.

12. a) Write a note on the attitudes of errors in English.

(or)

b) How is language learning different from language acquisition?

13. a) Explain the salient features of the Direct Method of Language

Learning.

(or)

b) Discuss the factors that contribute to Communicative Language

Learning.

14. a) List out some of the activities for developing reading comprehension.

(or)

b) How can we develop speaking skills in students?

15. a) Explain the Objectives and Methods of Teaching Prose Lessons.

(or)

b) Write briefly on the characteristics of a Good Test.

Part – C


16. Discuss the aims and objectives of English teaching in India.

17. Explain the various theories of Language Learning.

18. Discuss the principles and procedures of Situational Approach.

19. Why should we teach language skills integratively?

20. Write in detail on the different ways of teaching grammar

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SEQUENCES AND SERIES

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. nn 2

1lim

= ________.

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

2. The sequence 0, –1, 0, –2, 0, .... is

a) convergent b) divergent

c) bounded below but not bounded above

d) bounded above but not bounded below

3. ._______ !

lim nn n

n

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

4. 0 _______ log

lim

pifn

npn

a) – b) –1 c) 0 d) 1

5. The series ._____ 5

4

5

2

5

4

5

2432

a) 7 b) 12

7 c)

7

12 d) 12

6. _______ 14

12n

a) 1 b) 2 c) 2

1 d)

4

1

7. By ratio test the series na converges if ______.

a) 1 lim1

n

n

n a

a b) 1 lim

1

n

n

n a

a

c) 1 lim1

n

n

n a

a d) 1 lim

1

n

n

n a

a

8. The series n

xn

diverges if ______.

a) 1 x b) 1 x c) 1 x d) 1 x

9. The series 2 3

)1( 1

n

nn _______

a) converges b) diverges

c) oscillates d) none

10. The series n

n)1( is _______.

a) conditionally convergent b) absolutely convergent

c) oscillates d) none

Part B


11. a) If aan )( and 0 na for all n then prove .0 a

(or)

b) Prove : A sequence cannot converge to two different limits.

12. a) Prove : A sequence )( na converges to l )( naiff is bounded and l

is the only limit point of the sequence.

(or)

b) Show that the sequence

n

n

1 1 converges.

13. a) Apply cauchy's general principle of convergence prove that

1

)1( 3

1

2

1 1

n

n is convergent.

(or)

b) Prove : The series pn

1 converges if p > 1 and diverges if 1 p .

14. a) Test the convergence of the series nxn

n

1where x is any positive

real number.

(or)

b) State and prove Cauchy's root test.

15. a) State and prove Dirichlets test.

(or)

b) Show that the cauchy product of two convergent series need not be

convergent.

Part C


16. Show that (i) 1 lim1

n

na where a > 0 is any real number.

(ii) 1 lim1

n

nn

17. State and prove cauchys second limit theorem.

18. State and prove the cauchy's general principle of convergence of series.

19. State and prove Kummer's test.

20. State and prove Merten's Theorem.

Part C


16. A particle is projected so as to graze the tops of two parallel walls,

the first of height „a‟ at a distance b from the point of projection and

the second of height b at a distance „a‟ from the point of projection.

If the path of particle lies in a plane perpendicular to both the walls,

find the range on the horizontal plane and show that the angle of

projection exceeds tan–1

3.

17. Show that for a given velocity of projection the maximum range

down an inclined plane of inclination α bears to the maximum range

up the inclined plane the ratio sin 1

sin 1.

18. Two equal marble balls A, B lie in a horizontal circular groove at

the opposite ends of a diameter, A is projected along the groove and

after time t, impinges on B. Show that a second impact takes place

after a further intervale

t 2.

19. Define SHM and show that the energy of a system executing S.H.M

is proportional to the square of the amplitude and of the frequency.

20. The velocities of a particle along and perpendicular to a radius

vector from a fixed origin are 2 r and 2 where and λ are

constants. Show that the equation to the path of the particle is

2 2

rC . Where C is a constant. Show also that the

accelerations along and perpendicular to the radius vector are

rrand

rr

32

4232 2

2 .

Question Code : B20303 / A20302 Sub Code: U16MAE41 / BMAME41



DYNAMICS


Part A


1. Time taken by a projectile to reach the greatest height

a) g

u sin b)

g

u 22 sin c)

g

u

2

sin d)

g

u

2

sin 22

2. A bomb was released from an aeroplane when it was at a height of

1900m above a point A on the ground and was moving horizontally with

a speed of 100m per sec. The time from A of the point where the bomb

strikes the ground

a) 10 secs b) 20 secs c) 15 secs d) None

3. Time to reach the greatest distance of the projectile from the inclined

plane is

a) cos

)( sin

g

u b)

cos 2

)( sin

g

u

c) in 2

)( sin

sg

u b)

cos

)( sin

g

u

4. The loss in kinetic energy due to the direct impact of two smooth

spheres of masses m1 and m2 moving with velocities u and 2u is

a) 21

22

21 ) 1( )2(

2

1

mm

euumm b)

21

22

21 )1 ( )2(

2

1

mm

euumm

c) 21

22

21 )1( )2(

2

1

mm

euumm d)

21

22

21 )1 ( )2(

2

1

mm

euumm

5. The inelastic sphere slides along the plane with velocity

a) u sin α b) u cos β c) u sin β d) u cos α

6. If u1 , u2 are the velocities of two smooth spheres before direct

impact and v1, v2 are the velocities after impact then the value of

v1–v2 is

a) ) ( 21 uue b) ) ( 12 uue

c) ) ( 21 uue d) ) ( 21 uue

7. The periodic time of a simple pendulum is

a) g

2 b)

g 2

c)

g 2 d)

g

2

8. The equation of a simple harmonic motion is

a) xnx 2 b) xnx 2

c) xnx 2 d) xnx 2

9. The areal velocity of a particle moving in a central orbit is

a) r b) 0 c) 2r d) 2

1 2r

10. The magnitude of the radial component of acceleration along radius

vector is

a) 2 rr b) 2 rr c) 2 rr d) 22 rr

Part B


11. a) Show that the path of a projectile is a parabola.

(or)

b) If the greatest height attained by the particle is a quarter of its

range on the horizontal plane through the point of projection, find

the angle of projection.

12. a) If a projectile is projected with an initial velocity u at an angle α to the

horizontal plane, find the range on the inclined plane.

(or)

b) A smooth sphere whose mass is „m‟ and coefficient of elasticity is „e‟

impinges obliquely on a smooth fixed plane. Find its velocity and

direction of motion after impact.

13. a) A ball of mass 8gm moving with a velocity of 10 cm per sec.

Impinges directly on another of mass 24 gm, moving at 2 cm per sec; in

the same direction. If 2

1 e , then find the velocities after impact. Also

calculate the loss in kinetic energy.

(or)

b) A smooth sphere of mass m1 impinges obliquely with velocity u1 on

another smooth sphere of mass m2 moving with velocity u2. If the

directions of motion before impact make angles α1 and α2 respectively

with the line joining the centres of the spheres and if the coefficient of

restitution be e, then find the velocities and directions of motion after

impact.

14. a) A particle is moving with SHM and while making an oscillation from

one extreme position to the other, its distances from the centre of

oscillation at 3 consecutive seconds are 321 ,, xxx . Prove that the period

of oscillation is

2

311

2 cos

2

x

xx.

(or)

b) Find the resultant of two SHM‟s of the same period and in the same

straight line.

15. a) Derive the differential equation of central orbits in polar coordinates.

(or)

b) Show that the path of a point p which possesses two constant

velocities u and v, the first of which is in fixed direction and the second

of which is perpendicular to the radius op drawn from a fixed point O, is

a conic whose focus is O and whose eccentricity is u/v.

Question Code : B20205 Sub Code: U16MAA41



OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING WITH C++


Part A


1. Dynamic binding also known as _______.

a) Box object b) Triangle objects

c) Late binding d) Early binding

2. An exit – controlled loop is ______.

a) for b) if c) switch d) do–while

3. Function Prototype is a _______ statement in the calling program.

a) template b) inherits

c) declaration d) prototyping

4. The prototyping in C++ is ______.

a) essential b) inspired

c) variables d) argument–list

5. The class declaration is similar to a ________ declaration.

a) data b) struct c) private d) public

6. Which one of the following is the format for calling a member function?

a) object–name.function–name (actual–arguments);

b) object name–function name (actual– arguments);

c) object – name*function name ; (actual–arguments);

d) object – name*function–name; (actual–arguments);

7. The membership operator is ______.

a) b) c) ? d) <

8. The scope resolution operator is _________.

a) << b) >> c) : : d) =

9. An abstract class is one that is not used to create _______.

a) Datas b) Objects

c) Virtual base d) Ancestor class

10. A stream is a sequence of _______.

a) input device b) output device

c) input stream d) bytes

Part B


11. a) Explain Data Abstraction and Encapsulation.

(or)

b) Write a program to print even numbers from 2 to 50 using While

statement.

12. a) Write a program to check whether a given numbers is even or odd

using if and else statement.

(or)

b) Discuss about the Return by Reference.

13. a) Write the special characteristics of friend function.

(or)

b) Give some special characteristics of Constructor functions.

14. a) Write a program to get a Complex representation for given any

two numbers using overloading + operator.

(or)

b) Explain the conversion from Class to Basic type.

15. a) Write a program to find the product of two numbers using multiple

inheritance.

(or)

b) Give some manipulations and their meanings.

Part C


16. Explain Expressions and their types.

17. Discuss about the function overloading in OOP.

18. Write a program using member function to check whether a given

number is even or odd.

19. Give the rules for overloading operators.

20. Explain Hierarchical Inheritance.

8. A company wishes to assign 3 jobs to 3 machines in such a way that

each job is assigned to some machine and no machine works on

more than one job. The cost of assigning job i to machine j is given

by the matrix below:

786

875

678

Draw the associated network, formulate the network LPP

and find the minimum cost of making the assignment.

Question Code : B20502 Sub Code: U16MAN41



NON MAJOR ELECTIVE

OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES

Time : 2 Hrs Part A Max. Marks : 75


1. a) Consider the following problem faced by a production planner in a

soft drink plant. He has two bottling machines A and B. A is designed

for 8 – ounce bottles and B for 16 – ounce bottles. However, each can be

used on both types with some loss of efficiency. The following are the

data available:

Machine 8 – ounce bottles 16 – ounce bottles

A 100/minute 40/minute

B 60/minute 75/minute

Each machine can be run 8 – hours per day, 5 days per week. Profit

on a 8 – ounce bottle is 25 paise and on a 16 – ounce bottle is 35 paise.

Weekly production of the drink cannot exceed 3,00,000 ounces and the

market can absorb 25,000 8 – ounce bottles and 7,000 16 – ounce

bottles per week. The planner wishes to maximize his profit subject, of

course, to all the production and marketing restrictions. Formulate this as

a linear programming problem.

(or)

b) Use the graphical method to solve the following LPP:

Minimize 21 2 xxz subject to the constraints :

10 3 21 xx ; 6 21 xx ; 2 21 xx , 0 , 21 xx .

2. a) Find the maximum value of 321 2 107 xxxz subject to the

constraints

0 3 ; 56 16 ; 736 14 3213214321 xxxxxxxxxx

0 , , , 4321 xxxx .

(or)

b) Use simplex method to maximize 21 35 xxz subject to the

constraints 3 ,4 21 xx , 18 2 21 xx ; 921 xx ; 0 , 21 xx

3. a) Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to the following T.P.

Using the matrix minima method:

D1 D2 D3 D4 Capacity

O1 1 2 3 4 6

O2 4 3 2 0 8

O3 0 2 2 1 10

Demand 4 6 8 6

(or)

b) Find the initial basic feasible solution to the following T.P. Using

VAM, given the cost matrix.

D1 D2 D3 D4 Supply

S1 20 25 28 31 200

S2 32 28 32 41 180

S3 18 35 24 32 110

Demand 150 40 180 170

Part B


4. Let us assume that you have inherited Rs.1,00,000 from your

father–in–law that can be invested in a combination of only two stock

portfolios, with the maximum investment allowed in either portfolio set

at Rs.75,000. The first portfolio has an average rate of return of 10%,

whereas the second has 20%. In terms of risk factors associated with

these portfolios, the first has a sick rating of A (on a scale from 0 to 10) ,

and the second has 9. Since you wish to maximize your return, you will

not accept an average rate of return below 12% or a risk factor above 6.

Hence, you then face the important question. How much should you

invest in each portfolio?

Formulate this as a Linear programming Problem and Solve it by

Graphical Method.

5. Use Simplex method to solve the L.P.P :

21 10 4 xxzMax subject to the constraints :

50 2 21 xx ; 100 5 2 21 xx ; 90 3 2 21 xx ; 0 , 21 xx .

6. Use Simplex method to solve the L.P.P :

21 3 2 xxzMax subject to the constraints :

4 21 xx ; 1 21 xx ; 5 2 21 xx ; 0 , 21 xx

7. A departmental head has four subordinates and four tasks to be

performed. How should the tasks be allocated, one to a man, so as to

minimize the total man – hours ?

E F G H

A 18 26 17 11

B 13 28 14 26

C 38 19 18 15

D 19 26 24 10

Men

Tasks

Question Code : B25106 / A25106 Sub Code: U16NDC41 BNDCR41



NUTRITION SCIENCE

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (N&D with CA) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. __________ is known as milk sugar.

a) Maltose b) Lactose c) Galactose d) Sucrose

2. Which of the following is soluble fibre?

a) Hemicellulose b) Gums

c) Pectin d) All of these

3. ________ in the blood can serve as buffers.

a) Amino acids b) Proteins c) Fat d) None of these

4. ________ is an example for incomplete protein

a) Wheat protein b) Milk casein

c) Rice protein d) Gelatin

5. Benedict oxy calorimeter is used to determine __________

a) BMR b) REE

c) Energy expenditure d) Energy value of food

6. Bile is stored and released from _____.

a) Liver b) gallbladder

c) Pancreas d) None of the above

7. Peculiar smoky appearance of the conjunctiva are the symptoms of

________.

a) Conjunctival xerosis b) Keratomalacia

c) Corneal xerosis d) Bitot‟s spot

8. Thiamin deficiency can lead to _________.

a) Beri beri b) Pellagra

c) Blindness d) Angular somatitis

9. Goitre is the deficiency of _______.

a) Calcium b) Iodine c) Iron d) Zinc

10. Which of the following is symptom of iron deficiency?

a) Lassitude b) Insomia

c) Palpitation d) All the above

Part B


11. a) What is carbohydrate? Explain the digestion and absorption

process.

(or)

b) Write short notes on classification of carbohydrate.

12. a) Give an account on protein deficiency.

(or)

b) Briefly Explain about the function of protein.

13. a) Write a short note on the factors which are affecting BMR.

(or)

b) Write a short note on various classification of fat.

14. a) What are water soluble vitamins? Explain the function of vitamin

C.

(or)

b) Give an account on the functions of vitamin K.

15. a) Write short note on the functions of potassium.

(or)

b) How water is distributed in the body? Explain.

Part C


16. What is dietary fibre? Explain the role of dietary in the prevention of

disease.

17. Elaborate on the classification, function, digestion and absorption of

protein.

18. Explain bomb calorimeter with suitable diagram.

19. Discuss in detail the function, deficiency and food sources of vitamin A.

20. Explain the function, deficiency and food sources of phosphorus.

Question Code : B25303 Sub Code: U16NDE41



FAMILY RESOURCE MANAGEMENT


Part A


1. Human resources are ______.

a) Time b) Money

c) Knowledge d) Goods

2. Which one of the following reduces fatigue?

a) Level of motivation b) Setting immediate goals

c) Rest period d) All the above

3. ______ is the first step in decision making.

a) Recognizing b) Identification

c) Indication d) Formulating

4. Which one of the following is the kind of income?

a) Money income b) Realized income

c) Psychic income d) All the above

5. The movement of torso are termed as _______.

a) Pedal effort b) Torsal effort

c) Crusel effort d) Cling effort

6. The other name for relaxing the time is called as _______.

a) Freeing b) Engaged

c) Leisure d) None

7. An organized movement in the principles of design is _______.

a) Balance b) Rhythm

c) Harmony d) Proportion

8. Name of the colour is _______.

a) Hue b) Value

c) Intensity d) Dullness

9. Low shallow arrangements are called as _______.

a) Moribana b) Ikebana

c) Nagaire d) Japanese

10. A center of interest should be created to focuses _______.

a) Center point b) Corners

c) Horizontal view d) Focal point

Part B


11. a) Explain group discussion in a family.

(or)

b) Classify the various resources of a family.

12. a) Describe the formal techniques in work simplification.

(or)

b) Write down the Mundel‟s classes of changes.

13. a) Explain the importance of time management.

(or)

b) List down the various steps in managing the budget of a family.

14. a) Explain with suitable examples about the harmony, emphasis and

rhythm of a design.

(or)

b) Describe the quality and types of colour used in a design.

15. a) Draw the furniture arrangement in a bed room and study room.

(or)

b) Explain Japanese arrangement with suitable examples.

Part C


16. Explain Value, Goals and Standards of a house.

17. Describe the work simplification and explain the informal techniques.

18. Illustrate the Time management of a house with suitable examples.

19. Explain in detail about the elements of design.

20. Mention the basic principles of flower arrangement along with used

accessories.

Question Code : B25204 / A25204 Sub Code: U16NDA41 / BNDAS41



WEB TECHNOLOGY


Part A


1. What should be the first tag in any HTML document?

a) <head> b) <title> c) <html> d) <document>

2. The body tag used after ______.

a) Title tag b) HEAD tag

c) EM tag d) FORM tag

3. There are ______ ways of labelling destination using Anchor.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

4. Which of the following tag is used to mark a beginning of paragraph?

a) <TD> b) <br> c) <P> d) <TR>

5. _______ is used to indicate a list items as contained in ordered, or non

ordered list styles.

a) <fn> b) <LI> c) <link> d) None

6. Which of these tags are all <table> tags?

a) <table><head><tfoot> b) <table><tr><td>

c) <table><tr><tt> d) <thread><body><tr>

7. Which of the following is not an attribute of the FRAME tag?

a) SCROLLING b) AUTO

c) MARGINWIDTH d) FRAMEBORDER

8. Which of the following best indicates the standard attributes

specified when defining a FRAME?

a) SRC and NAME b) SRC, NAME and ROW

c) NAME and FRAMESET d) BODY, SRC and TITLE

9. When form data contains sensitive or personal information then

which method is more preferable?

a) Get method b) Post method

c) Host method d) Put method

10. XHTML stands for?

a) Extensible HyperText Markup Language

b) Extended HyperText Markup Language

c) Extensible HighText Markup Language

d) None

Part B


11. a) What is Anchor? Explain.

(or)

b) Write short notes on generation of HTML.

12. a) Write short notes on the different level of heading supported by

HTML.

(or)

b) Write short notes on paragraph tag.

13. a) What are the attributes of Table Tag? Explain.

(or)

b) Explain nested list.

14. a) What is Frame? Explain.

(or)

b) What is nested framesets? Explain.

15. a) Write short notes on forms.

(or)

b) Write short notes on drop down list.

Part C


16. What is HTML? Explain the structure of HTML program with example.

17. How to include the Image and pictures in web page? Explain with

example.

18. What is Ordered and Unordered List? Explain.

19. Explain web page design project with example.

20. Explain :

a) Action attribute

b) Method attribute

Part B


4. Bring out the RDA value for pregnant and lactating women.

5. Give the RDA value for an adolescent girl and boy.

6. What are the nutritional problems of an adolescent?

7. Describe about the diabetes mellitus.

8. Write an essay on cardio vascular diseases.

Question Code : B25502 Sub Code: U16NDN41



NON MAJOR ELECTIVE

NUTRITION AND HEALTH - II

Time : 2 Hrs Part A Max. Marks : 75


1. a) Give the ICMR RDA for an adult man doing sedentary activity.

(or)

b) What are the factors considering RDA?

2. a) Give dietary advice for an anemic adolescent girl.

(or)

b) What are the reasons for additional nutrient requirements for an

adolescent girl.

3. a) List out the causative factors of hyper tension?

(or)

b) What are the clinical signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus?

19. Describe the Twelve principles of Green chemistry.

20. a) Write a short note on umpolung synthesis

b) Explain the schematic analysis of the trans – 9 – methyl –1 –

decalone and 2,4 – dimethyl – 2 – hydroxyl pentanoic acid.




ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - IV

MOLECULAR REARRANGEMENTS AND SYNTHETIC METHODS

Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. The rearrangement of aromatic α – diketones in the presence of

hydroxide ion to α – hydroxyl acid is known as ______ rearrangement.

a) Favorshi b) Claisen

c) Benzil – Benzilic acid d) Sommelet – Hauser

2. Name the rearrangement involved in

a) Favorshi b) Hoffmann

c) Curtius d) Benzidine

3. Intermediate formed during the Paterno– Buchi reaction is ______.

a) Carbene b) Nitrene

c) Biradical d) Carbocation

4. Photochemical reaction of ketones and aldehydes which results in fission

of the C – CO bond followed by elimination of CO are classified as

______ process.

a) Norrish type II b) Norrish type – I

c) Barton reaction d) Williamson

H2N H+ H

N

H

N NH2

5. The molecular formula of cholesterol is _______.

a) C27 H46 O2 b) C27 H46 O

c) C26 H46 O2 d) C26 H45 O

6. Female sexharmone is _______.

a) Testosterone b) Progesterone

c) Roffinose d) Galactose

7. Dimethyl carbonate is an example for ________.

a) Anaesthetic b) Vitamin

c) Hormone d) Green Solvent

8. Green chemistry is best described as ________.

a) Chemistry for sustainable development of our planet.

b) Chemistry relating to biological issues

c) Chemistry relating to environmental issues

d) Chemistry of plants and plant products.

9. The structure of the molecule is determined step by step along with

responsible pathways to successively simple compounds accepted as

starting material is called as ______.

a) Quantitative analysis b) Retro synthetic analysis

c) Semimicro analysis d) Convergent synthesis

10. An idea which identifies potential starting materials and reactions

that can lead to desired molecule is ________.

a) configuration b) conformation

c) analysis d) synthetic plan

Part B


11. a) Discuss the mechanism of pinacol – pinacolone and cope

rearrangements.

(or)

b) Give an account on the features and mechanism of Beckmann and

Benzidine rearrangements.

12. a) Explain the various photo physical processes with the help of

Jablonskii diagram.

(or)

b) Explain (i) Paterno Buchi reaction with mechanism and

(ii) Electro cyclic reactions.

13. a) Elucidate the structure of Morphine.

(or)

b) Write a brief note on sex hormones and their mode of action.

14. a) What do you meant by Green chemistry? What are green catalyst,

green reagent and green solvents? Give suitable examples. Mention their

uses.

(or)

b) What are the differences between conventional heating and

microwave heating? What are the advantages of microwave heating over

conventional heating?

15. a) Explain Robinson annulation reaction.

(or)

b) Give a brief account on regionselectivity, diastereoselectivity and

enantioselectivity.

Part C


16. Explain the mechanism behind

(i) Wolf (ii) Stevens (iii) Claisen rearrangements

17. a) Explain Norrish type – I and Norrish type – II reactions.

b) What are pericyclic reactions? How are they classified? Explain

Huckel – Mobius method in brief.

18. a) What are the Steroids, hormones and alkaloids? Give suitable

examples.

b) Elucidate the structure of Cholesterol.

Question Code : B62111 / A62111 Sub Code: P16CHC42 / P14CHC42



INORGANIC CHEMISTRY IV

NUCLEAR AND ORGANOMETALLIC CHEMISTRY


Part A


1. The number of protons in a negatively charged atom (anion) is ______.

a) more than the atomic number of the element

b) less than the atomic number of the element

c) more than the number of electrons in the atom

d) less than the number of electrons in the atom

2. The half – life period of a radioactive element is 100 days and after 500

days, one gm of the element will be reduced to _______ gm.

a) 1/100 b) 1/500 c) 1/32 d) 1/64

3. What is the meaning of the term "critical mass"?

a) This refers to the mass of the “critical” elements in a reactor, i.e, the

uranium or plutonium.

b) This refers to the minimum amount of fissionable material required

to sustain a chain reaction.

c) This is the amount of mass needed to make a power reactor

economically feasible.

d) This is the material which is just on the verge of becoming

radioactive.

4. Compound containing some amount of radioisotope is ________.

a) radioactive compound b) non radioactive

c) tracer d) linear active compound

5. Lanthanide contraction is observed due to increase in________.

a) Effective nuclear charge b) Volume of 4f orbital

c) Atomic radii d) Atomic number

6. Which of similarity is seen in Lanthanides & actinides?

a) Electronic configuration b) Formation of complexes

c) Ionisation energy d) Oxidation states

7. Weight loss mechanism in TGA is by ________.

a) Absorption b) Oxidation

c) Desorption d) None

8. Lines which appear in absorption and emission spectrum are

______.

a) same b) far apart

c) different d) very different

9. In going from the linear to the bent (–N-O) system the lone-pair of

electrons have some________character.

a) non–bonding b) anti–bonding

c) bonding d) IT–bonding

10. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is associated with________.

a) Oxidation of olifins b) Hydroformylation

c) Oligomerization d) Olefin polymerization

Part B


11. a) Write a note on three quantum numbers.

(or)

b) What do you mean by auger emission? Explain with example.

12. a) Explain the theory of nuclear fission with suitable examples.

(or)

b) Discuss the applications of radioactive isotopes in chemical and

analytical fields?

13. a) Explain the lanthanide contraction and its conseqences.

(or)

b) Write a note on

i) Electronic configuration of actinides.

ii) Oxidation state of actinides.

14. a) Discuss the principle and applications of TGA.

(or)

b) Writ a note on amperometric titrations.

15. a) Discuss olefin and acetylene complexes.

(or)

b) Explain the synthesis, structure and bonding in metal nitrosyls .

Part C


16. a) Explain the half life period of a radioactive substance.

b) Calculate the time in which the activity of a radioactive substance

reduces to 90% of its original value. The half life period of a radioactive

substance is 1.4x1010

years.

17. Write a note on

a) The energy from nuclear fusion.

b) Thermo nuclear reactions in stars.

18. Discuss the occurrence and various methods of extraction of lanthanides

from monazite sand

19. Elaborate the principle and applications of any four spectro analytical

methods.

20. Write notes on.

a) Wilkinson catalyst b) Oxoprocess

c) Wacker process and d) Ziegler-Natta catalyst

Question Code : B62112 / A62112 Sub Code: P16CHC43 / P14CHC43



PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY IV

CHEMICAL KINETICS , SURFACE, BIOPHYSICAL AND PHOTO CHEMISTRY


Part A


1. Lindemann theory says :„All unimolecular reactions must become

second order at sufficiently _________‟.

a) high pressure b) high temperature

c) low pressure d) low temperature

2. The chain length of any reaction is represented by ______.

b) = rate of overall reaction / rate of initiation step

c) = rate of overall reaction / rate of propagation step

d) = rate of overall reaction / rate of termination step

e) = rate of overall reaction x rate of initiation step

3. The relaxation time in T- jump or P- jump method is obtained as the time

required to decay _______.

a) ∆xo completely zero b) to half of its value

c) ∆xo to 1/e of ∆ xo d) to 75% of its value

4. In the neutralization reaction of strong acid by strong base in aqueous

medium, t0.5 value is _______.

a) 10-6

sec or less b) 10-6

min or less

c) 10-6

hour or less d)10-6

hour or high

5. The heat evolved in chemisorption is

a) 1000 kJmol-1

b) 600 kJmol-1

c) 300 – 500 kJmol-1

d) 650 kJmol-1

6. Which of the following substance inhibit the decomposition of

ammonia on platinum?

a) nitrogen b) oxygen

c) fluorine d) hydrogen

7. The Onsager reciprocal relation is ________.

a) Lij+ Lji = 0 b) Lij = Lji

c) (Lij)2 = Lji d) Lij = (Lji)

2

8. Choose the compound which shows molecular recognition :

a) Cyclodextrin b) NaCl

c) KCl d) I2

9. Hydrated electrons are in ________ color.

a) orange b) violet

c) red d) blue

10. Internal conversion is _______.

a) radiative process b) non-radiative process

c) thermal process d) either (a) or (b)

Part B


11. a) Account on : (i) Chain length of a reaction

(ii) Explosion limit in H2 – O2 reaction.

(or)

b) With the reaction mechanism, deduce the rate law and rate

constant expression for the decomposition of N2O5.

12. a) Compare continuous and Stopped flow methods.

(or)

b) Explain the study of chemical kinetics of fast reactions by

Relaxation method

13. a) Write Langmuir adsorption isotherm equation and explain.

(or)

b) Discusses the factors that influence the adsorption if gases on solids.

14. a) Write the role of ATP in bioenergetics.

(or)

b) Discuss the Mossbauer effect in haemoglobin.

15. a) Discuss the experimental set up of dosimeter.

(or)

b) Deduce Stern–Volmer equation and list its applications.

Part C


16. a) Discuss the principle of microscopic reversibility.

b) How do the solvent influences the dielectric constant of the solution.

c) Obtain Bronsted Bjerrum equation.

17. a) Discuss the experimental set up of Flash photolysis.

b) Highlight the importance of Ultrasonic absorption method.

18. a) What are micelles ? How do they classified ? Give two examples for

each one.

b) Explain the term Critical Micellar Concentration.

19. a) How do cyclodextrin and zeolite exhibit the phenomenon of molecular

recognition in organic chemistry.

b) Hint on : Biological energy conversion in catabolism and anabolism.

20. a) Write a note on : (i) Chemical actinometer (ii) Storage of solar energy.

b) Define the term : G–value.

List any three sources of high energy radiations.

What are hydrated electron? Mention its colour.

Question Code : B62308 / A62308 Sub Code: P16CHE42 / P14CHE42



POLYMER CHEMISTRY


Part A


1. In Group transfer polymerization the catalyst used is _____.

a) TiCl4 b) Na c) Al (Et)3 d) Trimethyl silyl cyanide

2. Nylon-6 is can be prepared from _______.

a) Styrene b) Ethylene

c) Ethylene glycol d) Caprolactam

3. Which one of the following is a linear one?

a) LDPE b) HDPE c) Bakelite d) none

4. Osmotic pressure method is used to determine _______.

a) nM b) WM c) VM d) none

5. Tg is related to the Tm for the unsymmetrical polymers

a) Tg = 2/3Tm b) Tg = 1/2Tm

c) Tg = 1/3Tm d) Tg = 3/4 Tm

6. Suspension polymerization is also called as _______.

a) Pearl polymerization b) Melt polycondensation

c) Reinforcing polymerization d) Emulsion polymerization

7. Which polymerization technique gives the largest possible per reactor

volume?

a) Mass b) Solution c) Suspension d) Emulsion

8. Cracks development in rubber on prolonged storage is due to

_______.

a) cross-linking b) Hydrolysis

c) vulcanization d) Oxidation

9. Which of the following is a thermoplastic?

a) Nylon b) Bakelite c) PVC d) Terylene

10. Phthalate esters are used in polymer industry as________.

a) Disinfectants b) colorants

c) flame retardants d) Plasticizers

Part B


11. a) Explain the Ring opening polymerisation with suitable examples.

(or)

b) Propose the free radical mechanism of addition polymerization

with suitable example.

12. a) Write notes on Nylons and polyesters.

(or)

b) How can you synthesize polycarbonate and Bakelite? Give a

detailed account of their applications.

13. a) Explain the geometrical isomerism in polymers.

(or)

b) Write notes on number average and weight average molecular

weights.

14. a) Explain in detail about the conducting polymers.

(or)

b) Differentiate emulsion and suspension polymerization.

15. a) Write notes on silicone polymers.

(or)

b) Write notes on Extrusion and Compression moulding.

Part C


16. (i) How can you prepare polyethylene by zeiglar Natta polymerization?

(ii) Differentiate condensation and addition polymerization?

17. Explain in detail about the synthesis, properties and applications of the

following polymers?

i) Bakelite

ii) Polystyrene

iii) PVC

iv) Melamine – formaldehyde resin

18. What is Tg? (i) What are the factors affecting Tg? (ii) Calculate

wn M&M of a polymer containing equal number of molecules of

molecular weights 50,000; 1,00,000; 1,50,000 and 2,00,000.

19. (i) Explain in detail about the oxidative degradation of Rubber.

(ii)Discuss the biomedical application of polymers.

20. Write short notes on :

i) Plasticizers

ii) Die casting

iii) Rotational casting

iv) Reinforcing

Question Code : B70105 Sub Code: P16CAC41



DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING

Time : 3 Hrs M.C. A Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. ________ divides the image into many sub–regions and extracts the

region.

a) Image compression b) Image enhancement

c) Image segmentation d) Pattern recognition

2. ________ is the process which reduces size of data file by retaining the

necessary information.

a) Image compression b) Image enhancement

c) Image segmentation d) Pattern recognition

3. If the relations aRb and bRc exists, it implies that the relationship aRc

also exits. This is known as a _______ relation.

a) reflective b) symmetric

c) transitive d) closure

4. Histogram______ tries to flattens the histogram to create better quality.

a) matching b) equalization

c) stretching d) sliding

5. A disturbance that causes fluctuations in pixel values is ______.

a) Noise b) lines c) filter d) edges

6. Vector quantization is based on ______ of data.

a) intensity b) pixels

c) blocks d) size

7. The process of extracting the ROI is image ______.

a) filtering b) segmentation

c) compression d) thinning

8. Seed pixel is the ______ point of the region growing algorithm.

a) center b) bottom

c) main d) starting

9. ______ is the process of removing the irrelevant pixels.

a) filtering b) segmentation

c) compression d) thinning

10. Pseudocolour images are _______ images.

a) artificially colour added b) segmented

c) preprocessed

d) naturally enhanced with colour

Part B


11. a) What are the various types of images based on color? Discuss.

(or)

b) Discuss the levels of image processing operations.

12. a) Explain about the following image quality factors.

i) Contrast ii) Brightness

iii) Spatial resolution iv) Noise

(or)

b) What are the various Arithmetic operations used in Image

processing? Explain in detail.

13. a) Discuss the types of image degradation.

(or)

b) Explain how Huffman coding is helpful in compression process?

14. a) Describe the various stages of Edge Detection.

(or)

b) Explain about validation of segmentation algorithms.

15. a) Explain Boundary Extraction process.

(or)

b) Discuss about RGB color model.

Part C


16. Explain the following fundamental image operations.

i) Image enhancement ii) Image compression

iii) Image Restoration iv) Image synthesis

v) Image analysis

17. Describe spatial filtering concepts. Explain Image Smoothing Spatial

Filters in detail.

18. Explain the classification of image compression algorithms.

i) Entropy Encoding ii) Predictive coding

iii) Transform iv) Layered coding

19. Discuss about the principles of Thresholding and algorithms involved in

this process.

20. Explain the following Full colour processing.

i) Colour Transformation

ii) Colour Image segmentations




E-COMMERCE AND ITS APPLICATIONS


Part A


1. Which of the following describes E–commerce?

a) Doing business electronically b) Doing business manually

c) Sales of goods d) Purchase

2. Which of the following is part of the four main types of E–commerce?

a) B2B b) B2C c) C2B d) All of the above

3. Porter's value chain theory was introduced in _______.

a) 1980 b) 1985 c) 1990 d) 1995

4. A strategy to develop capabilities in company value chain is called

_______.

a) Value resource b) Substitute resource

c) Strategic resource d) Resource modelling

5. What is a function of e – commerce?

a) Marketing b) Advertising

c) Online sales d) All of the above

6. EDI standard

a) Is not easily available

b) Defines several hundred transaction sets for various business forms

c) Is not popular

d) Defines only a transmission protocol

7. Compared to B2C E–commerce B2B E–commerce is ________.

a) Of equal size b) Slightly smaller

c) Slightly larger d) Much larger

8. In the e –commerce security environment, which of the following

constitutes the inner–most layer?

a) People b) Data

c) Technology solutions

d) Organizational policies and procedures

9. All HTML tags are enclosed in ______.

a) # and # b) ? and !

c) < and > d) { and }

10. What does the <br> tag add to your webpage?

a) Long break b) Paragraph break

c) Line break d) None of the above

Part B


11. a) Describe TCP/IP. Explain its layers and their functions.

(or)

b) Explain in detail about E–Commerce framework.

12. a) Write short notes about Porter's value chain model.

(or)

b) What is meant by Supply chain? Explain its functions.

13. a) Discuss the various stages involved in creating Airline Booking

System.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Business–to–Business E–commerce.

14. a) Explain about EDI standards and technology.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Business to Consumer electronic commerce.

15. a) Explain about E–commerce security.

(or)

b) Design a HTML document using the standard tags.

Part C


16. Explain the infrastructure for Electronic Commerce.

17. Briefly explain about Business strategy, formulation and implementation

planning.

18. Briefly explain about EDI and its benefits with an example.

19. What is B2C? Describe the advantages and disadvantages of

Business – to – Consumer (B2C).

20. What is online payment system? Explain in detail. Discuss the various

risks associated with it.




C# WITH ASP .NET PROGRAMMING


Part A


1. C# is the only language designed for ________.

a) Web application b) .Net frame work

c) Windows application d) Network

2. Which of the following is the additional feature in C# ?

a) Type def statement b) Forward declaration of classes

c) Default arguments d) strict type safety

3. Value constants assigned to variables are ______.

a) Identifiers b) Keywords

c) Punctuators d) Literals

4. In v op = exp , op = is known as ?

a) Shorthand assignment operator b) Simple assignment operator

c) Assignment operator d) Long hand assignment operator

5. The ______ statement at the end of each block, signals the end of a

particular case and causes an exit from the switch statement.

a) exit b) break c) switch d) case

6. In the ______ loop, the conditions are tested before the start of the loop

execution.

a) exit controlled loop b) entry controlled loop

c) goto d) infinite loop

7. What SQL query will retrieve all record form a table named “pets”

in which the pet name is “clyde”, with the records including only the

pet name field (pet_name) and the pet id field(pet_id)?

a) SELECT ALL FROM pets WHERE name = „clyde‟

b) SELECT * FROM pets WHERE pet_name = „clyde‟

c) SELECT * FROM pets WHERE pet_name = „clyde‟ AND

pet_id= „*‟

d) SELECT pet_name, pet_id FROM pets WHERE

pet_name = ‟clyde‟

8. What is the process of determining the end result and working

backward to determine requirements called?

a) From–the–group–up engineering

b) Backward – engineering

c) Reverse –engineering

d) Forward Engineering

9. The ______ component depends on a file called the schedule File to

know what ad images to display, What Links to attach to them, And

how frequently each one should come up.

a) scale b) Ad Rotator

c) page Counter d) server

10. Data entry tools are ______.

a) Text box, Radio Button, Combo Box

b) Button, List Box

c) Frame, Table

d) None of these

Part B


11. a) Describe the scope and life time of variables.

(or)

b) Write a short note on .NET framework.

12. a) Explain the different operators used in C#.

(or)

b) Write a C# program to display the manipulation table from 2 to 10

using for loop statement.

13. a) Discuss the different form of SQL select statement with suitable

example.

(or)

b) Describe the ADO.NET Object model.

14. a) Write a program in ASP.Net to perform the currency conversion.

(or)

b) Illustrate the different Web controls used in ASP.Net.

15. a) Explain Validation controls available in .NET.

(or)

b) What is templates? Explain templates with Data List.

Part C


16. Discuss the type conversion, explicit and implicit conversion with

suitable example.

17. Write a program to read and insert the elements in the Array.

18. Write a short note on the following with suitable example.

a) Connection statement

b) SQL update statement

c) SQL insert statement

19. Write a program to implement how to access the Web controls.

20. Illustrate the Data Grid with all options available in ASP.Net.

Question Code : B70303 Sub Code: P16CAE43





Part A


1. _______ maps data into predefined group or classes.

a) Classification b) Clustering

c) Association d) Regression

2. _______ is used to fill in missing values, smooth the noisy data and

resolve inconsistencies.

a) Data mapping b) Data cleaning

c) Data filling d) Data resolving

3. A perceptron consists of a simple three – layered network with input

units called _______.

a) photo – receptors b) associators

c) responders d) collectors

4. _______ is the centrally located value of a set of data such that half of

the values of a set of data are above it and other half are below it.

a) Mean b) Average

c) Median d) Summation

5. _______ phase might remove redundant comparisons or remove sub–

trees to achieve better performance.

a) Training b) Pruning

c) Splitting d) Ordering

6. ________ is an iterative clustering algorithm in which items are

moved among sets of clusters until the desired set is reached.

a) K – Means b) K – Medoid

c) CLARA d) DBSCAN

7. ________ is a powerful database model that significantly enhances

the user's ability to quickly analyze large, multidimensional data

sets.

a) Data Warehouse b) Dataset

c) Repository d) Data Mart

8. ________ contains a subset of corporate–wide data that is of value

to a specific group of users.

a) Repository b) Dataset

c) Data Mart d) Data Collector

9. _______ is an analytic model used to increase managerial or

professional decision making by bringing important data to view.

a) Decision Support system b) Expert System

c) Tracking d) Preprocessing

10. _______ is a process of consolidating data values into a single value

a) Clustering b) Classification

c) Aggregation d) Association

Part B


11. a) Explain about Data Integration.

(or)

b) Explain Data reduction in Data preprocessing process.

12. a) Discuss genetic Algorithm with its features.

(or)

b) Explain decision tree with an example.

13. a) Describe about Bayesian classification.

(or)

b) Discuss the requirements of clustering algorithm.

14. a) Explain about the specialized applications of warehousing technology.

(or)

b) What are the various types of Metadata? Explain each one.

15. a) Describe ROLAP.

(or)

b) Discuss the types of backup.

Part C


16. Explain knowledge discovery process in detail.

17. Discuss the various statistical measures in large databases.

18. Describe about Hierarchical clustering.

19. What is Data Mart? Explain in detail.

20. Explain Data Warehouse project life cycle.

Question Code : B50308 /B51308 Sub Code: P16COE42 / P16MCE42



ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT

Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. The term intrapreneur was coined by _______.

a) Robert owen b) Joseph Schumpeter

c) Richard Cantillon d) Gifford Pinchot

2. An entrepreneur‟s primary motivation for starting a business is ______.

a) To take money b) To be independent

c) To be famous d) To be powerful

3. Entrepreneurs are best as ______.

a) Managers b) Venture capitalists

c) Planners d) Doers

4. A successful entrepreneur relies on which of the following for critical

management advice ______.

a) Internal management team

b) External management professionals

c) Financial sources

d) No one

5. Entrepreneurs are _______.

a) High risk takers b) Moderate risk takers

c) Small risk takers d) Doesn't matter

6. One of the most frequent reasons an entrepreneur forms a joint venture is

to share the ______.

a) Resources b) Cost

c) Cost and risk of a project d) Profit

7. Project appraisal is usually done by a________ Institution

a) Marketing b) Financial

c) Production d) None of these

8. The excess of the present value over the cost of the project is

______.

a) IRR b) ARR c) NPV d) NTV

9. _______ is the final report.

a) Feasibility report b) Interim report

c) Project report d) Progress report

10. Personal characteristics of the successful entrepreneur includes

_____.

a) Understand environment b) Creating managerial options

c) Encourage open discussion d) All of the above

Part B


11. a) Explain the characteristics of entrepreneurship?

(or)

b) What are the qualities a successful entrepreneur should posses?

12. a) Discuss the economic factors influencing entrepreneurship.

(or)

b) What are DICs? Describe its important functions.

13. a) What is evaluation of ideas? Explain briefly about the various

techniques used in idea evaluation?

(or)

b) Describe how an opportunity is finalized.

14. a) What are the problems of EDP‟s?

(or)

b) What is the women entrepreneurship? Explain the need for women

entrepreneurship.

15. a) Explain the role of institutional agencies in promoting women

entrepreneurship.

(or)

b) What is meant by seed capital? Explain its sources.

Part C


16. Briefly discuss the factors affecting entrepreneurship.

17. Describe the functions of Entrepreneur.

18. Explain the various methods of appraising a project.

19. Discuss the role of EDP in achieving promoting entrepreneur.

20. Discuss the role of entrepreneur in economic growth as an innovator.

Question Code : B50112 / B51110 Sub Code: P16COC41 / P16MCC41



ACCOUNTING FOR MANAGEMENT DECISIONS


Part A


1. Management accountant in an organization has to co–ordinate with

______.

a) Cost accountant b) Internal auditor

c) General accountant d) All the above

2. The technique of converting figures into percentages to some common

base is called ______.

a) Comparative statement b) Common size statement

c) Ratio analysis d) Trend percentages

3. Liquidity ratio indicates the ability of the company to meet its ________.

a) Tax obligations b) Funds lost in operation

c) Sources of funds d) Current liability

4. Loss of cash by embezzlement is a kind of _______.

a) Funds from operation b) Funds lost in operation

c) Sources of funds d) Application of funds

5. The term cash includes _______.

a) Sundry debtors b) Accounts receivable

c) Bills receivable d) Bank balance

1

6. Contribution is equal to _________ sales.

a) N/P ratio b) P/V ratio

c) BEP d) EPS

7. _________ indicates the extent to which the sales can be reduced

without resulting in loss.

a) BEP b) Margin of safety

c) Key factor d) Contribution

8. Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and

remuneration based on ________.

a) Performance b) Experience

c) Qualification d) Times

9. Material price variance is loss or gain_______.

a) Due to using more or less material

b) Due to wastage of material

c) Due to payment of higher or lower price than what is specified


10. Standard costing is a______.

a) Method of costing

b) Technique for cost reduction

c) Cost control technique


Part B


11. a) Explain the scope of management accounting.

(or)

b) M/s. Karthik Ltd., has submitted the following Balance sheet for

the year ended 31st Dec, 2000:

ii) 50% of credit sales is realized in the month following the sale and the

other 50% in the second month following. Creditors are paid in the

month following the month of purchase.

iii) Wages are paid at the end of the respective month.

iv) Cash at bank 1st April –Rs.25,000.

20. The following information is obtained from the records of a company

using standard costing system.

Standard Actual

Production in units 4,000 3,800

Fixed overhead Rs.40,000 Rs.39,000

Calculate:

i) Fixed overhead cost variance

ii) Fixed overhead expenditure variance

iii) Fixed overhead volume variance

7 2

(b) Land was revalued during the year at Rs. 1,50,000 and profit on

revaluation transferred to P&L A/C. You are required to prepare a

Cash flow statement for the year ended 31.12.2007.

18. The sales and profit for 2014 and 2015 are as follows:

Year Sales(Rs) Profit(Rs)

2014 1,50,000 20,000

2015 1,70,000 25,000

Find out :

a) Profit volume Ratio

b) BEP

c) Sales for a profit of Rs.40,000

d) Profit for sales of Rs.2,50,000 and

e) Margin of safety at a profit of Rs.50,000

19. XYZ Company wishes to arrange O.D facilities with its bankers

during the period April-June, when it will be manufacturing mostly

for stock.

i) Prepare cash budget for the above period from the following data:

Months Sales

(Rs)

Purchases

(Rs)

Wages

(Rs)

February 1,80,000 1,24,800 12,000

March 1,92,000 1,44,000 14,000

April 1,08,000 2,43,000 11,000

May 1,74,000 2,46,000 10,000

June 1,26,000 2,68,000 15,000

Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.

Equity share capital 1,50,000 Fixed assets 1,62,000

Revenue reserves 30,000 Current assets:

8% Debentures 20,000 Stock 22,000

Sundry creditors 49,000 Debtors 51,000

Bills receivable 2,000

Bank 12,000

2,49,000 2,49,000

Find out the current ratio and liquidity ratio.

12. a) Prepare a statement of changes in working capital from the following

balance sheet of Manjit & Co. Ltd.,

Balance sheet

Liabilities 2006

(Rs.)

2007

(Rs.)

Assets 2006

(Rs.)

2007

(Rs.)

