Resonance Test Series

8/16/2019 Resonance Test Series

1/19

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005

Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]

Toll Free : 1800 200 2244 | 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PTC024029 PJBMAINCT1200915C0-1

PART-A

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 28 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE

is correct.

1. Two bodies with masses m1 and m

2 (m

2 > m

1)

connected by an ideal string lie on a smooth

horizontal table. When constant force F is

applied on m2 towards right then tension is

string is T1, Now when F is applied on m

1

towards left then tension in string is T2 then .

m1

m2

T1

F

m1

m2

T2F

(1) T1 > T

2

(2) T1 < T

2

(3) T1 = T

2

(4) T1 and T

2 cannot be compared form given

data

2. A block of mass 1kg initially at rest is droppedfrom a height h on the a spring of force constantk = 50N/m. The maximum compression in thespring is x =1m then height h of the block is :

(1) 3 m (2)3

2m

(3)5

2m (4) 5 m

3. An ideal string and three ideal pulley are

arranged in such a way so that pulley P1 and

P2 are fixed on ground and third pulley is

movable. A vertical constant force F is

applied on P3 so that string remains tight and

the string forms an equilateral triangle. Then

tension in string is. [Assume pulley to be very

small]

F

P1

P2

P3

(1)F

2 (2) 0

(3)F

3 (4) F


2/19





4. A stone is projected with a velocity of 10 m/s

at angle of 37º with horizontal. Its average

velocity till it reaches the highest position is :

(Assume horizontal direction as x-axis and

vertically upward direction as +y-axis)

(1) ˆ ˆ4i 3 j!

(2) ˆ ˆ8i 6 j!

(3) ˆ ˆ8i 3 j!

(4) ˆ8i

5. It is raining with a velocity of 5 2 m/s at an

angle of 45° with vertical. To a man driving

with constant velocity ‘v’ down the inclined

plane the rain appears to move vertically

upwards with a velocity of 5 m/s. If " is the

angle of the incline plane with the horizontal,

then v and " are :

(1) 5 m/s , tan –1 5

(2) 5 5 m/s, tan –1 5

(3) 5 5 m/s, tan –11

2

(4) 5 5 m/s, tan –1 2

6. A body dropped from top of a tower, covers a

distance 7h in last second of it’s motion,

where h is distance covered in first second,

then total time of flight will be.

(1) 2s

(2) 3s

(3) 4s

(4) 8s

7. For the equilibrium condition shown, the cords

are strong enough to withstand a maximum

tension 100 N. What is the largest value of W

(in newton) that can be suspended :

W

A

53°

53°

(1) 100 N

(2) 35 N

(3) 80N

(4) 55 N

8. A ship is sailing due north with speed 9 m/s

in sea. Wind is blowing with speed 2 m/s

from S –W direction. A person holding a flag

in his hand running on the deck of ship with

speed 3 m/s due east relative to ship.

Direction in which flag will flutter is :

(1) tan –1(2) W of N

(2) tan –1(2) S of E

(3) tan –1(2) N of W

(4) none of these


3/19





9. Power delivered to a body varies as P = 3 t2.

Find out the change in kinetic energy of the

body from t = 2 to t = 4 sec.

(1) 16 J

(2) 64 J

(3) 56 J

(4) 48 J

10. Particles A and B are moving with constant

velocity in two perpendicular directions as

shown in diagram at t = 0, then the velocity of

separation between A and B at t = 1 second is :

(1) 5 2 m/s

(2)7

2m/s

(3) 7 2 m/s

(4)5

2m/s

11. Force-time graph of a particle moving in a

straight line is shown in figure. Mass of

particle is 4 kg and the particle starts from

rest. Work done by all the forces acting on

the particle between time interval t = 0 to

t = 6 s is

(1) 400 J

(2) 200 J

(3) 800 J(4) 80 J

12. A perfect smooth sphere A of mass 2kg is in

contact with a rectangular block B of mass

4kg and vertical wall as shown in the figure.