Equity share

capital

5,00,000

5,00,000

Fixed assets 6,00,000 6,00,000

Debentures 3,70,000 4,50,000 Long– term

Investments

2,00,000 1,00,000

Tax payable 77,000 43,000 Work–in–

progress

80,000

90,000

Accounts

payable

96,000 1,92,000 Stock–in–trade

1,50,000

2,25,000

Interest

payable

37,000

45,000

Accounts

receivable

70,000

1,40,000

Dividend

payable

50,000

35,000

Cash 30,000 10,000

11,30,000 12,65,000 11,30,000 12,65,000

(or)

b) Differentiate between funds flow statement and cash flow statement.

3 6

13. a) (i) Calculate breakeven point from the following :

Sales 1,000 units at Rs.10 each Rs.10,000

Variable cost – Rs.6 per unit

Fixed cost – Rs.8,000.

(ii) If the selling price is reduced to Rs.9 ,what is the new

breakeven point?

(or)

b) Differentiate between marginal and absorption costing.

14. a) Prepare a Flexible Budget for overheads on the basis of the

following data. Ascertain the overhead rates at 50%, 60% and 70%

capacity:

At 60% capacity

Rs.

Variable overheads:

Indirect material 6,000

Indirect labour 18,000

Semi-variable overheads:

Electricity (40% fixed : 60% variable) 30,000

Repairs (80% fixed : 20% variable) 3,000

Fixed overheads:

Depreciation 16,500

Insurance 4,500

Salaries 15,000

Total overheads 93,000

Estimated direct labour hours 1,86,000

(or)

b) What are the advantages of zero base budgeting?

15. a) From the following, calculate material price variance, assuming

standard price per kg of Rs.8

Opening stock of material : 50 kg at Rs.10 per kg

Material purchased : 850 kg at Rs.10 per kg

Closing stock of material : 100 kg.

(or)

b) Describe the objectives of standard costing.

Part C


16. Describe the functions of management accounting.

17. The following are the comparative Balance sheet of XYZ Ltd., as on 31st

December 2006 and 2007.

Liabilities 2006

(Rs.)

2007

(Rs.)

Assets 2006

(Rs.)

2007

(Rs.)

Share cap

(shares of Rs.10

each)

3,50,000

3,70,000

Land 1,00,000 1,50,000

Profit & Loss

A/C

50,400

52,800

Stock 2,46,000 2,13,500

9% Debentures 60,000 30,000 Goodwill 50,000 25,000

Creditors 51,600 59,200 Cash at bank 42,000 35,000

Temporary

investments

3,000

4,000

Debtors 71,000 84,500

5,12,000 5,12,000 5,12,000 5,12,000

Other particulars provided to you are :

(a) Dividends declared and paid during the year Rs.17,500.

4 5




GOODS AND SERVICE TAX


Part A


1. CGST and SGST will be levied on :

a) Intra –state supply b) Inter – state supply

c) Import d) Export

2. Which one of the following shall not be treated as supply?

a) Rental b) Lease

c) Actionable claim d) License

3. The maximum rate that can be levied as CGST or SGST will be at

______.

a) 18% b) 20% c) 18% d) 40%

4. On which one of the following items, GST will be levied:

a) Aviation fuel b) Liquefied petroleum Gas

c) Natural Gas d) High Speed Diesel oil

5. Works contract is :

a) Supply of goods b) Supply of services

c) Supply of both

d) Neither supply of goods nor supply of services

6. The default rule of place of supply of services made to any person other

than a registered person if address on record doesn‟t exist shall be

_______.

a) Location of the recipient of services

b) Location of the supplier of services

c) Location where service is rendered

d) Location where agreement for rendering of services is executed

7. Composition levy is applicable to the taxable persons whose

aggregate turnover–did not exceed _______.

a) 50 lakh in the current year

b) 50 lakh in the preceding year

c) 60 lakh in the current year

d) 60 lakh in the preceding year

8. ______ Act provides un–intercepted ITC chain on inter–state

transactions?

a) IGST b) CGST c) VAT d) SGST

9. Import / Export is treated as ______ in GST?

a) Intra – state supply b) Inter – state supply

c) Non – taxable supply d) Exempted supply

10. ITC includes tax payable under ______ also.

a) VAT b) Reverse charge

c) Excise d) Customers

Part B


11. a) What are the principles of Subsumation?

(or)

b) State the benefits of dual GST.

12. a) List down the various types of GST.

(or)

b) Write a short note on Central Goods and Service Tax?

13. a) Who is a person liable for registration and not liable for

registration?

(or)

b) Explain about time of supply of goods and services.

14. a) Briefly explain about First Return of GST.

(or)

b) Write a short note GSTR 3.

15. a) Write a short note on IGST.

(or)

b) Discuss the procedure relating to Levy of GST.

Part C


16. Describe the benefits of the implementation of GST.

17. Briefly explain the various advantages of dual mode GST.

18. Discuss about tax liability on Mixed and Composite supply.

19. State the procedure of matching reversal and reclaim of ITC.

20. Explain the various types of Assessment.






Part A


1. Finance Function comprises______.

a) Safe custody of funds only b) Expenditure of funds only

c) Procurement of finance only

d) Procurement & effective use of funds

2. The objective of wealth maximization takes into account ______.

a) Amount of returns expected b) Timing of anticipated returns

c) Risk associated with uncertainty of returns

d) All of the above

3. The following is (are) the type(s) of capital budgeting decision(s)

a) Diversification b) Replacements

c) Expansion d) All of the above

4. Which method of capital budgeting called benefit cash ratio?

a) Pay Back Period b) Net Present Value

c) Accounting Rate of Return d) Profitability Index Number

5. The amount of current assets required to meet a firm‟s long–term

minimum needs is referred to as _______ working capital.

a) Permanent b) Temporary

c) Net d) Gross

1

6. Which of the following would be consistent with a conservative

approach to financing working capital?

a) Financing short term needs with short term funds

b) Financing short term needs with long term debt

c) Financing seasonal needs with short term funds

d) Financing some long term needs with short term funds

7. Degree of Combined leverage can be obtained by_______.

a) EBIT + Fixed Costs/EBIT – Total Interest Expense

b) EBT/Sales

c) Sales/Contribution x 100

d) Sales/Cash x 100

8. Cost of preference Capital can be obtained by______.

a) ) 1( 1002 TaxE //D P/EKP

b) 10010012 / /D P/EKP

c) 10021 /DKP

d) )2/....( / )/. . . .( PNVMnPNVMDKP

9. Modigliani and Miller argue that the dividend decision

a) is irrelevant as the value of the firm is based on the earning

power of its assets.

b) is relevant as the value of the firm is not based just on the

earning power of its assets.

c) is irrelevant as dividends represent cash leaving the firm to

shareholders, who own the firm anyway.

d) is relevant as cash outflow always influences other firm

decisions.

10. _______ is a payment of dividend by issue of additional shares to

shareholders in lieu of cash.

a) Stock split b) Stock dividend

c) Extra Dividend d) Regular Dividend

2

19. From the following data, calculate Operating leverage, Financial

leverage and Composite leverage. Also calculate Financial Break

Even Point.

Amount (Rs.)

EBIT 20,00,000

Profit after Tax 9,60,000

Operating Fixed Cost 15,00,000

Tax Rate 40%

Preference Dividend 2,40,000

20. Following are the details regarding three companies A Ltd, B Ltd,

and C Ltd.

A Ltd. B Ltd. C Ltd.

r = 15% r = 10% r = 8%

Ke = 10% Ke = 10% Ke = 10%

EPS = Rs.10 EPS = Rs.10 EPS = Rs.10

Calculate the value of an equity share of each of these

companies applying Walter‟s formula when dividend per share is

a) Rs. 4 b) Rs. 8 c) Rs.10

Part B


11. a) What are the functions of Financial Management?

(or)

b) What are the objectives of Financial Management?

12. a) A project requires an investment of Rs.5,00,000 and has a scrap value

of Rs.20,000 after five years. It is expected to yield profits after

depreciation and taxes during the five years amounting to Rs.40,000,

Rs.60,000, Rs.70,000, Rs.50,000 and Rs.20,000. Calculate the average

rate of return on the investment.

(or)

b) What are the factors affecting capital investment decisions?

13. a) What are the various types of working capital of a firm?

(or)

b) From the following particulars, estimate the working capital required

for a firm:

Per annum

i) Average amount locked up in inventories:

Raw materials 5,000

Finished goods 10,000

ii) Credit sales per annum

(Debtors are allowed 2 months‟ credit)

60,000

iii) Manufacturing expenses per annum 24,000

Wages per annum 36,000

(Lag in payment of manufacturing expenses and wages

is one month)

iv) Raw materials consumed per annum 24,000

(Creditors allow 3 months credit)

Add 10% to allow for contingencies.

3 6

14. a) What are the major determinants of capital structure?

(or)

b) A company has sales of Rs.1,00,000. The variable costs are 40%

of the sales while the fixed operating costs amount to Rs.30,000.

The amount of interest on long term debt is 10,000. Calculate the

operating leverage, Financial leverage and Composite leverage.

15. a) A company issues 10% irredeemable debentures of Rs.1,00,000.

The company is in 55% tax bracket. Calculate the cost of debt

(before as well as after) if the debentures are issued at 10% discount

and 10% premium.

(or)

b) The current market price of an equity share of a company is

Rs.120. The current dividend per share is Rs.6. In case the dividends

are expected to grow at the rate of 8%. Calculate the cost of equity

capital.

Part C


16. Discuss the various kinds of financial management decisions.

17. Shiva Ltd. is producing articles mostly by manual labour and is

considering replacing it by a new machine. There are two alternative

models X and Y of new machine. Prepare a statement of

profitability showing the pay–back period from the following

information:

Machine X Machine Y

Estimated Life of Machine 4 years 5 years

Cost of Machine 9,000 18,000

Estimated savings in scrap 500 800

Estimated savings in direct wages 6,000 8,000

Additional cost of maintenance 800 1,000

Additional cost of supervision

Ignore taxation

1,200 1,800

18. The management of Vishnu Ltd. has called for a statement showing the

working capital needed to finance a level of activity of 3,00,000 units of

output for the year. The cost structure for the company‟s product, for the

above mentioned activity level, is detailed below:

Cost per unit (Rs.)

Raw Materials 20

Direct Labour 5

Overheads 15

Total Cost 40

Profit 10

Selling Price 50

Pass trends indicate that the raw materials are held in stock, on an

average, for two months. Work–in–process (50%) will approximate to

half–a–month‟s production. Finished goods remain in warehouse, on an

average, for a month. Suppliers of materials extend a month‟s credit.

Two months credit is normally allowed to debtors. A minimum cash

balance of Rs.25,000 is expected to be maintained. The production

pattern is assumed to be even during the year.

Prepare the statement of working capital determination.

5 4

Question Code : B80114/ A80114 Sub Code: P16ELC42 / P14ELC42



INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE LITERATURE


Part A


1. “Comparative Literature is the study of literature beyond the confines of

one particular country”. Who said this?

a) H.G.Wells b) H.H. Remak

c) P.B. Shelley d) A.A.Milne

2. The term Comparative Literature was coined by _______.

a) John Keats b) Mathew Arnold

c) Sussan Bannet d) Shakespeare

3. Comparative Literature was established in France during the ______as

an academic discipline.

a) 16th

century b) 17th

century

c) 18th

century d) 19th

century

4. The _______ analogy studies are favoured by the American

Comparatists.

a) French b) German

c) Indian d) American

5. The term „thematics‟ was first introduced by_______.

a) Harry Levin b) H.H.Munro

c) G.B.Shaw d) Northrop Frye

6. There are _______ types of influence studies according to S.S.Prawar.

a) three b) four c) five d) six

7. _________ say that the psychological study of literature can be

undertaken on four levels.

a) Wellek and Warren b) Susan Bannet

c) Carl d) Remak

8. _________ and Society are mutually interdependent.

a) Society b) History

c) Literature d) Language

9. ________ is the basic tool of Comparative Literature.

a) Theme b) Style

c) Genre d) Translation

10. The term World Literature is associated with _______.

a) Rene Wellek b) Gothe

c) Ben Johnson d) Paul van Tiegham

Part B


11. a) Examine the various definitions of Comparative Literature.

(or)

b) Trace the origin and development of Comparative Literature in

India.

12. a) Brief the contributions of Americans in Comparative Literature.

(or)

b) Write a short note on French Comparatists.

13. a) Discuss the scope of thematology in Comparative Literature.

(or)

b) What according to S.S.Prawar is thematic investigation.

14. a) Bring out the mutual relationship between Literature and

Philosophy.

(or)

b) Describe the interdependence between Literature and Society.

15. a) Examine the achievements of post colonial Comparative Writers.

(or)

b) Evaluate Comparative Literature and its global context.

Part C


16. Write an essay on the scope of comparative Literature.

17. Write an essay on the Schools of Comparative Literature.

18. Discuss the important terminologies connected with thematology.

19. Write an essay on Literature and Psychology.

20. Discuss the place of Comparative Literature in the Post Colonial World.

Question Code: B30109 Sub Code: U16COC42


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018

BANKING THEORY LAW AND PRACTICE

Time : 3 Hrs B. Com Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. When a bank receives cash from a depositor it is called _____.

a) Primary cash b) Primary deposit

c) Secondary cash d) Secondary deposit

2. SFC Stands for ______.

a) State Finance Corporation b) State Finance Company

c) Small Finance Corporation d) Small Finance Company

3. Which one of the following is monetary policy of RBI ______.

a) Cash reserve ratio b) Non performing asset

c) Price changes d) Price stability

4. Negotiable instrument means ______.

a) Bills of Exchange b) Promissory Note

c) Cheque d) All of the above

5. One of the conditions to honour the cheque by the paying banker is

that amount in figures and words should _____.

a) Differ b) Tally

c) Be clear d) Not be clear

6. A bill payable after a specific _______ is known as time bill.

a) place b) date c) time d) date and time

7. _______ is one which is opened by more than one person at a time

and the account holders.

a) A joint account b) Personal a/c

c) Firm a/c d) None of these

8. Credit card originated in the United States doing _____.

a) 1930 b) 1918 c) 1920 d) 1954

9. ____is the system developed in the computer field for promoting

business transactions.

a) E–Commerce b) E–Business

c) E–Mail d) Online

10. PIN Stands for _____.

a) Person Indication Number

b) Personal Identification Number

c) Personal Identify Number

d) All of the above

Part B


11. a) Explain the commercial banking system in India.

(or)

b) Distinguish between Saving Account and Current Account.

12. a) Explain the types of Crossing of a Cheque.

(or)

b) What are the types of Endorsement?

13. a) States the conditions given under payment in due course of

paying banker.

(or)

b) Explain the condition under section 131 for collecting banker.

14. a) How a banker will grant loan against security of real estate?

(or)

b) Explain the types of Secured Loan.

15. a) Explain the benefits of E–Banking.

(or)

b) Write a note on the following i) Internet banking ii) Tele banking

iii) E–Banking.

Part C


16. Describe the functions of RBI.

17. Discuss the rule pertaining to Endorsement.

18. Explain the grounds for refusing of a customer Cheque.

19. Explain the lending and investment policies of Commercial Banks.

20. “Emerging trends in Banking” – Discuss.

******

Question Code: B11303 Sub Code: U16ELE41



INDIAN DIASPORIC FICTION

Time : 3 Hrs B. A. (English) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. When Kuti is born, Ira is

a) excited about the baby b) jealous of her mother

c) angry at her husband d) mean to the child

2. Ira becomes a prostitute because she

a) wants to buy new clothes b) wants a new husband

c) is bored and lonely d) wants to save her brother

3. Mangoes on the maple tree is about the life of the Moghes and the

_____.

a) Bhaves b) Sharmas

c) Sens d) Gangulys

4. Mangoes on the maple tree is set amidst the 1997 floods in _____.

a) Toronto b) Vancouver

c) Winnipeg d) Ottawa

5. What is Ghulam Mohammed‟s nickname for Major Billimoria?

a) Jack b) Billboy

c) Jamle d) J B

6. What habit does Mr. Madon have?

a) drinking beer b) cursing

c) taking snuff d) drinking coffee

7. What department hired Jasmine to answer phones?

a) Sciences b) Mathematics

c) Languages d) General studies

8. Who told Jasmine of Master Ji‟s murder?

a) Mataji b) Vilma

c) Prakash d) Pithaji

9. Why does Mr. Chawla go to see a town official?

a) to ask for a permit

b) to find a husband for Pinky

c) to have something done about the monkeys

d) to have the orchard transferred to Sampath

10. What does Amma sell to visitors at the Orchard?

a) hot buns b) bowls of rice

c) ice cream d) tea

Part B


11. a) Why does Rukku become so attached to Puli?

(or)

b) how does the arrival of the tannery affect Ruku and the rest of the

village?

12. a) Trace the life of the Moghes amidst the floods in Mangoes on the

Maple Tree.

(or)

b) How does identity crisis play a main role in Mangoes on the Maple

Tree?

13. a) How do you justify or explain Billimoria‟s money laundering?

(or)

b) What does the blackout paper signify both its staying up for decades

and its coming down in Such a Long Journey?

14. a) Discuss the postcolonial angle in Jasmine‟s India.

(or)

b) Analyse the theme of rebirth in Jasmine.

15. a) What happens when the monkey attacks Pinky and Amma?

(or)

b) What weather disaster occurs before Sampath is born and on the night

of his birth?

Part C


16. What role does nature play in Nectar in a Sieve?

17. Justify the title Mangoes on the Maple Tree.

18. Trace the turbulent life of Gustad Noble and his family in Such a Long

Journey.

19. Discuss Jasmine‟s personal journey as reflected by her series of

transformed identities.

20. Track the exploits of Sampath Chawla in trying to avoid the

responsibilities of adult life.

******

18. What is the present value, true discount, bankers discount gain on a

bill of Rs.1,04,500 due in 9 months at 6% per annum?

19. Investigate the maxima and minima of the function

Y = 3x4-10x

3 + 6x

2 + 5.

20. If A =

612

704

126

C and

317

461

234

B

987

654

321

Show that i) A + B = B + A

ii) A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C.

*******

Question Code: B30204 Sub Code: U16ECA41




Time : 3 Hrs B. Com & B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. ______ is a collection assemblage, a group ora class of define and

well distinguished objects.

a) Matrix b) A Set

c) Statistics d) Econometrics

2. A set which does not contain any element is called an _____.

a) Empty set b) Finite set

c) Infinite set d) Super set

3. The term q = f (p) refers to ______.

a) Demand function b) Cost function

c) Supply function d) Savings function

4. The log value of 169 :

a) 2 2278 b) 3 2278 c) 4 2278 d) 5 2278

5. _____is the interest calculated on the principal alone.

a) Compound interest b) Simple interest

c) Principal d) Interest

6. If Y = 5x, find dx

dy ______.

a) 10 b) 5 c) 15 d) 20

7. A function f (x) is said to have attained its “Maximum value” is

_______.

a) maxima b) calculus

c) minima d) integration

8. The term Row and Column associated with _____.

a) matrix b) A set

c) integration d) Calculas

9. Find

115

92

73

A If ,TA

a) 1197

523TA b)

523

1197TA

c) 527

1193TA d)

325

7911TA

10. The banker deducts the simple interest on the face value for the

unexpired time. This deduction known as ______.

a) Face value b) True discount

c) Bankers Discount d) Present value

Part B


11. a) What is rule method? Give examples.

(or)

b) Write a note on Union set.

12. a) List out the basic operation functions.

(or)

b) Differentiate between natural and common Logarithms.

13. a) Find the compound interest for Rs.9,000 at 7% per annum for 3

years.

(or)

b) List out the various important concepts of Bankers discount.

14. a) If Y = dx

dy find 73411 93 xxx .

(or)

b) Find the maxima or minima of the function Y = 542 XX .

15. a) If A =

312

026

431-

B and

403

210

321

find A +B.

(or)

b) If A =

114

3-6

52

B and

12

84

73

find A – B and B – A.

Part C


16. Discuss the various types of sets.

17. Evaluate0213

2412222.

Question Code: B23106/A23106 Sub Code: U16ZOC41/BZOCR41

/UZOCR41



BIOCHEMISTRY

Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc ( Zoology) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The colorimeter has a _____.

a) Tungsten lamp b) Mercury lamp

c) Sodium lamp d) Lithium lamp

2. Calomel electrode is also called as______.

a) Glass electrode b) Reference electrode

c) Chloride electrode d) Silver electrode

3. The process of biosynthesis of glycogen from glucose is known

as______.

a) Gluconeogenesis b) Glycolysis

c) Glycogenolysis d) Glycogenesis

4. The biodegradative phase of metabolism is referred as______.

a) Anabolism b) Catabolism

c) Intermediary metabolism d) Energy metabolism

5. Example of simple protein is____.

a) Globulins b) Phosphoproteins

c) Lipoproteins d) Nucleoproteins

6. The amino acids containing straight chain in the R-group is called

as ______.

a) Heterocyclic amino acids b) Carboxylic amino acids

c) Aliphatic amino acids d) Aromatic amino acids

7. Lipid is a _____.

a) Saturated acid b) Unsaturated acid

c) Fatty acid d) Amino acid

8. Phospholipid is a ______.

a) Derived lipid b) Compound lipid

c) Homolipid d) Simple lipid

9. An enzyme action hypothesis was proposed by ______.

a) Michaelis and Menton b) Emil Fisher

c) Koshland d) Emil and Kuhne

10. Lactic dehydrogenase is an ______.

a) Endoenzyme b) Exoenzyme

c) Antienzyme d) Isoenzyme

Part B


11. a) Describe the principle and applications of pH meter.

(or)

b) Explain the principle and applications of paper

chromatography.

12. a) Highlight the nature of carbohydrates.

(or)

b) What are the differences between glycogenolysis and

glycogenesis?

13. a) Classify the proteins based on their solubility and shape.

(or)

b) Write an account on transamination.

14. a) Analyze the structure of lipids.

(or)

b) Differentiate between simple and compound lipids.

15. a) Comment on physico-chemical nature of enzymes.

(or)

b) Classify the enzymes based on their substrates, synthesis and

chemical nature with examples.

Part C


16. Highlight the principle, working components and applications of

polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis.

17. Discuss in detail about the gluconeogenesis.

18. Classify the amino acids based on their side chain.

19. Summarize the biological importance of lipids with examples.

20. Write an elaborate account on types of reversible enzyme inhibition.

*******

Question Code: B23303 Sub Code: U16ZOE41


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018

ECONOMIC ENTOMOLOGY

Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks: 75

Part A

Answer all questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. The insects belonging to Odonota exhibit ______.

a) Ametamorphosis b) Hemi metamorphosis

c) Holo metamorphosis d) Hyper metamorphosis

2. Mosquitoes belonging to the order_____.

a) Coleoptera b) Lepidoptera

c) Thysanura d) Diptera

3. One of the following strains of mulberry is most popular for high

yielding ______.

a) Kanva 2 b) S54 c) S13 d) China white

4. Nephantis serinopa is an example for_____.

a) Predatory insect b) Scavenger insect

c) Parasitic insect d) Productive insect

5. In an IPM program, ________ control is considered first

a) Physical b) Chemical

c) Cultural d) Mechanical

6. Light trapping is a ______.

a) Mechanical control method b) Biological control method

c) Cultural control method d) Chemical control method

7. The toxicant dissolved in an organic solvent available for

immediate use is called as______.

a) Emulsion b) Wettable powder

c) Dust d) Aerosol

8. One of the desirable qualities of the biological agent is ______.

a) Polyphagous

b) Asynchronism of development with the host

c) Monophagous

d) Edible to the host

9. The larva of housefly is called

a) Imago b) Maggot c) Grub d) Naid

10. The bubonic plaque is transmitted by

a) Anophelus mosquito b) Culex mosquito

c) Human flea d) House fly

Part B


11. a) Specify the salient features of Hymenoptera and their economic

importance.

(or)

b) Analyze the various types of larvae with neat sketch.

12. a) Describe the biology of lac insect and the uses of lac.

(or)

b) Give an account of helpful insects.

13. a) Examine the biological methods of pest control.

(or)

b) Discuss the mechanical methods of pest control.

14. a) Enumerate the various insecticidal formulations?

(or)

b) Specify the steps to be taken while handling pesticides.

15. a) Mention the life cycle of house fly, disease transmitted and its

control.

(or)

b) Elucidate the life cycle of Pulex irritans.

Part C


16. Classify Insecta up to orders with suitable examples.

17. Summarize the biology and production of silk worm and its uses.

18. Discuss the various tactics in IPM.

19. How will you classify pesticides based on the mode of action?

20. Give an account of the life cycle of mosquito and its economic

importance.

******

Question Code: B23202/A23202 Sub Code: U16BOA41/BBOAS41



PLANT DIVERSITY PART - II

(Pteridophytes & Phanerogams) & Plant Physiology

Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc – Zoology Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. Sporaniga bearing leaf is called ______.

a) Sporophyll b) ramentum

c) indusium d) sorus

2. Ligulate leaves are found in _____.

a) Selaginella b) Nephrolepis

c) Isoetes d) Equisetum

3. In Pinus needle what is the function of the tissue subtending the

epidermis ______.

a) photosynthesis b) mechanical support

c) protection d) conduction

4. The male gametophyte in gymnosperms is represented by _____.

a) microsporaniga b) microspore

c) nucellus d) spore dyed

5. Who proposed the natural system of classification

a) Carolus Linnaeus b) John Hutchinson

c) Benthem and Hooker d) Engler and prantl

6. The unripe fruits of Tamarindus indica rich in ______.

a) citric acid b) acetic acid

c) tartaric acid d) formic acid

7. Staminal corona is found in ______.

a) Zingiberaceae b) Asclepiadaceae

c) Orchidaceae d) Nymphaceae

8. Poaceae is known as _____.

a) cereal family b) vegetable family

c) canna family d) pulses family

9. Dixon and Jolly are associated with ______.

a) light reaction and photosynthesis b) anaerobic respiration

c) cohesion theory d) apical dominance

10. Kranz anatomy is typical of

a) hydrophytes b) C3 plants

c) C4 plants d) CAM plants

Part B


11. a) Discuss the general characters of Pteridophytes .

(or)

b) Mention the external morphology of Selaginella.

12. a) Describe the vegetative features of Pinus.

(or)

b) Enlist the salient features of Gymnosperms.

13. a) Mention the natural system of classification.

(or)

b) Analyze the floral characters of Annonaceae.

14. a) Summarize the floral characters of Asclepiadaceae.

(or)

b) Give an account on cyathium inflorescence.

15. a) Give an account on ascent of sap.

(or)

b) Describe the dark reaction process in photosynthesis.

Part C


16. Illustrate the life cycle of Selaginella.

17. Discuss about the detailed structure of male and female cones in

Pinus.

18. Describe the distinguish characters and economic importance of

Rutaceae.

19. Highlight the floral characters and economic importance of Poaceae.

20. Write an essay on physiological effects of Gibberellins and Cytokinin.

*****

Part – B


4. What are communicable diseases? Classify communicable diseases on

the mode of transmission.

5. Discuss in detail the epidemiology of cholera.

6. Explain the causes, symptoms, prevention and treatment of plague.

7. Discuss the types of vaccines with suitable examples.

8. Give the vaccination schedule for pregnant mothers

******

Question Code: B23502/A23502 Sub Code: U16ZON41/BZONE41



NON –MAJOR ELECTIVE

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES AND MANAGEMENT


Part - A


1. a) Explain the causes, symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of Dengue.

(or)

b) Enumerate the causes, symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of

Rabies.

2. a) Discuss the causes, symptoms, prevention and cure of

tuberculosis.

(or)

b) Describe the causes, symptoms, preventive measures and treatment

of typhoid.

3. a) Give the national vaccination schedule for children.

(or)

b) Distinguish active and passive immunization.

Question Code: B30110 Sub Code: U16COC43



AUDITING


Part A


1. An audit conducted in between two annual audit is______. a) Annual audit b) Continuous audit

c) Balance sheet audit d) Partial audit

2. The audit carried by cost accountant is called _______. a) Cost audit b) Continuous audit

c ) Statutory audit d) Management audit

3. Audit Programme should be modified______. a) once a year

b) from time to time and made upto-date c) need not be modified

d) maintained as it is

4. Audit engagement letter is written by the _____. a) auditor b) Client

c) audit staff d) Client‟s staff

5. Proper division of work is key to the success of______. a) Internal control b) Internal check

c) Internal audit d) External audit

6. Internal auditor is an_____.

a) Independent person b) Agent

c) Employer d) Employee of the company

7. A letter of confirmation from a debtor is a ______

a) Collateral Voucher b) Primary voucher

c) Voucher d) document

8. Examining the assets and liabilities appearing in the balance sheet is

known as_____ a) Vouching b) Auditing

c) Verification d) Checking

9. An auditor of a company must be a_______

a) Chartered accountant b) Commerce Graduate

c) Person d) Cost & Works account

10. Auditor acts as a_____

a) Watch dog b) Blood-hound

c) Employee d) Trustee

Part B


11. a) What are the main objectives of Auditing?

(or)

b) What is Internal Audit? Explain the scope of internal audit

12. a) What do you mean by modification of Audit Programme?

(or)

b) Explain the different types of audit programme.

13. a) Explain the objectives of Internal Control.

(or)

b) Distinguish between Internal Check and Internal Audit.

14. a) “Vouching is the essence of Backbone of auditing”- Explain.

(or)

b) How will you Vouch Cash Purchase and Payment to Creditors?

15. a) Under what circumstances as auditor cannot be re-appointed?

(or)

b) What are the duties of auditor under Common Law?

Part C


16. Define Auditing. What are the factors responsible for its

development?

17. Explain the merits and demerits of an audit programme.

18. Discuss an Internal check system regarding wage payments.

19. What are the duties of an auditor in connection with credit sales?

Explain in detail.

20. Describe the qualifications and disqualifications of a company

auditor.

-1-

Question Code: B11501 Sub Code: U16ELN41



NON – MAJOR ELECTIVE

COMMUNICATION SKILLS - II (Reading and Writing)


Part -A

Answer ALL the Questions either (a) or (b) ( 3 x 10 =30 marks)

1. a) Describe a peacock by using the given adjectives.

(beautiful, long, colourful, wonderful, soft, majestic, short, attractive,

sensitive, lovely)

(or)

b) Describe our National poet Rabindranath Tagore in about 300 words.

2. Translate the following Tamil sentences into English.

i) kPdh kpfTk; mofhfg; ghLfpwhs;. ii) mtDf;F Mq;fpyk; ed;whfg; NgrTk; vOjTk; njhpAk;. iii) NuDfh vjph;fhyj;jpy; xU ey;y Mq;fpyg; Nguhrphpauhf

tpUk;Gfpwhs;. iv) ngz; tpLjiyg; Nghuhl;lj; jpahfpfspy; NtY ehr;rpahh; kpfTk;

Kf;fpakhdth;. v) N\f;];gpah; xU kpfr; rpwe;j ehlf Mrphpah;. vi) vq;fs; fy;Yhpapy; Rkhh; ehd;fhapuk; khztpfs; gbf;fpd;wdh;. vii) mth; NjdPiag; Nghy kpfTk; RWRWg;ghdth;. viii) jw;NghJ kio ePh; Nrfhpg;G kpfTk; ,d;wpaikahjjhfp tpl;lJ. ix) ehd; Njh;T miwf;Fr; nry;tjw;F Kd;Ng, Njh;T

Jtq;fptpl;lJ.

-2-

x) mtd; xU kpfr;rpwe;j gilg;ghsp Mdhy; Nrhk;Ngwp. (or)

b) Translate the following narration in Tamil into English.

ek; tho;tpd; mopo;jk; jz;zPh;. kiof;fhyk; ekf;Fj; jz;zPiuj; jUfpwJ. Rl;nlu;f;Fk; ntapypypUe;J ek;ikf; fhj;J Mw;wg;gLtJ kio . kio Nkfq;fspd; $l;lj;ijg; ghh;g;gJ kpfTk; mUikahdJ. gue;j thdj;jpy; thdtpy;iy urpg;gJ vt;tsT mw;GjkhdJ, tptrhapfs; jq;fs; tay;fspy; jk; Ntiyiaj; Jtf;Ftjw;F kiof;fhyj;jpw;fhff; fhj;jpUg;gh;. caph; jUk; kio kuq;fs;, nrbfs;,; fhLfs; kw;Wk; Njhl;lq;fQf;F Xh; tuk;. kiof;Fg; gpwF Gy; $l gr;ir Kfk; fhl;b rphpf;Fk;. kio ,aw;ifapd; jpUtpoh Vnddpy; kiof;Fg; gpwNf G+f;fs; G+f;fpd;wd. kioahy; jhd; rpw;NwhilfSk; MWfSk; Fsk; Fl;ilfSk; jz;zPuhy; epug;gg;gLfpd;wd. Mdhy; rpy Neuq;fspy; fdkio nts;sg;ngUf;if Vw;gLj;jp mjpf moptpw;F toptFf;fpwJ. 3. Write your response about the following news item.

Police on Friday arrested a 25 – year old catering and hotel

management student for attacking a police sub-inspector and constable

with a knife in an inebriated condition near Thoraipakkam.

The injured policemen were identified as Surya Narayanan (52), a

sub – inspector and Jayaprakash (40), a constable. Police forces said

that the duo were on patrol duty when a drunkard approached them and

asked money. He had claimed that he did not have money to go home.

They told him that they would hire an auto rickshaw for him to be

ferried home. However, the drunkard was impatient and started

abusing the policemen. Taking them by surprise, he took out a knife,

he was carrying and inflicted cut injuries on the duo. A police team

rushed to the scene on information and nabbed the attacker. He was

identified as Hari Krishnan (25), a final year catering student at an

-3-

-6-

Patiently they sit

like empty pitchers

On the mouth of the village well

Pleating hope in each braid

of their mississippi – long hair

looking deep into the water‟s mirror

for the moisture in their eyes.

with zodiac doodlings on the sands

they guard their tattooed thighs

waiting for their men‟s return

till even the shadows

roll up their contours

and are gone

beyond the hills.

*******

institute in Thoraipakkam and a resident of Triplicane. He was produced

before a court and remanded in judicial custody.

(or)

b) Write your opinions and valuable suggestions on the following news

item.

As the investigation into the murder of journalist and activist Gauri

Lankesh continues, the SIT has intensified the probe regarding the

possible involvement of light using activists in the case.

Sources said that the SIT officials are collecting more details about

three specific persons, who are said to be associated with Sanathan

Sanstha.

Sarang Akolkar alias Sarang Kulkarni, Jay Prakash alias Anna and

Praveen Linkar, whose names had figured earlier in the murders of

rationalists – Govind Pansare Narendra Dabholkar and researcher Dr.

M.M. Kalburgi, are said to be under the scanner of the SIT, which is

probing the murder for almost a month now.

Against all the three above mentioned culprits, the Interpol has issued

Red Notice after their involvement was suspected in the Goa plasts in

2009 and they have been absconding since then.

After the ballistic reports revealed that there are striking similarities in

the weapons used in the murders of Pansare, Dabholkar, Kalburgi and

Lankesh, the SIT is working more on the right using angle, as all other

leads are said to have dried.

Meanwhile, the SIT has reportedly asked the NIA and CBI to share

more details about these three suspects.

Part -B

Answer any three questions ( 3 x 15 = 45 marks)

4. Describe your house and share your emotional attachment with it.

-5-

-4-

5. Develop the hints and write a meaningful story.

The road – essential to social existence –necessary for travel and

trade – progress from place to place – organised society grew –controls

history – framework for all economic development – became

fundamental tool in growth of mankind.

6. Translate the following story into English and give a suitable title to it.

NgUe;J epiyaj;jpy; go tpahghuk; nra;Ak; Kjpath; xUth;, me;jg; NgUe;jpy; gof; $ilAld; Vwpdhh;. “Ie;J goq;fs; gj;J &gha;!” vd;W $tp goq;fis tpw;f Kad;whh;. vtUk; gok; thq;f Kd;tutpy;iy. Rkf;f Kbahky; Rke;jgb Kjpath; fPNo ,wq;fpaJk; ,isQd; XUtd; NgUe;jpy; Vwpdhd;. “MW goq;fs; gj;J &gha;!” vd;W $tpdhd;. mtDf;F ey;y tpw;gid, kw;nwhU NgUe;jpy; Vwpa Kjpath; mq;Fk;, “Ie;J goq;fs; gj;J &gha;!” vd;W tpw;f Kad;whh;. gyd; ,y;yhky; NghfNt, fPNo ,wq;fp tpl;lhh;. mLj;J, “MW goq;fs; gj;J &gha;!” vd;W $tpagb me;jg; NgUe;jpy; Vwpa ,isQd; , Vfj;jpw;F tpw;gid nra;jhd;. kpfg; nghpa fk;ngdpapd; tpw;gid MNyhrfuhd XUth; ,e;jf; fhl;rpiag; ghhj;Jf; nfhzbUe;jhh;. Kjpatiu mUfpy; mioj;jth; ,

“me;j ,isQdpd; rhkhh;j;jpak; cq;fsplk; ,y;iyNa! mtDf;Fg; Nghl;bahf ePq;fSk; MW gok; gj;J &gha; vd;W tpw;why; jhNd cq;fSf;F tpw;gid MFk;. mjpff; nfhs;Kjy; %yk; Fiwe;j tpiyf;Fg; goq;fis thq;fp yhgj;ijf; Fiwj;J mjpf tpw;gid nra;ag; goFq;fs; jhj;jh”. vd;W jdJ MNyhridfis ms;sp tpl;lhh;. Kjpath; rphpj;jgb, “Ngha;ah...mtd; vd; kfd;. ,e;jg; goKk; mtdJjhd;. MW gok; gj;J &gha;d;D tpw;why;, rl;Ld;D thq;Ftjw;F ek;k rdj;Jf;F kdR tuhJ. mjdhy; jhd; ehd;‟ Ie;J gok; gj;J &gha;d;D $tptpl;L NghNtd;. mg;Gwkh, MW gok; gj;J

&gha;d;D mtd; te;J nrhd;dJk; mlNl! yhgkh ,Uf;Nf vd;W rdq;f rl;Ld;D thq;fpLthq;f. mtd;jhd;ah eprkhd tpahghhp. rdq;fNshl kdir khj;jwJf;Fj;jhd; vd;id Kd;dhb mDg;Gwhd; vd;whh; Kjpath;. vg;gTk; tpahghhp tpahghhp jhd;!. 7. Read the following news item and given your valuable response to it.

Four persons, including a mother and daughter, were arrested by the

city police on Sunday for allegedly faking a robbery in their house in

Madhavaram milk colony a day ago.

The women residents of Third street in Mathur MMDA colony, were

running a chit fund in their neighbourhood and several women in the area

had invested in it. However, the family had spent the invested amount

and so enacted a drama that they had been robbed in order to convince

the neighbours they had lost all the invested money.

The arrested persons were identified as P. Amutha (45), her mother,

Nagammal (65) their relative Udaya Rajan (31) and his friend Gandhi

Rajan. Police sources said that Amutha and Nagammal collected money

from over 150 residents in the area for a Deepavali chit. With less than

ten days left for the festival, they ought to return the amount to the

investors. As they ran out of cash, they devised a plan with the help of

their relative, Udhaya Rajan.

8. Read the given poem and give your critical response to it.

INDIAN WOMEN

- Shri. K. Kumar

In this triple – baked continent

Women don‟t etch angry eyebrows

On mud walls.

Question Code: B11106 Sub Code: U16ELC41



BRITISH LITERATURE -V


Part A


1. “The Time Machine” is a noted work by _____.

a) H. G. Wells b) Hawthorne

c) G. B. Shaw d) W. Golding

2. Samuel Beckett is a / an ____writer.

a) Italian b) Indian

c) Irish d) Canadian

3. „Tradition and the Individual Talent‟ was first published in the

literary magazine_____.

a) The Rambler b) Herald Times

c) The Toddler d) The Egoist

4. According to T. S. Eliot, Shakespeare acquired more essential

history from _____.

a) Homer b) Alexander

c) Plutarch d) Thoreau

5. The poem ‟Hawk Roosting‟ is written by _____.

a) D. H. Lawrence b) G. B. Shaw

c) Wilfred Owen d) Ted Hughes

6. The shield was made for Achilles for the _____war.

a) Herculean b) Crimean

c) Trojan d) Atlantic

7. Professor Higgins had a laboratory at _____street.

a) Walpole b) Wimpole

c) Wampole d) Walpone

8. Higgins has a rival named ______.

a) Neppommuck b) Neomuckle

c) Neanderthal d) Nestimuck

9. The smallest of the boys are called as _____.

a) littluns b) barabarians

c) Lilliputians d) tots

10. Piggy was killed by _____.

a) Roger b) Simon

c) Jack d) Ralph

Part B


11. a) Write a short critical note on G. B. Shaw.

(or)

b) Highlight the salient features of W.B. Yeats‟ poetry.

12. a) How does Eliot define the role of tradition?

(or)

b) How does Eliot reflect his views on poet‟s personality?

13. a) Attempt a short summary of the poem „Strange Meeting‟.

(or)

b) Write a short critical note on „The Shield of Achilles‟.

14. a) Attempt a character sketch of Colonel Pickering.

(or)

b) Analyse the character of Alfred Doolittle.

15. a) Sketch the character of Simon in „Pygmalion‟.

(or)

b) Explain the relevance of the image of the imaginary beast in

the novel „Lord of the Files‟.

Part C


16. Highlight the salient features of Modern English Drama.

17. Critically analyse T.S. Eliot‟s Essay „Tradition and Individual

Talent‟.

18. Attempt a critical summary of the poem „Snake‟.

19. How does Shaw portray the class structure in Pygmalion?

20. „The novel Lord of the Files is a novel of conflicts – Explicate.

*******

Question Code: B61111 Sub Code: P16PHC42



NUCLEAR AND PARTICLE PHYSICS

Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc. (Physics) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. For an elastic nuclear collision, _______.

a) Q > 0 b) Q < 0

c) Q = 0 d) Q 0

2. 1 Born = ______m2.

a) 10-28

b) 10-24

c) 10-25

d) 10

-26

3. Nuclear force is ________ independent nature.

a) Charge b) Spin

c) Both charge and spin d) None of these

4. The radius R of a nucleus is given by _______.

a) 3/1

0 ArR b) 3/1

0 ArR

c) 3

0 ArR d) 2/1

0 ArR

5. ______ is known as fission or critical parameter

a) A

z b)

2A

z c)

A

z 2

d) 2

2

A

z

6. The fission fragments in thermal neutrons fission of U235 must be -

active, since they contain excess______.

a) Proton b) Neutrons

c) Electrons d) None

7. The angular momentum and parity of 017

8 nucleus, according to

nuclear shell model (including spin orbit coupling) is_____.

a) 0 b) 1/2 c) 3/2 d) 5/2

8. Which one of the following nuclei is „doubly magic‟ ?

a) Sr88

38 b) Sn120

50 c) Pb208

82 d) S33

16

9. Baryon‟s are also known as __________.

a) Fermions b) Bosons

c) mesons d) positrons

10. Which one of the following decays is forbidden?

a) eVVe b) V

c) eVe d) eee

Part B


11. a) What are the different types of nuclear reaction? Explain it.

(or)

b) Calculate the threshold energy for the nuclear reaction

BanN1114 , in MeV.

12. a) Write a short explanatory note on nuclear isomerism.

(or)

b) Explain the detection of neutrino. Discuss why the mass of

proton is less than that of a neutron in positron emission.

13. a) Describe nucleon emission. Obtain an expression for nucleon

separation energy.

(or)

b) What are prompt and delayed neutrons? Explain the important role

of delayed neutrons in nuclear reactors.

14. a) Give a brief account of the single particle Shell model which

predicts the magic numbers.

(or)

b) Explain the negative spin-orbit coupling of an electron bond in an

atom.

15. a) What is meant by CP and CPT ? Mention its significance.

(or)

b) Write a short note on Hyperons.

Part C


16. What is centre of mass frame? Explain Proton-Proton and neutron-

nucleus collision.

17. Describe in detail about the Fermi‟s theory of beta decay.

18. Explain mass parabolas and their importance.

19. How can you predict the shell model and explain it in detail.

20. Describe the conservation laws and explain it in detail.

******

Question Code: B61112 Sub Code: P16PHC43



NANO SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc. (Physics) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The best distance one can resolve with optical instruments

disregarding all aberration is of the order of ------------------ with

visible radiation.

a) 250 nm b) 25 nm

c) 100 nm d) 50 nm

2. In STM, the phenomenon of --------------- is used to obtain the

topography of the surface.

a) diffraction b) electron tunneling

c) diffusion d) electron scattering

3. Electro deposition can also be called as --------------.

a) anodic dissolution b) hydrolysis

c) electro plating d) anodic etching

4. Sol-gel is a -------------- method of preparation of nano materials.

a) chemical b) mechanical

c) biological d) hybrid

5. Photonic crystals also called as______ crystals.

a) Conventional b) Holey

c) Stripped d) Dotted

6. In index-guided photonic crystal fiber structure, the dark areas

are air holes. What does white areas suggests? a) Air b) Plasma

c) Water d) Silica

7. Main stumbling blocks to realize a quantum computer is _____.

a) decoherence b) superposition

c) coherence d) confinement

8. ______ is the ultimate limit of fabrication and controls the

arrangement of individual atoms.

a) Ion – beam lithography b) electon beam lithography

c) molecular beam epitaxy d) Atomic lithography

9. Fe, Co, Ni and Gd are ferromagnetic in bulk but they show

______ magnetic in nanophase.

a) ferri b) para

c) super para d) dia

10. The electrical conductivity of a nanotube is ____ times that of

copper.

a) 1000 b) 100 c) 1/100 d) 10

Part B


11. a) What are Abbe and Rayleigh criterion? Explain.

(or)

b) Explain any two parts of SEM with necessary diagram.

12. a) Discuss the sol-gel method of preparation of nanomaterials.

(or)

b) Discuss the applications of nanomaterials in medical implants and

other medical uses.

13. a) What are photonic crystals? Explain its applications.

(or)

b) Describe transmission and polarization of light.

14. a) Explain the molecular beam epitaxy method of nano fabrication.

(or)

b) What are single electron transistors? Explain.

15. a) Write a note on Robots.

(or)

b) Discuss the environmental applications of nanotechnology.

Part C


16. Discuss the function of Atomic Force Microscopy with necessary

illustrations.

17. What is CVD technique? Explain the preparation of nanomaterials

using this technique.

18. Write a detailed note on new low cost energy efficient windows and

solar absorbers based on nano particles.

19. Explain in detail about quantum computers.

20. What are microelectromechanical systems? Explain in detail.

********

Robert : Really Peter! You teach English and you don‟t know who

Dryden is?

Peter : Well I do teach English and I don‟t know anything, about Dryden.

Who is he?

Robert : He was a very great satirist who lived during the seventeenth

century. In fact I hold the view that he is the greatest among

English satirists.

Peter : Ah, no wonder I don‟t know anything about him. You see, I hate

satire. It „s very cheap literature.

Robert: Cheap or expensive, you, as an M.A. degree holder in English,

ought to know something about satire as a literary from and about

great satirists. Wait a minute. Here comes Jane with the coffee.

Do drink it Peter. Let‟s discuss literature later.

20. Mention the etiquettes a public speaker should adopt.

*******

Question Code: B11204 Sub Code: U16ELA41



PHONETICS AND SPOKEN ENGLISH


Part A


1. It is necessary to learn English in the modern world because it is

the language of _____.

a) Americans b) British

c) Science and technology d) Students

2. It is difficult to avoid the _____while speaking English.

a) influence of mother tongue b) influence of speakers

c) influence of movies d) influence of teachers

3. There are _____front vowels.

a) 5 b) 12 c) 4 d) 8

4. ______ is a voiceless bilabial plosive.

a) / m / b) / b / c) / p / d) / e /

5. The consonant that begins a syllable is called the _____consonant.

a) arresting b) releasing

c) neucleus d) abutting

6. Words ending in –ion take the primary accent on the ____syllable.

a) root b) ultimate

c) syllable preceding the suffix d) penultimate

7. The way in which sounds influence each other is called _____.

a) intonation b) elision

c) assimilation d) accent

8. _____is elided in kept quiet.

a) / d / b) / n / c) / t / d) / j /

9. We appreciate people when we are _____.

a) grateful for their help b) irritated

c) defeated by them d) scolded by them

10. _____is judged not only on the basis of content, but on the

personality.

a) An interviewer b) An interviewee

c) A public speaker d) An employer

Part B


11. a) Spoken English has become a necessity in the present day

world. Do you agree? Justify your answer.

(or)

b) Why spoken English is neglected? Give reasons.

12. a) Explain back vowels with a vowel diagram.

(or)

b) Write a note on consonant clusters.

13. a) What are syallabic consonants in English? Explain with

examples.

(or)

b) Write a note on accent in compound words.

14. a) Write a note on elision of vowels and consonants.

(or)

b) Explain how rising tone is used in English.

15. a) Write a dialogue between you and your friend about doing

exercise.

(or)

b) If you are allowed to interview the prime minister of India what

question will you ask?

Part C


16. English has become the lingua France of India. Substantiate your

views.

17. Write an essay on vowel glides.

18. Write an essay on accent in connected speech.

19. Transcribe the following dialogue:

Peter : Hello Robert. You seem to be very busy this afternoon,

preparing an important lecture?

Robert : Hello peter. Do come and sit down. Jane my dear, uncle

Peter is here. Be a good girl and let‟s have two cups of

good coffee. Remember, no sugar in mine. (To Peter)

What were you saying? Oh yes, you said I was busy. In

fact I am busy. Very busy indeed. I‟m preparing a book

on Dryden and his Poetry.

Robert : Dryden? Who is he?

Question Code: A81114 Sub Code: P14HYC42



HISTORY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY (Since 1453 AD.)


Part A


1. Renaissance movement first began in ______.

a) Italy b) Germany c) France d) England

2. Kepler belonged to ____.

a) Italy b) Grace c) Portugal d) Germany

3. Nicholas Copernicus was a _____scientist.

a) Medicine b) Astronomy

c) Geography d) Biology

4. Principles of continuity was ______.

a) Copernicus b) Tychobrabe

c) Galilio d) Kepler

5. Inventor of Spinning Jenny _____.

a) James Hargeves b) Richard Arkwright

c) Joseph Lagrange d) Euler

6. Stream Engine was invented by ______.

a) Joseph Lagrange b) James work

c) Cavendish d) Priestly

7. Author of the book of origin of species______.

a) Michael Paraday b) Maxwell

c) Selvin d) Darwin

8. Invention of Michael Paraday ______.

a) Stream Engine b) Stream Boat

c) Electric dynamo d) Vaccination

9. ISRO ______.

a) 1956 b) 1962 c) 1969 d) 1977

10. _____was responsible for Green Revolution.

a) M.S. Saminathan b) APJ Abdul kalam

c) Jagedesh Chandra Bose d) Chandra Roy

Part B


11. a) Give a short note on Toricelli.

(OR)

b) Give a short note on Francis Bacon.

12. a) Achievements of million Harvey.

(OR)

b) Account of Royal society of London.

13. a) Progress of textile industry in 18th

century.

(OR)

b) Contribution of Euler in Maths.

14. a) Services of James Young Simpson to medicine.

(OR)

b) Achievements of Alexander Graham Bell.

15. a) Theory of Relativity.

(OR)

b) Role of USA in space Research.

Part C


16. Trace the growth of technology during the period of Renaissance.

17. Role of Sir Isac Newton to modern science.

18. Scientific achievements of Joseph Priestley.

19. Contribution of Thomas Alwa Edison to science.

20. Describe the role of USSR in space research.

******

Question Code: A81115 Sub Code: P14HYC43



HISTORY OF MODERN CHINA (1901 to 2000 AD)

Time : 3 Hrs M. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Name the last Manchu ruler.

a) kuang Hsu b) Tungchi

c) Tsuan Tung d) Pu -yi

2. Which was the immediate cause for the Revolution of 1911?

a) Russo – Japanese war b) Entry of Sun – Yat - Sen

c) Nationalisation of Railways d) Tajsing Rebellion

3. When did china enter the First World War?

a) 1914 b) 1915 c) 1916 d) 1917

4. Who were the War Lords?

a) Political Leaders b) Social Leaders

c) Economic Leaders d) Military Leader

5. Chiang Kai Shek was a _____.

a) Revolutionist b) Extremist

c) Nationalist d) Communist

6. Which is the bone of contention between China and Japan?

a) Korea b) Manchuria

c) Shantung d) Fukien

7. Who was the leader of the Red Army?

a) Chiang kai - shek b) Chu Teh

c) Chou – En - lai d) Mao - Tse -Tung.

8. Five years plan was introduced in ______.

a) 1952 b) 1951 c) 1949 d) 1950

9. Name the architect of the communist party in China.

a) Chiang. Kai- shek b) Mao - Tse -Tung

c) Chu – Teh d) Chou – En – Lai

10. Which played an important role in the Cultural Revolution?

a) Liberation Army daily b) People‟s Liberation Army

c) Red quards d) Cultural Revolutionary Committee

Part B


11. a) Causes for the downfall of the Manchu dynasty.

(OR)

b) Open Door policy.

12. a) Yuan shi kai.

(OR)

b) 21 Demands.

13. a) Nationalist China.

(OR)

b) Reforms of Chiang –kai – shek.

14. a) Result of the Civil war

(OR)

b) Law reforms.

15. a) Cultural Revolution.

(OR)

b) Deng – xiao ping.

Part C


16. Elucidate the role of Sun – yat. sen in the History of China.

17. Analyse the participation of China in the First World War.

18. Narrate the causes for the II Sino – Japanese war.

19. Trace the activities of CCP till 1939.

20. Evaluate the foreign policy of China.

*******

Part C


16. Show that for a given initial velocity of projection, there are, in

general two possible directions of projection so as to obtain a given

horizontal range.

17. A particle falls from a height h upon a fixed horizontal plane : if e

be the coefficient of restitution , show that the whole distance

described before the particle has finished rebounding is 2

2

1

1

e

eh .

Show also that the whole time taken is g

h

e

e 2

1

1.

18. Find the loss of kinetic energy due to direct impact of two smooth

spheres.

19. Derive the fundamental differential equation representing a SHM

and solve it.

20. The velocities of a particle along and perpendicular to a radius

vector from a fixed origin are 22 and r where and are

constants. Show that the equation to the path of the particle is

22rC where C is a constant. Show also that the

accelerations along and perpendicular to the radius vector are

rr

rr

32

4232 2

and 2 .

*****

Question Code: A20302/A26302 Sub Code: BMAME41/ BMCME41



DYNAMICS

Time : 3 Hrs BSc (Maths & Maths- CA) Max. Marks: 75 Part A

Answer all questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks

1. Time taken by the projectile to reach the greatest height is

a) g

sin u b)

g

sin 2u c)

g

2sin u d)

2g

sin u

2. The horizontal range of a projectile is maximum when the angle of

projection is

a) 90 b) 60 c) 45 d) 30

3. The time of flight on the inclined plane of angle inclineation angle

is

a) g

)(sin 2u b)

cos g

)(sin 2u c)

g

sin u d) none of these

4. For a perfectly elastic body, the coefficient of restitution is

a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) -1

5. The lass of kinetic energy due to direct impact of two perfectly elastic

smooth spheres is

a) 21

2

2121

2 mm

uumm b) 0 c)

21

21

mm

uu d) 1

6. If two equal perfectly elastic spheres impinge obliquely

a) they interchange their velocities in the direction of the line of

centres b) their velocities are equal

c) they come to rest d) their velocities are unchanged

7. A solution of 0 2

2

xdt

xd is

a) tcosax b) t cos ax

c) t cos ay d) tax cos

8. The period of simple harmonic motion is independent of the

a) frequency b) amplitude c) displacement d) velocity

9. The transverse component of acceleration is

a) 2 rr b) 2y c) 2 rr d) 2r

10. The p – r equation of ellipse is

a) ar p2 b) ar p c) 12

2

2

r

a

p

b d) 1

22

2

r

a

p

b

Part B


11. a) Find the greatest height attained by a projectile and the time of flight. (OR)

b) Show that the greatest height which a particle with initial

velocity v can reach on a vertical wall at a distance „a‟ from the

point of projection is 2

22

22 v

ga

g

v.

12. a) A particle is projected at an angle with a velocity u and it

strikes up an inclined plane of inclination at right angles to the

plane. Prove that i) - tan 2 cot

ii) tan 2- tan cot .

(OR)

b) State the three fundamental laws of impact.

13. a) A ball of mass 8 gm. moving with a velocity of 10 cm. per sec.

impinges directly on another of mass 24 gm., moving at 2 cm per sec.

in the same direction. If 2

1 e , find the velocities after impact. Also

calculate the loss in kinetic energy.

(OR)

b) A sphere of mass 1m moving on a horizontal plane with velocity v

impinges obliquely on a sphere of mass 2m at rest on the same plane.

If e = 1 and 1m = 2m , prove that the directions of motion after

impact are at right angles.

14. a) A particle is moving with S.H.M and while making an oscillation

from one extreme position to the other, its distance from the centre of

oscillation at 3 consecutive seconds are 321 , , xxx . Prove that the

period of oscillation is

2 cos

2

311 xx

(OR)

b) Find the resultant of two simple harmonic motions of the same

period and in the same straight line.

15. a) Show that the path of a point P which possesses two constant

velocities u and v, the first of which is in a fixed direction and the

second of which is perpendicular to the radius OP drawn from a fixed

point O, is a conic whose focus is O and whose eccentricity is v

u .

20. Discuss the procedure for recovery, rehabilitation and

reconstruction after disaster.

*******

Question Code: A40109 Sub Code: BBNCR42



FUNDAMENTALS OF DISASTER MANAGEMENT

Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. The term Tsunami is coined from.

a) Chinese term b) Indian term

c) German term d) Japanase term

2. The important sector/s that feed the mankind is / are

a) agriculture sector b) forest and wildlife

c) livestock and fisheries d) all of these

3. The agency that has laid down the standards for the control of

pollution of air, water and noise is

a) Central pollution control tribunal

b) Central pollution control agency

c) Ministry of Home affairs

d) Central pollution control board

4. Which of the following was termed the “International Decade for

Natural Disaster Reduction?

a) 1980 -1989 b) 1985 – 1994 c) 1990 -1999 d) 2005 -2015

5. In 2000, Congress passed which of the following to encourage

mitigation planning at the state and local levels?

a) The National Flood Insurance Program

b) The Homeland Security Act of 2002

c) The Disaster Mitigation Act of 2000 (DMA2000)

d) The Hazard Mitigation Grant Program (HMGP)

6. Which of the following is not an eligible applicant under the

HMGP?

a) State and local governments

b) Indian tribes or other tribal organizations

c) Non – profit organizations

d) Citizens impacted by a declared disaster

7. Which of the following is not a typical mitigation plan component?

a) FEMA approval letter b) Emergency support function

c) Risk assessment d) Risk analysis

8. Disaster management committee is not concerned with

a) warning dissemination b) rescue

c) first aid d) making contact with other institutions

9. Which of the following is a disaster mitigation strategy?

a) constructing cyclone shelters

b) giving loans from banks

c) providing cheap electricity

d) providing school uniforms to children

10. Who is the chairman of the national disaster management authority

set up under disaster management act, 2005 in India?

a) Home minister b) Prime minister

c) Finance minister d) Rural development minister

Part B


11. a) What are the common elements of disaster?

(OR)

b) Define chemical attack. What should you do in a chemical

attack?

12. a) State the fundamentals of remote sensing.

(OR)

b) Explain the uses of GIS for disaster management.

13. a) What do you mean by cost benefit analysis? Explain its importance.

(OR)

b) What are the functions of National crisis management committee?

14. a) What are the components of environmental impact analysis?

(OR)

b) Explain the various consequences of disaster.

15. a) Explain the functions of crisis management team.

(OR)

b) What are the importances of disaster recovery plans?

Part C


16. Explain the different types of Authorpogenic disasters.

17. What are the precautions to be taken in the case of landslides?

18. Describe the different steps involved in the management of disaster.

19. Enumerate the functions and responsibilities of district disaster

management committee.




ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR


Part A


1. Scope of Organizational Behaviour does not include ______.

a) Leadership b) Perception

c) Job Design d) Technology

2. Scientists of Organizational Behaviour recognize that organizations

are not static but dynamic and ______.

a) Processing b) Systematic

c) Ever changing d) Researching

3. Meso Organization behaviour is related with ______.

a) Individual behaviour b) Group behaviour

c) Organizational behaviour d) Individual

4. Groups created by managerial decision in order to accomplish stated

goals of the organization are called ______ groups.

a) Formal b) Informal c) Task d) Interest

5. A motive is defined as ______.

a) A price of product

b) An inner state that energizes, activates and directs the behaviour of

individuals towards certain goals

c) An inner state that provides difficult task to the player

d) A cost

6. In Vroom‟s Expectancy Theory, Valence means________.

a) Strength of an individual‟s preference for a particular outcome

b) Salary c) Supervision d) Knowledge of Planning

7. Which is the method of Conflict Management?

a) Conflict Resolution Method b) Conflict Reduction Method

c) Conflict Stimulation Method d) None

8. _______ is the General term applied to the pressures that people

feel in life.

a) Stress b) Motivation c) Culture d) Development

9. Decentralization of power, team structure and flattening of the

hierarchy are examples of which type of organizational change?

a) People change b) Strategic change

c) Structural change d) Technological change

10. Which of the following is considered to be a source of resistance to

organizational change at the individual-level?

a) Firm Inertia b) Selective Perception

c) Threats to power structures d) Job Re-Structuring

Part B


11. a) Discuss the nature of Organization behaviour.

(OR)

b) Explain any two models of Organization behaviour.

12. a) What are the five stages of Group Development?

(OR)

b) Define Group Cohesiveness. Identify the factors which influence

group cohesiveness.

13. a) Discuss the importance of Motivation.

(OR)

b) Give the differences between Theory X and Theory Y.

14. a) What are the consequences of Stress?

(OR)

b) Suggest coping strategies for stress.

15. a) Explain the types of Change.

(OR)

b) How to overcome resistance to change?

Part C


16. Name and explain the various approaches to Organization behaviour.

17. Elucidate the Process of Decision-Making.

18. Elaborate Herzberg‟s two factor theory.

19. Define conflict. What are the various stages of conflicts?

20. Name and explain the steps in OD process

********

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*********




INDUSTRIAL LAWS

Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. Factories Act was enacted in the year

a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1949 d) 1950

2. ______is due to shortage of coal or power.

a) Strike b) Closure

c) Lock – out d) Lay -off

3. ______refers to an association of workers in a particular industry.

a) Chamber b) Club c) Trade Union d) Factory

4. _____means body of rules of an industrial establishment which

governs terms and conditions of employment.

a) Standing orders b) Court orders

c) Government orders d) Company orders

5. The total amount of deductions which may be made in any wage

period from the wages in case of persons employed in cooperative

societies shall not exceed.

a) 25% b) 45% c) 50% d) 75%

6. _____is the payment to help employees after retirement.

a) Bonus b) Pension c) Gratuity d) compensation

7. The Workmen‟s Compensation Act was passed in the year

a) 1923 b) 1933 c) 1943 d) 1953

8. The employer and the employee contribute their share to _____.

a) Pension Fund b) Provident Fund

c) Bonus Fund d) Insurance Fund

9. As per section 8 of the payment of Bonus Act, an employee for

being entitled to bonus, he should have at least worker for

_____days in a particular accounting year.

a) Twenty b) Thirty c) Fifty d) Sixty

10. A _____means any person who buys any goods for consideration.

a) Trader b) Businessman

c) Consumer d) Seller

Part B


11. a) Explain the provisions of Factories Act relating to welfare of the

workers.

(OR)

b) Define the following terms

i) Industrial disputes ii) Retrenchment iii) Strike

12. a) List out the powers and duties of certifying officers under the

Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act.

(OR)

b) Explain the rights and privileges of registered trade unions.

13. a) State the provisions relating to payment of gratuity.

(OR)

b) Mention the particulars to be maintained in the Registers and

Records by the employer.

14. a) Write a note on the Employee‟s Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme.

(OR)

b) Bring out the differences between temporary partial disablement

and permanent partial disablement.

15. a) Explain the provisions relating to payment of bonus.

(OR)

b) What are the rights of consumers? Explain them.

Part C


16. Describe the provisions of Factories Act with regard to safety of

workers.

17. Discuss the provisions relating to registration of a trade union.

18. Explain the rules relating to nomination by the employee to receive

gratuity.

19. Write about the authorities established for the administration of

Employee‟s Provident Fund Scheme.

20. Describe the provisions relating to the determination of Bonus under

the payment of Bonus Act.

******

Question Code : A70113 Sub Code: P14CAC42 / MCACR42



COMPUTER GRAPHICS AND MULTIMEDIA

Time : 3 Hrs M.C.A Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The maximum number of points that can be displayed without overlap

on a CRT is referred to as _______

a) Resolution b) Persistance

c) aspect ratio d) Pixmap

2. The display co-ordinate systems are referred to as _____

a) local co-ordinates b) device co-ordinates

c) word co-ordinates d) modelling co-ordinates

3. The process of filling an area with a rectangular pattern is called ____

a) Hatch fill b) soft fill

c) tint fill d) tiling

4. Which one of the following transformation distorts the shape of an

object?

a) Translation b) Rotation

c) Shear d) Reflection

5. The region against which an object is to be clipped is called _____

a) window b) clip window

c) view port d) area clipping

6. A composite three dimensional transformation can be formed

by_____ the matrix representations for the individual operation in

the transformation sequence.

a) adding b) subtracting

c) multiplying d) dividing

7. Which release of product is typically for internal circulation only?

a) alpha b) beta

c) Gamma d) Mega

8. Which of the following is not a stage in multimedia project?

a) Planning b) Testing

c) Designing d) Printing

9. MIDA stands for _____

a) Musical Instrument Digital Interface

b) Multimedia Instrument Digital Interface

c) Multimedia Instrument Display Interface

d) Multimedia Interface for Digital Instrument

10. The popular effect that transforms one image into another is

called____.

a) Tweening b) Morphing

c) Tweaking d) inverse kinematics

Part B


11. a) Explain the architecture of Raster Scan Systems with a neat

diagram.

(OR)

b) Write and explain Bresenham‟s line drawing algorithm.

12. a) Discuss about area – fill attributes.

(OR)

b) Explain the basic transformations in 2D with neat diagrams.

13. a) Explain the two dimensional window – to – viewport co-ordinate

transformation with the neat diagram.

(OR)

b) Write notes on text clipping.

14. a) Explain the building blocks of multimedia project.

(OR)

b) Explain the role of multimedia production manger in detail.

15. a) Explain multimedia project revision and documentation.

(OR)

b) Discuss the important considerations in preparing the multimedia

project for delivery in the market place.

Part C


16. Discuss about the different categories of flat panel displays.

17. Explain any five anti-alaising methods.

18. Explain Liang – Barsky line clipping algorithm in detail.

19. Explain the importance of multimedia production team in producing

quality multimedia.

20. Write about the testing, revision and documentation in multimedia

application production.

*******

Question Code: Sub Code: P14CAE41/ MCAME41



WEB TECHNOLOGY

Time : 3 Hrs M. C. A. Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. ---------- is the port number for SMTP.

a) 25 b) 26 c) 27 d) 28

2. The purpose of MTA is ---------.

a) Message preparation b) storing message

c) Transferal of message across the internet d) All the above

3. ---------- is the Microsoft implementation of JavaScript for IE.

a) CGI Script b) VBScript c) Jscript d) XML

4. A cookie can maintain -----------.

a) the number of times a user has visited a particular page

b) personalized sit

c) customized color scheme for a website

d) All the above

5. The Embedded style sheets can be applied ---------------.

a) Only within one web document b) for many documents

c) for child documents d) Script documents

6. Empty elements are elements ------------,

a) with no attributes b) with no content

c) with no closing tag d) None of the above

7. For commenting ------- is used in Perl.

a) // b) “ c) /*…*/ d) #

8. The ---------- method is heart of the servlet.

a) Init() b) service() c) start() d) destroy()

9. ----------- are implicit objects of JSP.

a) Page b) Out

c) Config d) IN

10. ---------- object is used to store the information about user session.

a) response b) request

c) Application d) session

Part B


11. a) Write a note on STMP.

(OR)

b) Comment on the table tag with an example.

12. a) Discuss about the document object in JavaScript.

(OR)

b) Elucidate the two types of procedures in VBScript.

13. a) Elucidate the DHTML document object model and collections.

(OR)

b) Explain the syntax of the XML document with example.

14. a) Explain about CGI Security issues.

(OR)

b) Write a short note on Servlet API.

15. a) Explain ASP cookies with an example.

(OR)

b) Discuss about response object with an example

Part C



i) Text formatting

ii) Linking tag

ii) Embedding image tag.

17. With example describe various looping statements in JavaScript.

18. Discuss XML Schema in detail.

19. Illustrate servlet life cycle in detail.

20. Summarize the components of JSP.

******

Question Code: A62112 Sub Code: P14CHC43/ MCHCR43



PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY –IV

(Chemical kinetics, surface and photochemistry)

Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The frequency factor is given the symbol.

a) A b) S c) T d) E

2. The rate constant will be independent of ionic strength when

a) 2BAZZ b) 1BAZZ c) 0BAZZ d) 5.0BAZZ

3. Relaxation methods are used to investigate fast reactions in

a) Gases b) solids

c) Solutions d) Vapour

4. Flow techniques can be applied if the time course of the reaction is in the

range of

a) sec10 1 3to b) sec10 1 5to c) sec10 1 7to d) sec10 1 9to

5. Adsorption and absorption take place simultaneously in the process.

a) Adsorption b) Physisorption

c) Sorption d) Chemisorption

6. BET adsorption isotherm is applicable for

a) Single layer adsorption b) Double layer adsorption

c) Triple layer adsorption d) Multilayer adsorption

7. Recognition of molecules take place through

a) Ion-dipole forces b) Vendor Waal‟s forces

c) Dipole – Dipole forces d) All the above

8. Anabolism leads to

a) Dissociation of molecules b) Degration of molecules

c) Disintegration of molecules d) Synthesis of bio molecules

9. The life time of phosphorescence is of the order of

a) sec10 3 b) sec10 5 c) sec10 8 d) sec10 9

10. Inter system crossing involves the following transition.

a) 12 SS b) 0SSn c) nn TS d) 1TTn

Part B


11. a) Discuss the ARR theory of simple bimolecular reactions.

(OR)

b) Describe the Rice – Herzfeld mechanism for the decomposition of

acetaldehyde .

12. a) How are ultrasonic absorption and continuous flow techniques used

to study fast reactions.

(OR)

b) Explain the flash photolysis technique.

13. a) Explain how will you calculate surface area from BET equation.

(OR)

b) Discuss about the preparation of LB films.

14. a) What is supra molecular chemistry. Give an account of its

applications (Any four).

(OR)

b) Give an account of NMR imaging.

15. a) Detail the Forster‟s treatment of excited state acidity.

(OR)

b) Explain the concept of photosensitization and chemiluminescence.

Give two examples for each.

Part C


16. What are chain reactions? Arrive at an expression for the rate of 22 BrH

reaction.

17. What do you mean by relaxation method? With diagram explain the

temperature jump and pressure jump methods.

18. Define Adsorption isotherm. Discuss in detail about Langmuir adsorption

isotherm.

19. a) Explain what are high energy metabolites?

b) Discuss the role of ATP in coupled reactions.

20. a) Give an account of the different types of high energy radiations that are

employed in radiation chemistry experiments.

b) Discuss about radiolysis of water.

********

Question Code: A70114 Sub Code: P14CAC43 / MCACR43





Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer ( 10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. Which is called classic life cycle model?

a) LSM b) PRM c) RAD d) INM

2. Preparation of manuals will take _______ of the total time spent in a

life cycle.

a) 10 – 20 % b) 20 – 30 %

c) 30 – 40 % d) 40 – 50 %

3. _____is the process of ensuring that deviations are documented and

reported.

a) auditing b) inspection

c) review d) quality control

4. Which model shows how business is organized in terms of functions

and deliverables?

a) Business process b) Business system

c) Business organisation d) Information flow

5. User interfaces and data entry comes under ______ layer of system.

a) control b) conceptual

c) logical d) operational

6. When the module processes all tasks within the module that are

time related and time controlled then it is _______ cohesive.

a) temporal b) procedural

c) logically d) effective

7. Warning and prompts are related to error ________.

a) recovery b) correction

c) detection d) prevention

8. COM stands for ______.

a) Common Object Model b) Component Object Module

c) Common Object Module d) Component Object Model

9. White box testing is also called ______ testing.

a) behavioral b) performance

c) glass box d) complete

10. Tests that are designed to evaluate the software performance in rare

and abnormal conditions is called _______ testing.

a) recovery b) stress

c) security d) technical

Part B


11. a) Discuss different types of software.

(OR)

b) Enumerate the estimation of effort and schedule.

12. a) Specify the risk types in requirement according to SEI software

risk taxonomy.

(OR)

b) Discuss the analysis tools.

13. a) Describe the information systems.

(OR)

b) Explain the system design architecture.

14. a) Specify the guidelines for designing UI components.

(OR)

b) Discuss the program verification.

15. a) Describe unit testing.

(OR)

b) Elaborate the following testings:

(i) Aplha (ii) Beta (iii) User satisfaction

Part C


16. Describe the Constructive Cost Model.

17. Discuss the requirements engineering phase.

18. Illustrate the system‟s behaviour design.

19. Elaborate the user interface analysis and design.

20. Explain the test cases and test plans.

********

17. Find the equation of the straight line passing through the intersection of

the lines 824 and 1743 yxyx and perpendicular to

1257 yx .

18. Investigate the maxima and minima for 133 xxy .

19. Evaluate dxx x

2

1

2

e .

20. Solve the following equations by Matrix Inversion Method.

3473 ; 14584 zyxzyx ; x + y – z = 0

*****

Question Code: A40204 Sub Code: BBNAS41





Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10marks) 1. A set having finite number of elements is called a .

a) Empty set b) Infinite set c) Finite set d) Universal set

2. 11A is equal to

a) 1A b) A c) U d) 1

A

3. If p is the midpoint of AB then l = m, p is

a) 2

,2

2121 yyxx b)

2,

2

2211 yxyx

c) 2

,2

2121 yyxx d)

2,

2

2211 yxyx

4. The points have both the co-ordinates as positive numbers lie in the

a) IV Quadrant b) III Quadrant c) II Quadrant d) I Quadrant

5. The differential co-efficient of 525 xx with respect to x is

a) 14 xx b) 55 36 xx c) xx 25 4 d) none

6. The local minimum point for the function 2)1(xy is at

a) x = 0 b) x = 1/ 2 c) x = 2 d) x = 1

7. dxx 1 is equal to

a) cxlog b) cx

2

2

c) cx 1 d) cx

1

log

8. dxx35 is equal to

a) cx215 b) cx10 c) cx 4

4

15 d) cx3

4

5

9. S =

100

020

003

is a

a) Unit matrix b) Diagonal matrix c) Scalar matrix d) None

10. If [ 6 5 ] + [ a b ] = [ 6 5 ] the value of a + b is

a) 0 b) 1 c) 5 d) 6

Part B


11. a) If A = {1, 2, 3, 4,5} = B = { 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 }, C = { 1, 4, 5, 6 } find

i) (A B) C ii) A ( B C )

iii) ( A B ) C iv) A ( B C )

(OR)

b) If A, B, C are any three sets, then using Venn diagram prove that

i) A ( B C ) = ( A B ) ( A C )

ii) A ( B C ) = (A B) (A C)

12. a) Find the point of intersection of the lines 7x – y – 3 = 0 and

2x – 5y –15 = 0.

(OR)

b) A company expects fixed costs of Rs.37,500 and variable cost of

Rs.50,000 on sales of Rs.80,000 i) Find the Break Even Point

ii) What will be the profit for a sales of Rs.90,000.

13. a) Find the differential co-efficient of 752 xxe w. r. t x .

(OR)

b) If y = 2

xex find 2

2

dx

yd

14. a) Evaluate 2

154

xxe x dx .

(OR)

b) Evaluate dxx

25

0

1

15. a) If A = 53

32 verify that 072 IAA .

(OR)

b) Find the adjoint of the matrix A =

302

133

313

Part C


16. Out of a group of 50 teachers in a High school 30 teach Mathematics, 20

teach English and 25 teach Science. 10 teach both Mathematics and

Science, and none teach Mathematics and English. How many teach

Science and English and how many teach only English?

Question Code: A40302 Sub Code: BBNME41



MARKETING MANAGEMENT


Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10marks) 1. Marketers often use the term ______to cover various groupings of

customers.

a) people b) buying power c) demographic segment d) market

2. A further 3‟ps are incorporated into the marketing mix.

a) physical evidence, process and price

b) process, people and promotion

c) physical evidence, people and production

d) physical evidence, process and people

3. Luxury products such as Rolex watches are also known as _____.

products.

a) shopping b) emergency c) shopping d) speciality

4. The way in which the product is delivered to meet the customer‟s needs

refers to _____.

a) New product concepts and improvements b) selling

c) Promotion activities d) distribution activities

5. The act of selling the same product at different prices to different buyers.

a) discriminatory pricing b) psychological pricing

c) location pricing d) prestige pricing

6. Selling directly to ultimate consumers are ______.

a) wholesalers b) retailers

c) distributors d) middlemen

7. Advertising appropriations are largest for ____type of products.

a) industrial b) convenience goods

c) high priced d) speciality

8. ______is a means through which advertisers communicate their

messages to the audience.

a) Advertising agency b) Advertising media

c) web based advertising d) product advertising

9. Sales promotion takes the _____towards the buyer.

a) product b) price

c) place d) promotion

10. ______is the last stage of the consumer decision process.

a) Search for information b) Post purchase behaviour

c) Alternate Evaluation d) none

Part B


11. a) Differentiate between marketing and selling.

(OR)

b) Explain the elements of marketing mix.

12. a) Describe the process of new product development.

(OR)

b) Write down the factors that are to be taken while introducing a new

product.

13. a) What are the factors be considered while making pricing decisions?

(OR)

b) Describe the levels of marketing channels.

14. a) Explain the AIDA concepts of advertising.

(OR)

b) Describe the effective features of advertising.

15. a) Describe the steps in consumer buying process.

(OR)

b) What are the qualities of a sales person?

Part C


16. Explain the components of marketing mix in detail.

17. What are the different types of packaging? How does the packaging help

in the development of a product?

18. Describe the junctions of wholesalers to retailers and manufactures.

19. What is an advertising copy? How is it prepared? What are the main

factors of an advertisement copy?

20. Explain about the sales promotion at various levels.

********

Question Code: A62308 Sub Code: P14CHE42



POLYMER CHEMISTRY

Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc. (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The polymerisation in which carbanion is formed in initiation step.

a) Free radical b) cationic c) anionic d) co-ordination

2. Polymerisation of caprolactam to form Nylon -6 is an example of _____

a) Ring – opening b) Poly addition

c) Poly – condensation d) none of the above

3. A thermo plastic is formed by the phenomenon ______.

a) Chlorination b) condensation polymerisation

c) nitration d) chain polymerisation

4. Polymers prepared by synthesis from simple substance are called_____.

a) Natural polymers b) synthetic polymers

c) linear polymers d) 3 – D polymers

5. The useful range of degree of polymerisation is

a) 200 -2000 b) 180 -3000 c) 200 – 2500 d) 180 - 3500

6. Which one of the following is the characteristics of a plasticizer _____.

a) Low boiling point and high volatility

b) high boiling point and low volatility

c) non – volatility and Low molecular mass

d) Not resistant to moisture

7. Ultrasonic sound waves refer to high frequencies say above ____Hertz.

a) 20000 b) 10000 c) 5000 d) 600

8. In Nylon -6, 6 is an example of

a) solution poly condensation b) interfacial condensation

c) melt poly condensation d) none of the above

9. Spongy materials can be obtained by ______method.

a) Thermo forming b) extrusion moulding

c) extrusion moulding d) reinforcing

10. ____is a technique for fabricating 3-Dimentional article from plastic

sheets

a) Foaming b) thermo forming c) blow moulding d) calendaring

Part B


11. a) Give the mechanism of cationic polymerisation with suitable

examples.

(OR)

b) Explain the classification of the polymers on the basis of their

process, properties and origin.

12. a) How are polystyrene and PVC synthesised? Give their applications.

(OR)

b) Explain the methods of preparation and the uses of poly – methyl

methacrylate and polycarbonate.

13. a) Explain the practical significance of polymers molecular weight?

(OR)

b) Explain the following i) molecular weights and degree of

polymerisation ii) polydispersity and molecular weight distribution

in polymers.

14. a) Write note on i) Bulk polymerisation ii) Solution polymerisation

(OR)

b) Explain the following i) anti oxidants ii) hydrolytic degradation.

15. a) What are the different methods for the production of reinforced

plastics, Explain any one method with neat diagram and applications.

(OR)

b) Explain the following terms i) Plastics ii) Elastomers

iii) Componding and plasticizer iv) plasticizer

Part C


16. Discuss the mechanisms involved in co-ordination polymerisation,

metathetical and poly addition polymerisation.

17. Describe the synthesis and application of i) poly urethanes

ii) poly chloroprene iii) melamine formaldehyde polymers.

18. a) Explain the structural regularity and other factors affecting the

crystallisability of polymers.

b) Discuss the following i) Tg and molecular weight

ii) kinetics of polymerisation

19. a) Explain the following i) melt poly condensation

ii) solid and gas phase polymerisation

b) Give the applications of polymer in electronics and bio - medicines.

20. Explain the principle and applications of film extrusion and calendaring

polymer process with neat diagrams.

*******

Question Code: A62111 Sub Code: P14CHC42



INORGANIC CHEMISTRY –IV

( Nuclear and Organometallic Chemistry )


Part A


1. To which decay series does the element M189 belong?

a) 4n b) 4n +2 c) 4n +1 d) 4n+3

2. The magnetic moment of a nucleus of odd-type will be .

a) half integer b) zero

c) integer d) not predictable

3. A nuclear with negative packing fraction is

a) unstable b) stable

c) emitting - partide d) emitting partide

4. 54

26 Fe undergoes electron capture reaction. The product will be

a) 55

25 Mn b) 54

26 Fe c) 56

26 Fe d) 55

27Co

5. The ground state term symbol for 3Sm is

a) 4

5 I b) 0

6 F c) 2

7

8S d) 2

5

6 H

6. The ion showing sharp spectral lines is

a) 3La b) 4Ac d) 3Sm d) 3Gd

7. The parameter measured in DSC is

a) dH. dt b) dm / dt c) Mass d) reflectance

8. Turbidence S =

a) c

kb b)

bc

k c) kbc d)

kc

b

9. Wilkinson‟s catalyst is

a) RhdPPh23 b) lRhPPh c

43

c) lRhPPh c 3 d) lRhPPh c 33

10. Hybridisation of nitrogen in bent nitrosyl is

a) 2sp b) sp c) 3sp d) both sp and 2sp

Part B


11. a) i) State and explain Soddy – Fajan‟s group displacement law.

ii) Write briefly about electron capture and internal conversion.

(OR)

b) What is mass defect? How is it related to binding energy and

stability of a nucleolus?

12. a) Discuss the applications of radio – active isotopes in medical,

agriculture and industrial fields.

(OR)

b) Explain the theory of nuclear fission.

13. a) How are lanthanides separated from monazite?

(OR)

b) Explain the magnetic preparation and colour of the activities.

14. a) Describe the principle and applications of fluorimetry.

(OR)

b) Explain the principle and application of cyclic voltammetry.

15. a) Discuss the mechanism of olefin polymerization using Ziegler – Natta

catalyst.

(OR)

b) Explain the structure and bonding in ferrocene.

Part C


16. a) Discuss the secular and transient equilibria.

b) Write a note on Anger effect.

17. Describe the mass distribution in fission products.

18. a) Explain the position of lanthanides and actinides in the periodic table.

b) Write notes on lanthanide contraction.

19. Discuss the principles and applications of DTA and DSC.

20. a) Illustrate with an example on the hydro formulation by xo process.

b) Explain the mechanism of hydrogenation of olefins by Wilkinson‟s

catalyst.

******

Question Code: B70303 Sub Code: P16CAE43





Part A


1. KDD stands for _____.

a) Knowledge distributed in data base

b) Knowledge dictionary in data base

c) knowledge defined in data base

d) knowledge discovery in data base

2. Which task will remove noise from data?

a) Smoothing b) Aggregation c) Generalization d) Normalization

3. ID3 algorithm was developed by ______.

a) P. T. Stone b) E. B. Hunt c) J. Ross Quinlan d) J. Martin

4. Market basket analysis is an example of ______.

a) classification technique b) clustering technique

c) association rule mining d) data cleaning

5. The process of finding groups of objects such that the objects in a

group will be similar to one another is known as _____.

a) classification b) clustering c) association rule mining d) regression

6. Which one of the following is a hierarchical clustering algorithm?

a) K - Means clustering b) DB – Scan clustering

c) Agglomerative clustering d) CLIQUE clustering

7. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of data

warehouse?

a) subject oriented b) integrated c) time variant d) volatile

8. Data about data is called _____

a) mega data b) meta data c) data auditing d) migrated data

9. ROLAP Stands for ______.

a) Relational Online Analytical Prediction

b) Relational Offline Analytical Processing

c) Relational Online Analytical Processing

d) Relational Offline Analytical Prediction

10. The process of consolidating data values into a single value is

known as _______.

a) Data modelling b) Data base Designing

c) Data Recovery d) Data Aggregation

Part B


11. a) Discuss various data mining tasks.

(OR)

b) Discuss the data cleaning process with example.

12. a) State and describe the statistical measures used in large database

with examples.

(OR)

b) Write about multilevel association rule with example.

13. a) Describe in detail about K- Nearest Neighbor classification

algorithm.

(OR)

b) Write a short note on hierarchical clustering with example.

14. a) What is multidimensional data model? Discuss.

(OR)

b) Define data mart in data warehouse and explain.

15. a) Discuss the types of OLAP servers.

(OR)

b) Write a short note on data warehouse recovery models.

Part C


16. Explain about KDD process in data mining with neat diagram.

17. Assume that the user specified minimum support is 50% , and then

generate all frequent item sets using APRIOI Algorithm for the

following transaction database

tiD Items

C1 Bread, butter, rice

C2 Milk, butter, sugar

C3 Bread, milk, butter, sugar

C4 Milk, sugar

18. Discuss the classification by back propagation neural network with

example.

19. With schematic diagram the three – tier data warehouse architecture.

20. Briefly explain about Decision support system.

******

Question Code: B70107 Sub Code: P16CAC43



C # WITH ASP. NET PROGRAMMING


Part A

Answer all questions, choose the correct answer ( 10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. The ____defines the rules concerning data types in C#.

a) CLS b) CTS c) TCS d) JIT

2. ______is the process by which one object can acquire the properties

of another object.

a) Encapsulation b) Inheritance

c) Polymorphism d) Data Hiding

3. Which one of the following expression is not allowed in switch

statement?

a) char b) int

c) float d) enumeration type

4. _____exception is generated when array boundaries are strictly

enforced in C#.

a) ArrayNotFound b) ArrayOverflow

c) IndexArrayBounds d) IndexOutOfRange

5. The _____object provides a window onto a Data Table in ADO .NET.

a) Data Row b) DataColumn

c) Data Relation d) DataView

6. Which one of the following properties define all the information

that the computer needs?

a) provider b) connection string

c) UserID d) DataSource

7. Which method transfers the user to another page in your application

or a different web site?

a) Redirect b) Request

c) Response d) MapPath

8. _____property is used to specify singleline, multiline or password

in TextBox.

a) Passwd b) TextStyle

c) TextMode d) TextArea

9. _____control validation is performed by a user defined function.

a) Comparevalidator b) Customvalidator

c) Regular Expression Validator d) Range Validator

10. _____event checks the command name to find out what type of

button was clicked.

a) Edit Item Index b) generic Button Type

c) generic Button Cmd d) genericItemCommand

Part B


11. a) Write short notes on C# keywords and Identifiers.

(OR)

b) Discuss the scope and lifetime of variables in detail.

12. a) Explain the bitwise operators in C# with examples.

(OR)

b) What is JaggedArrays? Explain in detail.

13. a) Discuss the following: i) DataSet and ii) DataTable

(OR)

b) How do you use a command with a dataReader?

14. a) What are the properties associated with page class? Explain.

(OR)

b) Explain basic web control classes in detail.

15. a) Briefly explain the AdRotator class and its properties.

(OR)

b) Write a note on the Repeater control.

Part C


16. Discuss about Type conversion and casting in detail.

17. Explain different looping constructs in C# with examples.

18. Discuss the role of SQL statement in ADO. NET with examples.

19. Describe about improving the currency converter with event handling

procedure.

20. Explain the validation process in ASP.NET by means of simple

validation example.

********

Question Code: A81304 Sub Code: P14HYE41



ARCHIVES KEEPING


Part A


1. National Archives Act was passed in U.S.A in the year

a) 1934 b) 1940 c) 1960 d) 1950

2. Akhapatta was referred by

a) Indiga b) Artha sastra

c) Raja tharangini d) kademberi

3. In the year 1820 Record office was created at Fork William in

a) Madras b) Calcutta

c) Bombay d) Delhi

4. Where was the Register system oriented in the early time?

a) England b) Greek

c) Rome d) Africa

5. Name the bleaching agent used in archives

a) sodium chloride b) Alcohol

c) salt d) none

6. Which method is useful in controlling the temperature?

a) Air conditioning b) open theatre

c) closed door d) none

7. Which was the first secretariat of the English East India Company?

a) public department b) revenue department

c) military department d) secret department

8. When was Tamil Nadu archives established?

a) 1901 b) 1905 c) 1909 d) 1910

9. Who wrote a book entitled “The Madras presidency 1881 -1931”

a) Dr. B.S. Boliga b) Macqueen

c) G. T. Boag d) J. J. Galton

10. Sringeri mutt is located in the state of

a) Kerala b) Karnataka

c) Andhra d) Tamil Nadu

Part B


11. a) Explain the meaning and definition of Archives.

( OR )

b) Write about the Archives keeping in Room during the ancient

period.

12. a) Write a note on collection of Records.

( OR )

b) Trace out the origin of archives in France.

13. a) What are the general principles followed for the adoption of

proper preservation of Archives.

(OR)

b) Narrate the various methods used for the DUST Removal.

14. a) Explain the Administration of National Archives of India.

( OR )

b) Give a note on Rehabilitation of records.

15. a) Write a note on the major categories of records.

(OR)

b) Give an account of Parry and company.

Part C


16. Describe the Archives keeping in India during the ancient period

to modern period.

17. What are the materials used for the creation of archives?

18. Define the various cleaning process used to remove the stain from

the papers.

19. Narrate the uses of Archives.

20. Write an essay on Indian Historical Records Commission.

*******

-1- -8-

scrap value. The loss of processes A and B is sold at Rs.5 per 100 units.

The output of each process passes immediately to the next process and the

finished units are passed into stock.

Process A Rs. Process B Rs.

Materials consumed 6,000 4,000

Direct labour 8,000 6,000

Manufacturing expenses 1,000 1,000

20,000 units have been issued to Process A at a cost of Rs.10,000. The

output of each process has been as under:

Process A 19,500; Process B 18,800

Prepare Process Accounts.

20. From the following figures prepare a reconciliation statement between

cost and financial records:

Question Code: A50112 / A51110 Sub Code: P14COC41 / P14MCC41

MCOCR41 / MCCCR41



COST ACCOUNTING

Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Overhead cost is the total of

a) All indirect costs b) All direct costs

c) Direct and Indirect cost d) Specific cost

2. Advertisement is a part of

a) Prime cost b) Office overhead

c) Selling overhead d) Factory overhead

3. LIFO method of pricing of materials issues is more suitable when

a) Material prices are rising b) Material prices are falling

c) Material prices are fluctuating d) None of these.

4. Time wages are paid on the basis of

a) Standard time b) Time saved

c) Output produced d) Actual time

5. Charging output with overhead at some reasonable rate is called

a) Allocation b) Absorption

c) Apportionment d) None of these.

6. Sundry overhead expenses may be apportioned on the basis of:

a) Material cost b) Wages

c) Labour hours d) None of these

Rs.

Net profit as per financial records 1,28,755

Net profit as per costing records 1,72,400

Works overhead under – recovered in costing 3,120

Administrative overhead in excess 1,700

Depreciation charged in financial records 11,200

Depreciation recovered in costing 12,500

Interest received but not include in costing 8,000

Obsolescence loss charged in financial records 5,700

Income tax provided in financial books 40,300

Bank interest credited in financial books 750

Stores adjustment (credit in financial books) 475

Depreciation of stock charged in financial books 6,750

-2-

-7-

7. Job costing is the most suitable method for

a) Oil processing units b) Transport companies

c) Sugar industry d) Repair shops

8. Cost of abnormal loss is shown in

a) Balance sheet b) P/L credit side

c) P/L Debit side d) None of these

9. Over absorption of over heads in Cost accounts results in

a) Decrease in costing profit

b) Decrease on Financial Accounts profit

c) No effect profits of both the accounts

d) None of these

10. Under valuation of Closing stock in cost accounts

a) Decreases costing profit b) Increases costing profit

c) No effect d) Decreases Financial profit

Part B


11. a) Distinguish between cost accounting and financial accounting.

(OR)

b) The following data relate to the manufacture of a standard

product during July 2006.

Raw materials consumed Rs.20,000

Direct wages Rs.18,000

Total machine hours 3000

Machine hour rate Rs.2

Office on cost 10% on works cost

Selling on cost Rs.2.50 p.u

Production -5000 units

Sales - 4600 units @ Rs.20 each.

Prepare a cost sheet showing cost and profit per unit.

A

Rs

B

Rs

C

Rs

X

Rs

Y

Rs.

Direct material

Direct wages

Factory rent

Power

Depreciation

Other overheads

Additional Information:

Area (sq,ft.)

Capital value (Rs. Lacs) of assets

Machine hours

Hours power of Machines

1,000

5,000

4,000

2,500

1,000

9,000

500

20

1,000

50

2,000

2,000

250

40

2,000

40

4,000

8,000

500

20

4,000

20

2,000

1,000

250

10

1,000

15

1,000

2,000

500

10

1,000

25

A technical assessment for the apportionment of expenses of service

departments is as under,

A

%

B

%

C

%

X

%

Y

%

Service dept X

Service dept Y

45

60

15

35

30

-

-

5

10

-

Required:

(a) A statement showing distribution of overheads to various departments

(b) A statement showing re-distribution of service department‟s expenses to

production departments.

21. The product of a company passes through two processes to completion

known as A and B. From the past experience it is ascertained that loss is

incurred in each process as:

Process A – 2% Process B – 5%

In each case the percentage of loss is computed on the number of units

entering the process concerned. The loss of each process possesses a

-6-

Part C


21. The accounts of Shankar Company Ltd. show for the year 2005.

Materials Rs.35,000; Labour Rs.27,000; Factory overheads

Rs.81,000 and administration overheads Rs.56,080.

What price should the company quote for a refrigerator? It is

estimated that Rs.1,000 for material and Rs.700 for labour will be

required for one refrigerator. Absorb factory overheads on the basis

of labour and administration overheads on the basis of works cost. A

profit of 12½ % on selling price is required.