All surfaces are smooth. The normal reaction

by vertical wall on sphere A is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 45 N

(2) 40 N

(3) 50 N

(4) 42 N


4/19





13. A block of mass m is placed on a rough

horizontal surface. The coefficient of static

friction and kinetic friction are given to be #s

and #k respectively. A constant horizontal

force F0 is applied to the block. The distance

travelled by the block in t0 seconds is :

(Given : m = 2kg, #s = 0.3, #k = 0.2,

F0 = 10N, t0 = 4 sec)

(1) 16 m

(2) 24 m

(3) zero

(4) None of these

14. A particle of mass 2 kg is subjected to a

force which varies with distance as shown in

figure. If it starts its journey from rest at x = 0,

its velocity at x = 15 m is

(1) 10 m/s

(2) 0 m/s

(3) 20 2 m/s

(4) 20 3 m/s

15. A small frictionless block slides with velocity

0.5 gr on the horizontal surface as shown

in the Figure. The block leaves the surface at

point C. The angle " in the Figure is :

(1) cos$1 (4/9)

(2) cos$1(3/4)

(3) cos$1(1/2)

(4) none of the above

16. A is highest point on the path of a projectile.

If the average velocity of the projectile

between O and A is ˆ ˆ8i 3 j! then tan % is :

O CBx

y

Au

%

(1) 3/8

(2) 1

(3) 3/4

(4) data is not sufficient


5/19





17. A point mass m is suspended from a light

thread of length !, fixed at O, is whirled in a

horizontal circle at constant speed as

shown, the forces on the mass are

m

l

O

(1)

T

F

W

(2)

T

W

(3)

T

F

W

(4)

T

F

W

F

18. In the system shown in figure acceleration of

the two blocks is :

30º

4 kg

8 kg

(1) 4/3 m/s2

(2) 2/3 m/s2

(3) 20/3 m/s2

(4) 10/3 m/s2

19. In the figure a block slides along a track

from one level to a higher level, by moving

through an intermediate valley. The track is

frictionless until the block reaches the

higher level. There a frictional force stops

the block in a distance d. The block’s initial

speed v0 is 6m/s, the height difference h is

1.1 m and the coefficient of kinetic friction µ

is 0.6. The value of d is :

(1) 1.17 m (2) 1.71 m

(3) 7.11 m (4) 11.7 m


6/19





20. Initially the block is at rest acceleration of the

block is :

(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 0 m/s2

(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 0.5 m/s2

21. A body of mass 2 kg is kept stationary by

pressing it against a vertical wall by a force

of 100 N. The coefficient of friction between

wall and body is 0.3. Then the frictional force

is equal to

(1) 100 N

(2) 20 N

(3) 30 N

(4) 10 N

22. Block A of mass 4 kg and block B of mass

6 kg are resting on a horizontal surface as

shown in the figure. There is no friction

between the block B and the horizontal

surface. The coefficient of friction between

the blocks is 0.2. If the value of g = 10 ms –2

,

the maximum horizontal foce F that can be

applied on block B without any relative

motion between A and B is

(1) 20 N

(2) 40 N

(3) 60 N

(4) 100 N

23. Contact force between the blocks is :

(1) 8 N

(2) 12 N

(3) 16 N

(4) None of these

24. Two blocks m1 = 4kg and m

2 = 2kg,

connected by a weightless rod on a plane

having inclination of 370. The coefficients of

dynamic friction of m1 and m

2 with the

inclined plane are # = 0.25. Then the

common acceleration of the two blocks and

the tension in the rod are :

(1) 2 m/s2, T = 5 N

(2) 10 m/s2 ,T = 0 N

(3) 15 m/s2, T = 9N

(4) 4 m/s

2

, T = 0


7/19





25. The blocks A and B are released as shown

in the figure. Friction is absent everywhere.