22. Showing the stores ledger entries as they would appear when using

the LIFO method of pricing issues, in connection with the following

transactions:

April Units Value

Rs.

1 Balance in hand b/f 300 600

2 Purchased 200 440

4 Issued 150 -

6 Purchased 200 460

11 Issued 150 -

19 Issued 200 -

22 Purchased 200 480

27 Issued 250 -

23. Mathis Ltd. is a manufacturing company having the production

departments A,B,C and two service departments X and Y. the

following is the budget for December 2012.

12. a) The component X is used as follows:

Normal usage : 50 units per week each

Minimum usage : 25 units per week each

Maximum usage : 75 units per week each

Re-order quantity : 400 units

Re-order period : 4 to 6 weeks

Calculate for each Component:

(a) Re-order level (b) Minimum level

(c) Maximum level (d) Average stock level

(OR)

b) From the following particulars work out the earnings for the week

of a worker under.

(a) Straight piece-rate (b) Differential piece-rate

(c) Halsey premium system (d) Rowan system

Number of working hours per week 48.

Wages per hour – Rs. 3.75

Normal time per piece – 20 minutes

Rate per piece – Rs. 1.50

Normal output per week – 120 pieces

Actual output for the week – 150 pieces

Differential piece rate : 80% of piece – rate when output is below

standard and 120% when above standard.

13. a) A manufacturing company has 3 production departments namely,

A, B and C and 2 service departments namely, X and Y. The

departmental distribution summary shows the following details:

Rs.

Production Depts: A 40, 000

B 55, 000

C 75, 000

Service Depts: X 18, 000

Y 15, 000

-3-

-4-

-5-

The basis of apportionment of service department costs to the

production departments are stated as follows:

Depts. A B C X Y

X 40% 30% 20% - 10%

Y 25% 35% 20% 20% -

Prepare a statement showing the distribution of the service

department expenses to the production departments on the basis of

repeated distribution method.

(OR)

b) Compute machine hour rate from the information given below:

Cost of machine X Rs.13,500

Life of the machine 10 years

Estimated scrap value (after 10 years) Rs.1,980

Working hours 1,800

Insurance (per annum) Rs.45

Cotton wastes (per annum) Rs.75

Rent for dept. (per annum) Rs.975

Foreman‟s salary (per annum) Rs.7,500

Lighting for dept. (per annum) Rs.360

Repairs for entire life Rs. 1,440

Power: 10 units @ 7.5 paise per units

Machine X occupies 1/5 of the area and foreman devotes 1/4th

of his

time to the machine. The machine has two light points out of the total

12 for lighting in the department.

14. a) The following particulars are extracted from the books of Beta & co

Ltd. in respect of production of Order No.807.

Material issued Rs.14,000

Direct Labour Dept. A 700 hours @ Rs.7 per hour

Dept. B 900 hours @ Rs.11 per hour

Dept. C 1200 hours @ Rs.12 per hour

Direct Expenses Rs.7,000

Factory overhead absorbed is 40% on direct wages.

Administration overhead absorbed is 20% on works cost and Selling

& Distribution overhead absorbed is 10% on works cost.

Calculate the cost of production for the Job and find out the

selling price if 20% profits are charged on selling price.

(OR)

b) 100 units introduced into process I at a cost of Rs.9,600 and

expenditure of Rs.4,800 is incurred. From past experience, it is

ascertained that wastage normally arises to the extent of 15% of units

introduced. This wastage is having a scrap value of Rs.10 per unit. The

actual output of process I is 90 units, transferred to process II.

Prepare Process I Account, Abnormal Gain Account and Normal

Loss Account.

15. a) What are the reasons for preparation of reconciliation statement

between cost accounts and financial accounts.

(OR)

b) Prepare a Reconciliation statement from the following details:

Rs.

Net loss as per cost accounts 3,44,800

Net loss as per financial accounts 4,32,890

Works overhead under recovered in costing 6,240

Depreciation over charged in costing 2,600

Interest on Investments 17,500

Administrative overhead over recovered in costing 2,600

Goodwill written of 92,000

Stores adjustments in financial books(Cr.) 950

Depreciation of stock charged in financial books 13,500

Question Code: A50113 / A51111 Sub Code: P14COC42 / P14MCC42

MCOCR42 / MCCCR42



INDIRECT TAXES

Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Excise duty can be levied on those goods which are ----------- in India.

a) Manufactured b) Sold c) Removed d) none

2. The Central Excise duty is levied by ----------- government.

a) State b) Central c) village d) Foreign

3. The Customs duty is levied while the goods -------- Customs Frontier

of India.

a) Cross b) Sold in c) Lost d) Produced

4. Baggage rule does not include---------

a) Goods b) Service c) Motor vehicle d) Sales

5. CENVAT stands for Central ---------- Added Tax

a) Vision b) Vehicle c) Voter d) Value

6. The levy of central sales tax is on ---------

a) Purchase of goods b) Sale of goods

c) Purchase and sale d) None

7. Which of the following is not declared goods.

a) Imported cotton b) Cotton yarn waste

c) Raw unginned cotton d) Ginned cotton

8. In service tax, Form -------------- is used for appeal to Commissioner

of central excise.

a) AB-1 b) ST -4 c) BC -2 d) CD-5

9. The state government introduced VAT in terms of the state list of

the constitution.

a) Entry 54 b) State Legislation

c) Entry 45 d) Central Government

10. What is the percentage of VAT on export sales?

a) 0% b) Nil c) 1% d) 4%

Part B


11. a) State the difference between Indirect and Direct tax?

(OR)

b) List out the merits of Indirect taxes.

12. a) What are the differences between excise duty and sales tax?

(OR)

b) Analyse the procedure for registration under excise act.

13. a) Explain the various types of customs duties levied in India.

(OR)

b) Describe the rules and provisions relating to baggage as per the

customs act.

14. a) How would you determine the Interstate sales?

(OR)

b) Explain the provisions of the CST act regarding registration of

dealers.

15. a) Explain the procedure for assessment under the service tax act.

(OR)

b) Examine the salient Features of VAT with Example.

Part C


16. Explain in detail about the objectives of Taxation.

17. Explain the procedure for clearance of goods under central excise act.

18. Analyse the method of valuation of goods imported under the

customs act.

19. Discuss the procedure for registration of dealers under CST act.

20. Bring out the features and importance of VAT.

*******

Question Code: A20502 Sub Code: BMANE41/ BMCNE41



Non –Major Elective

STATISTICS AND OPERATIONS RESEARCH


Part - A


1. Find the mean for the following data :

Class 11-20 21-30 31-40 41-50 51-60 61-70 71-80

Frequency 42 38 120 84 48 36 31

2. Calculate the standard deviation for the following data :

Age 20 - 25 25 - 30 30 - 35 35 - 40 40 - 45 45- 50

No. of

persons 170 110 80 45 40 35

3. Fit a straight line trend to the following time series data and estimate

the production for the year 2018.

Year 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014

Sales 38 40 65 72 69 60 87 95

4. Construct the cost of living index number of prices for the data given

below :

Group Weight Index No.

Food 50 330

Clothing 10 208

Lighting 12 200

Rent 12 162

Miscellaneous 16 180

5. Solve the following LPP by graphically:

Maximize z = ,10002 subject to 34 2121 xxxx

7000 ,4000 ,800 2121 xxxx

Part – B


6. Find out the coefficient of variation for the following data:

x 0 -

1000

1000 -

2000

2000 -

3000

3000 -

4000

4000 -

5000

5000 -

6000

f 18 26 30 12 10 4

7. Fit a parabola to the following data; also estimate y at x = 6.

x 1 2 3 4 5

y 5 12 26 60 97

8. Compute i) Laspeyre‟s ii) Paasche‟s and iii) Fisher‟s index

numbers from the following data :

Item Price Quantity

Base year Current year Base year Current year

A 6 10 50 50

B 2 2 100 120

C 4 6 60 60

D 10 12 30 25

9. Old hens can be fought for Rs. 2 each but young ones cost Rs. 5 each.

The old hens lay 3 eggs per week and young hens lay 5 eggs per

week, each egg being worth 30 paise. A hen costs Re. 1 per week to

feed. If a person has only Rs. 80 to spend on the hens, how many of

each kind should be bought to get maximum profit per week assuming

that he cannot house more than 20 hens? Formulate this as a LPP and

then solve by graphical method.

10. Show that the following LPP possess an unbounded

solution:Maximize 321 2107 xxxz subject to the constraints

.0,, ,03

,562

116 ,

3

72

3

1

3

14

321321

321321

xxxxxx

xxxxxx

******

Part C


16. Explain in detail the following terms in superconductors:

a) Heat Capacity b) Energy gap

c) Isotope effect d) Josephson effect

17. What do you mean the crystal field splitting factor? Explain Van

Vleck temperature independent paramagnetism.

18. Write short notes on the following:

a. Frenkel excitons

b. Weakly Bound excitons

c. Exciton Condensation into EHD

19. What is meant by local field in a dielectric and how is it calculated

for a cubic structure? Deduce Clausius-Mosotti relation and explain

its use in predicting the dielectric constant of solids.

20. Explain the various types of dislocations in a crystal and indicate

the manner in which the Burgers vectors differ for different

dislocations. Calculate the stress field of a screw dislocation.

********

Question Code: A61110 Sub Code: P16PHC41



SOLID STATE PHYSICS - II

Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Physics) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The temperature at which a conductor becomes a superconductor is

called ______.

a) superconducting temperature b) Curie temperature

c) Critical temperature d) transition temperature

2. Below transition temperature, a superconducting material

exhibits_____.

a) only zero resistance b) only diamagnetic property

c) zero resistance and diamagnetism

d) zero resistance and ferromagnetism

3. The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is essentially independent

of temperature _______.

a) at very low temperatures

b) at very high temperatures

c) under all circumstances

d) as long as the electronic structure is independent of temperature

4. In an antiferromagnet, the spins are ordered in an antiparallel

arrangement with zero net moment at temperatures below the _____.

a) Curie temperature b) Neel temperature

c) Transition temperature d) Weiss temperature

5. The low-lying single particle excitations of the system of interacting

electrons are called

a) quasiparticles b) electron-electron collisions

c) excitons d) polaritons

6. In _______ crystals, the lowest-energy excitons are localized on the

negative halogen ions.

a) ionic b) molecular

c) alkali halide d) hydrogen bonded

7. In infrared frequency region, the contribution towards polarization

is due to ______.

a) dipolar polarization only b) ionic polarization only

c) dipolar and ionic polarization d) electronic polarization

8. Piezoelectric effect is the production of electricity by ______.

a) pressure b) temperature

c) varying field d) chemical effect

9. In edge dislocation, the burger vector is _______.

a) parallel to dislocation line

b) at right angle to dislocation line

c) 45° to dislocation line

d) 30° to dislocation line

10. If ħω is the energy of an incident photon, T is the kinetic energy of

an emitted electron and W is the work function, then the Einstein

equation is ______.

a) ħω = W ÷ T b) ħω = W ± T

c) ħω = W - T d) ħω = W + T

Part B


11. a) What is Meissner effect? Obtain an expression for the London

penetration depth of magnetic field for a superconductor.

(or)

b) Explain about (i) Type II superconductors and (ii) vortex state.

12. a) Give an account of Weiss theory of ferromagnetism. On the basis

of this theory, how will you explain hysteresis and Curie point?

(or)

b) Explain antiferromagnetic order. Find the susceptibility of an

antiferromagnetic material below the Neel temperature.

13. a) Give LST relation. Explain how LST relation provides information

about reflectance property.

(or)

b) What are polarons? Explain Peierls instability of linear metals.

14. a) What are ferroelectric crystals? Explain the occurrence and

classification of ferroelectric crystals.

(or)

b) Give a schematic sketch of the variation of the total polarisability

of an atom as a function of the frequency, explaining the physical

origin of the various contributions and the relevant frequency

ranges.

15. a) Explain the mechanism of diffusion through solids. Derive the

Fick‟s law for macroscopic diffusion in a solid.

(or)

b) Distinguish between the substitutional solid solution and

interstitial solid solution. Explain the Hume-Rothery rules for the

stability of a solid solution.

Question Code: A23302 Sub Code: BZOME41



ECONOMIC ENTOMOLOGY

Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc – Zoology Max. Marks: 75

Part A

Answer all questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks

1. These are large group of insects showing a complex process of

development.

a) Heterometabola b) Holometabola

c) Hemimetabola d) Hypermetabola

2. Butterflies and moths belong to which order?

a) Diptera b) Coleoptera

c) Hymenoptera d) Lepidoptera

3. The behaviour of the honeybee to come out of the hive in the large

numbers is called______.

a) Bee dance b) Swarming

c) Absconding d) Foraging

4. Mulberry silkworm belongs to the family of______.

a) Saturinidae b) Muscidae

c) Apidae d) Bombycidae

5. Which of the following is a physical method of pest control?

a) Trapping b) Cooling

c) Banding d) Shaking

6. The formulation containing a suitable species of bacteria that kills pests

is known as______.

a) Bacterial pesticide b) Parasitoids

c) Coated pesticide d) Fungal pesticide

7. The appliances used to spray liquid formulations are called as

a) Fumigators b) Dusters

c) Sprayers d) None of the above

8. Which one of the following is called fan type dusters?

a) Bellow Duster b) Rotary Duster

c) Package Duster d) Knapsack Duster

9. Aquatic larva of mosquito is popularly known as_______.

a) Floating raft b) Imago

c) Maggot d) Wriggler

10. Mouth parts of housefly is _______.

a) Sucking type b) Sponging type

c) Siphoning type d) Piercing type

Part B


11. a) Briefly explain the types of metamorphosis.

(OR)

b) Write the salient features of the order Hymenoptera?

12. a) Comment on life cycle of silkworm.

(OR)

b) Write short notes on Predators.

13. a) Enumerate the mechanical methods of pest control.

(OR)

b) Briefly explain the integrated pest management.

14. a) List out the pesticide appliances used in agriculture.

(OR)

b) What are precautionary measures for handling of pesticides?

15. a) Write about the diseases transmitted by Rat flea.

(OR)

b) Give an account of life cycle of mosquito.

Part C

Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks)

16. Elaborate the larval and pupal types in insect development.

17. Write an essay on life cycle of Bombyx mori with a neat sketch.

18. Discuss the biological methods of pest control and add their merits and

demerits.

19. Classify the pesticides based on mode of action.

20. Give a detailed account on life cycle and control measures of housefly.

*****

Part – B


4. Draft an application for the post of a lecturer in commerce in response

to the advertisement in a leading newspaper.

5. Write the important points to be considered in writing a letter of

enquiry and replies to enquiry.

6. Write a letter to your customer expressing inability to execute an order.

7. Write a letter to the Head office recommending a loan to a customer.

8. Draft a letter to your banker requesting him to extend an overdraft

facility to stock goods for approaching festival season.

******

Question Code: B30502 Sub Code: U16CON41



NON –MAJOR ELECTIVE

BUSINESS COMMUNICATION


Part - A


1. a) Explain the various types of communication.

(or)

b) Write a letter asking a candidate to appear for an interview for post

of an assistant accountant.

2. a) Write a letter to your suppliers enquiring the price and time of

delivery of leather bags.

(or)

b) What are the essential contents of a letter for placing order for the

goods?

3. a) Explain the various characteristics of successful bank

correspondence.

(or)

b) Write a letter to your banker requesting the bank to pay the life

insurance premium.

Question Code: B31108 Sub Code: U16CAC42



VISUAL PROGRAMMING

Time : 3 Hrs B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. To change the name of a form, select the form and click the _____

property in the properties window.

a) text b) name c) caption d) font

2. _____ statement is used to declare variables.

a) var b) dim c) declare d) variable

3. The default property of an image is _____.

a) caption b) text c) picture d) value

4. The _____ function converts strings to all lowercase letters.

a) lcase b) LCase c) LCASE d) LcASE

5. Octal numbers must, prefix with _____.

a) &O b) #O c) ^O d) @O

6. The _____ statement is ideal for repeatedly executing a block of code

a specific number of times.

a) break b) continue c) switch d) for

7. The color property stores color information as a _____ value that

represents an RGB color.

a) string b) decimal c) long d) integer

8. The dialog box is opened using the _____ method of the common

dialog box.

a) ShowOpen b) open()

c) new -> open d) showopen()

9. The _____ method reads the entire contents of the file and returns a

string value.

a) Read b) ReadLine

c) ReadAll d) None of these

10. ADO is an acronym for _____.

a) Active Data Object b) Activex Date Objects

c) ActiveX Data Objects d) Add Data Objects

Part B


11. a) Explain toolbox in Visual Basic with examples.

(or)

b) Write short notes on data types.

12. a) List out the useful properties of Labels.

(or)

b) Explain ListBox and ComboBox controls.

13. a) Explain numeric operators with examples.

(or)

b) Explain Do statement with examples.

14. a) Write short note on i) Input Box ii) Message Box.

(or)

b) Explain dialog box with its properties.

15. a) How can you read a file in Visual Basic?

(or)

b) Explain briefly about Data Grid Control.

Part C


16. Explain the steps related to enter and edit code in VB.

17. Explain Manipulating strings in VB with example.

18. Explain different forms of If Statements with example.

19. Explain Menu system in detail.

20. Explain the process of opening, closing and deleting a file.

******

18. i) Predict the product and explain the mechanism.

ii) How would you predict whether the rearrangement is

intermolecular or intra-molecular?

19. i) Discuss elaborately about the PTC and their application.

ii) Write the twelve principles of green chemistry.

20. i) Discuss the schematic analysis of the total synthesis of

trans – 9 – methyl decalone.

ii) Write a note on Robinson annelation reaction.

******

Question Code: A62110 Sub Code: P14CHC41



ORGANIC CHEMISTRY –IV

( Biomolecules, Rearrangements and Synthetic Methods )


Part A


1. Tertiary structure of proteins refer to

a) mainly denatured protein and structure of prosthetic group.

b) three dimensional structure, specially the bond between amino-acid

residue that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain.

c) linear sequence of amino acid residue in polypeptide chain.

d) regular folding patterns of continuous portion of polypeptide chain.

2. The building block ofterpenes are

a) allenes b) isoprene units

c) vinyl units d) butadiene units

3. Free radical cannot be detected with the help of

a) NMR b) EPR

c) Magnetic susceptibility d) I2

4. Identify the product formed in the given reaction

C3H7CONH2 ?

a) C3H7Br b) C3H7CONHBr

c) C3H7NH2 d) C3H7OH

5. If the starting material is having chiral carbon, it undergoes

rearrangement to form product. In the product the optical activity

will be retained then the rearrangement is said to be

a) intermolecular rearrangement b) cationotropic rearrangement

c) intra molecular rearrangement d) anionotropic rearrangement

6. For carrying out the Green synthesis the starting material must be

a) petrochemical b) benzene derivatives

c) microwave inert compound d) bio-mass

7. Which of the reaction is not having atom economy 100% ?

a) Fries rearrangement b) Claisen rearrangement

c) hydrogenation of olefin d) substitution reaction

8. ______ is used as blocking group to protect carbonyl group.

a) ethylene glycol b) acetyl chloride

c) toluene d) DNB

9. ______ is an important tool not to construct carbon-carbon single

bond.

a) aldol condensation b) Knovenagal reaction

c) Michale addition d) Wittig reaction.

10. Photochemical reaction takes place only in this molecular orbital

a) ground state LUMO b) excited HOMO

c) ground state HOMO d) excited LUMO

Part B


11. a) Give the method of synthesis of Zingiberene.

(OR)

b) Distinguish between starch and cellulose.

12. a) Show that disrotatory ring closure is characterized by σ-plane.

(OR)

b) How would you detect the free radical? Give any two methods.

13. a) Give the mechanism of Benzidine rearrangement and to show that

it is intermolecular in nature.

(OR)

b) Predict the product and explain the mechanism of the following

transformation.

14. a) Catalyst are specific in their action – Explain with suitable

example.

(OR)

b) Discuss the solvent free techniques with suitable example.

15. a) Explain Umpolung reaction with an example.

(OR)

b) What are blocking groups? Explain their function with an example.

Part C


16. Describe the structure of proteins.

17. i) Explain (4+2) cycloaddition by Huckel – Mobius approach.

ii) Write note on the following reactions

a) Barton reaction. b) Pschorr reaction.

-8-

-1-

The firm was dissolved on 1.1.2005. Joint life policy was taken over

by A at Rs.5,000. Stock realized Rs.18,000. Debtors realized

Rs.14,500. Plant and Machinery was sold for Rs.36,000. Liabilities

were paid in full. In addition, one bill for Rs.700 under discount

was dishonoured and had to be paid by the firm.

Give the necessary ledger accounts to close the books of the firm.

20. P, Q and R were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of

2:2:1. The partnership was dissolved on 31.12.2004 and their

Balance sheet on that date was as follows:


Sundry Creditors 6,000 Cash in hand 2,000

Capital Accounts: Other Assets 38,000

P – 16,000

Q – 10,000

R – 3,000

29,000

Profit & Loss A/c 5,000

40,000 40,000

The assets were realized gradually:

Rs.10,000 was received in I Instalment.

Rs.10,000 was received in II Instalment.

Rs. 13,000 was received in III instalment.

Show how the cash was distributed.

*******

Question Code :B30108/ B31107 Sub Code: U16COC41/ U16CAC41



FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING -IV


Part A


1. Interest on capital is chargeable to a firm to the extent of

available______.

a) profits b) reserves c) profit and reserves d) none of these

2. Under fixed capital method, drawing of each partner is debited in his

______.

a) capital account b) current account

c) profit and loss appropriation account d) good will account

3. Goodwill is______.

a) a tangible asset b) intangible asset

c) a current asset d) a fictitious asset

4. The profit or loss on revaluation of assets at the time of admission

must be transferred to the partner in the _______.

a) capital ratio b) sacrificing ratio

c) old profit sharing ratio d) new profit sharing ratio

5. A retiring partner is entitled to his share in the goodwill of the firm as

per the _______.

a) profit sharing ratio b) agreement between the partners

c) market value d) none of these

-2-

-7-

6. When the retiring partner is paid in instalments, the total amount

payable to the retiring partner is transferred to ______.

a) an annuity suspense account b) his loan account

c) his capital account d) profit and loss account

7. Realisation a/c is a _______.

a) Nominal A/c b) Real A/c

c) Personal A/c d) Cash A/c

8. Garner Vs Murray rule is applicable to _______.

a) Admission of a partner b) retirement of a partner

c) dissolution of a partnership d) insolvency of a partner

9. Proportionate capital method is otherwise called ______.

a) maximum loss method b) minimum loss method

c) relative capital method d) balance method

10. Under the maximum loss method of piece-meal distribution of cash,

the notional maximum loss is divided in

a) profit sharing ratio b) fixed capital ratio

c) equal d) capital ratio

Part B


11. a) Write short notes on

i) Partners capital account ii) Partners current accounts

(or)

b) Show how the following items will appear in the Capital

Accounts of the partners, Babu and Gopu when their capitals are

fluctuating:

18. X and Y are partners in a business sharing profits and losses as

ththX5

2-Yand

5

3

. Their Balance Sheet as on 1st January 2007 is given

below.


Capital:

X - 20,000

Machinery

Stock

19,500

16,000

Y - 15,000 35,000 Debtors 15,000

Reserve 15,000 Cash at Bank 6,000

Sundry Debtors 7,500 Cash in hand 1,000

57,500 57,500

Y decides to retire from the business owing to illness and X takes it over

and the following revaluation are made:

a) Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs.15,000.

b) Depreciate Machinery by 7.5% and Stock by 15%.

c) A Bad debts provision is raised against debtors at 5% and a Discount

Reserve against creditors at 2.5%.

Prepare ledger accounts and the Balance Sheet of A.

19. A, B and C were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1.

On 31.12.2004, their Balance sheet was as follows:


Sundry

Creditors

15,400 Cash at Bank 3,500

Bills payable 3,600 Stock 19,800

A‟s loan a/c 10,000 Debtors 15,000

Capital account: Less: Provision 1,000 14,000

A – 20,000 Joint Life Policy 4,000

B – 16,000 Plant & Machinery 43,700

C – 8,000 44,000

Reserve Fund 12,000

85,000 85,000

-6- -3-

a) Interest on capital at 6% per annum

c) The capitals of X, Y and Z being Rs.50,000, Rs.40,000 and

Rs.30,000 respectively.

d) Interest on drawings: X Rs.350; Y Rs.250; Z Rs.150

e) Partners‟ salaries : X Rs.5,000; Y Rs.7,500

f) Commission due to X (for some special transaction) Rs.3,000.

You are required to Pass a single journal entry to be made on 10th

April 2007.

17. X and Y were in partnership sharing profit and loss in the ratio of 3:2.

Their Balance Sheet on 30.06.2007 was as follows:


Capital a/c

X – 50,000

Y – 45,000

95,000

Plant and Machinery

Land & Buildings

Furniture

20,000

25,000

6,000

Stock 15,000

Debtors 30,000

Less: Provision 2,000

28,000

Cash 26,000

1,20,000 1,20,000

They want to take Z into partnership subject to the following terms:

i) Z pays Rs.25,000 as capital for 1/4th

share in the business.

ii) Plant and Machinery be increased by 20% and Land & Building be

reduced to Rs.20,000.

iii) Provision for doubtful debts be increased to Rs.3,000.

iv) An item of Rs.2,000 included in sundry creditors is not likely to be

claimed.

v) Certain investments amounting to Rs.13,000 (not included in the

above Balance Sheet) should be brought into account.

Prepare Revaluation a/c, Capital a/c and Revised Balance sheet.

Babu

Rs.

Gopu

Rs.

Capital on 1.1.87 8,00,000 7,00,000

Drawings during 1987 1,60,000 1,40,000

Interest at 5% on drawings 4,000 2,000

Shares of Profits for 1987 84,000 66,000

Interest on Capital at 6% 48,000 42,000

Salary 72,000 Nil

12. a) Calculate the amount of goodwill at three year‟s purchase of last five

years average profits. The profits were:

I year – Rs.9,600 II year – Rs.14,400

III year – Rs.20,000 IV year – Rs.6,000

V year – Rs. 10,000

(or)

b) A firm earned net profits during the last three years are as follows:

I year - Rs.36,000 , II year - Rs.40,000 and III year - Rs. 44,000

The capital investment of the firm is Rs.1,20,000. A fair return on the

capital having regard to the risk involved is 10%. Calculate the value of

goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchase of super profits.

13. a) Explain the accounting treatment of goodwill at the time of retirement

of a partner.

(or)

b) X, Y and Z were partners sharing profit in the proportion of 4:3:3

respectively. Set out below was their Balance Sheet as at 31st

December 2006.


Capital: X - 50,000 Goodwill 30,000

Y - 35,000 Other assets 1,20,000

Z – 35,000 1,20,000

Other liabilities 30,000

1,50,000 1,50,000

-4- -5-

Z retires on 1.1.2007 on which date goodwill of their business was

estimated at Rs.20,000. How will you deal with it in the books of the

firm.

14. a) A, B and C are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio

of 4:3:2 respectively. Their Balance Sheet as on 31.12.2000 stood

as follows:


Creditors 7,000 Cash 3,000

Capital Accounts:

A - 8,000

Debtors

Stock

2,000

4,000

B - 4,000 Buildings 11,000

C – 1,000 13,000

20,000 20,000

The firm was dissolved on the date. “A” agreed to take over the stock

at an agreed value of Rs.3,000 and debtors at Rs.1,400. The building

was sold at auction for Rs.5,400. Prepare realization a/c.

(or)

b) The following was the Balance Sheet of Radha, Krishna and Sankar

as on 31.12.2003.


Creditors 12,000 Machinery 25,000

General Reserve 3,000 Stock 11,000

Capital: Radha 20,000 Debtors 9,500

Krishna 15,000 Goodwill 13,000

Sankar 10,000 Cash 1,500

60,000 60,000

On the above date the firm was dissolved. The assets realized

Rs.50,000. The creditors were settled at Rs.11,500. Dissolution

expenses amounted to Rs.1,000. The partners had 3:2:1 as their profit

sharing ratio. Pass Journal Entries.

15. a) From the following, distribute cash under proportionate capital

method:

Capital of Partners: Amir- Rs 20,000 : Balan – Rs 10,000

Profit sharing ratio: 3 : 2

I Instalment (cash) Rs. 5,000 ; II Instalment (cash) Rs. 4,000

III Instalment (cash) Rs. 2,000

(or)

b) Big, Small and Short share profits and losses in proportions of

4

1 and

4

1 ,

2

1

.

On the date of dissolution their balance sheet stood as follows Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.

Creditors 14,000 Sundry Assets 40,000

Capital:

Big - 10,000

Small - 10,000

Short - 6,000 26,000

40,000 40,000

The assets realized as follows:

1st instalment Rs.14,000, 2

nd Instalment Rs.10,000, 3

rd Instalment

Rs.10,000. Show how the proceeds should be distributed.

Part C


16. X, Y and Z are partners in a firm. The net profit of the firm for the year

ended 31st March 2007 is Rs.30,000, which has been duly distributed

amongst the partners in their agreed ratio of 3:1:1 respectively. It is

discovered on 10th

April, 2007 that the undermentioned transactions were

not passed through the books of account of the firm for the year ended

31st March 2007.

-1-

Question Code: B30303/ B31303 Sub Code: U16COE41/ U16CAE41

A30302 /BCOME41



MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING


Part A


1. Management Accounts deals with ____.

a) Tools and techniques b) Statutory data

c) Auditors report d) Accounting data

2. Management accounts is suitable for ______.

a) Small business

b) cooperative societies

c) Non-profit organization

d) large industrial and trading concerns

3. Ratio Analysis involves the process of _____.

a) Recording b) Computation

c) Relationship between two items d) none of these

4. Solvency ratios include ______.

a) G/P ratio b) Fixed assets turnover

c) Capital gearing ratio d) P/E ratio

5. Cash Flows include ______.

a) Cash receipts only b) Cash Payment only

c) Cash receipt and payment

d) Cash and non cash income and expenses

-2- -7-

6. The Term Fund refer to _____.

a) Reserve b) Working capital

c) Profit d) Cash

7. P/V Ratio is ______.

a) Price volume ratio b) Price variance Ratio

c) Contribution to sales ratio d) Total cost of sales ratio

8. A key factor is ______.

a) Budget factor b) Limiting factor

c) Cost factor d) None of these

9. Sales budget is ______.

a) Budget of output to be sold

b) budget for selling expenses

c) Budget of Revenue and expenses

d) a list of incentives to salesmen

10. Zero base budgeting refer to _____.

a) Short term and long term budgeting

b) Performance reporting

c) Responsibility Accounting

d) Justification of every item in the budget afresh

Part B

Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks) 11. a) State the difference between Management Accounting and

Cost Accounting.

(or)

b) What are the limitations of management accounting?

12. a) The following figures relates to the trading activities of a

company for the year ended 31.12.2014

19. From the following relating to Rishi Ltd you are required to find out

(a) P/V ratio (b) Break-even point (c) Profit

(d) Margin of safety (e) Volume of sales to earn profit of Rs.6000

Total fixed cost Rs.4500 ; Total variable cost Rs.7500

Total sales Rs.15000

20. A newly started Pushpa &Co.,wishes to prepare cash budget from

January. Prepare a cash budget for 6 months from the following

estimated revenue and expenses.

Month Total

sales

Material Wages Production

overhead

Selling &

distribution

overhead

Jan 20000 20000 4000 3200 800

Feb 22000 14000 4400 3300 900

Mar 24000 14000 4600 3300 800

April 26000 12000 4600 3400 900

May 28000 12000 4800 3500 900

June 30000 16000 4800 3600 1000

Cash balance on 1st Jan was Rs.10000. A new machine is to be

installed at Rs.30000 on credit to be repaid by two equal installments

in March and April.

Sales commission at 5% on total sales is to be paid within the

month following actual sales.

Rs.10000 being the amount of 2nd

call may be received in

March. Share premium amounting to Rs.2000 is also obtained with

2nd

call. Period of credit allowed by suppliers – 2 months

Period of credit allowed to customers – 1 month

Delay in payment of overheads – 1 month

Delay in payment of wages – ½ month

Assume cash sales to be 50% of the total sales.

*****

-3-

-6-

18. The following is the comparative Balance sheet of Padma & co.ltd

as on 30th

June 2014.

Liability 30.6.2013 30.6.2014 Asset 30.6.2013 30.6.2014

Share

capital

180000 200000 Goodwill 24000 20000

Reserve &

surplus

28000 36000 Building 80000 72000

P & L A/c 39000 24000 Machinery 74000 72000

Trade

creditors

16000 10800 Investment 20000 22000

Bank

overdraft

12400 2600 Inventories 60000 50800

Provision

for taxation

32000 34000 Debtors 40000 44400

Provision

for doubtful

debts

3800 4200 Cash 13200 30400

311200 311600 311200 311600

Additional information:-

(1) Depreciation charged on machinery Rs.10000 and on building

Rs.8000.

(2) Investment sold during the year Rs.3000.

(3) Rs.15000 interim dividend paid during Jan 2014.

(4) Taxes paid during the year Rs.30000.

Prepare (a) A statement of changes in working capital

(b) A funds flow statement.

Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.

Sales 100000 Salary of salesmen 1800

Purchase 70000 Advertising 700

Closing stock 14000 Travelling expenses 500

Sales return 4000 Salaries (office) 3000

Dividend received 1200 Rent 6000

Profit on sale of fixed

asset

600 Stationary 200

Loss on sale of shares 300 Depreciation 1000

Opening stock 11000 Other expenses 2000

Provision for tax 7000

You are required to calculate

1. Gross profit ratio 2. Operating profit ratio

3. Operating ratio 4. Net profit ratio

(or)

b) Pandi Ltd. sells goods on cash as well as on credit basis. The

following information is extracted from their books of accounts for

2015:

Rs.

Total sales 100000

Cash sales (included in the above) 20000

Sales return 7000

Total debtors for sales as on 3.12.2015 9000

Bill receivables as on 31.12.2015 2000

Provision for doubtful debts 1000

Trade creditors as on 31.12.2015 10000

You are required to calculate

1. Debtors / Receivable turnover ratio

2. The average collection period

-4-

-5-

13. a) Bring out the difference between Funds flow and Cash flow

statement.

(or)

b) Calculate funds flow operation from the following profit and

loss A/c.

Profit & Loss A/c

Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.

To Expenses paid 300000 By Gross profit 450000

To Depreciation 70000 By Gain on sales of land 60000

To loss on sale of

machine

4000

To Discount 200

To Goodwill 20000

To Net profit 115800

510000 510000

14. a) The following particulars are obtained from the record of a

company manufacturing two products P and R

P per unit R per unit

Selling price 200 400

Material cost (Rs.20 per kg) 40 100

Direct wages (Rs.6 per

hour)

60 120

Variable overhead 20 40

Total fixed overhead is Rs.10000

Comment on profitability of each product when production

capacity in hours is the limiting factor.

(or)

b) State the salient features of Marginal costing.

15. a) What are the objectives of budgeting control?

(or)

b) Meena Ltd. sells two products A and B which are produced in its

special products division. Sales for the year 2015 were planned as

follows:

1st

quarter

2nd

quarter

3rd

quarter

4th

quarter

Product A 10000 12000 13000 15000

Product B 5000 4500 4000 3800

The selling price were Rs.20 per unit and Rs.50 per unit respectively

for A and B. Average sales returns are 5% of sales and the discount

and bad debts amount to 40% of the total sales. Prepare sales budget

for the year 2015.

Part C


16. Define Management Accounting and Explain its nature.

17. Following are the ratio relating to the trading activities of Neena

Traders Ltd. Madurai.

Receivable turnover = 90 days (360 day year)

Inventory turnover = 3 times

Payable turnover = 3 months

Gross profit ratio = 25%

Gross profit for the year amounted to Rs.18000. Closing inventory

of the year is Rs.2000 above the opening inventory. Bill

receivable amount to Rs.2500 and bill payable Rs.1000. Ascertain

the following.

a) Sales b) Debtors

c) Closing inventory d) Sundry Creditors

18. With the help of schematic diagram, give the instrumentation and

working of Raman spectrometer.

19. Discuss in detail the rotational fine structure of electronic-vibration

spectra.

20. Derive Bloch equations and explain their physical significance.

******

Question Code: B61307 Sub Code: P16PHE41



MOLECULAR SPECTROSCOPY


Part A


1. The moment of inertia relations for near prolate asymmetric rotor is

a) Ia = Ib = Ic b) Ia = Ib< Ic

c) Ia< Ib = Ic d) Ia Ib Ic.

2. Nuclei with spin _______ lack the spherical symmetry along the spin

axis and possess an electric quadrupole moment eQ.

a) I 1 b) I = 1 c) I 1 d) I = 0

3. In CO2 molecule the alternate lines in the P and R branches have zero

intensity, which leads to the line spacing of

a) 2B b) B c) 3B d) 4B.

4. The zero point energy implies that even at absolute zero, the

________ motions of the molecule still exist.

a) vibrational b) translational

c) rotational d) linear.

5. The intensity of Stoke‟s lines are always _____ the corresponding

anti-Stokes lines.

a) less than b) greater than

c) equal to d) none of these

6. The rule of mutual exclusion states that if a molecule has _______

then Raman active vibrations are infra-red inactive and vice versa.

a) centre of symmetry b) light atoms

c) non-centrosymmetry d) heavy elements

7. Franck-Condon principle can be stated that the transition between

electronic states occur________ in potential energy diagram.

a) exponentially increasing b) exponentially decreasing

c) vertically d) horizontally

8. The energy required to separate a stable diatomic molecule AB in

the =0 vibrational state into the two unexcited atoms A and B is

known as the_______ energy.

a) association b) disassociation

c) band d) zero point.

9. The indirect interaction between two nuclei via the electron cloud

is termed as the _______.

a) indirect nuclei interaction b) nuclear magnetic transition

c) indirect spin-spin interaction d) resonance interaction.

10. Spectrometers operating at higher magnetic fields (B=1.3 T) with

corresponding higher microwave frequency (~35 GHz) are called

______ spectrometers.

a) Q-band b) X-band c) T-band d) M-band.

Part B


11. a) Describe the classification of molecules based on the relative

values of principal moments of inertia.

(or)

b) Outline the information that could be derived from rotational

spectra.

12. a) With a suitable diagram, explain the dipole moment change in CO2

molecule.

(or)

b) Describe how infra-red spectroscopy is used for characterisation of

the transition phases of cermaics.

13. a) Discuss the classical theory of Raman effect in detail.

(or)

b) Give an account on rotational Raman spectra of a linear molecule.

14. a) What do you mean by dissociation energy? Illustrate different

dissociation energies and explain how equilibriium disssociation

energy is obtained?

(or)

b) With the help of a schematic diagram, describe the components and

working of a photoelectron spectrometer.

15. a) Obtain the resonance condition for NMR.

(or)

b) Discuss the ESR spectrum of hydrogen atom.

Part C


16. Discuss Stark effect on a symmetric top and linear molecule.

17. Explain in detail principle behind FTIR spectroscopy and also

describe interferometer arangement of FTIR spectrometer.

-1- -16-

92. X-rays of wavelength 1.5418Å are diffracted by planes in a

crystal at an angle 30° in the first order. Calculate the interatomic

spacing.

a) 1.5418Å b) 2.5418Å c) 2.6705Å d) 4.6418Å

93. Copper has Face Centred Cubic (FCC) structure and its lattice

parameter is 3.6Å. Find the atomic radius.

a) 1.27Å b) 1.54Å c) 6.20Å d) 1.30Å

94. Atomic packing factor for Body Centred Cubic (BCC) is

a) b) c) a)

95. The main contribution to the binding energy of ionic crystals is

electrostatic.

a) Madelung constant b) Madelung energy

c) Cohesive energy d) Equilibrium lattice constant

96. The energy of a lattice vibration is quantized. The quantum of energy is

called______.

a) Photon b) Phonon c) Plasmon d) Magnon

97. Thermal vibrations in crystals are thermally excited phonons, like the

thermally excited photons of black-body electromagnetic radiation in a

cavity. The energy of an elastic mode of angular frequency ω is

a) b) c) d)

98. The Hall coefficient is

a) b) c) d)

99. A crystal can be an insulator only if the number of valance electrons in

a primitive cell of the crystal is_____.

a) Even integer b) Odd integer c) Half integer d) Zero

100. The type I superconductors are

a) Hard superconductors b) Soft superconductors

c) Hard and soft superconductors d) Hard or soft superconductors

Question Code: Sub Code: P16PHX41



MODEL PAPER FOR NET / SET EXAM



1. Choose the Poisson's equation

a) b)

c) d) (c)

2. Using Gauss divergence theorem

evaluate , where S is the surface of the

sphere .

a) b) c) d)

3. Choose the wrong one:

The spherical polar coordinate system consists of

a) =constant b) = constant

c) = constant d) = constant

4. Choose the wrong one:

The properties of matrix multiplication

a) Premultiplication and Postmultiplication

b) Matrix multiplication is commutative

c) Associative law of multiplication

d) Distributive law of multiplication

5. The rank of zero or null matrix is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0

-2-

-15-

6. The outer product of the two tensors, is a tensor whose rank is the ………

of the ranks of given tensors.

a) Sum b) Multiplication

c) Division d) Subtraction

7. Evaluation of Gamma function

a) b) c) d)

8.

a) b) c) d)

9. To show that

a) b) c) d)

10. Choose the correct Cauchy-Riemann equations in polar form

a) b)

c) d)

11. Using method of complex variables, show that

a) b) c) d)

12. Using Cauchy Residue theorem show that

a) b) c) d)

a) b)

c) d)

84. Derive matrix for the operator 2J for

a) b)

40

04

c) d)

40

04

85. For the Pauli‟s spin matrices, to show that yx ,

a) b) c) d)

86. In the case of an harmonic oscillator, the corrected ground state energy is

a) b)

c) d)

87. A solar cell is essentially a ________.

a) P-N junction b) N-P-N junction

c) P-N-N junction d) N-P junction

88. A reverse biased ideal diode looks like an _____ resistance.

a) Infinite b) Finite c) Low d) High

89. Zener diodes are commonly used as _____ regulators.

a) Voltage b) Resistance c) Current d) Frequency

90. The ratio of IC and IE gives the _____ of a transistor.

a) Alpha b) Beta c) Comma d) Zero

91. In a CB amplifier, a positive going input signal produces a ____ going

output signal.

a) Infinite value b) Negative c) Positive d) Finite value

-14- -3-

78. The deuteron is a system of two particles, a proton and a neutron, of

almost equal mass m held together by an attractive short-range force. This

short-range force between the nuclear particles can be described by

a) Kronig-Penney potential b) Square well potential

c) Wood-Saxan potential d) Yukawa potential

79. The validity of Wentzel, Kramers, Brillouin (WKB) approximation

method is

a) b)

c) d)

80. The commutation relation yLL ,2

a) L b) L c) yL d) 0

81. The matrix for

a) b)

c) d)

82. The , and are called the Pauli‟s spin matrices. These matrices

satisfy the following relation. Find the wrong one

(a) 1222

zyx

(b) , ,

(c) 0zxxzyzzyxyyx

(d) 0zxxzyzzyxyyx

83. Consider two noninteracting systmes having angular momenta and

and eigenkets and respectively. Find the dimensions of

the product of .

13. Show that

a) b) c) d)

14. Generating function for Bessel‟s differential equation.

a) b)

c) d)

15. Orthogonal properties of Legendre‟s polynomial

a) b)

c) d)

16. Find the Jacobi series,

a) b)

c) d)

17. Find Hermite differential equation

a) b)

c) d)

18. The Rodrigue‟s representation of Laguerre‟s polynomials for n = 0.

a) b) c) d) 1

19. Find the Fourier series of the function in the interval .

a)

b)

c)

-4-

-13-

d)

20. Find the value of

a) b) c) d)

21. Choose the wrong one in the convergence property(s) of Fourier series

a) is continuous in the given interval

b)

c) The derivative of , is piecewise continuous.

d) is discontinuous in the given interval

22. Fourier sine transform of derivative

a) b)

c) d)

23. A black body is at 727°C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to

a) b) c) d)

24. How much work can be done by 250 cal of heat?

a) 1050 J b) 1045 erg c) 1045 W d) 0

25. When one mole of monoatomic gas expands at constant pressure, the ratio

of the heat supplied that increases the internal energy of the gas and that is

used in expansion is

a) b) c) d) 0

26. A Carnot engine has efficiency 50% when its sink is at a temperature of

27°C. The temperature of the source is

a) 273°C b) 300°C c) 327°C d) 373°C

What is the expectation value for the energy of the system?

a) b)

c) d)

74. The fundamental commutation relation

a) b) c) d)

75. In Quantum mechanics, some of the systems for which the Schrödinger

equation is exactly solvable. However, the potential energy of the most of the

real systems are different from those considered and an exact solution is not

possible. Which method is used to solve those systems?

(i) Time-independent perturbation method (ii) Variation method

(iii) WKB approximation method, Self-consistent procedure, etc.

a) Both (i) and (ii) b) Both (i) and (iii)

c) Both (ii) and (iii) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

76. The total energy of the system of time-independent perturbation is

Where is called the unperturbed Hamiltonian and is called perturbed

Hamiltonian. The eigenvalue equation is , where

n = 1,2,3…etc. The eigenfunctions is

a) Form a complete orthonormal basis

b) Form a complete orthogonal basis

c) Form a complete normal basis

d) None of these above

77. A rigid rotator in a plane is acted on by a perturbation represented by

, where is a constant. Calculate the first order

correction to the ground state energy is

a) b)

c) d)

-5- -12-

68. Choose the wrong property of the function

a) b)

c) d)

69. In the case of linear harmonic oscillator, the finite value of the ground state

energy level,

a) 0 b) c) d)

70. The harmonic oscillator wave function is

Here . The normalization constant ( ) is

a) 2

1

n n! l nN b)

c) d)

71. The spherical polar coordinates to give

a) b)

c) d)

72. In the case of Hydrogen atom, the first radial function is

a) b)

c) d)

73. At time t = 0, the wave function of hydrogen atom is

27. Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic

systems?

a) The internal energy changes in all processors

b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions

c) The change in entropy can never be zero

d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero

28. Above Curie temperature

a) a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

b) a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic

c) a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

d) a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic

29. Which one is incorrect Maxwell's thermodynamical relations

a) b)

c) d)

30. The Gibb's function G of a system is given by

If the process is isothermal as well as isobaric,

a)

b)

c)

d)

31. The 6N dimensional space is conventionally called Phase Space and it is

giving

a) 3 momenta and 3 coordinates b) 4 momenta and 2 coordinates

c) 2 momenta and 4 coordinates d) 5 momenta and 1 coordinates

-6- -11-

32. Choose the incorrect for the Canonical ensembles

a) Isothermal systems

b) The systems exchange energy but not mass

c) Temperature constant to systems

d) The number of particles (N) is not constant

33. The partition function for a system of N number of molecules is

a) b) c) d)

34. In general, if and are two dynamical variables, then their Poisson

brackets are defined as _______.

a)

b)

c)

d)

35. The Variational principle is stated as

Where is the variation, time independent but position dependent?

a) b)

c) d)

36. The Poisson bracket

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

37. The Poisson bracket

a) b)

c) d)

64. The properties of strange (d) Quark

a) Charge +1/3, Spin 1/2, Baryon number 1/3, Strangeness 0

b) Charge -1/3, Spin 1/2, Baryon number 1/3, Strangeness -1

c) Charge -1/3, Spin 1/2, Baryon number 1/3, Strangeness 0

d) Charge +2/3, Spin 1/2, Baryon number 1/3, Strangeness 0

65. Ehrenfest's theorem shows that a wave packet moves like a classical particle

whenever the expectation value gives a good representation of the classical

variable; this is usually the macroscopic limits the equivalence of

a) Finite size, internal structure of the packet can be ignored.

b) Infinite size, internal structure of the packet can be ignored.

c) Finite size, internal structure of the packet can be considered.

d) Infinite size, internal structure of the packet can be considered.