Find the ratio of magnitude of acceleration of

block A and acceleration of block B

(1) 3/4

(2) 4/3

(3) 1

(4) zero

26. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively

are connected by a massless spring as shown

in figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg

mass at the instant when the 10 kg mass has

an acceleration of 12 ms –2 towards right, the

acceleration of the 20 kg mass is :

20kg

200 N

10kg

(1) 2 ms –2

(2) 4ms –2

(3) 10ms –2

(4) 20ms –2

27. The blocks A and B are arranged as shown

in the figure. The pulley is frictionless. The

mass of A is 10 kg. The coefficient of friction

between block A and horizontal surface is

0.20. The minimum mass of B to start the

motion will be-

A

B

P

(1) 2 kg

(2) 0.2 kg

(3) 5 kg

(4) 10 kg

28. A heavy particle of mass 1kg is suspended

from a massless string attached to a roof. A

horizontal force F is applied to the particle

such that in the equilibrium position the string

makes an angle 60° with the vertical. The

magnitude of the force F equals

60°

(1) 10 N

(2) 10 3 N

(3) 5 N

(4)10

3 N


8/19





SECTION - II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 2 reasoning type questions.

Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),

out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

29 . STATEMENT-1 : A man standing in a lift

which is moving upward, will feel his weight

to be greater than when the lift was at rest.

STATEMENT-2 : If the acceleration of the lift

is ‘a’ upward, then the man of mass m shall

feel his weight to be equal to normal reaction

(N) exerted by the lift given by N = m(g+a)

(where g is acceleration due to gravity)

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1.


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

30. STATEMENT-1 : While drawing a l ine on

a paper, friction force acts on paper in

the same direction along which l ine is

drawn on the paper.

STATEMENT-2 : Friction always opposes

motion.


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1.


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


9/19




Toll Free : 1800 200 2244 | 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PTC024029 CJBCT1MAIN200915C0-9

PART – B

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12,

N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27,

Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40,

Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,

As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137,Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - I


This section contains 30 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),

(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which

ONLY ONE is correct.

31. Use the data given in the following table to

calculate the molar mass of naturally

occurring argon isotopes:

Isotope Isotopic Abundancemolar mass

36Ar 35.96755 g mol

–1 0.337%

38Ar 37.96272 g mol

–1 0.063%

40Ar 39.9624 g mol

–1 99.600%

(1) 39.948 g mol –1

(2) 37.96272 g mol –1

(3) 38.48562 g mol –1

(4) 39.9624 g mol –1

32. Which of the following relations is/are

correct:

(i) 98.6º º

(ii) 1 torr < 1 pascal < 1 cm of Hg < 1 bar < 1

atm

(iii) 1 cm3 = 1 mL < 1 dm

3 = 1 L < 1 m

3

(iv) 106 J = 1 MJ = 10

–3 KJ

(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) only

(2) (iii) only

(3) (i) & (iii) only

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) all

33. What is the number of photons of light with a

wavelength of 4000 pm that provide 1J of

energy?

(1) 2.01216

photons

(2) 2.01210

photons

(3) 2.01223

photons

(4) 20.1216

photons

34. The energy of second Bohr's orbit in H-atom

is -328 kJ mol-1

, hence the energy of fourth

Bohr orbit would be :

(1) -82 kJ mol-1

(2) -41 kJ mol-1

(3) -1312 kJ mol-1

(4) -164 kJ mol-1


10/19





35. Light of wavelength ! falls on a metal having

work function 2hc/ !1. Photoelectric effect will

take place only if:

(1) ! " !1

(2) ! " 2!1

(3) ! # !1

(4) ! # !1 / 2

36. Let the total number of orbitals in ath shell be

16 and value of azimuthal quantum number

for the unpaired electron in vanadium atom

(Z = 23) be 'b', then find the sum (a + b).

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 3

37. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl

to give CaCl2 and CO2 according to the

reaction,

CaCO3 (s) + 2 HCl (aq) $ CaCl2 (aq) +

CO2(g) + H2O(l).

What mass of CaCO3 is required to react

completely with 25mL of 0.75 M HCl?