66. In the Ehrenfest's theorem

a) Violation of uncertainty principle limits

b) Obey of uncertainty principle limits

c) Both (a) and (c) d) None of these

67. One-dimensional square well potential with perfectly rigid walls

In these case for and for . Here

Which has the general solution,

a)

b)

c)

d)

-10-

-7-

58. To find magic numbers

a) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 and 123 b) 4, 5, 7, 19, 49, 72 and 125

c) 1, 3, 9, 23, 55, 82 and 123 d) 2, 4, 8, 20, 50, 82 and 126

59. Which potential is used in a single particle shell model?

a) Harmonic oscillator b) Square well

c) Woods-Saxon d) All the above

60. To find the spin and parity of Ta181

73 .

a) Spin 2

11, parity odd b) Spin

2

11, parity even

c) Spin 2

9, parity odd d) Spin

2

9, parity even

61. The fundamental interactions of Hardons

a) Strong interaction and range

b) Weak interaction and range

c) Strong interaction and range

d) Weak interaction and range

62. To find the missing elementary particle (x) in the following reaction

pexv

a) b) c) d)

63. The three Quark (uuu) combination have

a) Charge +2, Spin 3/2, Baryon number 1, Strangeness 0

b) Charge +2, Spin 3/2, Baryon number 1, Strangeness -1

c) Charge 0, Spin 3/2, Baryon number 1, Strangeness 0

d) Charge -1, Spin 3/2, Baryon number 1, Strangeness 0

38. Find the Laplace equation value of the following potential field

V= cos + z

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

39. The Stoke‟s theorem can be used to find which of the following?

a) Area enclosed by a function in the given region

b) Volume enclosed by a function in the given region

c) Linear distance

d) Curl of the function

40. Two charges 1C and –4C exists in air. What is the direction of the force?

a) Away from 1C b) Away from –4C

c) From 1C to –4C d) From –4C to 1C

41. The Gaussian surface for a point charge will be

a) Cube b) Cylinder

c) Sphere d) Cuboid

42. For a dielectric which of the following properties hold good?

a) They are superconductors at high temperatures

b) They are superconductors at low temperatures

c) They an never become a superconductor

d) They have very less dielectric breakdown voltage

43. A β-particle mass is equal to

a) mass of proton b) mass of electron

c) mass of neutron d) mass of positron

44. According to measurements by Rutherford and Geiger, one gram of Radium

emits in one second alpha particles. Estimate the half life of

Radium.

a) 1800 years b) 1600 years c) 1200 years d) 1400 years

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-9-

45. The law of Radioactive decay

a) b)

c) d)

46. Match the following

S.No. Equilibrium Parent and daughter

lived time

i Ideal ii Transient ii Secular

a) b)

c) a)

47. The type of radioactivity of Hydrogen is

a) Beta b) Gamma c) Alpha d) None of these above

48. Nuclear reactions are classified on the basis of the projectile used, the

particle detected and the residual nucleus. To find the type of nuclear

reaction for the following statement: The projectile and the detected

particle are the same when the residual nucleus is left in the ground state.

a) Scattering b) Pickup reactions

c) Stripping reactions d) Compound nuclear reactions

49. The analytical relationship between the kinetic energy of the projectile and

outgoing particle and nuclear disintegration energy Q is called as the Q

equation. The solution of

a) Endoergic reactions b) Exoergic reactions

c) Stripping reactions d) Compound nuclear reactions

50. Find out the unknown (x) particles in the nuclear reaction given below

a) Beta b) Gamma c) Alpha d) None of these above

51. The radius R of the nucleus is

a) b) c) d)

52. The Bosons have spin and wave function on exchange of co-ordinates,

a) Half-integer spin and symmetric wave function

b) Half-integer spin and antisymmetric wave function

c) Integer spin and symmetric wave function

d) Integer spin and antisymmetric wave function

53. In nuclear fission reaction to reach stability: neutron (N) increases by 2units

and proton (Z) number decreases by 2 units, which is…

a) decay b) decay c) decay d) None of these above

54. Why binding energy per nucleon is constant?

a) Independent of the overall size of a nucleus

b) Dependent of the overall size of a nucleus

c) Independent of the overall density of a nucleus

d) Dependent of the overall density of a nucleus

55. To find the most stable nuclei using Weizsacher's semi-emperical mass

formula.

a) b) c) d)

56. To find the stable nuclei against beta -decay for the following members

of an isobaric family

a) b) c) d)

57. Why does not undergo fission reaction?

a) Due to the absence of the pairing energy term for

b) becomes an Even-Odd nuclide

c) The fission barrier cannot be crossed

d) All the above

-1-

Question Code: Sub Code: P16COX41



MODEL PAPER FOR NET / SET EXAM

Time : 2 Hrs M. Com & M. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 100


1. Goods means

a) All movable property b) All immmovable property

c) Auctionable claims d) Decree

2. Goods includes

a) Rare coins b) Grass c) Crops with land d) All of these

3. A central consumer protection council establishment by the

a) State Government b) Central Government

c) Parliament c) president of India

4. A state consumer proection council is established by the _____ in each

state.

a) Respective state government b) Only the president of India

c) Prime Minister d) Home Minister

5. The district forum shall consists of

a) A person who is qualified to be a District Judge who shall be its

president

b) A person of eminence in the field of education, trade or commerce,

who shall be a member.

c) A lady social worker.

d) All of the above.

-2-

6. The First Industrial Policy, of India announced by the Dr.Shyama

Prasad Mukherjee on

a) 6.4.1948 b) 6.4.1950 c) 6.4.1951 d) 6.4.1955

7. The Industrial policy, 1990 was announced by the

a) Shri Ajeet Singh b) Shri Manmohan Singh

c) Shri Jaswant Singh d) Shir T. R. Dhir

8. The New Industrial Policy announced on

a) 24.7.1991 b) 20.7.1991 c) 20.6.1992 d) 20.7.1996

9. Which one of the following is not meant of Water Transport in India?

a) Inland water transport b) Coastal transport

c) Oceanic Transport d) Railway

10. Which one of the following is not included under the object or New

Industrial Policy 1991?

a) To correct the distortions (or) weakness that may have crept in

b) To maintain a sustained growth in productivity and gainful

employment

c) To attain international competitiveness

d) To abolish on the gains already made

11. Who are the drivers of Globalisation?

a) International Trade b) Financial Flows

c) Communications d) All of these

12. The world economy has been emerging as a ….. economy

a) Global b) Traditional

c) Domestic d) Both (a) and (b)

13. Who counted “All institutions have to make global competitiveness a

strategic goal”?

a) Peter Drucker b) Guleek

c) Terry d) A. D. Honga

-3-

-14-

98. Industrial relations consists

a) Recruitment and placement b) Job analysis

c) Supervision d) All of these

99. Feedback and counselling involves

a) Give critical and supporting feedback

b) provide support

c) discuss the steps, the employee can take for improvement

d) all of these

100. Organization and development includes

a) Organisational diagnosis b) Team building

c) Task force d) All of the above

*******

14. Forms of Mixed Economy consists of

a) Public sector b) Private sector

c) Co-operative sector d) All of these

15. Which one of the following is not the characteristics of mixed economy?

a) Public interest b) Public control

c) Joint sector d) Economy independency

16. Economic infrastructure includes

a) Transport b) Communications

c) Water d) All of these

17. Which is the Corporate Citizen?

a) Reliance Industries Ltd b) Panchayat

c) Ram d) None of the above

18. The strategies of marketing adopted by firm to achieve growth for

a) Add more products b) Add more markets

c) Expand markets d) All of these

19. Political environment consists

a) Role of legislature b) Role of Judiciary

c) Role of executive d) All of these

20. Economic environment consists

a) New economic policy b) Population

c) Per capita income d) All of the above

21. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are

a) Accounting concepts b) Accounting conventions

c) Accounting standard d) (a) and (b) both

22. Accounting is a language of

a) Business b) Books of accounts c) Accountant d) None of these

-4- -13-

23. Which expenses is a Capital‟s nature?

a) Depreciation b) Wages

c) Salary d) Stationary

24. General Reserve created from

a) Capital profit b) Revenue profits

c) Only profit d) Sale of asset

25. Dividend can be declared from

a) Revenue profit b) Capital profit

c) Secret reserve d) All of these

26. The term current assets do not include

a) Debtors b) B/R

c) Stock d) Goodwill

27. Balance is a statement of

a) Assets b) Liabilities

c) Capital d) All of these

28. Owner‟s equity could be understood as comprising ……. and ……

a) Contributed capital b) Retained earnings

c) Liabilities d) Both (a) and (b)

29. Cost of sales in the case of trading company is equal to

a) Sales–Gross profit

b) Opening Stock + purchases + incidental expenses –closing stock

c) Sales – Closing stock d) Only (a) and (b)

30. Which one of the following is not an example of Intangible assets?

a) Patents and Trade marks b) Copyright

c) Sologan d) Land

91. Which of the following factors connected with working condition?

a) Fair wages b) Security and opportunity to rise

c) Work environment d) All of these

92. Which of the following types are fatigue?

a) Muscular or physiological fatigue b) Nervous fatigue

c) Industrial fatigue d) All of these

93. Mental fatigue arises due to a feeling of tiredness that drops up in a person

while working continuously on a ……. operation

a) Repetitive b) Standing

c) Industrial d) performance

94. On the job training can be provided through

a) Distance education b) Mobile teacher

c) Non –formal education d) All of these

95. The industrial relations in the 21st century are not going to be between two

groups – haves or have-nots or managers and managed or employers and

a) Employees b) Customers

c) Firm d) Suppliers

96. A number of decisions have been taken to strengthen recruitment and

improve the quality of management

a) Trainees b) Assignees

c) Company d) Programmes

97. Qualitative changes in the attitudes of employees involves

a) There is a greater awareness among officers, workers and associations

b) Communication process is more effective

c) There is considerable clarity about goals and objectives

d) all of these

-5-

-12-

85. Recruitment deals with

a) identification of existing sources of applicants and developing them

b) creation of new sources to applicants

c) identification of new sources to applicants

d) all of the above

86. Selection includes

a) Framing and developing application banks

b) checking of references

c) formulating interview techniques

d) all of these

87. Training involves

a) identification of training needs of the individuals and the company

b) developing suitable training programme

c) evaluating the effectiveness of training programme

d) all of these

88. Physical condition of work includes

a) Lighting b) Temperature

c) Rest pauses d) All of these

89. Technological development includes

a) Plant size b) Job layout

c) Raw materials d) All of these

90. “Morale as a readiness to co-operate warmly in the tasks and pursposes

of a given group or organization” who gave this statement?

a) Alldrich b) Ackooff

c) Viteles d) none of these

31. The minimum number of partners for Partnership firm is ____.

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

32. Unrecorded liability, when paid by a firm on its dissolution is debited

to______.

a) Partner‟s capital account b) Unrecorded liability account

c) Realisation account d) None of these

33. A company can purchase its own______.

a) Equity shares b) Preference shares

c) Debentures d) All of these

34. The minimum amount that should be called by a company with

application for its shares is the following percent of face value of shares

a) 2% b) 5% c) 10% d) 15%

35. A company cannot issue

a) Redeemable Equity shares b) Redeemable preference shares

c) Redeemable debentures d) None of these

36. Which one of the following is not include in calculation of purchase

consideration?

a) Net Assets method b) Payment method

c) Lumpsum method d) None of these

37. In holding companies, dividends received out of profits of the subsidiary

companies must be

a) Debited to investment account b) Credited to investment account

c) Debited to revenue account d) Credited to revenue account

38. Which one of the way is not of Internal Re-construction?

a) By alteration in share capital of company

b) By reduction in share capital

c) By agreement with companies creditors

d) By sale of assets

-6-

-11-

39. The basic purpose of funds flow statement is to indicate the following

a) Financial position

b) Increase or decrease in assets

c) Increase or decrease in liabilities

d) Increase or decrease in working capital

40. Solvency ratio will be

a) 72% b) 72.72% c) 10% d) 70%

41. Deposits consists of

a) Demand Deposits account b) Savings Deposits account

c) Fixed Deposits account d) All of these

42. Subsidiary ledgers of banking companies includes

a) Current Account Ledger

b) Fixed Deposit interest Ledger

c) Recurring deposit accounts ledger

d) All of these

43. Slip system of banking book keeping consists

a) Paying in slips b) Cheques

c) With drawl slips d) All of these

44. When was introduced banking Regulation Act in India?

a) 1935 b) 1940 c) 1949 d) 1956

45. The subscribed capital of a Banking Company should be

a) 50% of authorized capital b) 45% of paid up capital

c) 50% of paid up capital d) All of these

46. Reserve Fund known as

a) Statutory Reserve Fund b) General Reserve

c) Proposed Dividend d) All of these

78. The three section of BOP are

a) Current account b) Capital account

c) Official Reserve account d) all of these

79. Cable rate, known as

a) Spot rate b) Token rate

c) Foreign rate d) Interest rate

80. IMF indicates

a) Indian Monetary Fund b) International Money Fund

c) International Monetary Fund d) Indian Music Folio

81. Which one of the following does not include under the functions of

Human Resource Management?

a) Planning b) Organizing

c) Recruitment d) Profitability

82. Human Relations consists

a) Motivation b) Morale

c) Communication d) All of these

83. Compensation Management consists

a) Job Evaluation b) Fringe Benefits

c) Wages and Salary Administration d) All of these

84. Human Resource Development consists

a) Training b) Career planning and development

c) Performance appraisal d) All of these

-10- -7-

72. Which of the following is not the function of WTO?

a) To optimum use of world resources

b) To make Co-ordination between IMF and IBRD for formulating

the economic policy.

c) To introduce the rule and provision relating to the procedure of

business policy

d) None of these

73. Which of the following is the objective of WTO?

a) To introduce New World Trade Policy

b) Expansion to the Trade and production

c) To make the dispute settlement

d) All of these

74. More companies operate internationally because

a) New product quickly became known globally

b) Companies can produce in different countries

c) Domestic companies, competitor‟s suppliers and customers have

become international

d) All of these

75. A global company sometimes called a ……. company

a) A Joint Stock Company b) A globally integrated company

c) A multi domestic company d) All of these

76. Asian Development fund was created by

a) Asian Development Bank b) World Bank

c) IMF d) SAARC

77. Export processing zones has been converted into

a) Special Export Zone b) Economic Export Zones

c) Special Economic Zones d) None of these

47. The Schedule-2 of Banking Act consists of

a) Capital Reserve b) Share Premium

c) Revenue Reserve d) All of these

48. The Schedule-3 of Banking Act is related with

a) Deposits b) Borrowings

c) Capital d) All of these

49. Other liabilities and provisions consists

a) Bills payable b) Inter –office adjustment

c) Interest accrued d) All of these

50. IDBI contributed ….. of the share capital of IRCI

a) 60% b) 70% c) 50% d) 79%

51. UTI was set up in

a) 1964 b) 1970 c) 1975 d) 1979

52. Industrial development bank in India (IDBI) was set up in

a) July 1964 b) June 1964

c) August 1964 d) None of these

53. Which of the following schemes comes under UTI Mutual fund?

a) UTI –G–Sec fund investment plan

b) UTI–G–Sec fund short term plan

c) UTI–Bond Fund

d) All of these

54. The UTI was established under the

a) Unit Trust of India Act 1963

b) Reserve Bank of India Act 1935

c) Indian Companies Act 1956

d) Banking regulation Act 1949

-8-

-9-

55. IDBI is a wholly owned subsidiary of the

a) Reserve Bank of India b) State Bank of India

c) Unit Trust of India d) None of these

56. When did the Royal Commission of Indian Currency and Finance

Commission suggest the establishment of the Reserve Bank of

India?

a) In 1926 b) In 1920 c) In 1930 d) In 1935

57. Which bank is known as a Central Bank of India?

a) Reserve Bank of India b) Punjab National Bank

c) State Bank of India d) All of these

58. When the Reserve Bank of India Act was passed?

a) March 6, 1930 b) March 6, 1934

c) March 6, 1935 d) March 6, 1937

59. The reserve bank of india was inaugurated on

a) April 1, 1934 b) April 1, 1935

c) April 1, 1930 d) April 1, 1949

60. The RBI was nationalized on

a) January1, 1949 b) January1, 1950

c) January1, 1956 d) None of the above

61. Which institute has been formed by the World Bank for providing

the soft loan for long term economic development?

a) International Development Association

b) International Finance Corporation

c) Asian Development Bank

d) Reserve Bank of India and EURO Bank

62. Who proposed the proposal for formation of IDA first time in

America? a) E. S. Moronoy b) D. S. Morya

c) A. Linken d) B. L. Tandon

63. Which of the following is not included under tenth replenishment of

IDA‟s programme?

a) Poverty reduction b) Environmental sustainability

c) Economic reforms d) None of these

64. GATT came into force on

a) 1947 b) 1949 c) 1959 d) 1956

65. GATT is a

a) Organization b) Agreement

c) Method d) Policy

66. 8th conference of GATT has been held at

a) Uruguve Round b) Hempasayer

c) New Delhi d) Chennai

67. World Trade Organisation has been set up for the replacement of

a) GATT b) World Bank c) EURO d) ADA

68. The functions of WTO has been start from

a) 1Jan 1995 b) 1Feb 1996 c) 1Jan 1997 d) None of these

69. DOHA conference is related with

a) GATT b) World Bank c) WTO d) USA

70. Which of the following is not the member of EFC?

a) Poland b) Germany c) Italy d) U.K

71. Who is the successor of GATT?

a) WTO b) ABB c) World Bank d) IFC

Question Code : A11110 Sub Code: BELCR61



SHAKESPEARE

Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. Bottom regards his association with Titania as ______.

a) a dream b) a reality

c) a heroine d) an angel

2. Puck says that he can move round the globe in _______.

a) thirty minutes b) forty minutes

c) thirty seconds d) forty seconds

3. Ross and Angus are the two important noblemen of ______

a) England b) Ireland

c) Scottland d) Iceland

4. The third witch declares that Macbeth ________.

a) is the thane of Glamis b) is the thane of Cawdor

c) will be the king of England d) will be the king of Scottland

5. Falstaff and his men rob ________.

a) Soldiers b) Thieves

c) Women d) Travellers

6. The battle of Shrewsbury closes in ________.

a) four days b) three days

c) two days d) one day

7. The main characters of Shakespearean tragedy face disaster because

of ______.

a) Suspicious nature b) Greedy nature

c) Tragic flew d) Adamant nature

8. The fools in Shakespeare sometimes perform the function of

______ in Green tragedy.

a) Chorus b) Villains c) Heroes d) Fate

9. According to Bradley, Shakespeare's tragedies portrays a conflict

between _______.

a) bad and bad b) good and good

c) good and evil d) hero and villain

10. _______ is the monumental work of A.C.Bradley.

a) Shakespeare the Man b) Shakespearean Tragedy

c) Shakespearean Comedy d) Preface of Shakespeare

Part B


11. a) What problems are created by the flower 'Love – in – idleness'?

How are they solved?

(or)

b) Describe the staging of Pyramus and Thisbe.

12. a) Account for Macbeth's popularity on the stage.

(or)

b) Discuss the dramatic irony in Macbeth.

13. a) Examine the plot construction in Henry IV part – I.

(or)

b) Evaluate the Shakespeare's concept of the ideal king as presented

in Henry IV, Part I.

14. a) Bring out the development of Shakespearean theatre.

(or)

b) Brief the relevance of Shakespeare's Soliloquies in his plays.

15. a) Comment on Shakespeare's tragicomedy and Dr.Johnson's

justification of it.

(or)

b) What according to Johnson are the merits of Shakespeare.

Part C


16. Elucidate the aptness of the title A Midsummer Night's Dream.

17. Examine Macbeth as a Shakespearean tragedy.

18. Discuss Henry IV Part I as a morality play.

19. Critically analyse the clowns and foods in Shakespeare's plays.

20. Evaluate A.C.Bradley as a Shakespearean critic.




WOMEN’S WRITING IN ENGLISH AND IN TRANSLATION


Part A


1. In 'Towards a Feminist Poetics' Showalter traces the history of the

literature of ______.

a) Children b) Men c) Women d) Jane

2. Showalter divides feminist Criticism into _______ distinct varieties.

a) two b) three c) four d) five

3. The Poem 'My Grandmother's House' is _____ in tone.

a) biographical b) autobiographical

c) tragic d) comic

4. Poetry is described by Judith Wright as ______.

a) a ray b) darkness

c) a darkening ray d) tick and tock

5. The Play' Mother of 1084' was written in the backdrop of the _______

revolution.

a) Naxalite b) Terrorist

c) Literary d) Critical

6. Mahasweta Devi's 'Mother of 1084' is a _______ act play.

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 5

7. In the novel 'Sula' Shadrack performs the ritual called ________.

a) National Suicide b) National freedom

c) National tragedy d) National carnival

8. ________ accidentally drowns in the river while Sula is playing

with him.

a) Shadrack b) Eva Peace

c) Jude Greene d) Chicken Little

9. The important theme of Dorris Lessing's story England Vs England

is _______.

a) Cultural conflict b) identity crisis

c) adaptability d) Social division

10. In 'A Correspondence Course' , Roland escapes from_______.

a) Pretoria prison b) London

c) Newyork

d) the African National Congress

Part B


11. a) Elaborate Showalter's definition of the term 'The Feminist

Critique' or 'The gynocritique'.

(or)

b) What are Elaine Showalter's views on woman as reader and

writer?

12. a) Write a critical appreciation of the poem 'Before you knew you

owned it'.

(or)

b) How does the Mother in the poem 'My Daughter's Boy Friend'

feel when her daughter is on the point of eloping with her lover?

13. a) Describe the world of Marginalized in Mahasweta Devi's play Mother

of 1084.

(or)

b) Discuss Violence as the theme of Mother of 1084.

14. a) How does Morrison define Selfhood and Womanhood in Sula?

(or)

b) Sketch the character of Sula Peace.

15. a) Write an essay on Charlie's attitude to life and the changes that it

undergoes.

(or)

b) Write an essay on Panna's relationship with the people around her

including her husband.

Part C


16. Critically analyse the theme of Anita Desai's essay 'War'?

17. Discuss the autobiographical elements present in Kamala Das's Poem

'My Grandmother's House'.

18. 'Mother of 1084' is a heart breaking and yet coldly analytical story of a

loving Mother – Elucidate.

19. Consider Sula as a feminist fable.

20. Write an essay on the love that springs up between Harriet and the

political prisoner, Roland Carter.




LITERARY CRITICISM


Part A


1. Which is the highest form of poetry according to Aristotle?

a) Tragedy b) Comedy

c) Epic d) Elegy

2. How many chapters are there in Aristotle's "Poetics"?

a) 24 b) 26 c) 34 d) 36

3. When was "Biographia Literaria" published?

a) 1800 b) 1817 c) 1819 d) 1822

4. Who applied Touchstone method to assess the quality of a poem?

a) F.R.Leavis b) Wilber Scott

c) Mathew Arnold d) Dr. Johnson

5. "Revaluation " is a work written by ________.

a) Northorp Frye b) T.S.Eliot

c) Dr.Johnson d) F.R. Leavis

6. Who introduced impersonal theory of poetry?

a) I.A.Richards b) T.S.Eliot

c) Ben Jonson d) Coleridge

7. Who established psychoanalytic criticism?

a) Freud b) Jung c) Keble d) F.R.Leavis

8. Cleanth Brooks is an exponent of ________ criticism.

a) Historical b) Formalistic

c) Psychological d) Sociological

9. "Hamlet and Oedipus" is a study made by _______.

a) Shakespeare b) Ernest Jones

c) Sophocles d) Freud

10. "Tension" is a term used in _______

a) Historical criticism b) Psychological criticism

c) Archetypal criticism d) Formalistic criticism

Part B


11. a) Comment on Aristotle's views on epic.

(or)

b) What are the arguments given by Sidney to depend poetry?

12. a) Write short notes on Wordsworth's choice of language.

(or)

b) State Coleridge's views on fancy and imagination.

13. a) Briefly explain the term "dissociation of sensibility".

(or)

b) Bring out the views of I.A.Richards on practical criticism.

14. a) What is psychological criticism? Illustrate with examples.

(or)

b) How is formalistic approach relevant to contemporary literature?

15. a) Explain the tenets of archetypal criticism.

(or)

b) Elucidate if the historical context is necessary to interpret a text.

Part C


16. Elaborate the components of tragedy as viewed by Aristotle.

17. Discuss Wordsworth's definition of poetry and its diverse aspects.

18. Which writers form the great tradition of English novelists according to

F.R.Leavis?

19. How does T.S.Eliot relate religion and literature through moralistic

approach?

20. How do race, gender and class constitute towards sociological criticism?






Part A


1. English is a ________ language.

a) international b) regional

c) national d) none of the above

2. Kachru divides English in the world into _______ circles.

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

3. Dr.West modified the _________ for giving greater importance to

reading.

a) new method b) direct method

c) translation method d) group method

4. In the _______ method there is no use of mother tongue in the

classroom.

a) direct b) new

c) translation d) substitution

5. Reading aloud is an art and _______ cannot be learnt this way.

a) Pronunciation b) Silent reading

c) Understanding d) Vocabulary

6. ________ vocabulary is the set of words,the pupil has to use in his

everyday speech and writing.

a) Passive b) Active

c) Specialised d) Essential

7. ________ is the ability to locate specific information or fact.

a) skimming b) scanning

c) writing d) speaking

8. Teaching ______ comprehension will have three phases.

a) listening b) reading

c) writing d) speaking

9. Films help to improve the _______ of spoken English.

a) Pronunciation b) Comprehension

c) information d) Custom

10. ________ offered graded lessons in pronunciation.

a) A.S.Hornby b) F.T.Wood

c) Michael Swan d) O‟ Connor

Part B


11. a) What features of English, do you think, have made it acceptable

to different speech communities in the world?

(or)

b) Write a short note on Bloom‟s Taxonomy of objectives in the

cognitive domain.

12. a) Write a short note on the principles of Grammar –Translation

method.

(or)

b) Give a write up about Dr.West‟s views on the importance of

teaching of English.

13. a) Write a short note on the methods of correcting mistakes.

(or)

b) Bring out the purpose of the teaching of extensive reader.

14. a) What are the merits and demerits of reading aloud.

(or)

b) What are the components of reading comprehension?

15. a) Write a short note on the uses of a language laboratory.

(or)

b) Examine the uses of Audio –Visual aids.

Part C


16. Review English as an international language.

17. What are the principles on which Direct method is based on? Explain its

salient features.

18. Explain the techniques and strategies involved in teaching of poetry.

19. Describe the four essential skills in learning English language.

20. How can computer be used for language teaching? Point out the

advantages and disadvantages.

Part B


4. Explain in detail about the sources of values and value of values.

5. Give elaborate notes on impact of Suicide and its Remedial

measures.

6. Describe in detail about the Mahatma Gandhi as the symbol of

Ahimsa.

7. Explain in detail about Human rights in India context and write

about the protection of Human Rights.

8. What are the problems developed for women and their health –

Explain.

Question Code : A03102 Sub Code: BCNVE61



VALUE EDUCATION

Time : 2 Hrs B.A / B. Sc / B.Com / B.B.A Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. a) Write about the Spiritual Values.

(or)

b) Give an account on Good manners.

2. a) Write in detail about the message from the life of Subramaniya

Bharathi.

(or)

b) Write short note on impacts of drug addiction.

3. a) Brief an account on Human Rights organisations and its functions.

(or)

b) What are the violences occur against women –Explain.

Sub Code: UZOCR61



BIOTECHNOLOGY

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. DNA Ligase is a ________.

a) Breaking enzyme b) Joining enzyme

c) Releasing enzyme d) Removing enzyme

2. The polymerase chain reaction machine is also called as_______.

a) Thermo cycler b) Gene gun

c) Photocopier d) Gene maker

3. Hepatitis B vaccine produced in the host ________.

a) E.coli b) Yeast

c) Drosophila d) Animal cells

4. Interleukin is also known as _______.

a) Plasma cell factor b) Natural killer cell growth factor

c) B – cell growth factor d) T – cell growth factor

5. In monoclonal antibody technology, hybridoma is a fusion products of a

lymphocyte and a ________.

a) Hybridoma cell b) Natural killer cell

c) Myeloma cell d) Lymphoblast

6. The transgenic goldfish was first developed by using _______.

a) Human growth hormone gene b) Antifreeze gene

c) Fish growth hormone gene d) Interleukin gene

7. The fusion of isolated protoplasts of two different plants is known as

________.

a) Hybrid protoplast b) Cybrids

c) Haploids d) Somatic hybridization

8. In transgenic cotton technology, the bxn gene and crylAc gene

introduced into cotton varieties through ________.

a) Virus based vector b) Plant based vector

c) Agrobacterium based vector

d) Yeast artificial chromosome based vector

9. Super bug is constructed from the bacterium.

a) Pseudomonas putida b) Pseudomonas fluorescens

c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Pseudomonas testosteroni

10. Spirulina is effectively cultured in

a) Lake b) Pond c) Lagoon d) Pool

Part B


11. a) Compare and contrast plasmids and bacteriophages.

(or)

b) Analyze the different strategies used in gene transfer methods.

12. a) Write a brief account on the production of Interferons.

(or)

b) Give an account on production process of recombinant hepatitis B

vaccine.

13. a) Elaborate the gene cloning strategies with suitable example.

(or)

b) Critically analyze the production of transgenic fish.

14. a) Describe the importance of protoplast fusion.

(or)

b) Explain the role of electroporation in transgenic plant production.

15. a) Give a detailed account on applications of Spirulina.

(or)

b) List the significance of super bug and its construction process.

Part C


16. Write an account on restriction endonucleases with examples.

17. Describe the types of Interferons and their applications.

18. Discuss the production and applications of monoclonal antibodies.

19. What is microbial insecticide? Write short note on mode of action of Bt

toxins.

20. Discuss the principle and applications of immobilizing enzymes.

Question Code : A23110 Sub Code: BZOCR62 / UZOCR62



PHYSIOLOGY


Part A


1. Which is the muscular organ?

a) Oesophagus b) Throat

c) Pharynx d) Tongue

2. Which one of the following is the region of small intestine?

a) Ileum b) Colon

c) Villus d) Appendix

3. Vascularized air sae is _______.

a) Gill b) Lung

c) Skin d) Trachea

4. Stigma is a part of _______.

a) Trachea b) Epipodite

c) Book lung d) Skin

5. The excretory product of most of the aquatic animals is ______.

a) Amino acid b) Uric acid

c) Ammonia d) Urea

6. The first step in urine formation is ______.

a) Ultrafiltration b) Absorption

c) Secretion d) Dialysis

7. The part of a neuron looks like a cell is called _______.

a) Axon b) Dendron

c) Cyton d) Fibrils

8. Cochlea is a part of ________.

a) Outer air b) Middle air

c) Inner air d) Eye

9. Which is the mastergland of an endocrine system?

a) Thyroid b) Pituitary

c) Testis d) Ovary

10. Hormonal disorder due to pituitary tumour is called _______.

a) Gigantism b) Dwarfism

c) Aeromegaly d) Myxoedema

Part B


11. a) Enumerate the role of enzyme in protein digestion.

(or)

b) Comment on digestive glands.

12. a) Mention about the various types of respiration.

(or)

b) Give notes on respiratory organs.

13. a) Comment on dieresis.

(or)

b) List the composition of Urine.

14. a) Mention about the types of neurons.

(or)

b) Discuss about the physiology of vision.

15. a) Write the functions of Hormones.

(or)

b) Give an account of Thymus.

Part C


16. Write about the steps in process of digestion.

17. Describe the structure of Human heart.

18. Discuss the mechanism of muscle contraction.

19. Explain the mechanism of hearing.

20. Give an account on Adrenal gland.

Question Code : A23304 Sub Code: BZOME61 / UZOME61



MEDICINAL BOTANY


Part A


1. The first written record of Indian herbal medicine was first appeared in

the year ______.

a) 3500 – 1800 B.C. b) 2000 – 1500 B.C.

c) 2400 – 2000 B.C. d) 2800 – 2400 B.C.

2. Who among the following is an ancient Indian herbalist?

a) Susrata b) Bhaskara

c) Samudra Gupta d) Bimbisara

3. Vincristine is obtained from _______.

a) Catharanthus roseus b) Digitalis purpurea

c) Dioscorea compositae d) Aegle mermelos

4. Saraparin is used for treating ________.

a) Nerve disorders b) Heart disorders

c) Skin diseases d) Brain disorders

5. Hemidesmus indicus belongs to the family _________.

a) Meliaceae b) Lamiaceae

c) Asclepiadaceae d) Rutaceae

6. Tulsi is botanically known as ________.

a) Albizzia lebbeck b) Azadirachta indica

c) Ocimum sanctum d) Aloe vera

7. Eczema can be cured by ______.

a) Piper nigrum b) Zingiber officinale

c) Aloe vera d) Phyllanthus niruri

8. Cynodon dactylon belongs to the family ________.

a) Liliaceae b) Poaceae

c) Piperaceae d) Euphorbiaceae

9. Identify the state which is the largest producer of sandal wood oil in

India.

a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Karnataka d) Tamil Nadu

10. Kalappaikilangu is botanically known as _________.

a) Aloe vera b) Gloriosa superba

c) Santalum album d) Eucalyptus globulus

Part B


11. a) Trace the history of herbal medicine.

(or)

b) Explain drugs? Give any two examples for drugs of plant origin.

12. a) Highlight the medicinal importance of Digitalis purpurea.

(or)

b) Explain the medicinal importance of Sarasaparilla.

13. a) Bring out the medicinal importance of Cassia angustifolia.

(or)

b) Explain the medicinal importance of Azadirachta indica.

14. a) Give an account of the phytochemical constituents of Emblica

officinalis.

(or)

b) Describe the medicinal importance of Zingiber officinale.

15. a) How will you extract the Eucalyptus oil by steam distillation method?

(or)

b) Highlight the uses of Sandal wood oil.

Part C


16. Write an essay on the Ayurveda system of medicine.

17. Describe the sources and medicinal uses of cardiac glycosides studied by

you.

18. Give an account of the botanical features and medicinal features of

Aegle mermelos.

19. Discuss the pharmaceutical importance of Piper nigrum.

20. Explain the cultivation practices of Catharanthus roseus.

Part B


6. Explain the shed requirements for various programme in a Poultry

farm?

7. Describe the Management of layers.

8. Write down the Forced Moulting in a farm.

9. Briefly Explain the Parasitic diseases in a Poultry farm.

10. Describe the Ranikhet disease in a Poultry farm.

Question Code : A23405 Sub Code: BZOSB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

POULTRY SCIENCE


Part A


1. Explain the layout of a Layer farm?

2. Describe the types of waterers in a Poultry farm?

3. Write down the winter Management of a farm?

4. Explain the lighting in a Poultry farm?

5. Describe the Fowl Pox Vaccine?

Part B


6. Describe the cultivation method of white button mushrooms.

7. Write an account on spawn running, fruit body production and

harvesting of Oyster mushroom.

8. Explain the cultivation methods of Paddy straw mushroom.

9. Discuss the various preservation methods of mushroom.

10. Describe the following recipes:

a) Mushroom Soup

b) Mushroom Omelette

c) Mushroom Samosa.

Question Code : A23406 Sub Code: BZOSB62



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

MUSHROOM TECHNOLOGY


Part A


1. Discuss the importance of mushrooms.

2. Describe the harvesting and packing of white button mushroom.

3. Write the facilities required for Paddy straw mushroom house.

4. Explain the polybag method of Oyster mushroom.

5. Describe the mushroom curry.

Question Code : A30116 Sub Code: BCOCR63



BUSINESS LAW - II

Time : 3 Hrs B.Com Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. The word „bailment‟ means _________

a) to receive b) to deliver

c) to forget d) to find

2. The finder of goods _______ .

a) has a right of lien over the goods for his expenses

b) can mix with his own goods

c) need not find the true owner

d) can use the goods

3. _________ is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order

signed by the maker .

a) Promissory note b) Notes

c) Bill of Exchange d) Hundis

4. _______ instrument is an incomplete instrument in some aspect.

a) An inchoate b) Escrow

c) Fictitious d) Clean

5. The term of service for Central Consumer Protection Council is _____

years.

a) 5 b) 10 c) 2 d) 3

6. The Chairman of State Consumer Protection council is _______.

a) Chief Minister b) Governor

c) Consumer Affairs Mniister d) High Court Judge

7. The consideration for which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the

assured against the risk is called _________.

a) Policy b) Premium

c) Reinsurance d) double insurance

8. The doctrine of subrogation is a corollary to the principle of ______.

a) Guarantee b) Insurance

c) Indemnity d) Causa proxima

9. Competition Commission of India has its headquarters at ________.

a) Indore b) Kolkata

c) Mumbai d) New Delhi

10. The penalty for making false statement shall not be less than

________.

a) 5 lakhs b) 50 lakhs

c) 5 crores d) 50 crores

Part B


11. a) Who is the finder of lost goods? What are his rights and

obligations ?

(or)

b) Under what circumstances a contract of bailment gets terminated?

12. a) What are the types of crossing ? Explain in detail.

(or)

b) Who are the parties to Bill of Exchange and Promissory note ?

13. a) Discuss State consumer protection council.

(or)

b) What are the objectives of Central consumer protection council ?

14. a) Write a short note on Nature of Contract of Insurance.

(or)

b) What is reinsurance ? Explain.

15. a) State the reasons for passing Competition Act 2002.

(or)

b) What are the powers of Central Government with respect to

miscellaneous.

Part C


16. Discuss the rights of bailor and bailee.

17. Briefly classify the negotiable instruments.

18. Explain about Unfair trade Practices.

19. Write shot notes on i) Causa Proxima ii) Subrogation

20. Discuss the duties, powers and functions of competition commission of

India.

Question Code : A31116 Sub Code: BCACR63



E - COMMERCE

Time : 3 Hrs B.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. Which of the following describes E–Commerce?

a) Doing business electronically b) Doing business

c) Sale of goods d) All of the above

2. E – Business Transaction through the _______.

a) Marketing b) Multiple way

c) Online d) None of these

3. B2B Transaction is _______.

a) Business to Business b) Business to Banking

c) Bank to Bank d) Basic to Business

4. The expansion of URL is _______.

a) Unified Resource Location b) Uniform Resource Locator

c) Uniform Revise Location d) Unified Revise Location

5. MAN refers to ______ area network.

a) Maximum b) Monitor

c) Major d) Metropolitan

6. EPS is an Expansion of _______.

a) Everytime Process Symbol b) Entertime Paper System

c) Electronic Payment System d) All the above

7. E –Cash Means_______.

a) Electronic Cash b) Employee Cash

c) Entry Cash d) None of these

8. Electronic Data Interchange is an exchange of ______ information.

a) Customer b) Structured Business

c) Product d) None of these

9. Workflow Automation is _______ and _____ Task.

a) Paper and electronic b) Element and Entry

c) Each and Every d) Buy and Sell

10. Online Advertisement helps to ________.

a) improve knowledge b) improve health

c) improve Financial d) improve business

Part B


11. a) Describe the Advantages and Disadvantages of E–Commerce.

(or)

b) Explain the various types of convergence.

12. a) Explain about Architectural Framework for Electronic

Commerce.

(or)

b) Describe the Features of WWW.

13. a) What is EDI? Write the Advantages of Electronic Data

Interchange.

(or)

b) What are the Risk for the Electronic Payment?

14. a) Explain the component of Supply Chain Management.

(or)

b) Discuss about the WorkFlow automation and coordination.

15. a) Describe the internal Commerce Architecture.

(or)

b) Decribe about recent Technology in E – Commerce.

Part C


16. Briefly Explain about Anatomy of E –Commerce Application.

17. Explain the market forces influencing the I –way.

18. Describe the important types of payment.

19. Briefly Explain the EDI Application in Business.

20. Explain about Online Advertising and Online Marketing.

Question Code : A30117 Sub Code: BCOCR64



INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT

Time : 3 Hrs B.Com Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. Investment made in real estate is a ______.

a) Real investment b) Financial investment

c) Non–Financial investment d) Intangible investment

2. Which one of the following is a contingent investment?

a) Recurring deposit b) Bonds

c) Equity shares d) Life Insurance Policy

3. The minimum number of shares to be applied for is ______.

a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400

4. Book building is managed mainly by ______.

a) Registrar b) Lead manager

c) Registrar and book runner d) Lead manager and book runner

5. The rolling settlement period introduced in the stock exchanges is

______.

a) T + 5 b) T + 7 c) T + 2 d) T + 15

6. Carry Forward transactions are permitted for a period of

a) 70 days b) 75 days c) 80 days d) 90 days

7. The promoters contribution should not be less than ______.

a) 25% of the issue size b) 20% of the issue size

c) 30% of the issue size d) 33% of the issue size

8. SEBI would not vert offer documents seeking listing on ______.

a) OTCEI b) NSE c) BSE d) ISE

9. NSDL, commented its operations in_______.

a) 1994 b) 1995 c) 1996 d) 1997

10. SEBI (Depository and Participants) Act was promulgated by the

Government in _______.

a) 1993 b) 1994 c) 1995 d) 1996

Part B


11. a) Explain the factors favourable for investment.

(or)

b) How Investment is differ from Speculation?

12. a) Define the new issue market. How is it related to the secondary

market?

(or)

b) Give an account of the recent trends in the primary market.

13. a) Explain the functions of stock exchange in India.

(or)

b) What is a carry forward transaction? Explain.

14. a) Who are underwriters? What are their functions?

(or)

b) State the important functions of SEBI.

15. a) What are the functions of NSDL?

(or)

b) Explain the depositary process.

Part C


16. What is Investment Management? Explain its scope.

17. Explain the functions of new issue market?

18. Explain the procedures for listing of securities on a stock exchange.

19. Explain in detail the SEBI guidelines for primary market.

20. Evaluate the performance of NSDL in the depository system..

Part B


6. Explain the various stages involved in personality development.

7. “Determination of biological factors of development of personality”

– Elucidate.

8. Discuss the various factors which affect the individual behavior of

personal traits.

9. Explain the following terms of personality development:

(i) Socio-psychological theory.

(ii) Traits theory

(iii) Self theory.

10. Describe the nature of personality traits.

Question Code : A30403 / A31403 Sub Code: BCOSB61 / BCASB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT

Time : 2 Hrs B.Com & B.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75

Part A


1. How does immaturity – maturity continuum differ from stage theories of

Prsonality Development?

2. Discuss the maturity characteristics of personality development.

3. What is a personality trait and what are the set-barrier to perpetual

accuracy?

4. What are the major factors shape the personality of an individual?

5. Explain the Immaturity characteristics of personality development.

18. The cash flows from two mutually exclusive projects X and Y are as

under

Year Project X

Rs.

Project Y

Rs.

0 (–) 44,000 (–) 54,000

1 – 7 12,000 14,500

Project life 7 years 7 years

Calculate profitability index at 15% discount rate and suggest which

project is profitable?

19. What are the determinants of working capital requirements ?

20. Du Preez Ltd. gives you the following information

Earnings per share – Rs.45

Cost of capital – 18 %

Return on investment – 18 %

Ascertain the market value per share using Gordon‟s Model,

if the pay out is a) 30% b) 60% c) 90%

Question Code : A30114 / A31114 Sub Code: BCOCR61 / BCACR61





Part A


1. The appropriate objective of an enterprise is _______.

a) Maximisation of sales b) Maximisation of profits

c) Maximisation of owner's wealth d) Maximisation of production

2. Traditional approach confine finance function only to _______.

a) utilize funds b) raise funds

c) make profits d) make sales

3. Financial leverage is important for ______planning.

a) profit b) investment c) sales d) dividend

4. ________ refers to make up of firm‟s capitalisation.

a) capital gearing b) capital structure

c) working capital d) EBIT

5. According to _________ approach , a firm can increase its value by

increasing the proportion of debt in its financing.

a) Net income b) Net operating income

c) MM d) Traditional

6. According to MM approach the total value of the firm is _______.

a) low b) high c) static d) medium

7. _________ refers to the firm‟s investment in total current assets.

a) receivables b) factoring

c) gross working capital d) net working capital

8. The permanent working capital is also called as________.

a) core current assets b) net current assets

c) fixed assets d) core fixed assets

9. An extra dividend paid to shareholders from surplus profit is_____.

a) rights issue b) cash dividend

c) bonus shares d) interim dividend

10. _____ dividends are paid in the form of some assets other than cash

a) scrip b) bond c) cash d) property

Part B


11. a) Discuss the aims of finance function.

(or)

b) What are financial decisions?

12. a) A firm sells is product at Rs.12 per unit. Its variable cost is Rs.8

per unit. Present sales are 1,000 units. Calculate the operating

leverage in each of the following situations.

1. When fixed cost is Rs.1,000



(or)

b) What is meant by over capitalisation ? What are the causes for

over capitalisation ?

13. a) Project K requires an investment of Rs.20,00,000 and yieds after

tax and depreciation as follows :

Year 1 2 3 4 5

Profit after tax and

depreciation

1,00,000 1,50,000 2,50,000 2,60,000 1,60,000

At the end of 5th

year the plant can be sold for Rs.1,60,000. You are

required to calculate ARR.

(or)

b) Enumerate the steps involved in capital budgeting process.

14. a) What is working capital ? Discuss its concepts.

(or)

b) Kamath Ltd is engaged in customer retailing. You are required to

estimate is working capital requirements from the following data.

Projected annual sales Rs.6,50,000

Percentage of net profit to cost of sales 25%

Average credit allowed to debtors 10 weeks

Average credit allowed by creditors 4 weeks

Average stock carrying(in terms of stock carrying) 8 weeks

Allow 20% for contingencies

15. a) Discuss the nature of dividend policy.

(or)

b) The following information relates to S Ltd.

EPS Rs.10

IRR 18 %

Cost of capital 20 %

Payout ratio 40 %

Compute the market price under Walter‟s model .

Part C


16. Discuss the role of finance manager.

17. The following particulars relate to two companies. You are required to

calculate the operating, financial and combined leverages of the two

companies :

X Ltd Y Ltd

Sales 4,00,000 8,00,000

Less : Variable Cost 1,60,000 2,40,000

Contribution 2,40,000 5,60,000

Less : Fixed Cost 1,28,000 2,80,000

Operating profit(EBIT) 1,12,000 2,80,000

Less: Interest 48,000 1,20,000

Profit before tax 64,000 1,60,000

Question Code : A30115 / A31115 Sub Code: BCOCR62 / BCACR62



INCOME TAX – II


Part A


1. How many exceptions are there to the provisions as regards Inter–head

set off?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

2. The only loss allowed to be carried forward among Incomes from other

sources is _______.

a) Loss from card games b) Loss due to lotteries

c) Loss from crossword puzzles

d) Loss on account of owning and maintaining race horses

3. What is the maximum mediclaim premium allowed to an individual

below 60 years if actual premium is more than that limit?

a) Rs.25,000 b) Rs.10,000

c) Rs.5,000 d) Rs.15,000

4. What is the tax exemption limit for an individual?

a) Rs.40,000 b) Rs.70,000

c) Rs.1,00,000 D) Rs.2,50,000

5. Tax on Dividends distributed by a company is payable by _______.

a) Share holder b) Company

c) No tax on dividends d) Government

1

6. Tax rate applicable to Indian companies is _______.

a) 20% b) 40% c) 30% d) 50%

7. There is no exemption limit and flat rate of tax is applicable to

_______.

a) individuals b) partnership firms

c) AOP d) Companies and partnership firms

8. Minimum Alternate Tax payable by companies is dependent on

______.

a) Gross profit b) Book profit

c) Cash profit d) Operating profit

9. The scheme of filling returns by salaries employees through their

employer is done by getting form _____.

a) No.10 b) No.12A c) No.16AA d) No.25C

10. Liability of an employer to deduct tax at source is _______.

a) voluntary b) absolute

c) optimal d) non– voluntary

Part B


11. a) The following are the particulars of income / loss of Mr.A. You

are required to set–off losses and carry forward and set–off where

necessary.