(1) 0.938 g

(2) 2.938 g

(3) 10 g

(4) 9.38 g

38. NH3 is formed in the following steps :

I : Ca + C %%$ CaC2 50% yield

II : CaC2 + N2 %%$CaCN2 + C 100% yield

III : CaCN2 + H2O %%$NH3 + CaCO3

100% yield

To obtain 2 mol NH3, calcium required is :

(1) 1 mol

(2) 2 mol

(3) 3 mol

(4) 4 mol

39. Which of the following graphs is correct?

(1)

PV

T(at constant amount of gas)

(2)

(3)

(4)


11/19





40. What will be the pressure exerted by a

mixture of 3.2 g of methane and 4.4 g of

carbon dioxide contained in a 9 dm3 flask at

27° . lit. atm. –1

.mol –1

)

(1) 0.821 atm.

(2) 8.21atm

(3) 0.0821atm

(4) 82.21atm

41. Identify the correct statement(s)

I - Average translational kinetic energy is

independent of the amount of the gas.

II - If a gas expands at constant temperature,

it indicates that pressure of the gas

increases :

III- If temperature of gas is increased from T

K to 2T K then pressure of gas increases to

double value in a constant volume container.

(1) I, II and III

(2) I and III

(3) II and III

(4) & and &&

42. Distribution of molecules with velocity is

represented by the curve as shown.

Velocity at point A is :

(1)3RT

M

(2)2RT

M

(3)8RT

M'

(4)RT

M

43. Two chemically non-reactive gases are

contained separately in two bulbs of same

capacity at pressure P1 and P2 under similar

conditions respectively. If the two bulbs are

connected, the pressure of gaseous mixture

after some time would be :

(1) equal to (P1 + P2)

(2) greater than (P1 + P2)

(3) less than (P1 + P2)

(4) Cannot be predicted


12/19





44. Two glass bulbs A (of 100 mL capacity), and

B (of 150 mL capacity) containing same gas

are connected by a small tube of negligible

volume. At particular temperature the

pressure in A was found to be 20 times more

than that in bulb B. The stopcock is opened

without changing the temperature. The

pressure in A will

(1) drop by 75%

(2) drop by 57%

(3) drop by 25%

(4) will remain same

45. A vessel initially contains two gases A and B

in the mass ratio 2 : 1 respectively. If the

above gas mixture is allowed to effuse

through a hole, the molar composition of the

mixture coming initially out of the hole

is 1 : 4.

Find the ratio of the moles of gases A and B

present in the vessel in the beginning

respectively :

(1) 1 : 2

(2) 8 : 1

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 8

46. The IUPAC name of the compound

is :

(1) 3,3-dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane

(2) 1, 1 – dimethyl –3 –hydroxy cyclohexane

(3) 3,3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol

(4) 1,1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol

47. The correct IUPAC name of the compound

is-

3

3 2 2 3

3 2 2 2 2 3

CH|

CH – –|

CH CH – –

(

(1) 5,6-diethyl-8-methyldec-6-ene

(2) 5,6-diethyl-3-methyldec-4-ene

(3) 6-butyl-5-ethyl-3-methyl-oct-4-ene

(4) 2,4,5-triethyl-3-ene

48. Which of the following pairs of structures do

not represent isomers –

(1) and

(2) and

(3) and

(4) and


13/19





49. Which of the following pairs of compounds

are ring-chain isomers ?

(1) Propene and cyclopropene

(2) 1-Propanol and methoxyethane

(3) 1-Propanol and epoxypropane

(4) Propene and cyclopropane

50. Which one of the following has the regular

tetrahedral structure?