2

i) H.U.F. has paid Rs.12,000 as premium on the Life Insurance

Policies of Y & Z for Rs.2,00,000. Life Policies were taken in

2005.

ii) One of his major sons is working as Manager in a private

limited Company and he is getting a salary of Rs.60,000 p.a.

iii) Deposited Rs.2,000 in PPF on the name of Z.

18. A,B and C are partners in a firm assessed u/s 185 sharing profits and

losses equally. The following is the profit and loss account of the

firm.

Rs. Rs.

To Manufacturing

Expenses

9,000 By Gross Sales 50,000

To Establishment 6,000 By Interest on Securities

[Gross]

3,000

To Depreciation 3,000

To Sundry Expenses 4,000

To Salary to A 6,000

To Commission to B 4,000

To Interest on capital

A 1,000

B 2,000

C 3,000

6,000

To Net profit

A 5,000

B 5,000

C 5,000

15000

53,000 53,000

19. Describe the provisions Relating to Rectification of Mistake

[Section 154] in Assessment of income Tax Act .

20. Explain the penalties imposed under the Income Tax Act 1961 for

different defaults committed by Assessee‟s.

Assessment Year

2016–17

Rs.

Assessment Year

2017–18

Rs.

Income from salary

[computed]

15,000 15,000

Income from interest on

Securities [Gross]

5,000

5,000

Loss from business 53,000 15,000

Short–term capital gain 8,000 –––

Long–term capital gain

[Land]

21,000 –––

(or)

b) Explain the provisions relating 'set–off of losses'.

12. a) The total income of an individual [45 years old] computed under the

normal provisions of Income tax Act is Rs. 10,00,000. However, the

'adjusted total income' of the individual [computed as per Section

115JC[2]] amounted to Rs. 30,00,000. Calculate the Final Tax Liability

of the individual for Assessment Year 2017-18.

(or)

b) Write a brief note on the tax treatment of income received from

different institutions.

13. a) A,B and C are partners in a firm assessed as firm sharing profits and

losses in the proportion of 3:2:1. The firm‟s Profit and Loss Account for

the year ended 31st March, 2017. Showed a net profit of Rs. 1,17,360

after debiting inter-alia the following amounts:

i) Salary of Rs.4,000 paid to C.

ii) Rent of Rs.9,000 at A for the portion of building owned by A in

which the firm's office was situated.

iii) Interest on capital @ 10% is Rs.1,000; Rs.2,000 and Rs.3,000 to

A,B and C respectively.

iv) Commision on sale to B Rs.1,000.

3 6

v) Expenses on current repairs of the business premises belonging

to partner A Rs.1,000. The rent agreement does not contain any

provision regarding repair to the firm.

vi) Donation to Shri Sai Baba Sansthan Trust Shirdi (approved)

Rs.5,000.

The net profit of Rs. 1,17,360 included Rs. 10,400 from interest on

Government securities. Compute firm‟s total income for the

assessment year 2017-18. The deed was admitted along with return

and it provides for salary to C Rs. 4,000 p.a. and interest on capital

to partners @ 10% p.a. also compute partner‟s income chargeable

to tax under the head “Profits and Gains”.

(or)

b) The total income of a LLP/Firm, computed under the normal

provisions of Income Tax Act is Rs.15,00,000. However the

„adjusted total income‟ of the LLP [computed as per Section

115JC[2]] amounted to Rs. 30,00,000. Calculate the Final Tax

Liability of the LLP for Assessment Year 2017–18.

14. a) Explain : Best Judgement Assessment.

(or)

b) Describe the prescribed Forms for filing of Income [Rule 12 of

Income-tax Rules 1962 [Applicable for assessment year 2017-18].

15. a) State briefly the law relating to declaration of tax at sources.

(or)

b) The estimated tax liability [after deducting TDS] of Mr. Sanjeev

for the previous year 2016-17 is Rs. 1,00,000. Calculate advance

tax payable by him in various instalments during the previous

year 2016–17.

Part C


16. Determine the total income from following particulars:

Previous Year

2016–17

Rs.

Previous Year

2017–18

Rs.

House property income

[computed]

20,000 20,000

Salary income [computed] 1,80,000 1,90,000

Business Profit before

depreciation

40,000

1,20,000

Depreciation for the year 1,20,000 1,40,000

Capital Gain – short term 10,000 Nil

Income from Other sources 20,000 40,000

17. X is the Karta of a Hindu Undivided Family, Y and Z are his two major

sons. From the following particulars, compute the total income and tax

of H.U.F.

iv) The H.U.F. runs a business in cotton textiles. The net profit of the

business was Rs.2,11,000 after charging Rs.11,000 paid as salary to

Y and Z for their help in running the business.

v) Profit and Loss Account shows an entry of drawing of Rs.20,000.

vi) The assessee has failed to furnish satisfactory explanation regarding

a deposit of Rs.20,000 in the name of X.

vii) Remuneration received by Karta for acting as Director of a company

in which H.U.F. holds shares worth Rs.2 Lakhs; Rs.10,000.

viii) Interest on debentures received by H.U.F. Rs.6,944, Tax deducted at

sources Rs.1,736 [H.U.F did not submit PAN to deductor]

ix) Sale proceeds of a shop acquired in 1978, sold on 31.12.2016 for

Rs.4,05,250 Fair market value on 1.4.81 estimated to be Rs.25,000

[C.I.I for 1981 –82 is 100 and for 2016 – 17 is 1125]

5

4

18. a) If V is an inner product space and S1, S2 are subsets of V, then prove

that 1221 SSSS .

b) Apply Gram – Schmidt process to construct an orthonormal basis for

V3 ( ) with the standard inner product for the basis {v1, v2, v3} where

v1 = (1, 0, 1), v2 = (1, 3, 1) & v3 = (3, 2, 1).

19. Find the eigen values and eigen vectors of the matrix A =

113

351

311

20. Reduce the quadratic form 2x1 x2 – x1 x3 + x1 x4 – x2 x3 + x2 x4 – 2x3 x4

to the diagonal form using Lagrange’s method.

Question Code : A20111/A26111 Sub Code: BMACR61 / BMCCR61



LINEAR ALGEBRA

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc Maths and Maths(CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. If T is one – to – one and homomorphism then T is called _________

a) epimorphism b) monomorphism c) isomorphism d) kernel

2. If T : V V is defined by T () = then ker T = _________

a) V b) {1} c) {0} d) {–1}

3. L (L(S)) = _______

a) S b) L (S) c) V d)

4. The dimension of T (V) is called the ________ of T.

a) nullity b) basis c) rank d) infinite

5. V = ___________

a) V b) {0} c) {1} d)

6. In an orthonormal set S, x = ________ for all x S.

a) 1 b) 0 c) x d) none

7. If A and B are similar matrices then their determinants are _________

a) different b) 0 c) same d) equivalent

8. The characteristic roots of

10

01 A are __________

a) 0, 1 b) 1, 1 c) 0, 0 d) –1, –1

9. The set of all bilinear forms on V is dended by __________

a) L (V, F) b) L (F, V) c) L (V, V, F) d) L (V X V, F)

10. A quadratic form associated with a diagonal matrix of older n is of the

form a1 x12 + a2 x2

2 +…+ an xn

2 is known as _________ form.

a) canonical b) symmetric c) diagonal d) quadratic

Part B


11. a) Prove that the mapping defined by

T (a, b) = (2a – 3b, a + 4b) is a linear transformation.

(or)

b) Let A and B be the subspaces of a vector space V. Then prove that

AB = {0} iff every vector v A+B can be uniquely expressed in the

form v = a + b where a A, b B.

12. a) Prove that any set containing a linearly dependent set is also linearly

dependent.

(or)

b) Let V and W be vector spaces over a field F. Let T : V W be an

isomorphism. Then prove that T maps a basis of V onto a basis of W.

13. a) State and prove Triangle inequality in an inner product space.

(or)

b) If V is a finite dimensional inner product space and W is a subspace

of V, then prove that V = W W.

14. a) Find the sum and product of the eigen values of the matrix

311

421

443

without actually finding the eigen values.

(or)

b) Find the rank of the matrix A =

7012

7436

3124

15. a) Prove that a bilinear form f defined on V is symmetric iff its matrix

(aij) with respect to anyone basis {v1, v2, …, vn} is symmetric.

(or)

b) Find the matrix of the bilinear form f defined on V3( ) by

f (x,y) = x1y1 + x3y3 where x = (x1, x2, x3) and y = (y1, y2, y3) with

respect to (i) the standard basis and ii) {(1, 1, 0), (0, 1, 1), (1, 0, 1)}.

Part C


16. State and prove the fundamental theorem of homomorphism.

17. Let V be a vector space over a field F. Let S = {v1, v2, …, vn} V.

Then prove that the following are equivalent.

i) S is a basis for V ii) S is a maximal linearly independent set

iii) S is a minimal generating set.


UMACR61 / UMCCR62



COMPLEX ANALYSIS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc Maths and Maths(CA) Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. The complex form of C.R equation is _________

a) fx = – ify b) fx = ify c) fx = fy d) fx = – fy

2. yxixiz 2lim 1 = ________

a) 1 – i b) 2 + i c) 1 + i d) 2 – i

3. The transformation w = z + b is called ___________

a) translation b) rotation c) contraction d) inversion

4. If dcz

bazzT

then T() = ____________

a) b/d b) a/c c) b/c d) a/d

5. The parametric equation of the circle |z| = r is _________

a) z = reit b) z = rie

it c) z = e

it d) e

rit

6. The interior of a simple closed curve is _____

a) multiply connected b) simply connected

c) connected d) not simply connected

7. The singular points of )(

1

izz is

a) 0 and i b) i and – i c) 0 and 1 d) 1 and –1.

8. A pole of order 1 is called __________

a) Simple b) double c) single d) finite

9. The residue of cot z at z = 0 is __________

a) 1 b) 0 c) d) –1

10.

0 2 1x

dx __________

a) b) 2 c) / 2 d) /4

Part B


11. a) Prove that the functions f(z) and zf are simultaneously analytic.

(or)

b) Prove that u = 2x – x3 + 3xy

2 is harmonic and find its harmonic

conjugate. Also find the corresponding analytic function.

12. a) Prove that any bilinear transformation can be expressed as product

of translation, rotation, contraction and inversion.

(or)

b) Show that the transformation 24

45

z

zW maps that unit circle |z| = 1

into a circle of radius unity and centre – ½ .

13. a) State and prove Maximum modulus theorem.

(or)

b) State and prove Liouville’s theorem.

14. a) Find the Taylor’s series to represent 32

12

zz

zin |Z| < 2.

(or)

b) Find the Laurent’s series for 21 zz

zabout z = –2.

15. a) Find the poles of zzz

zzf

22

423

2

and determine the residues at

the poles.

(or)

b) Evaluate c zz

dzz

)3)(2(

2

where C is the circle |z| = 4.

Part C


16. Let f(z) = u (r, ) + iv (r, ) be differentiable at z = rei

0. Then prove

that

v

rr

u 1 and

v

u

rr

v

1. Also find

r

vi

r

urzf

2)(

17. Prove that any bilinear transformation preserves cross ratio.

18. Show that c

idzz 12

where C is the square vertices (0,0), (1, 0),

(1, 1) and (0, 1).

19. If 2)1)(3(

4

zz

zzf find Laurent’s series expansion in

i) 0 < |z – 1| < 4 and ii) |z – 1| > 4.

20. State and prove fundamental theorem of algebra.


UMACR63 / UMCCR63



GRAPH THEORY



1. The number of edges in Km,n is ________

a) m + n b) m – n c) mn d) m/n

2. r (3, 3) = _________

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) none of these

3. If x is a bridge of G then w (G – x) = __________

a) w (G) + 1 b) w (G) – 1 c) w (G) d) w (G) + 2

4. In any graph which is true

a) k b) k c) k d) k

5. In any Eulerian graph the degree of every points _________

a) even b) odd c) prime d) none of these

6. Any acyclic (p, q) graph with ________ is tree.

a) p + 1 = q b) q + 1 = p c) p – 1 = q d) p + q = 1

7. The number of perfect matchings in complete bipartite graph kn, n is

a) n b) 2n c) n ! d) 2n!

8. If G is a maximal planar (p, q) graph then ________

a) q = 3p b) q = 3p – 3 c) q = 3p + 6 d) q = 3p – 6

9. For any independent set S of points of a critical graph G, (G – S) =

__________

a) (G) – 1 b) (G) + 1 c) (G) d) (G) – 2.

10. If G is a (p, q) graph, the coefficient of p–1

in f (G, ) is ________

a) q b) – q c) p d) – p

Part B


11. a) Prove that r (m, n) = r (n, m).

(or)

b) Prove that 1 +

1 = p.

12. a) If a partition p = (d1, d2, …., dp) with d1 d2 ….. dp is graphical

then

p

iid

1

is even and

k p

kiiii dkkkd

1 1

,min1 for 1 k p.

(or)

b) If A is the adjacency matrix of a graph with V = { v1, v2, …vp}.

Prove that for any n 1 the (i, j)th

entry of An is the number of vi

– vj

walks of length n in G.

13. a) Prove that C (G) is well defined.

(or)

b) Prove that every non trivial tree G has atleast two vertices of degree 1.

14. a) Let G be a k-regular bipartite graph with k > 0. Then prove that G has

a perfect matching.

(or)

b) Define planar graph. Prove that the graphs k5 and k3, 3 are not planar.

15. a) Define k – critical. Prove that if G is k – critical then (G) k –1.

(or)

b) Define chromatic number. Prove that for any graph G, + 1.

Part C


16. Let G1 be a (p1, q1) graph and G2 a (p2, q2) graph then prove that

i) G1 U G2 is a (p1 + p2, q1 + q2) graph

ii) G1 + G2 is a (p1 + p2, q1 + q2, p1 p2) graph

iii) G1 x G2 is a (p1 p2, q1 p2 + q2 p1) graph.

17. A partition P = (d1, d2, ...., dp) of an even number into p parts with

p – 1 d1 d2 .... dp is graphical iff the modified partition

p1 = (d2 –1, d3 –1, ...., 1

1dd –1, 2

1dd , .... dp) is graphical.

18. State and prove Charatal theorem.

19. State and prove Hall’s marriage theorem.

20. State and prove four colour theorem.

Part C


16. A continuous random variable X is defined by

31316

1

112616

1

13)3(16

1)(

2

2

2

xifx

xifx

xifxxf

17. An insurance agent accepts policies of 5 men all of identical age and in

good health. The probability that a man of this age will be alive 30

years hence is 2/3. Find the probability that in 30 years. i) All five men

ii) atleast one man iii) atmost three will be alive,

18. A random sample of 500 apples was taken from a large consignment

of apples and 65 were found to be bad. Find the S.E of the population

of bad ones in a sample of this size. Hence deduce that the percentage

of bad apples in the consignment almost certainly lies between 8.5 and

17.5.

19. Fit a Poisson distribution for the following data of test the goodness of

fit.

x: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Total

y: 273 70 30 7 7 2 1 390

20. Three varieties of cows of same age group are treated with four

different types of fodders. The yields of milk in decilitres are given

below. Perform an analysis of variance and check whether there is any

significance difference between the yields of different varieties of

cows due to different types of fodders.

Varieties

of cows

Fodders

F1 F2 F3 F4

C1 61 63 66 68

C2 62 64 67 69

C3 63 63 68 69

Question Code : A20304 Sub Code: BMAME61



ADVANCED STATISTICS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The Standard deviation of the random variable X is 8 and its mean is 2

then ][ 2xE is __________

a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 0

2. For a discrete random variable X, 2 = 0 and 21 = 74 then the mean of

the random variable is _________

a) 64 b) –8 c) 8 d) 8

3. Mode of the biaoncial distribution B (7, ) is _________

a) ¼ b) 29/4 c) 7/4 d) 1 and 2

4. If X is a Poisson variable with P(X = 0) = P(X = 1) = C, then the value

of C is______

a) e b) log e c) log

e

1 d)

e

1

5. Standard error of number of successes is given by __________

a) n

pq b) npq c) n p q d)

q

np

6. Large sample theory is applicable if _________

a) N > 30 b) N < 30 c) N = 30 d) N < 50

Verify that : i) the area under

curve is unity.

ii) also show that the

mean in zero.

7. The calculated value of 2 is _______

a) always positive b) always negative

c) zero d) either positive or negative

8. Student’s t – distribution was discovered by __________

a) Karl Pearson b) Laplace c) Fisher d) Gosset

9. All the ______ used in the analysis of variance table can be expressed

interms of the row totals and grand total.

a) change of scale b) ratio

c) sum of squares d) change of origin

10. The concept of Latin square is used when we have ________ criteria

classification.

a) two b) one c) three d) none

Part B


11. a) A random variable X, has the probability function

xxp

2

1 , x = 1, 2, 3, …. Find i) mgf ii) mean

(or)

b) Let X have the pdf

otherwise

xifx

xf

0

4218

2

Find i) E (x) ii) E [(x + 2)2 ]

12. a) If X is normally distributed with zero mean and unit variance find

E [x2].

(or)

b) Assuming that are in 80 births in a case of twins. Calculate the

probability of 2 or more births of twins on a day when 30 births occur

using i) binomial distribution ii) Poisson distribution

13. a) A die is thrown 10000 times and a throw of 1 or 2 was obtained 4200

times. On the assumption of random throwing do the data indicate an

unbiased one?

(or)

b) A sample of 400 individuals is found to have a mean of 67.47. Can it

be reasonably regarded as a sample from a large population with mean

67.39 and S.D. 1.3?

14. a) A random sample of 10 boys has the following IQ 70, 120, 110, 101,

88, 83, 95, 98, 107, 100. Do these data support the assumption of a

population mean IQ of 100.

(or)

b) Prove that

k

i

k

i i

i

i

ii ne

O

e

eO

1 1

22

2 where there are K set of

theoretical and observed values with the total frequency n.

15. a) The following table gives the results of experiments on 4 varieties of

crops in 5 blocks of plots. Prepare the table of analysis of variance to

test the significance of difference between the yields of the 4 varieties

Block Variety 1 2 3 4 5

A 32 34 35 35 37

B 34 33 36 37 35

C 31 34 35 32 36

D 29 26 30 28 29

(or) b) A tea company appoints 4 salesman A, B, C, D and observes their sales

in 3 seasons summer, monsoon and winter. The figures of their sales in

lakhs of rupees are given below.

Salesmen A B C D

Season 36

Summer 36 36 21 35

Monsoon 26 28 29 29

Winter 28 29 31 32

Carry out analysis of variance for i) Salesmen ii) Seasons.

Part C

Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks) 16. In a factory, there are six jobs to perform, each of which should go

through two machines A and B, in the order A, B. The processing timings

(in hours) for the jobs are given here. You are required to determine the

sequence performing the jobs that would minimize the total elapsed time T.

what is the value of T?

Job : J1 J2 J3 J4 J5 J6

Machine A : 1 3 8 5 6 3

Machine B : 5 6 3 2 2 10

17.Obtain the optimal strategies for both-persons and the value of the game

for zero-sum two –person game whose payoff matrix is as follows:

05

22

14

61

53

31

18 Solve the following game. Player B

IVIIIIII

Player A III

II

I

0212

1021

1324

19. A contractor has to supply 10,000 bearings per day to an automobile

manufacturer. He finds that when he starts a production run, he can produce

25,000 bearings per day. The holding cost of a bearing in stock is Rs. 0.02

per year. Set-up cost of production is Rs 18. How frequently should the

production run be made?

20. A barber shop has space to accommodate only 10 customers. He can

serve only one person at a time. If a customer comes to his shop and find it

full, he goes to the next shop. Customers randomly arrive at an average rate

10 per hour and the barber’s service time is negative exponential with an

average of 5 minutes per customer. Find P0 and Pn.




OPERATIONS RESEARCH



1. In sequence problems

a) all jobs are completely known and ready for processing

b) jobs are processed sequentially

c) total elapsed time is determined by the point of time at which the first

of the n jobs goes to machine A until the time when the last job comes off

machine B

d) all of the above

2. Dynamic programming problem

a) Cannot be dealt with non-linear constraints.

b) Can be solved simplex method.

c). is solved starting from the initial stage to the next till the final stage is

reached.

d) Can be solved by using Monte- Carlo method.

3. The pay-off value for which each player in a game always selects the

same strategy is called the

a) equilibrium point b) saddle point

c) both a) and b) d) none of the above.

4. The size of the pay-off matrix of a game can be reduced by using the

principle of

a) Dominance. b) Rotation reduction

c) Game inversion d) Game transposes

5. For a two person game with A and B, the minimizing and maximizing

players, the optimum strategies are:

a) Minimax for A and Maximin for B

b) Maximax for A and Minimax for B

c) Minimin for A and Maximin for B

d) Maximin for A and Minimax for B

6. A game is said to be fair, if

a) Upper value is more than lower value of the game.

b) upper and lower values of the game are not equal

c) upper and lower values of the game are same and zero


7. The purpose of safety stock is to

a) replace failed units with good ones

b) eliminate the possibility of a stockout

c) eliminate the likelihood of a stockout due to erroneous inventory

tally

d) control the likelihood of a stockout due to the variability of demand

during lead time

8. If unit cost raises, will optimum order quantity the total inventory cost is

a) increases b) decreases

c) either increases or decreases d) None of the above

9. If λ = 4 per hour and µ = 12 per hour in an (M|M|1):(∞/F1F0) queueing

system, P0 =

a) 121

81

b)

121

71

c)

121

91

d)

121

101

10. Multiple servers may be

a) in parallel b) in series

c) in combination of parallel and series d) all of the above

Part B

Answer ALL the questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )

11.a) Discuss sequencing problem.

(or)

b) Explain the elements that characterize a sequencing problem.

12. a) Solve the game whose pay-off matrix is given by

Player B

321 BBB

Player A 3

2

1

A

A

A

151

340

131

(or)

b) Determine the range of the value of p and q that will make the pay-

off element a22, a saddle point for the game whose pay-off matrix is

given below:

Player B

321 BBB

Player A 3

2

1

A

A

A

84

710

542

p

q

13. a) Explain the algebraic method for solving a rectangular game

(or) b) Discuss iterative method of approximate solution

14. a) what are all major reasons to carrying inventories?

(or)

b) Determine an EOQ with no shortages

15. a) A T.V repairman finds that the time spent on his jobs has an

exponential distribution with mean 30 minutes. If he repairs sets in the order

in which they came in, and if the arrival of sets is approximately Poisson

with an average rate of 10 per 8 hours day, what is repairman’s expected

idle time each day? How many jobs are ahead of the average set just

brought in?

(or)

b) Explain operating characteristic of a queueing system.

Part B


6. State and prove some properties of lattices.

7. Let (L, , ) and ( ) be two lattices. Prove that (L, x M, , ) is

a lattice.

8. Prove the following:

i) any chain is modular ii) every chain is a distributive lattice.

9. Prove that a lattice, L is a modular if and only if none of its sub lattices

is isomorphic to the pentagon lattice N5.

10. State and prove De Morgan’s Laws for Boolean algebra.

Question Code : A20404/A26404 Sub Code: BMASB61/ BMCSB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

LATTICES AND BOOLEAN ALGEBRAS

Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc Maths and Maths(CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Let (L, ) be a lattice. For any a, b L, prove that the following are

equivalent:

i) a b b) a b = b and iii) a b = a

2. In any lattice (L, ), prove that the operation and are isotone.

3. Prove that a lattice L is modular if any only if for all x, y, z, L,

(x (y z )) (y z) = (x (y z)) (y z).

4. In a distributive lattice, prove that the following are equivalent:

i) a b x a b ii) x = (a x) (b x) (a b).

5. Express the polynomial p (x1, x2, x3) = x1 v x2 in an equivalent sum

of – products canonical form in three variables x1, x2 and x3.

19. Calculate Break- Even point from the following particulars.

Rs.

Fixed expenses 1,50,000

Variable cost per unit 10

Selling price per unit 15

20. Prepare a production budget for three months ending March 31, 2016

for a factory producing four products on the basis of the following

information.

Type

of

product

Estimated stock

on January 1, 2016

(Units)

Estimated Sales

during January-

March,2016 (Units)

Desired closing

stock March 31,2016

(Units)

A 2,000 10,000 5000

B 3000 15000 4000

C 4000 13000 3000

D 5000 12,000 2,000

Question Code : A40114 Sub Code: BBNCR61





Part A


1. The term Management Accounting first coined in -------------.

a) 1960 b) 1950 c) 1945 d) 1955

2. The use of management accounting is ___________.

a) Optional b) Compulsory

c) Legally obligatory d) Compulsory to some and optional to others

3. The relationship between two financial variables can be expressed in:

a) Pure ratio b) Percentage

c) Rate or time d) Either of above

4. Profit for the objective of calculating a ratio may be taken as

a) Profit before tax but after interest b) Profit before interest and tax

c) Profit after interest and tax d) All of these

5. Which statement is prepared in the process of funds flow analysis?

a) Schedule of changes in working capital b) Funds flow statement

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

6. Cash flow Statement is based upon --------------.

a) Credit basis of accounting b) Accrual basis of accounting

c) Cash basis of accounting d) None of these

7. Marginal cost is taken as equal to

a) Prime cost plus all variable overheads

b) Prime cost minus all variable overheads

c) Variable overheads d) None of these

8. Under absorption costing, managerial decisions are based on ----------

a) Contribution b) Profit volume ratio

c) Profit d) None

9. R and D Budget and Capital expenditure budget are examples of --------

a) Short-term budget b) Current budget

c) Long-term budget d) None of these

10. A Budgeting process which demands each manager to justify his entire

budget in detail from beginning is ---------------.

a) Functional budget b) Zero base budget

c) Master budget d) Flexible budget

Part B


11. (a) List out the disadvantages of Management Accounting.

(or)

(b) What is Comparative Balance Sheet? What is Comparative

Income Statement?

12. a) Bring out the demerits of Ratio analysis.

(or)

b) From the following details, find out Current Assets.

Current ratio 2:5; Liquid ratio 1.5; Working Capital Rs.90,000

13. a) Bring out the demerits of Funds flow statement.

(or)

b) Outline the steps involved in the preparation of Cash Flow

Statement.

14. a) Write down the merits of Marginal Costing.

(or)

b) Write down the assumptions of Break-even analysis.

15. a) Write down the demerits of Budgetary control.

(or)

b) Spell out the steps involved in Budgetary Control.

Part C


16. Discuss the functions of Management Accounting.

17. Define the following:

(i) Current ratio (ii) Liquid ratio

(iii) Debt-equity ratio (iv) Net Profit ratio

18. Discuss the merits and demerits of Cash Flow Statement.





Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A. Max. Marks: 75

Part A

Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks

1. _______objective is the department’s level of service must be

tailored to fit the organization.

a) Social b) Organizational c) Functional d) Personal

2. _______aspects is concerned with company’s relation with the

employees.

a) Personnel b) Welfare

c) Industrial Relation d) Organizational Behaviour

3. _____ job descriptions is the immediate product of job analysis

process

a) Job analysis b) Job specification

c) Job description d) Job enrichment

4. ______ is the process of searching for prospective employees and

stimulating them to apply for the jobs in the organization.

a) Recruitment b) Selection c) Placement d) Induction

5. _____of performances is an increasingly popular technique of

management development.

a) Sensitivity training b) Role play

c) Brain storming d) Simulation

6. ______ methods is a combination of time and piece wage system.

a) Time Wage System b) Piece Wage System

c) Balance d) None

7. ______is a very powerful weapon used by the trade union to get

their demands accepted.

a) Industrial relation b) Industrial disputes

c) Strike d) Lockout

8. ______ causes is dissatisfaction with jobs and personal life results

in to industrial conflicts.

a) Social b) Psychological c) Political d) None

9. ______ method attempts to measure worker’s performance in terms

of certain events that occur in the course of work.

a) Forced Choice b) Critical Incident

c) Free Essay d) Field review

10. _____ is the supervisor writes a report about the employee which is

based on his assessment.

a) Free Essay b) Critical incident c) Forced choice d) none

Part B


11. a) Discuss the objectives of HRM.

(or)

b) Write the features of Human resources planning?

12. a) What are characteristics of a job description?

(or)

b) Describe the process of recruitment.

13. a) Explain the various stages involved in the process training.

(or)

b) What do you understand by Time wage system?

14. a) Explain the approaches to industrial relation.

(or)

b) What are the causes for poor industrial relations?

15. a) What is performance appraisal? Describe its objectives.

(or)

b) Explain workers’ participation in management.

Part C


16. Explain the types of Human resources planning.

17. Enumerate the contents of job description.

18. Shortly explain methods of wage payment.

19. Explain the machinery for prevention and settlement of industrial

disputes in INDIA.

20. Briefly discuss the various traditional methods of performance

appraisal.




COMPUTER AWARENESS IV (VISUAL PROGRAMMING)


Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks

1. IDE stands for ________

a) Integrated Desktop Environment

b) Integrated Development Environment

c) Integrated Dual Environment

d) Internet Development Environment

2. _________ variable is one that is declared inside a procedure.

a) Global b) Local c) External d) None of the above

3. In Visual Basic, _______ is the extension to represent the project

file.

a) . frm b) . vbp c) . cb d) . vb

4. _______ statement enables us to trap runtime error.

a) Error b) On error c) On runtime error d) None of these

5. _________method removes a dialog box from view.

a) Enabled b) Disable c) Hide d) Display

6. The process of correcting error from the program is called _______.

a) Debugging b) Correction

c) Syntax error d) Logical error

7. The function procedures are _______ by default.

a) Public b) Private c) Protected d) None of the above

8. __________ do not return a value.

a) Sub procedure b) Function procedure

c) Property Procedure d) All of these

9. _________ is a collection of files.

a) Class b) Group c) Project d) Form.

10. ________ event occurs when a form loaded into the memory.

a) Load b) Active c) Initialize d) None of the above.

Part B


11. a) Explain briefly about object related concepts in VB.

(or)

b) Discuss about data types and data declarations in VB.

12. a) Write the various categories of control tool.

(or)

b) Explain briefly about scroll ball control.

13. a) How to create a menu using menu editor?

(or)

b) How to set break points?

14. a) How to define a sub procedure with example?

(or)

b) How to process the array elements using subscripted variables?

15. a) Write the characteristics of a data file.

(or)

b) Write a visual basic program to read and write a data in a binary

file.

Part C


16. Explain briefly about visual basic fundamentals.

17. Write about visual basic control tools.

18. Describe briefly about syntactic and logical errors in VB.

19. Define array and how to declare an array with example.

20. How to access and save a file in visual basic using common dialog

control?




PRODUCTION AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT


Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. _______ production system deals with the manufacturing process.

through a sequence of operations which form a flow.

a) Continuous b) Intermittent c) Job d) Batch

2. The _________ of production system can range from highly

standardized products to highly customized products.

a) Input b) Output c) Process d) None of the above

3. Which factor affects the plant location?

a) Availability of labour b) Availability of Power

c) Availability of water d) All the above

4. Which layout means a functional layout?

a) Fixed position b) Product layout

c) Process layout d) Line layout

5. __________ is a process of determining the task to be done on a

part or a product.

a) Routing b) Scheduling c) Dispatching d) Expediting

6. ________ study deals with the techniques of establishing line standards

for doing a particular job on the basis of measurement of work content.

a) Method study b) Time study

c) Work measurement d) Work study

7. In a _______ materials organization, the materials manager is

responsible for all the materials functions.

a) Centralized b) Decentralized

c) Well-coordinate d) None of the above

8. _________ includes selection of sources of supply and maintain

smooth relationship among suppliers.

a) Stores & Inventory control b) Materials planning

c) Purchasing d) Materials control

9. A fixed conveyer is used on the __________ production shop floor.

a) Mass b) Intermittent c) Continuous d) Small

10. ________ is an area wherein imperfections of a product, object or

process are detected and correctives applied.

a) Manufacturing b) Quality control

c) Inspection d) None of the above

Part B


11. (a) Explain the objectives of Operations Management.

(or)

(b) Explain the principles of Scheduling.

12. (a) What are the needs for selecting a suitable location?

(or)

(b) Discuss the Principles of Plant Layout.

13. (a) Enumerate the objectives of PPC.

(or)

(b) Explain the factors influencing productivity.

14. (a) What are the principles of right purchasing?

(or)

(b) Explain the benefits of Inventory Control.

15. (a) Discuss the seven tools for Quality Control.

(or)

(b) Write short note on TQM.

Part C


16. Explain the types of Production System.

17. Briefly explain the process and product layout with examples.

18. Describe the steps involved in Method Study.

19. Discuss the techniques of Material Planning and control.

20. Explain the Material Handling Equipments.

Part B


6. Enumerate the various stages involved in developing a positive attitude.

7. Discuss the recent challenges faced by the job seekers.

8. Explain the different stages of the job interview process.

9. Elaborate the various guidelines for writing the resume.

10. How do you deal with problems in the workplace?

Question Code : A40403 Sub Code: BBNSB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

JOB SEEKING SKILLS


Part A


1. Explain the various benefits of positive attitude.

2. What are the stages involved in goal setting? Explain in detail.

3. Explain the various sources of job advertising methods.

4. What are the various purpose of resume writing?

5. How to provide effective new employee orientation?

Question Code : A21110 Sub Code: BPHCR62



DIGITAL ELECTRONICS


Part A


1. (1111)2 – (1010)2 using 1‟s complement is _________

a) 1010 b) 0011 c) 0101 d) 0110

2. Bubbled OR gate is equal to ________ gate

a) AND b) OR c) NOR d) NAND

3. The value of the Boolean equation A is ________

a) A b) A c) 1 d) 0

4. In k–map method, a quad can eliminate ________ variables.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

5. In a full adder, the sum is obtained by a ________.

a) NAND b) NOR c) Ex-OR d) Ex-NOR

6. A Demultiplexer is also referred to as a _________.

a) data selector b) data distributor

c) code converter d) encoder

7. Racing problem is eliminated in _________ flip-flop.

a) RS b) JK c) D d) JK Master-Slave

8. T flip flop can be used as _________

a) counter b) register c) storage devices d) power cells

9. The shift register is classified into _______ types.

a) 4 b) 2 c) 2 d) 1

10. A ring counter is also referred to as _________

a) mod-10 counter b) decade counter

c) binary counter d) circulating counter

Part B


11. a) Convert the numbers (25)10 and (53)10 into Binary, Octal and

Hexadecimal number.

(or)

b) Explain the function of OR gate with truth table.

12. a) State and prove De Morgan‟s theorem.

(or)

b) Simplify the expression

y = m (3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 13, 14, 15) using k-map method.

13. a) Explain the operation of full subtractor with diagram and truth

table.

(or)

b) Explain 3 to 8 decoder with suitable truth table.

14. a) Discuss an astable multivibrator using 555 timer. Obtain the

expression for output frequency.

(or)

b) Explain the working of a D flip flop with suitable diagram and

table.

15. a) Discuss the working of serial in serial out shift register employing

D flip flop.

(or)

b) Describe ADC using successive approximation method.

Part C


16. Explain TTL NOR gate with circuit diagram.

17. Why NAND and NOR gate are called as Universal gate?

a) Realise the basic gate using NAND gate

b) Realize the basic gate using NOR gate

18. Discuss the basic four input multiplexer with necessary table and

diagram.

19. Explain the operation of clocked S-R flip flop with neat diagram.

20. Discuss the working of decade counter with diagram.

Question Code : A21109 Sub Code: BPHCR61



QUANTUM MECHANICS AND RELATIVITY

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. What is the thickness of foil in G.P. Thomsons experiment?

a) 10-6

m b) 10-8

m c) 108m d) 10

6m

2. De-Broglie equation is _______

a) mv

h b)

h

mv c)

hv

m d) = mvh

3. The operator <– 2

2

2

m8

h denotes

a) velocity b) kinetic energy

c) potential energy d) total energy

4. If the wave function satisfies 1dx* is known as ________

wave function.

a) normalized b) orthogonal

c) complex d) plane

5. Zero point energy is ________

a) ½ hv b) ½ h2v

c) ½ hv

2 d) ½ h

6. _________polynomial is the solution of LHO.

a) Hermite b) Bessel c) Languer d) Legender

7. The force which does not really act on a particle but appears to act

due to the acceleration of the frame is called ________ force.

a) friction b) fractional c) fictitious d) frame

8. In Michelson Morley experiment, the displacement in the

interference fringe is ________.

a) 2C

DV b)

C

DV 2

c) 2

2

C

DV d)

C

DV

9. If 1 kg of a substance is fully converted into energy, how much

energy is produced?

a) 9 x 1016

J b) 6 x 106 J c) 19 x 10

16J d) 90 x 10

16J

10. Four dimensional space time continuum is also known as ________

space.

a) Meson‟s b) Minkowski‟s

c) Momentum d) Mass

Part B


11. a) Explain De-Broglie concept of matter waves and obtain an

expression for it.

(or)

b) Show that the group velocity of the De-Broglie waves is the same

as the velocity of the particle.

12. a) Explain the concept of probability current density.

(or)

b) State the basic postulates of wave mechanics. Define eigen

values and eigen function.

13. a) What is zero point energy? Show that the existence of zero point

energy is in conformity with the uncertainty principle.

(or)

b) Describe the particle in a box and deduce its eigen values.

14. a) Write a short note on Ether hypothesis.

(or)

b) Explain the negative result of Michelson Morley experiment.

15. a) How does the decay of Meson‟s confirm time dilation? Explain it.

(or)

b) Obtain an expression for the addition of velocities and show that

the velocity of light is invariant under Lorentz transformation.

Part C


16. State Planck‟s hypothesis. Derive Planck‟s radiation law.

17. Derive the time independent Schrodinger equation.

18. Obtain the solution for the Barrier penetration problem (potential

step)

19. What is Newton relativity? Deduce Galilean transformation

equations.

20. What is the length of a metre stick moving parallel to its length

when its mass is 3/2 of its rest mass?

Question Code : A21304 Sub Code: BPHME61



MICROPROCESSORS



1. The number of pins in 8085 microprocessor is

a) 30 b) 39 c) 40 d) 41

2. What is meant by ALU?

a) Arithmetic Logic Upgrade b) Arithmetic Logic Unsigned

c) Arithmetic Local Unsigned d) Arithmetic Logic Unit

3. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and comparing?

a) Disk Unit b) Control unit

c) ALU d) Modem

4. In 8085, the name of the 16 bit register is

a) Stack pointer b) Program counter

c) Both A & B d) None of these

5. The microprocessor can read / write 16 bit data from or to

__________

a) memory b) I/O device c) processor d) register

6. Which is used to store critical pieces of data during subroutines and

interrupts?

a) Stack b) Accumulator

c) Data Register d) Device

7. BCD stands for

a) Binary Coded Decimal b) Binary Coded Decoded

c) Both A & B d) None of these

8. How many bits the instruction pointer is wide?

a) 16 bit b) 32 bit c) 64 bit d) 128 bit

9. Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt?

a) TRAP b) INTR c) RST 7.5 d) RST 3

10. The fastest digital – to – analog converter (DAC) is

a) Comparator type b) Counter type

c) Successive type d) Duel slope type

Part B


11. a) Draw the pin diagram of 8085 p and explain.

(or)

b) Explain the Arithmetic operations.

12. a) Describe the programming techniques of looping and counting.

(or)

b) Discuss about the logic operators.

13. a) Write an assembly language program to multiply two

hexadecimal numbers.

(or)

b) Explain the program of generating pulse wave form.

14. a) Discuss about the BCD addition.

(or)

b) Explain the BCD multiplication.

15. a) Explain the classification of interrupts in 8085.

(or)

b) Explain the how D/A and A/D interfacing done with 8085.

Part C


16. Explain with neat block diagram of the architecture of 8085

microprocessors.

17. Describe the Additional data transfer and arithmetic operations.

18. Explain Stack used in 8085 and write a program of zero to nine

counters.

19. Explain the BCD to binary conversion and binary to BCD

conversion.

20. Draw the block diagram to of ADC and explain how it works.

9. With neat block diagram explain the working of an ECG machine

and also discuss the different lead configurations used in ECG.

10. Draw the block diagram of EEG unit and explain the different parts

in it. Also give the origin of brain waves

Question Code : A21403 Sub Code: BPHSB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION


Part A


1. Write a note on transport of ions through the cell membrane and

bioelectric potentials.

2. Draw the structure of a living cell of our body and explain its

constituents.

3. Describe the LVDT along with its electrical characteristics.

4. What are active and passive transducers? Explain the thermoelectric

type transducer.

5. Discuss the different characteristics of the recording system. Also

write a note on ERG and EOG.

Part B


6. Discuss the development of action potential and muscular

contraction.

7. Draw the differential capacitive transducer and how it is used as a

pressure sensor.

8. Discuss the loading effect and sensitivity of the bridge. Also briefly

explain the action to piezoelectric transducer as arterial pressure

sensor.

28. The logic gate that will have „HIGH‟ or „1‟ as its output when any one

of its inputs is „HIGH‟ is a ________

a) OR gate b) AND gate c) NOT gate d) NOR gate

29. A single transistor can be used to build which of the following digital

logic gates?

a) NOT gates b) OR gates c) AND gates d) NOR gates

30. Which of the following logical operations is represented by OR gate in

Boolean algebra?

a) Y = A + B b) BAY c) Y = A – B d) BAY

PART –B

Answer any THREE of the following: (3 x 15 = 45 marks)

31. a) Explain the action of the following secondary cell i) Lead acid

accumulator

b) Two wires of same material and length have resistances 5 and

10 respectively. Find the ratio of radius of the two wires.

32. a) Explain the principle of transformer. Discuss its construction and

working.

b) Magnetic field through a coil having 200 turns and cross sectional

area 0.04m2 changes from 0.1wb m-2 to 0.04 wb m-2 in 0.02s. Find the

induced emf.

33. a) What are cathode rays? Write the properties of cathode rays.

b) A metallic surface when illuminated with light of wavelength

3333A emits electrons with energies upto 0.6 ev. Calculate the work

function of the metal.

34. a) Calculate the energy equivalence of 1amu [atomic mass unit]?

b) Assuming that the energy released by the fission of a single 235

92 U necleous is 200 mev. Calculate the number of fissions per

second required to produce one watt of power.

35. a) What is an OR and AND gate? Explain the action of diode truth

table and its symbol.

b) A transistor has = 150. Calculate the approximate base and

collector currents for an emitter current of 15mA.

Question Code: A21404 Sub: Code: BPHSB62


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, ARPIL 2018

SKILL BASED SUBJECT

PHYSICS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75

Part – A

Answer ALL questions, Choose the correct answer:

(30 x 1 =30marks) 1. What is the international system of unit of electromotive force?

a) volt b) volt/metre c) ampere d) second

2. How many terminal that electric cells consists of ________

a) two b) one c) three d) five

3. An accumulator is also called as _________

a) Electrochemical cell b) Primary cell

c) Secondary cell d) Voltaic cell

4. According to Ohm‟s law, if voltage increases and resistance stay the

same _________.

a) resistance increases b) current increase

c) current remains the same d) current decrease

5. The current flowing in a conductor is proportional to

a) drift velocity b) 1/area of cross section

c) 1/no. of electrons d) square of area of cross section

6. Ohm‟s law is not applicable to

a) Vacuum tubes b) Carbon resistors

c) High voltage circuits d) Circuits with low current

7. The unit of „Charge‟ is ________

a) ampere b) ampere / second

c) second d) ampere / second

8. One newton meter is same as __________

a) one watt b) one joule c) five joule d) one joule second

9. Resistance is a measure of a materials opposition to __________

a) voltage b) current

c) electric flux d) movement of proton

10. The cells are connected in series in order to_______

a) increase the current b) increase the voltage rating

c) increase the life of the cells d) increase internal resistance

11. Aluminium foil causes cathode rays to _________

a) pass through it b) struck in it

c) distort d) loose their identity

12. The energy absorbed by electron is used in _________

a) escaping metal b) increasing kinetic energy

c) both (a) and (b) d) increasing frequency

13. In nuclear fission, as compared to masses of original nuclei, final

nucleus is always

a) equal b) more c) less d) zero

14. If frequency and intensity of incident radiation are both kept constant,

then photoelectric current _________ increase in positive accelerating

potential.

a) decrease with b) increase with

c) is independent of d) remains constant

15. Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of?

a) electron and neutron b) proton and neutron

c) electron and proton d) electron and meson

16. Neutron is a fundamental particle which carries?

a) no charge and mass of one unit

b) a charge of +1 and mass of 1 unit

c) no charge and no mass d) a charge –1 and no mass

17. The cathode rays are deflected by?

a) a magnetic field only b) both electric and magnetic field

c) neither electric nor magnetic field

d) an electric field only

18. When particle are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go

straight through the foil because?

a) -particles moves with high velocity

b) -particles are positively charged

c) most of the space is empty in an atom

d) -particles are negatively charged.

19. In a cathode rays tube, a ________ glow is formed on the inner surface

of the glass opposite the cathode?

a) greenish b) purplish c) bluish d) blackish

20. When the control rods are inserted into the reactor, K(multiplication

factor) becomes

a) 0 b) >1 c) 1 d) < 1

21. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called

a) resistance b) reluctance

c) conductance d) inductance

22. How many terminals does a diode have _______

a) 5 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3

23. The diode ________

a) is the simplest of semiconductor devices

b) has characteristics that closely match those of a simple switch

c) is a two terminal device d) all the above

24. Which capacitance dominates in the forward bias region?

a) diffusion b) transition c) depletion d) all the above

25. For a forward biased diode, the barrier potential ________as

temperature increases.

a) decreases b) constant c) increases d) all the above

26. Transistor must be operated in a transistor has two pn junction. The

number of depletion layer in a transistor is

a) three b) two c) one d) five

27. Which statement best describe an insulators? a) a material with few free electron b) a material with large free electron

c) no description fits d) a material with large proton

Question Code : A22109 Sub Code: BCHCR61



ORGANIC CHEMISTRY III

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. The catalyst used in the Beckmann rearrangement is

a) LiAlH4 b) Na/Hg c) PCl5 d) Kmno4

2. Free radicals

a) contain no electrons b) contain unpaired electrons

c) contain all paired electrons d) none of these

3. Alkenes show geometrical isomerism due to

a) asymmetry

b) rotation around a single bond

c) resonance

d) restricted rotation around a double bond

4. Racemic mixture is designated by the prefix

a) + b) – c) d) K:

5. Alkaloids

a) contain Nitrogen b) have a bitter taste

c) are usually acidic d) only (a) and (b) are correct

6. Pyridine reacts with HCl to form

a) Pyridinium chloride b) 2–Chloropyridine

c) 3–Chloropyridine d) 4–Chloropyridine

7. Which part of the IR Spectrum is called „finger print region‟?

a) 3000 – 2000 cm-1

b) 3000 – 1000 cm-1

c) 2000 – 1000 cm-1

d) 1000 – 600 cm-1

8. What type of radiation is used in NMR spectroscopy?

a) Radiowaves b) Ultraviolet

c) Infra Red radiations d) Microwaves

9. The bond angle between Carbon atoms in Cyclohexane is

a) 60 b) 90 c) 109.5 d) 120

10. What is the „Isoprene rule‟?

a) Terpene contains „head–to–head‟ connected isoprene

b) Terpene contains „head–to–tail‟ connected isoprene

c) Terpene contains „tail–to–tail‟ connected isoprene

d) Terpene contain 5n atoms

Part B


11. a) Describe the mechanism of Fries and Wagher-Meerwein

rearrangements.

(or)

b) What are free radicals? Give suitable examples. Explain the

stability of free radicals.

12. a) What are carbohydrates? Give any four examples. How will you

convert Glucose into Fructose and vice versa?

(or)

b) Describe R, S notations used in fixing the positions of groups in

an optically active compound with an example.

13. a) What are alkaloids? How are they classified? Explain the general

methods for determining the structure of alkaloids.

(or)

b) What are hetero cyclic compounds? Given any six examples.

How is pyrrole prepared? List out its chemical properties.

14. a) What are the applications of UV and IR spectroscopy.

(or)

b) Bring out the various types of electronic transition in UV

spectroscopy and modes of vibration in IR Spectroscopy.

15. a) What are cycloalkanes? How are they prepared? Explain their

important properties.

(or)

b) What is mean by conformational analysis? Briefly explain the

conformational analysis of Ethane and cyclohexane.

Part C


16. a) What are short lived and long lived free radicals? Explain their

preparation and important reactions.

b) What is meant by pinacol–pinacolone and Beckmann

rearrangement? Write their mechanisms.

17. a) Explain the geometrical and optical isomerism with suitable

examples.

b) Write a short note on asymmetric synthesis.

18. a) How is Quindine synthesised? Describe its important reactions.

b) How is Coniine and Nicotine synthesised? Discuss about structure

of Papavarine.

19. a) Explain about Woodward-Fieser rules and Finger print region.

b) Define the term chemical shift and coupling constant(J).

20. a) Discuss about Baeyer‟s Strain theory and its modification.

b) Explain the structure of Geraniol.

Question Code : A22110 Sub Code: BCHCR62



PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY-III

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. For an ideal gases TP

His_________

a) 1 b) 0 c) –1 d) infinity

2. The work done in reversible adiabatic expansion process is________

a) TVr–1

= constant b) PVr = constant

c) W = P(V2 – V1) d) W = )TT()r1(

nR12

3. Among the following which is correct?

a) Tds = dE + Pdv b) Tds = dE/Pdv

c) Tds = Pdv/dE d) Tds = dE

4. A process is exothermic by 100KJ and G = –1000KJ at 27 c, the

entropy change is

a) 1000KJ mol–1

b) 900KJ mol–1

c) 900KJ k–1

d) 3.0 KJ k–1

5. A process is at equilibrium when

a) G > 0; S = 0 b) G = 0; S = 0

c) G < 0; S > 0 d) G = (infinity)

6. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to

________

a) molecular mass solute b) weight of the solvent

c) osmotic pressure d) enthalpy of vapourisation

7. The electrolyte is used in H2–O2 fuel cell is

a) NaCl b) NaOH c) Na2CO3 d) NaHCO3

8. The strongest reducing agent among the following is

a) V54.0E0

)I/I( 2

b) V77.0E0

)Fe/Fe( 23

c) V13.0E0

)Pb/Pb( 2 d) V37.2E0

)Mg/Mg( 2

9. The transition for first overtone band is

a) v = 0 v = 1 b) v = 0 v = 2

c) v = 0 v = 3 d) v = 0 v = 4

10. Which is not correct?

a) c = b) c

1 c) c

d) c = E h

Part B


11. a) i) Derive the relationship between Cp and Cv using first law of

thermodynamics.

ii) Define Specific heat

(or)

b) Discuss the variation of heat of reaction with temperature.

12. a) Derive the Gibb‟s – Helmholtz equation. Give its limitations.

(or)

b) Derive Clapeyron-Clausius equation.

13. a) i) Derive Van‟t Hoff reaction isotherm.

ii) Obtain the relation between b and Keg.

(or)

b) Derive the expressions Smix and Vmix.

14. a) Explain the following i) Salt bridge and its function

ii) Lead storage cell

(or)

b) Obtain the relationship between emf with entropy and enthalpy

15. a) Write any four application of IR spectroscopy.

OR

b) Explain the types of molecular spectra.

Part C


16. i) Derive the expression for expansion work in reversible adiabatic

process.

ii) To prove RP

v

p

.CV

E

17. i) State Carnot theorem.

ii) Discuss the carnot cycle.

18. Derive the relation between the depression of freezing point and

elevation of boiling point with molality.

19. Write any five applications of electrochemcical series

20. i) Discuss the quantum theory of Raman Effect.

ii) Write the applications of Raman spectra.

Question Code : A22304 Sub Code: BCHME61



CHEMISTRY FOR COMPETITVE EXAMINATIONS-II



1. The RMS of a gas at 270

C is Y cm sec-1

. The temperature at which

its velocity will be 2Y is

a) 540 C b) 108

0 C c) 600 K d) 1200 K

2. In Bragg‟s equation nλ = 2d sinθ , „n‟ refers to

a) the number of moles b) the Avogadro number

c) the order of reflection d) the principal quantum number

3. Which out of the following is not an intensive property?

a) volume b) mass c) pressure d) internal energy

4. A system containing liquid water and water vapour has ----- of

phases

a) one b) two c) three d) zero

5. On passing one Faraday of electricity, one mole of metal is

deposited from

a) KCl solution b) BaCl2 solution

c) AlCl3 solution d) all these

6. The rate law relates the rate of a chemical reaction to the

a) activation energy b) temperature

c) concentration of reactants d) all these

7. One Einstein is the energy associated with

a) one mole b) one photon

c) Avogadro number of photons d) none of these

8. Chemisorption generally _________ with temperature

a) decreases b) increases

c) remains same d) none of these

9. The scattering of light by the dispersed phase is called

a) electrophesis b) Brownian movement

c) Tyndall effect d) osmosis

10. Fog is an example of colloidal system of

a) gas dispersed in solid b) solid dispersed in gas

c) solid dispersed in liquid d) liquid dispersed in gas

Part B


11. a) Derive van der waal‟s equation for real gases.

(or)

b) Describe the different types of unit cells.

12. a) State the various statements of first law of thermodynamics.

(or)

b) Explain the following: Phase, component and degrees of

freedom.

13. a) What is Ostwald dilution law? Give its importance.

(or)

b) Define rate law and write the rate equations for various order

reactions.

14. a) State and explain the laws of photochemistry.

(or)

b) What are adsorption isotherms? Give the main points of

Langmuir theory of adsorption.

15. a) Giving suitable examples, explain the types of catalysis.

(or)

b) Describe the preparation and optical property of colloidal

solutions

Part C


16. a) Deduce Boyles‟s law, Charles law and Avogadro‟s law from

kinetic gas equation.

b) Enumerate the various crystal defects.

17. a) Explain the term Entropy and its physical significance.

b) Draw the phase diagram of water system and discuss the

importance of various points, lines and areas.

18. Write notes on the following: (a) Galvanic cell (b) Effect of

temperature on reaction rate and (c) Potentiometric titrations

19. a) Explain Flash photolysis.

b) Discuss some important applications of adsorption.

20. a) Classify colloidal solutions on the basis of solvent affinity.

b) Describe the Rast method for determination of molecular weight

of an electrolyte.

O

||

O

||

Part B


6. a) How is organic compounds synthesis protecting group technique?

b) Calculate the % atom economy of the following:

i) CH3CH = CH2 + H2 iNCH3CH2CH3

ii) CH3 CH2 – C – CH2CH3 + H3C – NH2

CH3CH2 C–NH–CH3 + OH – CH2 –CH3

7. a) Write the oxidation and phase transfer catalyst.

b) Discuss the microwave induced reactions of oxidation of toluene.

8. a) Give the microwave induced reactions of ortho ester claisen

rearrangement.

b) List out the Green catalyst and Acid catalyst.

9. Describe the following ultra sound assisted reactions

i) Esterification

ii) Saponification

iii) Coupling reaction

10. a) Explain the organic reactions in solid phase.

b) Write the bio catalyst used in organic synthesis.

Question Code :A22405 Sub Code: BCHSB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT - GREEN CHEMISTRY


Part A


1. Explain in detail about the twelve principles of green chemistry.

2. a) How is Dimethyl carbonate used as a green reagent?

b) How will you compare green chemistry and ecoefficiency?

3. Explain the generation of dihalocarbene.

4. Discuss the microwave induced green synthesis.

a) Hofmann elimination

b) Hydrolysis of benzamide

5. Describe the following ultra sound assisted Green synthesis.

i) Bouveault

ii) Cannizaro reaction.

9. Write the preparation, properties and uses of

i) Butyl rubber

ii) Silicone rubber

iii) Rubber cement

10. What is Reclaimed rubber? Give its advantages and uses.

Question Code : A22406 Sub Code: BCHSB62



SKILL BASED SUBJECT – RUBBER TECHNOLOGY


Part A


1. a) What are the types of rubber? Give Examples.

b) Write a note on Latex.

2. Explain the Coagulation process of rubber.

3. How are synthetic rubber classified? Give five examples for each.

4. a) List out the properties of SBR Rubber.

b) Write a note on cyclo rubber.

5. Write a note on rubber industries in India.

Part B


6. a) Write a note on

i) Gutta Parcha (5) ii) Crepe rubber

b) What are the drawbacks of raw rubber?

7. Write the preparation, properties and uses of polyisoprene rubber?

8. a) What is chlorinated rubber? Give example.

b) How do you manufacture styrene?

9.

Question Code : A24106 Sub Code: BCSCR61/

UCSCR61



COMPUTER GRAPHICS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75 Part A


1. The maximum number of points that can be displayed without

overlap on a CRT is referred to as the ___________.

a) Persistence b) Deflection c) Refresh d) Resolution

2. The display processor in a random-scan system is referred to as a

_________.

a) Graphics controller b) Video controller

c) Display controller d) Monitor controller

3. Odd-even rule is also called _______.

a) Nonzero number rule b) Odd parity rule

b) Winding number rule d) Odd rule

4. A _______ connected boundary-fill algorithm would correctly fill

the interior of the area defined.

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

5. The Rectangular fill patterns are sometimes referred to as ______.

a) tiling patterns b) text attributes

c) showdow patterns d) tint attributes

6. Character size is specified by printers and compositors in ________.

a) width b) height c) points d) inch

7. A ________ is a transformation that produces a mirror image on an

object.

a) Translation b) Rotation c) Scaling d)

Reflection

8. A world-coordinate area selected for display is called a _______.

a) window b) viewport c) viewing d) scaling

9. Icons representing objects are referred to as ________

a) command icons b) control icons

c) application icons d) window icons

10. In ______ mode, the application program and input devices operate

independently.

a) request b) sample c) event d) input

Part B


11. a) State the benefits of computer graphics in the field of education.

OR

b) Explain different input devices used in graphics.

12. a) Describe DDA algorithm for generating a line.

OR

b) Explain about scan-line polygon fill algorithm.

13. a) Discuss about line attributes.

OR

b) Write a note on bundled attributes.

14. a) Explain about Raster methods for transformations.

OR

b) Discuss about the viewing pipeline.

15. a) Explain about Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algorithm.

OR

b) Discuss about the three input modes.

Part C


16. Briefly explain about video display devices.

17. Discuss midpoint circle generations with example.

18. Explain in detail about Character attributes.

19. Explain about the Reflection and Shear transformations.

20. Give an overview about polygon clipping.

Question Code : A24107 Sub Code: BCSCR62



COMPUTER NETWORKS


Part A


1. ________ network covers a city.

a) MAN b) WAN c) LAN d) PAN

2. ________ layer uses HTTP, which is the basis for WWW.

a) Network b) Application c) Data link d) Physicak

3. Which one is not a guided media?

a) Twisted pair b) Power lines

c) Radio transmission d) Coaxial cable

4. The two-wire connection between each subscriber‟s telephone and

the end office are known in trade as _______ loop.

a) Binary b) Level c) Global d) Local

5. _________ is often used to mean a group of check bits associated

with a message.

a) Sum b) Burst c) Checksum d) Parity

6. CSMA/CD is the basis of the classic Ethernet________

a) MAN b) LAN c) WAN d) PAN

7. ________ algorithm does not base their routing decisions based on

measurements.

a) Non-adaptive b) Adaptive

c) Prediction d) Routing

8. ________ combines several signals into a single one.

a) DEMUX b) MUX c) Transmitter d) Receiver

9. Which is not a MIME content type?

a) text b) image c) binary d) message

10. Which term is not related to cryptography?

a) Intruder b) Plain text

c) Cipher text d) None of these

Part B


11. a) Write about WAN in detail.

OR

b) How will you express the protocol hierarchies?

12. a) Explain the working of Microwave transmission.

OR

b) Write an overview of PSTN.

13. a) Write about stop and wait protocol for Noisy channel.

OR

b) Write about collision free protocols.

14. a) Define: Distance Vector Routing.

OR

b) What are the services provided to the upper layers in a transport

service?

15. a) Write a short note on DNS.

OR

b) Write a short note on cryptography.

Part C


16. Detail about TCP/IP Reference model.

17. Write about Guided Transmission Media.

18. Write the steps involved in Detecting and Correcting errors.

19. What are the elements of transport protocols?

20. Elaborate the Public Key algorithms.

Question Code : A24307 Sub Code: BCSME61



WEB TECHNOLOGY


Part A


1. Which is a web server among the following?

a) Apache b) Internet Explorer

c) Netscape Navigator d) None

2. TCP stands for

a) Transmission Control Protocol

b) Transmission Centered Protocol

c) Transfer Control Protocol

d) Transfer Centered Protocol

3. JavaScript was first used in ________ browsers.

a) Netscape Navigator b) Internet Explorer

c) Opera d) Firefox

4. The ________ command will break the current loop and continue

with the next value.

a) continue b) break c) goto d) loop

5. An object is just

a) a special kind of data b) a collection of properties

c) a collection of methods d) all of the above

6. The _______ object is used to store multiple values in a single

variable.

a) array b) string c) date d) boolean

7. Each cookie has an ________ after which it is trashed.

a) expiry date b) name-value c) domain d) path

8. Find the odd man out

a) onerror b) try c) catch d) throw

9. User agent for web is called a ________

a) browser b) web server

c) search engine d) all of the above

10. _______ classes are used to represent the connection between a

client program and a server program.

a) Socket b) TCP socket

c) UDP socket d) all of the above

Part B


11. a) Describe the classes of IP addresses.

OR

b) Discuss web applications in brief.

12. a) Illustrate the conditional statements of JavaScript.

OR

b) Explain how to create three kinds of popup boxes.

13. a) Explain how a property and methods of an object is used in

JavaScript?

OR

b) Write and explain various methods for string object.

14. a) Explain short notes on how cookies work.

OR

b) Describe the use of try and catch statements in JavaScript.

15. a) What is a proxy server? Explain it with neat diagram.

OR

b) Explain the any one format of HTTP messages.

Part C


16. Discuss about TCP/IP protocol suits.

17. Write a note on operators in JavaScript.

18. State and explain few windows objects methods.

19. How will you create a cookie and erase cookie? Explain with

examples.

20. Explain TCP/IP sockets for both client and server.

8. Discuss any three software design notations.

9. Elaborate on System testing activities.

10. Comment the importance of configuration management in software

engineering




SKILL BASED SUBJECT - SOFTWARE ENGINEERING


Part A


1. Explain Waterfall chart.

2. Discuss on Programming team structure.

3. State the characteristics of a software module and other modularization

criteria.

4. Explain how Abstraction and Information hiding is helpful in software

design concepts.

5. Compare and contrast Assertion-driven debugging with Execution

histories.

Part B


6. Discuss the following:

a. Expert Judgement b. Delphi Cost Estimation

7. Describe the types of tests and Milestones.






Part A


1. The use of Management Accounting is __________

a) Compulsory b) Optional

c) Obligatory d) Decision making

2. Comparative and common size statements are prepared for the

meaningful ________ of data.

a) Recording b) Presentation

c) Interpretation d) Reporting

3. Solvency ratio is ________ ratio.

a) Gross Profit b) Net Profit

c) Capital gearing d) Current

4. The standard for Quick ratio is _________

a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) 1 : 5 : 1

5. Funds flow refers to change in_________

a) Working Capital b) Capital employed

c) Shareholders fund d) Cash

6. Cash flow statement is based upon _________basis of accounting.

a) Accrual b) Cash

c) both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

1

7. Marginal cost means _________

a) Additional cost b) Variable cost

c) Indirect cost d) Fixed cost

8. __________ is the difference between the sales and the variable

cost.

a) P/V ratio b) Break even point

c) Margin of safety d) Contribution

9. Zero based budgeting is ________

a) Preparation of budgets from the scratch

b) Taking into account only the quantitative values

c) Containing future estimates only

d) Taking previous year as base

10. A budget which changes with the level of activity is _________

budget.

a) Fixed b) Cash c) Flexible d) Master

Part B


11. a) Describe the Scope of Management Accounting.

OR

b) From the following profit and loss account of Ramco Ltd, for the

year ended 2009 and 2010. You are required to prepare a

Comparative Income Statement.

Profit and Loss Account

Particulars 2009

Rs.

2010

Rs.

Particulars 2009

Rs.

2010

Rs

To cost of goods

sold

60000 75000 By Net sales 80000 100000

To operating

expenses

20. Summarized below are the Income and Expenditure forecast for the

month of March to July 2012.

Month Sales

Rs.

Purchases

Rs.

Wages

Rs.

March 60000 36000 9000

April 62000 38000 8000

May 64000 33000 10000

June 58000 39000 8500

July 56000 39000 9500

Prepare cash budget for 3 months starting from 1st May 2012.

i) Cash balance on 1st May 2012, Rs. 8,000

ii) Advance tax Rs.8000 payable in March and June each

iii) Credit allowed by suppliers is 2 months and allowed to

customer is one month

iv) Lag in payment of wages is one month

7

2

7

Dividend paid Rs.23000

a) Depreciation written off

Machinery Rs.14000

Buildings Rs. 10000

b) Income tax paid Rs. 28000

Prepare the following two statements

i) Working capital statement

ii) Fund flow statement

19. Following are the particulars about Narayanan company.

Year Sales Profit

2010 Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 15,000

2011 Rs. 1,20,000 Rs. 23,000

Explain briefly about D/A converter.

Particulars 2009

Rs.

2010

Rs.

Particulars 2009

Rs.

2010

Rs

To cost of goods

sold

60000 75000 By Net

sales

80000 100000

To operating

expenses

Administrative 2000 2000

Selling 3000 4000

To Net profit 15000 19000

80000 100000 80000 100000

Find out

i) P/V ratio

ii) Fixed cost

iii) Break even point

iv) Profit when sales are Rs. 1,25,000

v) Sales required to earn a profit of Rs. 20,000

Administrative 2000 2000

Selling 3000 4000

To Net profit 15000 19000

80000 100000 80000 100000

12. a) What do you mean by Ratio analysis? State its merits.

OR

b) From the trading account of JC Ltd. Calculate stock turnover

ratio.

Particular Amount

Rs.

Particulars Amount

Rs.

To opening stock 70000 By Sales 400000

To purchases 220000 By closing stock 50000

To wages 10000

To carriage 15000

To Gross profit 135000

450000 450000

13. a) Explain the limitations of Fund Flow Statement.

OR

b) The net income reported on the income statement for the year was

Rs.1,10,000 and depreciation of fixed assets for the year was

Rs.44,000. The balances of the current asset and current liability

accounts at the beginning and end of the year are as follows.

Particulars 2010 Rs. 2011 Rs

Cash 140000 130000

Debtors 180000 200000

Inventories 300000 290000

Prepaid expenses 16000 15000

Accounts payable 116000 102000

Calculate Cash from operation.

3 6

14. a) Discuss the advantages of Marginal costing.

OR

b) From the following details find out (a) profit volume ratio

(b) B.E.P. (c) Margin of safety

Sales Rs.100000

Total costs Rs. 80000

Fixed costs Rs. 20000

Net Profit Rs. 20000

Variable cost Rs. 60000

15. a) What do you mean by budgetary control? Explain the objectives

of Budgetary control.

OR

b) From the following figures prepare raw materials.

Purchase budget for January.

Materials (Units)

Particulars A B C D E F

Estimated

stock 1st Jan

16000 6000 24000 2000 14000 28000

Estimated

stock 31st Jan

20000 8000 28000 4000 16000 32000

Estimated

consumption

120000 44000 132000 36000 88000 172000

Standard

price per unit

25

paise

5 paise 15 paise 10

paise

20

paise

30

paise

Part C


16. Enumerate the Functions of Management Accounting.

17. From the following Balance Sheet, compute the following ratios:

a) Current ratio

b) Liquid ratio

c) Proprietary ratio

d) Debt-equity ratio

e) Current assets to working capital ratio

Balance sheet as on 31st December

Liabilities Rs. Assts Rs

.

Equity share

capital`

200000 Plant & Machinery 200000

10% preference

share capital

100000 Land and Buildings 200000

20% Debentures 100000 Stock 150000

Reserves and

surplus

100000 Debtors 50000

Long term loan 50000 Cash 100000

Creditors 100000

Bank overdraft 50000

700000 700000

18. Balance sheets of Balu Company are given below.

Liabilities 2014

Rs.

2015

Rs.

Assets 2014

Rs.

2015

Rs

Share capital 100000 150000 Land and

building

100000 90000

General reserve 50000 60000 Machinery 100000 119000

P & L A/c 30500 30000 Stock 50000 24000

Bank loan 70000 - Debtors 75000 63200

Sundry creditors 50000 37200 Cash 2500 16000

Provision for tax 32000 35000 Good will 5000 -

332500 312200 332500 332500

During the year ended 31st December 2015

5 4





Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A. Max. Marks: 75 Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks

1. _________ is involved with getting persons together and making

them work willingly and effectively for the achievement of the

designated goals.

a) planning b) organizing c) directing d) controlling

2. Which one of the following is an external environment to be

considered by manpower planar while planning the manpower?

a) Social factor b) Economic factor

c) Technical change d) All the above

3. ________ refers to summary of the personal characteristics required

for a job.

a) Job description b) Job specification

c) Job rotation d) Job evolution

4. ________ refers to shifting an employee to a position carrying

higher responsibilities and therefore enjoying increased prestige.

a) transfer b) promotion c) demotion d) deputation

5. _________ method of training is specially imparted to the newly

selected machine operators to make them familiar with their job.

a) Internship b) Induction c) Vestibule d) Lectures

6. In _______ method of wage system, output is taken as the basis for

payment.

a) Piece wage b) Time wage

c) Incentive d) Non incentive

7. _________ means a mandatory settlement of an industrial disputes

by a labour court or a tribunal.

a) Arbitration b) Conciliation

c) Adjudication d) Work committee

8. __________ means the closing of a place of employment by an

employer.

a) Strike b) Lock out c) Lay off d) Gherao

9. _________ method of performance appraisal is an old and

traditional one.

a) Confidential report b) Essay description

c) Checklist method d) Grading method

10. _________ means expanding the job content, adding task elements

horizontally.

a) Job Enrichment b) Job rotation

c) Job Enlargement d) Job evolution

Part B


11. a) Explain any seven need and importance of manpower planning.

OR

b) Define Human Resource Management and its scope.

12. a) What is Application blank? What is its role and importance in

selection process?

OR

b) Distinguish between Job description, Job specification and Job

analysis.

13. a) List down the merits of piece wage system.

OR

b) Write short notes on Refresher training and apprenticeship

training.

14. a) Explain the causes of Industrial disputes.

OR

b) Describe the process of collective bargaining.

15. a) Explain any five methods of performance appraisal.

OR

b) Bring out the limitations of performance appraisal.

Part C


16. Discuss the functions of Human Resource Management.

17. Explain the various sources of Recruitment.

18. Discuss the principles of wage and salary administration.

19. Explain the limitations of Industrial relations in India.

20. Discuss various forms at workers participation in management.







1. Visual Basic is __________programming development system for

creating applications

a) an event driven b) a sequential

c) an object-oriented d) a differential

2. A _________constant is a sequence of characters

a) numeric b) integer c) variable d) string

3. _________ provides a means of initiating an event action by the user

clicking on the button.

a) command button b) Combo Box

c) file list box d) option button

4. List Box provides a collection of _________items.

a) symbol b) text c) number d) picture

5. The__________ includes other features that permit various menu

item enhancements

a) Menu editor b) Menu bar c) Caption d) form

6. _________ cause the program to “crash” during execution

a) system errors b) programme errors

c) runtime errors d) logical errors

7. A ________ is a self-contained group of VB commands that can be

accessed from a remote location within a VB program..

a) Module b) Program c) Procedure d) declaration

8. The ________statement is used for declaring an array.

a) option base b) dim c) print d) assignment

9. The_________ mode does exactly what the OUTPUT mode does

a) append b) output c) write d) read

10. The_________ function can be used as an alternative to the Get

statement.

a) Input b) output c) rename d) put

Part B


11. a) What are Numeric Constants? State the rules for numeric

constants.

OR

b) Discuss the Hierarchy of Operations in Visual Basic.

12. a) How to work with controls?

OR

b) How to generate error messages in VB.

13. a) Write about submenus.

OR

b) Discuss in detail about Logical errors with example.

14. a) Discuss in detail about function procedures with example.

OR

b) Explain in detail about modules.

15. a) How to open and close a file in VB? Give Example.

OR

b) Discuss the binary files in VB.

Part C


16. Explain the relational operators used in Visual Basic. Give

examples for each.

17. Explain the various Visual Basic Control Tools.

18. How to build a drop down menu? Give example.

19. Describe about control Arrays. Give Example.

20. Explain in detail about files with its characteristics and types.

.




PRODUCTION AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT



1. The output of operation system consists of

a) good and finance b) goods and services

c) marketing and services d) profit making

2. _________ decisions are about products, processed and facilities.

These decisions have long term significance.

a) strategic b) tactic c) operational d) functional

3. A location survey must be carried out based on the specific

requirements of a

a) customers b) retailers c) wholesaler d) enterprise

4. ________ is an important criterion of product development success.

a) low price b) high quality

c) time to market d) advertisement

5. MPS stands for

a) Master Production Scheme b) Master Production Society

c) Master Production Schedule d) Mass Production Schedule

6. MRP stands for

a) Material Requirement Planning

b) Manufacturing Requirement Planning

c) Master Resources Planning

d) Material Reduction Process

7. The time between placing and receiving an order is called

a) Lead Time b) Assembling time

c) Delivery period d) Ordering time

8. _________ is also known as Fixed Order Quantity Model.

a) H – Model b) Q – Model

c) EOQ Model d) none of the above

9. TQM stands for

a) Total Quality Management

b) Total Quality Measurement

c) Total Quantity Management


10. ________ is the overall scheme for accepting or rejecting a product

lot based on information gained from samples.

a) Acceptance procedure b) Acceptance performance

c) Acceptance plan d) Action planning

Part B


11. a) What is the role of operations in an organization? How

operations is related to other functions in the organization.

OR

b) What are the challenges of operations management in coming

times? Discuss with examples.

12. a) Describe generic product development process.

OR

b) Explain – group layout.

13. a) Explain – Method study.

OR

b) Explain the objectives and techniques of time study.

14. a) Explain about material planning and control.

OR

b) Explain the functions of store management.

15. a) Explain the principles of material handling.

OR

b) Explain the seven tools of QC.

Part C


16. Discuss the scheduling strategies and its types.

17. Describe about plant location models.

18. Discuss about TPM and PPM.

19. Explain the benefits and techniques of Inventory Control.

20. Briefly explain about the functional activities of TQM.




SKILL BASED SUBJECT - JOB SEEKING SKILLS


Part A


1. State the dreaming about future.

2. How do we face facts?

3. Narrate the resume examples.

4. What are the common essential criteria to apply for a job?

5. Explain the ways for dealing with problems.

Part B


6. How to create and use networks?

7. Write about the job advertisement.

8. What types of the questions to be asked at the interview?

9. Explain the concept of dealing with disappointment.

10. How to solve problems at workplace.

Question Code : A21404 Sub: Code: BPHSB62


END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, ARPIL 2017

SKILL BASED SUBJECT

PHYSICS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks:

Part – A

Answer ALL questions, Choose the correct answer: (30 x 1 =30marks)

28. SI unit of electric current is ________

a) ampere b) volt c) watt d) ohm

29. The average distance covered by a free electron between two successive

collisions with the atoms is called ________

a) emf b) drift velocity

c) mean free path d) current density

30. At constant temperature, the current flowing through a conductor is

directly proportional to the potential difference between the two ends.

a) Newton‟s law b) Ohms law

c) Kirchoff‟s law d) Lens law

31. The inverse of resistance is called ________

a) Current b) Watt c) Conductance d) Capacitance

32. Current density J = ________

a) I

A b)

A

I c)

I

V d)

V

I

1

33. The induced current flows in a direction so as to oppose the change that

produces it is _________ law

a) ohm‟s law b) Krichoff‟s law

c) Faradays law d) Lenz‟s law

34. What causes the core of a transformer to get heated up under operation?

a) resistance b) current c) eddy currents d) capacitor

35. An emf induced in a coil due to change of current in a neighbouring

coil is called ________

a) self inductance b) mutual inductance

c) eddy current d) conductance

36. SI unit of inductance is _________

a) H (Henry) b) (Ohm) c) I (Current) d) W (Watt)

37. How many units of energy does a electrical heater of 1500w, used for 2

hours?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

38. ________ rays are streams of electrons moving from the cathode to

anode in a discharging tube.

a) cathode b) uv c) Infra red d) Gama

39. ________radiation is most suitable for photoelectric emission from Zn

surface.

a) visible b) ultraviolet c) infrared d) microwave

40. The ratio charge (q) to mass (m) of a particle ie q/m is called _______

a) specific charge b) capacitance

c) watt d) resistance

2

and a battery E. Indicate the path and direction of flow of appreciable

current in the circuit.

35. a) What is logic gate? Give the logic symbol, the truth table and

Boolean expression of the OR gate.

b) Write the truth table for the following combinations of gates.

41. Alkali metals are most suitable for photoelectric emission, because of

_________ values of work function.

a) lowest b) highest c) zero d) neutral

42. One atomic mass unit ie 1 amu = _________

a) 1.6606 x 10-12

kg b) 1.6606 x 10-27

kg

c) 5.6 x 1010

kg d) 1.23 x 10-10

kg

43. Nuclides having the same atomic number but different mass number are

called _________

a) Isotopes b) Isobars c) Isotones d) Isomers

44. What is the order of nuclear density?

a) ~ 1017

kg/m3

b) ~ 1028

kg/m3

c) ~ 10-17

kg/m3 d) 10

-28 kg/m

3

45. Einstein‟s mass-energy relation E = __________

a) mr2 b) mc

2 c) mgh d) 2mv

2

1

46. The difference between sum of the masses of the constituent nucleons

and the mass of the nucleus is called _________

a) mass number b) atomic number

c) mass defect d) its half life period

47. In a nuclear reactor, moderators are used to _________ the neutrons.

a) slow down b) increases the speed of

c) obsorb d) stop

48. In a semiconductor the charge carriers are _______

a) electrons b) holes

c) both electrons and holes d) none of the above

Y

N P

P

N

D1

D2 E

R

6 3

49. A pure semiconductor is called _________ semiconductor

a) Extrinsic b) Intrinsic c) bad d) good

50. Majority charge carriers in a p-type semi conductor is ________

a) electron b) holes

c) both electrons and hole d) none of the above

51. _________ impurity is required to have an n-type semiconductor.

a) trivalent b) pentavalent

c) hexavalent d) single valent

52. Current gain of a transistor is = ________

a) E

C

I

I b)

E

b

I

I c)

b

E

I

I d)

b

C

I

I

53. The basic logic gates are ________

a) OR gate b) AND gate

c) Not gate d) Both OR, AND and NOT gates

54. The symbol , r represent ______gate.

a) AND b) OR c) NOT d) X-OR

28. The symbol A Y = A represent ________ gate.

a) OR b) NOT c) AND d) NOR

29. Truth table

111

001

010

000

YBA

is __________ gate

a) AND b) OR c) NOT d) NAND

30. Truth table

01

10

YA

is _________ gate

a) NOT b) OR c) AND d) XOR

PART –B

Answer any THREE of the following: (3 x 15 = 45 marks)

31. a) State and Explain Kirchoff‟s laws

b) The magnetic flux threading a coil changes from 12 x 10-3

Wb to

6 x 10-3

Wb in 0.01second. Calculate the induced emf.

32. a) Describe the construction and working of a cathode ray oscilloscope.

Give a labelled diagram.

b) Calculate the threshold frequency of photons for photo electric

emission from a metal of work function 0.05ev (h = 6.6 x 10-34

Js).

33. a) Describe the construction and working of a nuclear reactor.

b) The mass of helium nucleus is 4.0015u, mass of a proton is

1.0073u and mass of a neutron is 1.0087u. Calculate the binding

energy of Helium nucleus.

34. a) Explain the working of a junction diode under forward and reverse

biasing condition.

b) The figure shows two p-n junction diodes along with a resistance R

A

B Y=A+B

4 5

and a battery E. Indicate the path and direction of flow of appreciable

current in the circuit.

35. a) What is logic gate? Give the logic symbol, the truth table and

Boolean expression of the OR gate.

b) Write the truth table for the following combinations of gates.

Y

N P

P

N

D1

D2 E

R

Question Code : A10110 Sub Code: BHYCR61/ UHYCR61



HISTORY OF EUROPE 1789-1945 A.D

Time : 3 Hrs B. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. “Man is born free, but everywere he is in chains” is the words of

_____.

a) Rousseau b) Voltaire

c) Lenin d) Karl Marx

2. ______was the child of French Revolution and the hero of France.

a) Hitler b) Churchill

c) Mussolini d) Napoleon

3. Metternich was the Chancellor of ______.

a) Sweden b) Austria

c) France d) Germany

4. The Father of the Holy Alliance was ______.

a) Metternich b) Calvin

c) Alexander I d) Cavour

5. The June Days of 1848 in France revealed divisions between ______.

a) the rural and urban populates

b) the upper and lower classes

c) liberals and socialist

d) Louis – Napolean Bonaparte and Louis Phillippe

6. Napoleon III, the French king helped ______in her war against

Austria which led to the annexation of Lombardy.

a) Sardinia b) Parma

c) Modena d) Tuscany

7. „Carbonari‟ was a secret society of ______.

a) Germany b) France

c) Italy d) Poland

8. Who was called “The Iron Chancellor” of Germany?

a) Hitler b) Mussolini

c) Bismarck d) Peter the Great

9. The headquarters of the League of Nations was at ______.

a) Paris b) Geneva

c) The Hangue d) London

10. The pope who singed the Lateran Treaty with Mussolini was _____.

a) Pious XVIII b) Pious XI

c) Beneticct d) Boniface

Part B


11. a) How for the philosophers caused for the outbreak of the French

revolutions?

( or)

b) Give a brief note on Code of Napolean.

12. a) Examine the objectives and achievements of the Holy alliance.

(or)

b) What were the causes of the Revolution of 1848?

13. a) Write a note on Louis Nepoleon as a president.

(or)

b) Describe the importance of Treaty of Frankfurt.

14. a) Explain the role of Garibaldi in the Unification of Italy.

(or)

b) Describe the internal reforms of Bismark.

15. a) Examine the causes and the results of the Crimean War.

(or)

b) Discuss the principles of Fascism.

Part C


16. Describe the reforms of Napoleon Bonaparte.

17. Examine the aims and the achievements of Vienna Conference.

18. Describe the domestic policy of Napoleon III.

19. Give a detailed account of the different stages of the Unification of

Italy.

20. Enumerate the causes and results of the Second World War.

********




INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS (1945-2005)


Part A


1. How many countries attended the San Francisco conference?

a) 50 b) 51 c) 52 d) 53

2. Where is the head quarter of UNESCO located?

a) Paris b) London

c) Geneva d) New York

3. When was Rio treaty signed?

a) 1945 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1950

4. Where was SALT II singed?

a) Vienna b) Washington

c) Berlin d) London

5. How many nations participated in the First SAARC meeting?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 9

6. Which year, Common Wealth of Independent states was formed?

a) 1991 b) 1992

c) 1993 d) 1994

7. The Third Arab – Israel was took place in the year______.

a) 1949 b) 1967

c) 1973 d) 1974

8. Name the ruler of Iraq during Gulf War.

a) Nazar b) Bhutto

c) Saddam Hussain d) Benazin

9. Who was the founder of Alquida?

a) Bin Laden b) Ansari

c) Nazer d) Mubarak

10. When was Simla Preaty singed?

a) 1970 b) 1972 c) 1975 d) 1980

Part B


11. a) What do you know about World Health Organisation?

(or)

b) Discuss the principles of Panchasheel.

12. a) Write a note on SEATO.

(or)

b) Explain the importance of Warsaw Pact.

13. a) Give an account of the Association of South – East Asian

Nations.

(or)

b) Write about the activities of the Arab League.

14. a) Explain Arab conflict.

(or)

b) Asses the causes and results of Gulf War.

15. a) Comment on Kargil War.

(or)

b) Examine the Foreign Policy of England.

Part C


16. Describe the functions of UNO.

17. Examine the causes and effects of Cold War.

18. Analyse the objectives of SAARC.

19. What are the main issues of Palestin question?

20. Evaluate the foreign policy of USA.

********

Part B


6. Estimate the origin and growth of Architecture in India.

7. Write an essay on the contributions of Mauryan Architecture.

8. Point out the characteristics of Jain Architecture.

9. State the role of slave dynasty in the development of Muslim

Architecture in India.

10. Estimate the contribution of second Pandyan for the development of

temple architecture in the South.

*******

Question Code : A10405 Sub Code: BHYSB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

INDIAN ARCHITECTURE


Part A


1. Point out the general features of Nagara style of Architecture.

2. Give a brief account of Dravida style Architecture.

3. Narrate the architectural features of Saranath Pillar.

4. Write a note on Buddhist Chaityas in Ellora Caves.

5. Discuss the Draupati Ratha.




HISTORY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY


Part A


1. Who discovered the isochronisms of the Pendulum?

a) Dalton b) Galileo

c) Copernicus d) Boyle

2. In which book the astronomical observations of Galileo was

published?

a) Starry Messenger b) Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres

c) Origin of Spices d) Sceptical Chemistry

3. What was the theory contributed by Newton to Science?

a) Fermentation Theory b) Theory of Gravitation

c) Theory of Evolution d) Magnetic Theory

4. Who was the father of Zoological Science?

a) Dalton b) Darwin c) Galileo d) John Hunter

5. Who discovered the germ theory of fermentation?

a) John Hunter b) Louis Pasteur

c) Gurushetra d) Harvey

6. Name of the first scientist who define atom?

a) John Dalton b) Antoine Lavoisier

c) Joseph Priestly d) Henry Cavendish

7. Who discovered Radium?

a) Marie Curie b) Einstein

c) Roentgen d) Faraday

8. Who is the father of atomic energy?

a) John Datton b) Antoine Lavoisier

c) Joseph Priestly d) Henry Cavendish

9. Who was the founder of Indian Space Research organization at

Thumba?

a) Aryabhata b) Bhaskara

c) VikramSarabai d) Abdul Kalam

10. Who was the first Indian to receive Nobel prize?

a) J.C.Bose b) C.V.Raman

c) A.P. J Abdulkalam d) KasthuriRangan

Part B


11. a) Give an account of the contribution of Nicholas Copernicus to

Science.

(or)

b) Trace The contribution of Andreas Vesalius to Modern Science.

12. a) Explain the discoveries of John Hunter.

(or)

b) Give an account of Robert Boyle.

13. a) Explain the contribution of Faraday to science.

(or)

b) Give a note on Alfred Nobel.

14. a) Prove that Rutherford is the father of the Atomic Science.

(or)

b) Give an account of Roentgen.

15. a) Explain ISRO and its role in the modern Indian Science and

Technology.

(or)

b) Elucidate the contribution of sir C.V.Raman or the growth of

Modern Science.

Part C


16. Write an essay on the discoveries of Galileo.

17. Describe the William Harvey discoveries on circulation of blood.

18. Describe the contributions of Louis Pasteur to the growth of the

science of Microbiology.

19. Describe the role of Einstein in the growth of science.

20. Estimate the contributions of Dr. Abdulkalam in the growth of

modern science.

*****

Part B


6. Write an essay about the fundamental principles of journalism.

7. Describe the role played by Journalism in a democratic country.

8. Evaluate the rights and privileges of the press in India.

9. Give an account on the Indian news agencies.

10. Bring out the importance of press laws.

*******




SKILL BASED SUBJECT

JOURNALISM


Part A


1. Discuss the duties of journals.

2. Write about the aims of Journals.

3. What are the rights of the press in India?

4. What do you know about the privileges of the press in India?

5. Explain about the press council of India.

Part B


6. Present a detailed note on phased life cycle model.

7. Discuss about the format of software Requirement specification.

8. Explain in detail about fundamental design concepts.

9. Explain system Testing.

10. Describe Configuration Management.

*******




SKILL BASED SUBJECT


Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc.. (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Discuss about some size factors.

2. Describe project structure.

3. Discuss about Cohesion.

4. Explain about Walkthroughs and Inspections.

5. Write a note on Quality Assurance.

Question Code: A24107 Sub Code:

BCSCR62



COMPUTER NETWROKS

Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Expand MAN______.

a) Metro Access Network b) Metropolitan Area Network

c) Mass Around Network d) None of the above

2. TCP / IP Reference model has _____ layers.

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

3. UTP stands for ______.

a) United Twisted Pair b) Unshielded Twisted Pair

c) Underground Twisted Pair d) None of the above

4. Which telephone network is designed for human voice

transmission?

a) PSTN b) PTN

c) ITU d) None of the above

5. Error control is a mechanism of _____.

a) Physical Layer b) Data Link Layer

c) Network Layer d) Transport Layer

6. Temporary delaying outgoing acknowledgement for hooking into next

outgoing frame is _____.

a) chaining b) piggy packing

c) framing d) none of the above

7. When too many packets are present in the subnet, then the performance

degradation is termed as, ______.

a) Congestion b) Flooding

c) Framing d) None of the above

8. QoS stands for _______.

a) Quantified Service b) Quality oriented Service

c) Quality of Service d) None of the above

9. SMTP relates to _____.

a) chat b) browsing

c) e-mail d) none of the above

10. Messages to be encrypted is known as, _____.

a) plaintext b) ciphertext

d) simple text d) none of the above

Part B


11. a) Write note on Wide Area Network.

(or)

b) Discuss connection oriented and connectionless services.

12. a) Write about Coaxial cable.

(or)

b) Discuss Radio transmission.

13. a) Explain about Flow control.

(or)

b) Discuss simplex stop and wait protocol.

14. a) Write short note on Non–adaptive algorithm and Adaptive algorithm.

(or)

b) Describe about Transport Services.

15. a) Write note on Domain Name System.

(or)

b) Discuss about WWW.

Part C


16. Explain in detail about TCP/IP Reference model.

17. Discuss Fiber Optic Cables.

18. Explain in detail about Multiple Access Protocols.

19. Write in detail about shortest Path Routing.

20. Describe about E-mail Architecture and Services.

*******

Part B


6. Enumerate the Role of international Airlines in the tourism industry.

7. Explain the procedures for emergencies in front office department.

8. Explain the job description of front office assistant briefly.

9. Enumerate in detail about left luggage procedure.

10. Explain about guest Arrival and departure procedure.

*****

Question Code : A25405 Sub Code: BNDSB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

FRONT OFFICE MANAGEMENT

Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc. (N and D with CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Describe the different types of hotels.

2. Describe the components of hotel industry.

3. Explain the importance and advantages of Job description.

4. Explain in detail about front office salesmanship.

5. Enumerate the procedures at the beginning of the day at the reception.

Part B


6. Write in detail about the components of functional foods.

7. Briefly explain about “Terpenoids”.

8. Elaborate the functional foods from Animal sources.

9. Describe on functional foods from plant sources.

10. Write about the role of functional foods in the prevention of cancer.

*****

Question Code : A25406 Sub Code: BNDSB62



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

FUNCTIONAL FOODS

Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc. (N and D with CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Write about the sources of functional foods.

2. Discuss various types of Nutraceuticals.

3. Describe about the functional foods of fruits and vegetables.

4. Write about the health effects of probiotics and prebiotics.

5. Explain the role of functional foods in gut health.

Question Code: A24106 Sub Code: BCSCR61



COMPUTER GRAPHICS


Part A


1. Smallest size object that can be displayed on a monitor is called

_____.

a) Picture element b) Point

c) Dot Pitch d) aspect ratio

2. In CRT, the electron intensity is adjusted using ______.

a) Accelerating anode b) Control grid

c) Electron gun d) Focusing anode

3. ______ controls the basic display properties of output primitives.

a) Attribute parameter b) setpixel

c) getpixel d) None of the above

4. The simplest output primitive is _______.

a) Straight line b) Straight line segment

c) Point d) Circle

5. _____controls the basic display properties of output primitives.



6. ______is defined as the distance between the baseline and cap line of

the character body.

a) Character Size b) Character Height

c) Character Width d) Character Length

7. The basic transformations include ______.


c) Scaling d) All of the above

8. The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where

the image will actually appear are called _____.

a) Transformation viewing b) View port

c) Clipping window d) Screen coordinate system

9. The region code of a point within the window is ______.

a) 1111 b) 0000 c) 1000 d) 0001

10. Identify an relative locator device from the following:

a) Mouse b) Touch panel

c) Light pen d) Keyboard

Part B


11. a) Explain the usage of Computer Graphics in Education and

Training, Computer Aided Design and Image Processing.

(or)

b) Explain the various Input devices of Graphics.

12. a) Explain the Bresenham‟s Line Generation Algorithm.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Character Generation.

13. a) Discuss the usage of Curve Attributes.

(or)

b) Discuss the usage of Bundled Attributes.

14. a) Write short notes on Homogeneous Coordinates.

(or)

b) Explain Viewing Pipeline.

15. a) Discuss Polygon Clipping Algorithm.

(or)

b) Explain the different Graphical User Interfaces.

Part C


16. Discuss in detail about Video Display Devices.

17. Explain Ellipse Generating Algorithm with example.

18. Discuss in detail about Color and Gray Scale Levels.

19. Write short notes on i) Basic 2D transformations ii) Viewing

Transformation.

20. Explain Cohen Sutherland Line Clipping algorithm.

*******

b) The work function of a photosensitive surface is 3 eV. Will photo emission

occur if a photon of energy 3.5 eV is incident on the surface? If yes, find

in joules the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron.

32. a) Explain Seebeck effect, Peltier effect and Thomson effect. Mention

some applications of thermoelectricity.

b) What is the largest voltage you can safely put across a 98 ohm,

0.5 W resistor?

33. a) What is meant by wave – particle duality of radiation.

b) Find the de Broglie wavelength of electrons moving with a kinetic

energy of 100 eV. 31-34 1019 melectron of mass 10 636 h

34. a) Write the main characteristics of the nuclear force.

b) The half life period of a radioactive substance is 16 hours. After how

much time will 6.25% of a material remain undecayed.

35. a) What is meant by energy bands in solids? Distinguish between

conductors, insulators and semi conductors.

b) A common emitter transistor amplifier has current gain of 50. If load

resistance is k4 , input resistance is 500 , Find the voltage gain

of the amplifier.