(Atomic nos. : B = 5, S = 16, Xe = 54)

(1)4BF

)

(2) SF4

(3) XeF4

(4) XeO2F4

51. Which of the following is wrong -

(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 * Acidic character

(2) Li < Be < B < C * IE1

(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O * Basic

character

(4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ * Ionic radius

52. Which of the following is correct statement ?

(1) SO2 is anhydride of sulphuric acid

(2) NO2 is anhydride of nitric acid

(3) Cl2O7 is anhydride of perchloric acid

(4) N2O is anhydride of nitrous acid

53. Which of the following statement is not

correct -

(1) 3CH+

shows sp2-hybridisation whereas

3CH

,

shows sp3-hybridisation

(2) 4NH+

has a regular tetrahedral geometry

(3) sp2-hybridised orbitals have equal s and

p character

(4) Hybridisation orbitals always form

--bonds

54. A molecule which can not exist theoretically

is:

(1) SF4

(2) OF2

(3) OF4

(4) O2F2


14/19





55. IUPAC name of the compound

is

(1) 2-Ethanoyl oxy-3-methoxycarbonyl

cyclopropane carboxylic acid

(2) 2-Methoxycarbonyl-3-ethanoyloxy

cyclopropane carboxylic acid

(3) Methyl-2-carboxy-3-ethanoyloxy

cyclopropane carboxylate

(4) 2-Methoxycarbonyl-3-carboxy cyclopropyl

ethanoate

56. The minimum number of carbon atoms in an

alkane, alkene and alkyne with one smallest

side chain is given by the set

(1) 3, 4, 5

(2) 4, 4, 5

(3) 4, 5, 5,

(4) 4, 6, 4

57. Alkane that give only one alkyl-chloride upon

reaction with chlorine inpresence of light.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

58. In P4, P

4O

6 and P

4O

10 have how many -

bonds respectively?

(1) 12, 6, 16

(2) 16, 6, 12

(3) 6, 12, 16

(4) 16, 16, 12

59. Correct order of bond angle in CH2F2

(1) H C H > H C F > F C F

(2) F C F > H C F > H C H

(3) H C H > F C F > H C F

(4) H C F > F C F > H C H

60. Number of S –S bond in H2SxO6

(1) x

(2) (x – 1)

(3) x – 2

(4) x + 1


15/19

Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005


Toll Free : 1800 200 2244 | 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PTC024029 MJBCT1MAIN200915C0-15


PART – C

SECTION - I


This section contains 30 multiple choice questions.

Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for

its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; B = {2, 3, 6, 7}. Then

the number of elements in (A ! (B

is

(1) 18 (2) 6

(3) 4 (4) 0

62. x a y(log a .log y. log z)

x is equal to

(1) x

(2) y

(3) z

(4) None of these

63. If p, q, r, s "R then equation

(x2 + px + 3q) ( –x

2 + r x + q) ( –x

2 + sx –2q)= 0

has

(1) 6 real roots

(2) At least two real roots

(3) 2 real and 4 imaginary roots

(4) 4 real and 2 imaginary roots

64. The roots of the equation ix2 – 4x – 4i = 0 are

(1) –2i

(2) 2i

(3) –

2i, –

2i

(4) 2i, 2i

65 . If graph of y = ax2 + bx + c is as shown

below, then which of the following options

is/are true ?

(1)bc

2a =

bc

2a

(2)b

2a

# =

b

2a

(3)2b 4ac

a

## =

2b 4ac

a

##

(4)2b 4ac

a

## =

2b 4ac

a

#


16/19





66. If both roots of x2 – 2ax + a

2 + a – 2 = 0 are

less than 2, then 'a' lies in interval -

(1) (1, 2)

(2) ( –$, 1)

(3) (2, $)

(4) [1, 2]

67. The sum of the cubes of the roots of

the equation, x3 # p x2 + qx # r = 0 is

(1) p3 + 3pq – 3r

(2) p3 + 3pq + 3r

(3) p3 – 3pq – 3 r

(4) p3 – 3pq + 3r

68. sin 36° sin ° sin ° sin °

(1) 1/4

(2) 1/16

(3) 3/4

(4) 5/16

69. If cos% + cos& = a, sin% + sin& = b and

% – & = 2' thencos3

cos

''

=

(1) a2 + b

2 – 2 (2) a

2 + b

2 – 3

(3) 3 – a2

– b2

(4) 2 – a2

– b2

70. Ifx

cos' =

y

2cos

3

() *'+, -. /

=z

2cos –

3

() *', -. /

, then

x + y + z is

(1) – 1

(2) 0

(3) 1

(4) 2

71. If tanA =3

4 and A lies in third

quadrant thensin A cos A

cotA

+ is equal to

(1)20

21

#

(2)21

20

#

(3)20

21

(4) 2120

72. The minimum value of 3 cosx + 4 sinx + 8 is

(1) 5

(2) 9

(3) 7

(4) 3


17/19





73. If 2 5 7 6 a 4 5 6 b is divisible by 15 then

(1) a = 6 and b = 5

(2) a = 4 and b = 0

(3) a = 4 and b = 5

(4) a = 3 and b = 0

74. Ifx88 = 4096 then x is equal to

(1) 12/5

(2) 3/4

(3) 5/4

(4) 4/3

75. Greatest integer less than the number

lo g2 15 . log1/ 62. log31/ 6 is

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 1

76. The set of real value(s) of p for which

the equation,02x + 30+02x#30=px+ 6

has more than two solutions is :

(1) {0, 4}

(2) ( – 4, 4)

(3) R –{4, – 4, 0}

(4) {0}

77. If A = 1 + ra + r

2a + r

3a +.........$ and

B = 1 + rb + r

2b + r

3b +.......$, where 0 < r < 1

thena

b is equal to

(1) logB A

(2) log1 – B(1 – A)

(3) B –

B

A 1log

A

#) *, -. /

(4) None of these

78. If x =1 3 i

2

+, then the value of the

expression x4 – x

2 + 6x – 4, equals

(1) – 1 + 2 3 i

(2) 2 – 2 3 i

(3) 2 + 2 3 i

(4) None of these

79. The solution set of

10 3 5 2

24 3 5

(x – –

x (x –

+ ++

1 0 is

(1) ( –2, –1] 2 [1/2, 3)

(2) ( –2, – 1) 2 (1/2, 3)

(3) [ –2, –1] 2 [1/2, 3] 2 { –8}

(4) ( –2, –1] 2 [1/2, 3) 2 { –8}


18/19





80. Number of integral solution of equation

| |x –1| + 2 | 1 4, is/are

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 3

(4) 6

81. Solution set of the inequality

2x – – < 2x – 3 is

(1) x "5 –

– ,2

4 *-5 -56 /

(2) x "16 7

, 102

4 7+5 85 86 9

(3) x " [3, $)

(4) x " 3

,2

4 *$ -56 /

82. In the sequence a b b b c c c c c d d d d d d d

e e............. which alphabet comes at 50 th

position :

(1) f

(2) g

(3) h

(4) j

83. Sum to infinite terms of the series

2

3 –

5

6 +

8

12 –

11

24 .............is

(1)4

9

(2)2

9

(3)1

3

(4) none of these

84. If a, b, c are positive numbers then greatest

value of

bc ac ab

b c a c a ba b c

+ ++ + +

+ + is :

(1)1

3

(2)1

2

(3)1

4

(4) tending to infinite


19/19





85. If 2nd

, 5th, 11

th terms of an AP are in G.P. and

10th term is three more than thrice of 2

ndterm

then the sum of square of first 11 terms of the

AP is :

(1) 24252

(2)5841

4

(3)2277

2

(4)4563

4

86. If in a G.P. Sn = 1023, Tn = 512, T3 = 4 then

n =

(1) 8

(2) 9

(3) 10

(4) 11

87. Which of the following is not an equivalence

relation in Z:

(1) a R b : a + b is an even integer

(2) a R b : a – b is an even integer

(3) a R b : a < b

(4) a R b : a = b

88. 2 2

2 2

tan 4 – tan

1 – tan tan

' '' '

is equal to

(1) cot ' cot 7 '

(2) tan7 ' tan '

(3) tan3

2

' tan2 '

(4) cot3

2

'cot

2 '

89. If relation R is defined as R =x 1 x –

,2 2

; +) *

Documents

Resonance Test Series