*********




SKILL BASED SUBJECT

PHYSICS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS

Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc. ( Physics) Max. Marks: 75 Part A

Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (30 x 1 = 30 marks) 1. S.I unit of emf is ______

a) ohm b) Volt c) farad d) ampere

2. Ohm‟s law is _____

a) R = VI b) I = RV c) V = IR d) V = I / R

3. SI unit of resistance is ______

a) volt b) ohm c) farad d) ampere

4. The order of free electron density in metals is

a) 3

2910m

b) 3

2010m

c) 3

3010m

d) 3

2510m

5. The resistance of an ideal ammeter is

a) positive b) negative c) zero d) infinite

6. The device used for measuring internal resistance of a cell is _____

a) potentiometer b) voltmeter c) ammeter d) galvanometer

7. Eddy current produces large amount of heat in

a) dynamo b) motors c) transformers d) all the above

8. Working principle of a transformer is ____.

a) self induction b) mutual induction c) capacitance d) none

9. The temperature of the hot junction at which thermo emf is maximum , is

called _____.

a) inversion temperature b) neutral temperature

c) eritical temperature d) none

10. Joule‟s law is _____.

a) U = IRT b) tIRU 2 c) RtIU 2

d) U = IR / t

11. The phenomenon that establishes particle nature of light is

a) specific charge b) photo electric effect

c) electron diffraction d) none

12. Photo current is _____ to the frequency of independent radiation.

a) directly proportional b) inversely proportional

c) independent of d) none

13. Nuclides having same atomic number, but different mss number are called

____.

a) isobars b) isotopes c) isotones d) none

14. What is the SI unit of activity?

a) bequerel b) roentgen c) curie d) Rutherford

15. Which part of the atom is responsible for radio activity?

a) electron b) nucleus c) proton d) photon

16. Which is the best moderator for a nuclear reactor?

a) water b) heavy water c) graphite d) all the above

17. The wave length and momentum of a photon is related by

a) p

h b) hp c) h

p d) hp 2

18. Specific charge of a particle is _____

a) q m b) m / q c) q / m d) 2qm

19. _____light can eject electrons from a photosensitive surface.

a) red b) blue c) orange d) all the above

20. Arrange and , rays in increasing order of penetrating power.

a) ,, b) , i c) , 1 d) , ,

21. A pure semiconductor is _____semiconductor.

a) extrinsic b) intrinsic c) doped d) perfect

22. Elements used as pentavalent impurity are

a) phosphorous b) antimony c) Arsenic d) all the above

23. Low resistance of np junction is due to _____

a) Forward bias b) reverse bias c) load d) none

24. In a common emitter transistor amplifier, the output voltage is ____with the

input voltage.

a) in phase b) out of phase c) 90 phase shifted d) None

25. Boolean expression for NAND gate is

a) Y = BA b) BAY c) Y = A + B d) AY

26. Which among the following is a universal gate?

a) AND b) OR c) NAND d) NOT

27. A potential difference is applied across a non – uniform metal rod. Which of

the following quantities remain constant along the rod?

a) current b) current density c) drift velocity d) none

28. An electrochemical cell converts ____ energy into electrical energy.

a) kinetic b) chemical c) potential d) mechanical

29. Commercial unit of electrical energy is _____

a) Joule b) Watt c) Kilo Watt Hour d) eV

30. Refrigeration is the application of _____

a) Seebeck effect b) Peltier effect c) Joule effect d) Thomson effect

Part B

Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 15= 45 marks)

31. a) Explain stopping potential and threshold frequency in photo electric

emission. Give an appropriate graph showing the variation of stopping

potential with the frequency of incident radiation.

Question Code: A25110 Sub Code: BNDCR62



COMMUNITY NUTRITION

Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. (N&D with CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. _____ encompasses a broad set of activities designed to provide

access to a healthful diet to a population living in a particular

geographic area.

a) Public health nutrition b) Special nutrition programme

c) Community nutrition d) Applied nutrition programme

2. Biochemical information is related to obtaining data about_____.

a) food intake b) indicators in body tissues

c) signs of poor nutritional health d) prevalence of health problems

3. One of the signs of anaemia is______.

a) koilonychia b) growth retardation

c) muscle wasting d) stunting

4. Identify the component to prevent PEM is ______.

a) maternal malnutrition b) low birth weight

c) supplementary feeding d) dietary inadequacy

5. Body Mass Index is the ratio of ______.

a) weight (in pounds)/ height (m2) b) weight (in kg)/ height (m

2)

c) weight (in pounds)/ height (cm2) d) weight (in kg)/ height (m)

6. The Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated from the annual number

of female deaths per ----------- live births.

a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10000 d) 100000

7. FAO was established in the year ______.

a) 1943 b) 1944 c) 1945 d) 1946

8. Central Reference Laboratory of NNMB is located in one of the

following states

a) Kerala b) Punjab c) Rajastan d) Assam

9. ------ can serve as convenient centres for disseminating nutrition

education to young mothers.

a) Women‟s organisations b) schools

c) exhibition d) PHC

10. A visual aid which stimulate the interest of people with respect to

nutrition message is ______.

a) lecture b) poster

c) demonstration d) newspaper

Part B


11. a) Sketch the types of information used to identify nutrition

problem.

(or)

b) Evaluate the most common health problems present in your

community.

12. a) Write short notes on cretinism.

(or)

b) Assess the manifestations of fluorosis.

13. a) Examine the common measurements used in nutritional

anthropometry.

(or)

b) Outline the clinical signs of Vitamin A deficiency.

14. a) Discuss the key health projects carried out by CARE India.

(or)

b) Highlight the functions of ICAR.

15. a) Brief the framework of planning nutrition education programmes

for the public.

(or)

b) Classify the modes of training available in the field of nutrition.

Part C


16. Explain in detail the objectives of community nutrition.

17. Describe the spectrum of IDD in different age groups.

18. Elicit the different biochemical tests used to assess nutritional status

of the community.

19. Elucidate the following with respect to ICDS.

i) Objectives ii) Target groups iii) Programme Components

20. Elaborate the various channels available to impart nutrition education

to the community.

*****

Question Code: A24307 Sub Code: BCSME61



WEB TECHNOLOGY


Part A


1. Which of the following is private IP address?

a) 12.0.0.1 b) 168.172.19.39

c) 172.15.14.36 d) 192.168.24.43

2. Which of the following is the first web browser?

a) Nexus b) Netscape Navigator

c) Internet Explorer d) Mosaic

3. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of

the OSI model?

a) Application b) Host-to-Host

c) Internet d) Network Access

4. Where is the correct place to insert a JavaScript?

a) <body> b) <head>

c) <title> d) both (a) and (b)

5. How can you get the type of arguments passed to a function?

a) using typeof operator b) using getType function

c) using returnType function d) None of the above.

6. Which of the following function of String object returns a number

indicating the Unicode value of the character at the given index?

a) charAt() b) charCodeAt()

c) unicode( ) d) indexOf()

7. What is the result of the following code snippet?

window.location == document.location

a) False b) true

c) 0 d)

8. How is everything treated in HTML DOM?

a) Node b) Attributes

c) Elements d) All the above

9. Which of these package contains classes and interfaces for

networking?

a) java.io b) java.util

c) java.net d) java.network

10. Which class is used to create a server that listen for either local

client or remote client programs?

a) ServerSockets b) Http Server

c) HttpRequest d) Http Response

Part B


11. a) Draw the web architecture with example.

(or)

b) Discuss the concept of IPv4 addresses.

12. a) Explain the javascript variable with examples.

(or)

b) Explain the various types of built in functions in javascript.

13. a) Discuss date object in javascript.

(or)

b) Write a short note about window prompt() method with

examples.

14. a) How do you create a cookie? Explain.

(or)

b) What is java script event? Explain any three events with examples.

15. a) Explain the concept of web servers and clients.

(or)

b) Discuss the concept of TCP/IP server socket.

Part C


16. Explain in detail about web browsers with examples.

17. Discuss the types of operators in javascript with examples.

18. Explain the types of window object methods in JavaScript with

examples.

19. Explain in detail about exceptions handling in javascript.

20. Discuss any five types of networking classes and interfaces.

********

Question Code: A25109 Sub Code: BNDCR61



CLINICAL NUTRITION AND LABORATORY TECHNIQUES

Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. (N&D with CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Common test used to detect urinary sugar is _______.

a) Barjoed‟s b) Fehling‟s

c) Benedict‟s d) Selivanoff‟s

2. Urine should be examined within _____hours after discharge.

a) two b) five c) six d) eight

3. The ketone bodies are formed in______.

a) Liver b) Spleen

c) gall bladder d) none

4. Jaundice is clinically detected in S. Clerae when serum bilirubin

concentration reaches above.

a) 0. 5 to 1mg / 100 ml b) 1 to 2 mg /100 ml

c) 2 to 3 mg /100 ml d) 3 to 4 mg /100 ml

5. The Hollanders gastric stimulation test routinely requires the use of

_______.

a) Alcohol b) Gastrin

b) Glucose d) Insulin

6. Vagal nerves are intact if basal gastric test results indicate ______.

a) Hypo chlorhydria b) presence of pepsin

c) Normal Hydrogen ion secretion d) presence of gastrin

7. In patients with renal failure all of the following are typically

elevated in serum, except ______.

a) urea nitrogen b) phosphate

c) uric acid d) albumin

8. Normal maximum urea clearance (cm) in an adult averages about

_______.

a) 60 b) 65 c) 70 d) 75

9. Platelets are produced in the _____from megakaryocytes.

a) Bone marrow b) liver

c) skin d) small intestine

10. _____ function in the host immune defence against helminths and

participate in some inflammatory reactions.

a) Eosinophils b) Basophils

c) Lymphocyts d) Monocyts

Part B


11. a) How will you express the concentration of solutions in metric

system?

(or)

b) What are the preservatives used for preserving wine sample?

12. a) Briefly explain about Hippuric acid test.

(or)

b) Describe the role of liver in fat metabolism.

13. a) Explain the Hollander‟s gastric stimulation test.

(or)

b) Discuss about the types of stomach Tubes.

14. a) Describe “endogenous ceratinine clearance test”.

(or)

b) Write the procedure for urea clearance test.

15. a) How will you determine the serum creatinine level?

(or)

b) Briefly describe the Haemoglobin estimation.

Part C


16. Describe the tests used for detecting the presence of sugar in

urine.

17. Enumerate the various functions of liver. Describe the liver

function tests based on excretion of bilirubin.

18. Enlist the gastric functions tests. Explain the Tubelers gastric

analysis.

19. What is meant by the term “Clearance”? Describe the urea

clearance test and its significance.

20. Enumerate the methods of determination of Blood Glucose.

Explain any one method in detail.

*******

Question Code: A40116 Sub Code: BBNCR63 / UBNCR63




Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A. Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. VB programming is done in a ____ environment.

a) Text_only b) object oriented

c) graphical d) none

2. The value changes during the execution of program is called ____.

a) constant b) variable

c) statement d) none

3. Which tool is used to select one choice from a group?

a) Option button b) check box

c) frame d) none

4. To Find and remove bugs is called _____.

a) debugging b) correction

c) checking d) none

5. Expansion of MDI _____.

a) Multiple Document Interface b) More Data Interface

c) Multiple Data Interface d) none

6. _____ dialog box is used to display a message

a) input b) label

c) message d) none

7. _____ procedures have a return value.

a) sub b) function c) main d) none

8. _____ is a set of sequentially indexed elements having the same

intrinsic data type.

a) file b) record c) array d) none

9. ______ file is used for reading and writing arbitrarily structured

files.

a) Binary b) Random c) Sequential d) none

10. In _____ access method, data is stored as binary information

a) sequential b) random c) binary d) none

Part B


11. a) What are the operators available in VB ? Explain with examples.

( OR )

b) List any five string functions and give example with explanation.

12. a) Discuss various Form properties.

( OR )

b) Explain the concepts of „Text Box‟. Give examples

13. a) Compare Combo Box and List Box.

( OR )

b) Explain the following concepts

i) Syntax error ii) Logical error

14. a) Write a VB coding to find the biggest value among „N‟ numbers.

( OR )

b) Explain the concepts of Sub procedures and Event procedures

15. a) Write about the usage of sequential file in VB.

( OR )

b) Explain the concept of Random Access files.

Part C


16. Explain various IF statements with example.

17. State and explain various form events with sample program.


a) Input dialog box b) Message dialog box

19. Write a program to generate a calculator using control array

20. Write a VB program using Common Dialog Control

*******

Part B


6. What are the factors which should be taken in to account during the

designing of medical equipment?

7. Discuss the loading effect and sensitivity of the bridge.

8. With block diagram explain, Differential capacitive transducer.

How is it used as a pressure sensor.

9. Discuss the different lead configurations used in ECG.

10. Describe the recording setup used in EMG. Also write a note on

ERG.

*******




SKILL BASED SUBJECT

BIO MEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION - II

Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc (physics ) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Draw the structure of living cell of our body and explain its

constituents.

2. What are bioelectric potentials? Discuss the frequency and voltage

range of ECG, EEG and EMG.

3. Write a short note on magnetic induction type and photovoltaic type

transducer.

4. Describe LVDT along with its electrical characteristics.

5. Write a note on Electrooculography (EOG)

Part B


6. Comment on the pros and cons of using social media to network.

7. What are the possible Questions at the interview?

8. What are the common essential criteria to apply for a job?

9. Explain the factors essential for success in an interview.

10. What strategies can be adopted to solve the problems at workplace?

*******




SKILL BASED SUBJECT

JOB SEEKING SKILLS


Part A


1. What are the factors that make job seeking so challenging?

2. Explain the concept of self esteem.

3. Explain the procedure involved in preparing applications.

4. What are the features of an interview?

5. How to start in a new job?

Part C


16. Explain detail with examples about „Format‟ command in MATLAB.

17. Discuss all the built in functions for handling arrays with examples.

18. Use matrix operations to solve the following system of linear equations

in MATLAB :

03106

4282

8624

zyx

zyx

zyx

19. Determine a function w = f(t) (it is the independent variable, w is the

dependent variable) with a form discussed in this section that best fits

the data.

t : 0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0

w 6.00 4.83 3.7 3.15 2.41 1.83 1.49 1.21 0.96 0.73 0.64

20. A car with a mass m of 1500 kg hits the bumper at a speed of 90 km / h.

Determine and plot the velocity of the car as a function of its position

for mx 30 [ use the formula 33 1xkvF where k = 30 s. 5/ mkg

is a constant.

********

Sub Code: UMCME61



MATLAB

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. – Maths (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. In MATLAB, the _____sign is called the assignment operator

a) b) = c) - d) +

2. Variable names can be upto _____characters long in MATLAB 6.5

a) 63 b) 31 c) 60 d) 30

3. A single vector element v(k) can be used as a ______.

a) Number b) parameter c) variable d) none

4. A (m : n, p : q) refers to the elements

a) in columns m through n and rows p through q of the matrix A.

b) in rows m through n and columns p through q of the matrix A.

c) in columns p through q and rows m through n of the matrix A.

d) in rows p through q and columns m through n of the matrix A.

5. ______computes the dot product of two vectors.

a) dot (a, b) b) dot ( )ba c) dot (a ; b) d) dot (a : b)

6. The _____operation can be explained with the help of the identity

matrix and the inverse operation.

a) Addition b) exponentiation

c) multiplication d) division

7. _______functions cannot model 0x (or) negative values of x .

a) Logarithmic b) Exponential

5m

36m

x

c) Trigonometric d) None

8. _____are mathematical expressions that are frequently used for

problems solving and modelling.

a) Interpolation b) Polynomials

c) curve fitting d) None

9. When a function is entered as a string in „fzero‟, it can not include

______.

a) Pre – defined variables b) changing variables

c) parameter d) none

10. When the „fminbnd‟ command is executed, it tries to find _____within

the interval that is entered for x .

a) The end point 1X b) The end point 2X

c) a local minimum d) none

Part B


11. a) Explain the „Rounding functions‟ in MATLAB with examples.

(OR)

b) Write the rules about variable names in MATLAB.

12. a) Explain deleting elements in arrays with examples.

(OR)

b) Given are a 5 x 6 matrix A, a 3 x 6 matrix B, and a 9 element

long vector V.

A =

2118151296

2017141185

1916131074

181512963

171411852

; B =

807570656055

555045403530

30252015105

V = [ 99 98 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 ]

Create the three arrays in the command window, and then by writing

on command, replace the last four elements of the 1st and 3

rd rows of

A with the first four columns of the first two rows of B, the last four

columns of the 4th

row of A with the elements 5 through 8 of V and

the last four columns of the 5th

row of A with columns 3 through 5 of

the third row of B.

13. a) Write how to perform matrix addition and matrix subtraction

MATLAB.

(OR)

b) Write any seven built – in – functions for analysing arrays in

MATLAB with example.

14. a) Explain in detail the POLYFIT function for the curve fitting with

functions other than polynomials in MATLAB.

(OR)

b) For the polynomial

88.3595.71015175940112 2345 xxxxxxf

i) Calculate f (9) ii) plot the polynomial for -1.5 7.6x

15. a) Determine the distance x for which is maximum for the

configuration shown in the figure.

(OR)

b) Use the data to calculate the flow rate and then integrate the flow

rate to obtain an estimate of the total amount of water that flows

in the river during a year. Day 1 32 60 91 121 152 182 213 244 274 305 335 366

H(m) 2.0 2.1 2.3 2.4 3.0 2.9 2.7 2.6 2.5 2.3 2.2 2.1 2.0

V(m/s) 2.0 2.2 2.5 2.7 5 4.7 4.1 3.8 3.7 2.8 2.5 2.3 2.0

8. Find the cash required to purchase Rs.3,200,7 % stock at 107

(brokerage %)

Part B Answer any FIVE questions 5 x 10 = 50 marks

9. A sum of money doubles itself at compound interest in 15 years. In

how many years will it become eight times?

10. On what dates of April, 2001 did Wednesday fall?

11. A man buys Rs.20 shares paying 9% dividend. The man wants to have

an interest of 12% on his money. Find the market value of each share.

12. Which is better investment, 11% stock at 143 or 9 % stock at 117?

13. The true discount on a certain sum of money due 3 years hence is

Rs.250 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same time and

at the same rate is Rs.375. Find the sum and the rate percent.

14. The banker‟s discount and the true discount on a sum of money due 8

months hence are Rs.120 and Rs.110 respectively. Find the sum and

the rate percent.

15. Find the odd man out: (i) 19,28,39,52,67,84,102

(ii) 190,166,145,128,112,100,91 (iii) 10,26,74,218,654,1946,5834.

16. Insert the missing number: (i) 3,7,6,5,9,3,12,1,15,(…)

(ii) 9,12,11,14,13,(…),15 (iii) 165,195,255,285,345,(…).

*******

Sub Code: UMASB61/ UMCSB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

QUANTITATIVE MATHEMATICS

Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc – Maths & Maths (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 12% per

annum is Rs.40 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 3 years

at 10% per annum. Find the sum.

2. Prove that the calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year

2007.

3. Find the income derived from 88 shares of Rs.25 each at 5 premium,

brokerage being per share and the rate of dividend being 7 % per

annum. Also, find the rate of interest on the investment.

4. The true discount on a bill due 9 months hence 12% per annum is

Rs.540. Find the amount of the bill and its present worth.

5. Find the odd man out: (i) 1,5,14,30,50,55,91 (ii). 2,5,10,50,500,5000

6. Divide Rs.1301 between A and B, so that the amount of A after 7 years is

equal to the amount of B after 9 years, the interest being compounded at

4% per annum.

7. It was Sunday on Jan1, 2006. What was the day of the week on Jan 1,

2010?

Salesman

Area 1S

2S 3S 4S

A 22 27 38 45

B 28 32 40 38

C 25 40 36 22

Part C


16. Obtain i) Mean ii) Median and iii) Mode for the following

distribution

elsewhere

xifxxxf

0

106 2

17. Define : Poisson distribution and fit a Poisson distribution to the

following data x 0 1 2 3 4 Total

F 123 59 14 3 1 200

18. A machine puts out 16 imperfect articles in a sample of 500 articles.

After the machine is overvalued it put out 3 defective articles in a

sample of 100. Has the machine improved?

19. For the 2 x 2 contingency table dc

ba , show that the 2

- test of

independence is dcca

bcadN

ba db

2

2 where N = a+b+c+d.

20. An agricultural experiment on the Latin square plot gave the following

results for the yield of wheat per acre. Letters corresponding to various

columns to treatments and rows to blocks. Discuss the variation of

yield with each of these factors. A16 B10 C11 D9 E9

E10 C9 A14 B12 D11

B15 D8 E8 C10 A18

D12 E6 B13 A13 C12

C13 A11 D10 E7 B14

Sub Code: UMACR64 / UMCCR64

SRI S. RAMASAMY NAIDU MEMORIAL COLLEGE, SATTUR


ADVANCED STATISTICS

Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. - Maths & Maths (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. Find the value of the constant C if

x

Cxf3

2 x = 1,2,3, .....is a p.d.f

of a discrete random variable X.

a) C= 0 b) C= 1 c) C= 2

1 d) C = 2

2. If 1

r is the thr moment about the origin of random variable X and if

! 1 rr then the M.G.F of X is

a) 1+t b) 1-t c) 1

1 t d) 1

1 t

3. The fourth order Cumulant of a Poisson distribution is

a) 2 b) 2 c) d) 0

4. The Points of inflection of a Normal distribution are

a) b) 2 c) 2

d) 2

5. A hypothesis tested for possible rejection under the assumption that it is

true is

a) alternative hypothesis b) Null hypothesis

c) Type I error d) Type II error

6. Accepting a hypothesis 0H when 0H is false is called

a) Type I error b) Type II error c) error d) mean

7. 2 distribution is used to test

a) population variance b) goodness of fit

c) independence of attributes d) All the above

8. In a 2 - distribution

a) n

i

n

i

ii eO1 1

b) n

i

n

i

ii eO1 1

c) n

i

n

i

ii eO1 1

d) n

i

n

i

ii eO1 1

9. The arrangement of „n‟ letters A,B, C, ......such that each letter

occurring in each column and one in each row is called

a) ANOVA b) Latin Square

c) One – way classification d) Two – way classification

10. The process of studying the variation present in the observed values

classified into several classes is called.

a) Latin Square b) ANOVA c) 2 - distribution d) t- distribution

Part B


11. a) Define : Cumulant generating function and hence find first three

cumulants.

(OR)

b) A random variable X has the probability function

1,2,3, 2

1xxp

x....Find its i) M.g.f. ii) Mean iii) Variance

12. a) Find & Coefficients of Poisson distribution and also find

4321 ,,, .

(OR)

b) In a normal distribution 31% of the items are under 45 and 8% are

over 64. Find the mean and standard deviation.

13. a) A manufacturer claimed that atleast 95% of the equipment which he

supplied to a factory conformed to specifications. An examination of

a sample of 200 Pieces of equipments revealed that 18 were faulty.

Test this claim at a significance level of i) 5% ii) 1%

(OR)

b) The mean heights of 50 male students who showed above average

participation in college sports was "268 with s.d "52 ; while 50 male

students who showed no interest in such participation had mean height

"567 with s.d. "82 . Test the hypothesis that male students who

participate in college sports are taller than other male students

14. a) Five Coins are tossed 320 times. The number of heads observed is

given below. Examine whether the Coin is unbiased.

No of heads 0 1 2 3 4 5 Total

Frequency 15 45 85 95 60 20 320

(OR)

b) The theory predicts that the proportion of an object available in four

groups A, B, C, D should be 9: 3: 3: 1. In an experiment among 1600

items of this object the numbers in the four groups were 882, 313, 287

and 118. Use 2 test to verify whether the experimental result

supports the theory.

15. a) The following table gives the results of experiments on 4 varieties of

Crops in 5 blocks of plots. Prepare the table of analysis of variance to

test the significance of difference between the yields of the 4 varieties.

Block

Variety

1 2 3 4 5

A 32 34 35 35 37

B 34 33 36 37 35

C 31 34 35 32 36

D 29 26 30 28 29

(OR)

b) A Company manufacturing a certain product appointed 4 Salesman

4321 ,,, SSSS in three different areas A, B, C. For the following data

carryout the analysis of variance to test whether there is a significant

difference in the sales of the 4 salesmen and in the sales carried out in

different areas.

Question Code: A30117 Sub Code: BCOCR64



INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT


Part – A

Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. Gambling is

a) an intelligent speculation b) based on rumours

c) successful speculation d) none of these

2. Investment made in real estate is a

a) Real investment b) Financial investment

c) Non – financial investment d) Intangible investment

3. Primary and Secondary markets

a) control each other b) function independently

c) compete with each other d) complement each other

4. At per means

a) Shares issued at premium b) shares issued at discount

c) shares issued at face value d) all the above

5. ______is an independent broker who purchases and sells

securities in his own name.

a) Bull b) Bear c) Jobber d) none

6. The another name of secondary market is ______.

a) capital market b) money market

c) stock exchange d) none

7. The main function entrusted with SEBI is

a) capital formation

b) regulating the business in stock exchange and any other

c) issue of statistics

d) giving financial assistance to stock exchange

8. To prevent insider trading SEBI has introduced regulations in

______.

a) 1990 b) 1992 c) 1980 d) none of these

9. SEBI Act was promulgated by the government in

a) 1993 b) 1994 c) 1995 d) 1996

10. CDSL commenced its operations in

a) 1999 B) 1998 c) 1997 d) 1996

PART –B


11. a) Distinction between investment and speculation.

(OR)

b) What are the classifications of investment?

12. a) What are the relationship between the primary market and

secondary market?

(OR)

b) Discuss the methods of floating shares in new issue market.

13. a) Explain the various process of control over stock exchanges.

(OR)

b) Discuss the membership sales in stock exchanges.

14. a) Describe the SEBI guidelines for secondary market.

(OR)

b) Explain the complaints against members of stock exchanges.

15. a) Explain the function of NSDL.

(OR)

b) Describe the process of dematerialisation.

PART – C


16. Explain the salient features of SEBI (Reporting and participants)

Regulation Act.

17. Explain in detail the functions and management of SEBI.

18. Describe the function of stock exchange.

19. Explain the parties involved in the new issue market.

20. Describe the features of an investment programme. What steps

should an investor follow to make an investment?

********

Question Code: A31116 Sub Code: BCACR63



E – COMMERCE

Time : 3 Hrs B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. _____is an unique name that identifies an internet website.

a) DSL b) Domain name c) B2 G d) C 2 C

2. _____protocol is used for transferring any kind of file, like, doc, bmp

& Jpeg.

a) File Transfer Protocol b) GPRS c) ASC x 12 d) TCP

3. _____content includes a combination of text, graphics etc.

a) I – way b) multimedia c) servers d) HTML

4. Electronic banking is also known as ______.

a) E- learning b) E – trading c) E- Tailing d) Cyber banking

5. I – way is known as information ______.

a) Super highway b) Paypal c) WAIS d) Gopher

6. _____combines the qualities of hypertext and multimedia.

a) Hyper media b) Client c) HTTP d) WWW

7. _____is used to identify specific sites and files available on the

WWW.

a) Smartcard b) NSFNET c) URL d) VAN

8. Usage of computers and networks for criminal activities is called as

_______.

a) DSL b) Cyber crime c) Browser d) C 2 C

9. _______is a special signature for signing electronic correspondence.

a) EDI b) ATM c) Digital signature d) VAN

10. The _____system records each sale in a central data base, using a

scanner which reads the bar code on the product.

a) MIME b) POS c) E – Cash d) IRC

PART –B


11. a) Write a brief note on global information distribution networks.

(OR)

b) Explain the factors promoting E – Commerce.

12. a) Describe about various electronic commerce application services.

(OR)

b) Explain briefly about ATM.

13. a) Write a brief note on Credit card.

(OR)

b) Discuss about EDI Layered Architecture.

14. Write a note about customization and Internal commerce.

(OR)

b) Explain about Macro forces and internal commerce.

15. a) Explain the following advertising on the internet

i) Push – Based advertising ii) Pull – Based advertising

(OR)

b) Point out the guidelines for Internet advertising.

PART – C


16. Briefly explain the anatomy of E – commerce applications.

17. Describe about Mercantile Models from the consumer‟s Perspective?

18. Write down the importance of EDI applications in business.

19. Point out the new forms of organisational structure.

20. Explain about adaptation of the new product introduction process to

the internet.

********

Question Code: A30116 Sub Code: BCOCR63



BUSINESS LAW - II


Part – A

Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

1. A bailee has ______.

a) right of particular lien

b) right of generation

c) right of both particular lien and general lien

d) no lien at all.

2. The sale of goods act was enacted in the year

a) 1940 b) 1930 c) 1950 d) 1913

3. A signed document containing a written promise to pay a stated sum

to a specified person or the bearer at a specified date or on demand.

a) Promissory Note b) Cheque

c) Bill of exchange d) Hundis

4. The bill of exchange transaction contains

a) Drawee b) Drawer

c) Payee d) All the above

5. Which one of the following is known as Consumer disputes redressal

agency?

a) District forum b) State commission

c) National commission d) All the above

6. The chairman of the district consumer protection council is

a) District magistrate b) Collector of the District

c) MP of the district d) None of these

7. The object wagering agreement is to earn

a) capital gain b) short term gain

c) speculative gain d) insurable interest

8. Which one of the following is not a contract of indemnity?

a) personal accident insurance b) fire insurance

c) marine insurance d) none of these

9. Which Act was replaced with the introduction of Competition Act

2002?

a) FERA b ) MRTP c) POTA d) None of these

10. Which committee recommended the enactment of Competition Act?

a) High level Committee on competition policy and Law

b) A Committee on Law and Order

c ) A Central Committee for Research and Policy

d) None of these.

PART –B


11. a) Explain the rights of Bailee.

(OR)

b) State the circumstances regarding the discharge of bailment contract.

12. a) Write short notes on bill of exchange and Hundies.

(OR)

b) Explain the circumstances for the discharge of a Negotiable

Instrument.

13. a) How can you classify the consumer protection councils in India?

(OR)

b) Mention your suggestions for strengthening the growth of

consumer movement in India.

14. a) Distinguish between Insurance and wager.

(OR)

b) State the terms and conditions of payment of premium by the

insured.

15. a) Define agreement. Explain the prohibition of agreement?

(OR)

b) Write short notes on the following

a) Competition commission penalties

b) Competition Advocacy

PART – C


16. Discuss the duties of Bailor and Bailee.

17. Classify the various types of Negotiable Instruments.

18. Briefly explain the consumer disputes and Regressal.

19. Enumerate the fundamental elements of insurance contract.

20. List down the functions of competition commission and duties of

director general.

*******

18. From the following details, calculate net present value of two projects

and suggest which of the two projects should be accepted assuming a

discount rate of 10%.

Project X Rs. Project Y Rs.

Initial Investment 20,000 30,000

Estimated life 5 years 5 years

Scrap value 1000 2000

The profits before depreciation and after taxes are as follows.

Year 1

Rs.

2

Rs.

3

Rs.

4

Rs.

5

Rs.

Project X 5,000 10,000 10,000 3,000 2,000

Project Y 20,000 10,000 5,000 3,000 2,000

P. V. Factor @ 10% .909 .826 .751 .683 .621

1. From the following information, prepare an estimate of working

capital of Dunlop Ltd.

Average period

of credit

Estimated for

first year. Rs.

Purchase of material 6 months 26,00,000

Wages 1 ½ weeks 19,50,000

Overheads:-

Rent, rate, etc. 6 months 1,00,000

Salaries 1 month 8,00,000

Other overheads 2 months 7,50,000

Cash sales - 2,00,000

Credit sales 3 months 60,00,000

Average amount of stock and WIP - 4,00,000

Average amount of undrawn profits - 3,00,000

Assume that all expenses and income were at an even rate for the year.

2. The Earnings per share of Jasmine Ltd. is Rs.12, the rate of return is

8 % and the capitalisation rate is 10%.

Compute the market price of the share using Walter‟s approach if

payment is a) 25% b) 50% c) 100%

********

Question Code: A30114/ A31114 Sub Code: BCOCR61/ BCACR61





Part A


1. A person who is responsible in a significant way to carry out the finance

functions.

a) Treasurer b) Controller c) Finance Manager d) Control officer

2. Wealth maximisation is also known as _____maximisation.

a) value b) profit c) cost d) sale

3. Capital structure is concerned with _____aspect.

a) Qualitative b) Quantitative c) both (a) and (b) d) financing

4. The par value of stocks and bonds outstanding is termed as

a) Fixed capital b) Capitalisation c) Depression d) Financial planning

5. Under pay back method, a project would be accepted if the period is

a) Higher b) Medium c) Shorter d) All of these

6. Profitability index is also known as _____.

a) P V ratio b) Benefit ratio c) Cost ratios d) Benefit cost ratio

7. ______is the difference between current assets and current liabilities.

a) Net worth b) Net working capital

c) Gross working capital d) Proprietors fund

8. The capital used for meeting routine and repetitive expenses of day – to –

day business operation is called

a) Working capital b) Fixed capital c) Reserve capital d) All of these

9. ______dividend promises to pay the shareholders at a future date.

a) Stock b) Scrip c) Cash d) Property

10. Dividends may be declared in the form of

a) cash only b) bonus shares

c) preference shares d) cash and bonus shares

PART –B


11. a) List out the objectives of Financial Management.

(OR)

b) Narrate the scope of Financial Management.

12. a) Calculate the operating and financial leverages.

Sales Rs.50,000 ; Interest Rs. 5,000

Variable cost Rs.25,000 ; Fixed cost Rs.15,000

(OR)

b) Explain briefly the effects of under capitalisation.

13. a) Calculate the Average rate of return for projects A and B from the

following

Project A Project B

Investments Rs.20,000 Rs.30,000

Expected life

(No salvage value)

4 years 5 years

Years Project A Rs. Project B Rs.

1 2,000 3,000

2 1,500 3,000

3 1,500 2,000

4 1,000 1,000

5 - 1,000

6,000 10,000

If the required rate of return is 12%, which project should be

undertaken?

(OR)

b) The following particulars are relating to a project

Cost of the project – Rs.50,500

Annual cash Inflows:

years Rs.

1 5,000

2 20,000

3 30,000

4 30,000

5 10,000

Year 1 2 3 4 5

P.V Factor at 10% .909 .826 .751 .683 .621

Calculate discounted payback period.

14. a) Explain the various types of working capital.

(OR)

b) From the following details, you are required to forecast the working

capital requirements.

Rs.

Project annual sales - 6,50,000

% of net profit to cost sales - 25%

Average credit allowed to Debtors - 10 weeks

Average credit allowed to Creditors - 4 weeks

Average stock carrying -

( in terms of sales Requirement)

8 weeks

Add 20% to allow for contingencies

15. a) The following information relates to Vignesh Ltd.

Earnings per share Rs.9. ; Internal rate of return -18%

Cost of capital - 12% ; Payout ratio - 33.33%

Compute the market price under the Walter‟s model.

(OR)

b) Explain Modigliani – Miller‟s Dividend irrelevance Hypothesis.

PART – C


16. Describe the functions of a Treasurer and controller.

17. What are the major determinants of capital structure?

Part B


6. Describe the major Models of Man in an Organisation?

7. What is Personality development from Sigmund Fraud‟s point of

view?

8. Discuss the Traits theory of Personality.

9. Describe the factors influencing human interpretation in an

Organisation.

10. Discuss the process involved in Perception.

*******

Question Code: A30403/ A31403 Sub Code: BCOSB61 / BCASB61



SKILL BASED SUBJECT

PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT


Part A


1. “Human Behaviour is caused”. Examine this statement.

2. Highlight the impact of Personal Biographical factors in determining

individual behavior.

3. Define Personality. List out the different types of Personality.

4. Explain the Type theory of Personality.

5. Explain the internal and external factors affecting Perception.

Question Code: A11111 Sub Code: BELCR62



WOMEN’S WRITING IN ENGLISH AND IN TRANSLATION

Time : 3 Hrs B. A. ( English) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. _______ has parented many languages.

a) India b) USA c) UK d) China

2. In the _______ phase women wrote in an effort to equal the

intellectual achievements of male culture.

a) Feminine b) Feminist c) Female d) Final

3. “I am not that Woman” is written by ________.

a) Razia Khan b) KishwarNaheed

c) Kamala Das d) Alice Walker

4. The poem “Before You Knew You Owned It” talks about _______.

a) love b) reducing our expectations

c) poet‟s love for her grandmother d) depression

5. ______ is rebellious and expresses contempt for familial code.

a) Jyoti b) Bina c) Brati d) Nipa

6. DibyanathChatterjee is a ______ by profession.

a) chartered Accountant b) birth control officer

c) pollution control officer d) Teacher

7. Attitude towards ______ gives vital clues to a character in Sula.

a) family b) sex c) religion d) compassion

8. ______ determines a person‟s opportunity in Sula.

a) Academic progress b) Personality

c) Organisational skill d) Race

9. _____ calls Charlie as „Charlie boy‟.

a) Sally b) Jenny c) Lennie d) Thornton

10. ______ is a Hungarian refugee.

a) Haberman b) Harriet c) Imre d) Pat

PART –B


11. a) What is Showalter‟s perception regarding the Feminist critique?

(OR)

b) Explain the role of gynocritics as proposed by showalter.

12. a) Comment on the speaker‟s agony regarding her daughter in “My

Daughter‟s Boyfriend”.

(OR)

b) Supply your views on the nostalgic element in “My

Grandmother‟s House”.

13. a) How does the traumatic experience that Sujatha faces lead to her

death?

(OR)

b) Comment on the honest commitment that Brati had in his

mission.

14. a) Betrayal appears in relationships in the novel Sula.-Discuss.

(OR)

b) Write a note on the issues of race and gender in Sula.

15. a) Mike in England vs England symbolizes the voice of realism.-

justify.

(OR)

b) Compare and contrast the life styles of the narrator and other

women in “Wife‟s Story”

PART – C


16. Examine the views of Showalter regarding feminist poetics.

17. How does Kishwar Naheed bring the image of the suppressed women

in “I am not that Woman”?

18. Mahasweta Devi‟s portrayal of the plight of women in Mother of

1084 is realistic.-Discuss.

19. Examine the role played by female characters in Sula.

20. Explore the class difference that appear in “England Vs England”.

******

-1-

Question Code : A30115 /A31115 Sub Code: BCOCR62/ BCACR62



INCOME TAX -II


Part A


1. Un absorbed depreciation is adjusted ______ No of years?

a) 10 years b) 8 years

c) 4 years d) any number of years

2. _______Loss cannot be set off against a Salary Income.

a) Business Loss b) L.T. C Loss

c) S.T.C. Loss d) all the above

3. Who is treated as Karta of HUF?

a) Junior Most Male Member b) Senior Most Male Member

c) Senior Most Female member d) Junior Most Female member

4. Who is called super senior citizen?

a) age 40 and above b) age 60 and above

c) age 70 and above d) age 80 and above

5. If Book Loss in PFAS – What is the Maximum Limit of deduction is

allowed U / S 40b?

a) Rs.1,00,000 b) Rs.1,50,000

c) Rs.2,00,000 d) Rs.3,00,000

6. What is the Tax Liability of PFAS (Partnership Firm Assessed as

Such)

a) 20 % of the T.I. b) 30 % of the T. I

c) 35% of the T. I d) 40 % of the T. I

-2-

7. Best Judgement Assessment otherwise called ______.

a) EX – Party Assessment b) Self Assessment

c) Regular Assessment d) None of the above

8. PAN Referred U / S _______.

a) 139 b) 139 A c) 140 d) 140 A

9. TCS Refers to ______.

a) Tax Collected at Source b) Tax Collected at Service

c) Tax Commission Service d) None of the above

10. PAY AS YOU EARN Refers to _______.

a) TDS b) TCS c) Advance Tax d) PAN

PART –B


11. a) What is set off and Carry forward of Losses?

(OR)

b) Compute Gross total Income from the following income and loss

of Mr. Y.

Previous year 2015 – 16

House property Loss Rs.2,00, 000

Horse Race loss Rs.1,00,000

Horse Race income Rs. 50,000

Long Term capital loss Rs 1,50,000

Long Term capital gain Rs.1,00,000

S. T. Capital loss Rs. 25,000

Interest on Securities Rs. 50,000

12. a) Write Tax Liability of super senior citizen for the Current

Previous Year 2015 – 16.

(OR)

-3-

b) Mr. X is a Karta of HUF submitted the following details.

Rs.

Rent Received

(Municipal Tax paid Rs.25,000)

2,00,000

Long Term capital gain 1,00,000

Short term capital gain 50,000

Dividend from Indian company 25,000

Director Fees Received by Mr. X 50,000

Salary income Received by Mr. Y 2,00,000

Compute Total Income of HUF?

13. a) What is a partnership? What are the Types of partnership firm for

Assessment purpose?

(OR)

b) From the following Profit and Loss A/c, compute Business Income

of PF AOP.

Profit and Loss A/c

Rs. Rs.

To Salary 2,00,000 By Gross Profit 10,00,000

To Partner salary 1,00,000 By Interest on

securities

2,00,000

To Partner

commission

1,00,000

To Office Expenses 1,00,000

To Partner Interest on

Capital (13%)

50,000

To Donation to

PMNRF

1,00,000

Net Profit 5, 50,000

12,00,000 12,00,000

14. a) Explain Best Judgement Assessment?

(OR)

b) What is PAN? Explain.

-5-

-4-

15. a) What is Tax Clearance Certificate?

(OR)

b) What is Tax Credit Certificate?

PART – C


16. Mr. X whose Gross total income is Rs.40,00,000 makes the

following donation during the previous year ending 31.03.2016.

1. To Prime Minister‟s National Relief Fund Rs.1,00,000

2. To Nations Defence Fund Rs.2,00,000

3. To a Temple of Public worship for its Repaird

( so Notified) Rs.2,00,000

4. To a Local college for constructions of Commerce Block

Rs.1,00,000

5. To a Poor Student as aid Rs.10,000

6. To a Municipal Committee Rs.1,00,000

7. To PGI Chandigarh for promotion of family planning Rs.50,000

8. To Chief Minister Earthquake Relief fund Maharashtra

Rs.20,000

The Gross total income includes Rs.10,00,000 as his share from

an Association of person.

Compute his total income for the Assessment Year 2016 -17.

17. The following particulars have been submitted by Mr. Ram Lal in

the capacity of Karta of Hindu Undivided family for Assessment

purpose.

a) Profit from family business Rs.2,00,000 after charging an

amount of Rs.60,000, Gives as salary to Karta‟s Brother who

has been actively participating in it

b) Salary income of Karta‟s another Brother who is managing a Co

– operative Bank Rs.11,000 p.m.

c) Directors Fees Received by Karta Rs.5,000

(HUF holds 20% shares in A & B company)

d) Bank interest Rs.24,000

e) Long – Term capital gain from the transfer of Building

Rs.28,000

f) Long Term Capital gains from the transfer of Investment

Rs.40,000.

g) Donation to College which is an approved Institutions Rs.40,000

h) Rental value of the property let Rs.36,000 ,

i) Municipal Tax paid in respect of the House Rs.4,500,

j) Interest on Loan taken for the repair of House Rs.12,000.

You are required to compute total Income and Tax liability of

family for the Assessment Year 2016 -17.

18. Ashwani Company Pvt. Ltd. furnish the following information

Rs.

Interest in Securities 10,000

Income from House Property computed 20,000

Income from Business

a) Taxable Manufacturing: Profit as per Profit and

Loss a/c before depreciation

2,00,000

Depreciation 95,000

b) Hosiery Manufacturing:

Profit as per Profit and Loss a/c before

depreciation

75,000

Depreciation 18,000

Agency Business Loss b/f from 2013 -14 15,000

Income from the other sources 20,000

Book profit U/S 115 JB 7,00,000

Compute the Total Income and Tax Liability under MAT for the

Assessment Year 2016 -17.

19. What is Advance Tax? When it Arises? When it is payable to

different types of Assessee?

20. What are the provisions relating to Rectification of mistake U/S 154?

******

Question Code: A11113 Sub Code: BELCR64




Time : 3 Hrs B. A. ( English) Max. Marks: 75

Part A


1. ______ is the associate official language of India.

a) Tamil b) English

c) Sanskrit d) Hindi

2. The objectives in the _____ domain are important at the initial stages

of speaking and writing.

a) Cognitive b) Psychomotor

c) reasoning d) logical

3. The _____method is a non-translation method.

a) Translation b) Structural

c) Direct d) Communicative

4. ______ came into being as a revolt against Traditional grammar.

a) Structural linguistics b) Translation

c) Situational Approach d) Communicative Approach

5. The _______is meant for teaching vocabulary and sentence structures.

a) Prose b) Poem

c) Composition d) Extensive Reading

6. _______ grammar is incidental learning of the grammar of the

language.

a) Formal b) Functional

c) Theoretical d) Transformational

7. Articulating the sound of the respective phonemes and associating

them with written symbols is called_______ method.

a) Alphabetic b) Phonetic

c) Phonic d) Non-letter

8. _______ is one of the pre-listening activities.

a) Brainstorming b) Dramatization

c) Role-play d) Story-telling

9. ______ is given in psychological professions and problem-solving

case studies.

a) Brainstorming b) Role play

c) Dramatization d) Puzzle

10. The teacher can use _____ effectively while teaching a story in the

extensive reader.

a) Role play b) Brainstorming

c) Dramatization d) puzzles

PART –B


11. a) Write a short note on English as an international language.

(OR)

b) What are the objectives of Teaching English?

12. a) Explain the Direct Method in language teaching.

(OR)

b) What is situational Approach in language teaching?

13. a) How is grammar taught in a class?

(OR)

b) What are the steps involved in teaching composition?

14. a) Explain the three phases of listening.

(OR)

b) Write about the importance of phonetics in improving

speaking skill.

15. a) Write a short note on Role play in language teaching?

(OR)

b) How far is Computer Aided Language Learning effective in

language teaching?

PART – C


16. Write an essay on the role of English in India.

17. Explain the Structural Approach in language teaching.

18. What are the objectives and steps in teaching a prose lesson?

19. What are the methods to be followed in enhancing reading skill?

20. Discuss the role of audio-visual aids in language teaching.

******

Part B


6. Explain the duties and responsibilities of a Journalist.

7. Write an essay on Press and its privileges in India.

8. How did the press protect the rights of people in democracy?

9. Estimate the functions of News Agencies.

10. Examine the significance of press council of India.

*******




SKILL BASED SUBJECT

JOURNALISM


Part A


1. Define – Journalism.

2. Mention the principles of Journalism.

3. State the constitutional rights of press.

4. Narrate the freedom of press in democracy.

5. Summarise the importance of Official Secret Act.

Question Code: Sub Code: BCSCR61 / UCSCR61



COMPUTER GRAPHICS


Part A


1. Smallest size object that can be displayed on a monitor is called

_____.

a) Picture element b) Point

c) Dot Pitch d) aspect ratio

2. In CRT, the electron intensity is adjusted using ______.

a) Accelerating anode b) Control grid

c) Electron gun d) Focusing anode

3. ______ controls the basic display properties of output primitives.



4. The simplest output primitive is _______.

a) Straight line b) Straight line segment

c) Point d) Circle

5. _____controls the basic display properties of output primitives.



6. ______is defined as the distance between the baseline and cap line of

the character body.

a) Character Size b) Character Height

c) Character Width d) Character Length

7. The basic transformations include ______.


c) Scaling d) All of the above

8. The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where

the image will actually appear are called _____.

a) Transformation viewing b) View port

c) Clipping window d) Screen coordinate system

9. The region code of a point within the window is ______.

a) 1111 b) 0000 c) 1000 d) 0001

10. Identify an relative locator device from the following:

a) Mouse b) Touch panel

c) Light pen d) Keyboard

Part B


11. a) Explain the usage of Computer Graphics in Education and

Training, Computer Aided Design and Image Processing.

(or)

b) Explain the various Input devices of Graphics.

12. a) Explain the Bresenham‟s Line Generation Algorithm.

(or)

b) Write short notes on Character Generation.

13. a) Discuss the usage of Curve Attributes.

(or)

b) Discuss the usage of Bundled Attributes.

14. a) Write short notes on Homogeneous Coordinates.

(or)

b) Explain Viewing Pipeline.

15. a) Discuss Polygon Clipping Algorithm.

(or)

b) Explain the different Graphical User Interfaces.

Part C


16. Discuss in detail about Video Display Devices.

17. Explain Ellipse Generating Algorithm with example.

18. Discuss in detail about Color and Gray Scale Levels.

19. Write short notes on i) Basic 2D transformations ii) Viewing

Transformation.

20. Explain Cohen Sutherland Line Clipping algorithm.

*******

Documents

Question Code : B22103 U16Sub Code: CHC21 Sri S.Ramasamy ...srnmcollege.ac.in/file_upload/Question Papers April 2018.pdf · 9. The greater activity of carboxylic acids compared to