12
FIITJEE-CM | REVISION HYD-SENIORS | PART TEST–6 (ADV 2015 P-2) | Date: 06-05-2021 | Page-1 FIITJEE Limited. (Hyderabad Centres): SAIFABAD KUKATPALLY DILSUKHNAGAR NARAYANAGUDA MADHAPUR FIITJEE HYD–SENIORS PART TEST–6 REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021 Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 240 Instructions to the Candidates A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. 2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No. 4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately. 5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling in the OMR: 6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself. C. Question paper format: 7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of two sections. 8. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive). 9. Section II contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct. 10. Section III contains 2 paragraphs type questions. Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem. Two multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. One or more than one option can be correct. D. Marking Scheme 11. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section. 12. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. –2 marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section. 13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. –2 marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section. Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet. If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam. NAME: ENROLLMENT NO.:

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Page 1: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

FIITJEE-CM | REVISION HYD-SENIORS | PART TEST–6 (ADV 2015 P-2) | Date: 06-05-2021 | Page-1

FIITJEE Limited. (Hyderabad Centres): SAIFABAD KUKATPALLY DILSUKHNAGAR NARAYANAGUDA MADHAPUR

FIITJEE HYD–SENIORS

PART TEST–6

REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 240

Instructions to the Candidates

A. General

1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.

2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.

4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.

5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B. Filling in the OMR:

6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.

C. Question paper format:

7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of two sections.

8. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

9. Section II contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

10. Section III contains 2 paragraphs type questions. Each paragraph describes an experiment, a situation or a problem. Two multiple choice questions will be asked based on this paragraph. One or more than one option can be correct.

D. Marking Scheme

11. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.

12. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. –2 marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.

13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. –2 marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet. If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:

Page 2: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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PART-I: PHYSICS SECTION–1 (Maximum Marks: 32)

This section contains EIGHT questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened 0 In all other cases

1. A body is moving on a straight line with initial velocity 12 m/s and initial retardation 24 m / s . It’s retardation

decreases to zero linearly in time ‘t’. What is the value of time ‘t’ (in sec), if the body will completely stop moving at this time?

2. Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every ‘T’

minutes. All the buses are going with same constant speed ‘V’. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km/h in the direction A to B notices that a bus going past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion, and every

6 min in the opposite direction. What is the value of ' VT ' in km

3. A body is projected from ground at point x = 0. x and y axes are taken along horizontal and vertical

directions respectively. The trajectory of the projectile is given by 2y 3x 5x . Take 2g 10m / s . The

speed of projection is (in m/s)

4. A car starts from rest with constant acceleration 2a 2m / s at t 0. Two coins are released from the car

at t 3 andt 4 . Each coin takes 1 second to fall on ground. Assume coin sticks to the ground. Then the

distance between the two coins will be (in m) 5.

In a two dimensional motion of a particle, the particle moves from point A,

position vector 1r

, to point B, position vector 2r

. If the magnitudes of these

vectors are respectively, 1 2r 3m and r 4m and the angles they make

with the x–axis are 0 01 275 and 15 , respectively, then find the

magnitude of the displacement vector( in multiples) of 13m

6. A horizontal force is applied on a wedge which is kept on a

horizontal surface as shown in the figure. case(i): force is such that m1 is at rest relative to the wedge case(ii): force is such that wedge is at rest relative to the ground. Find the ratio of normal reaction between the wedge and the block in case(i) to case(ii) (neglect friction between m1 and wedge, = 45o)

F m1

7. In the given diagram, m2 can slide on the smooth

horizontal surface. The pulleys are small. At an instant the block m1 comes down with velocity of 3 m/s. At this instant = 60°. Find the magnitude of velocity of m2 at this instant in m/s.

1m

2m

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8. The vertical position of block A in meter is given by 2t

y4

where ‘t’ is in second. Find the downward

acceleration aB (in m/s2) of block B.

y

SECTION–2 (Maximum Marks: 32) This section contains EIGHT questions

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened –2 In all other cases

9.

Velocity time graph is shown for the motion of two cars A and B which are moving in same direction on a straight road. Their initial position is same. Select the correct statements (A) Relative speed between the cars first increases for some time, and then decreases for some time and then increases continuously.

(B) At 0t t , car B is behind car A

(C) Car B overtakes car A at 0t t

(D) At 0t t , acceleration of B is greater than that of A

v

B A

Ot

t0

(parabola)

10. A gun is aimed at a fruit and fires a bullet as shown. The fruit is

dropped simultaneously. The initial speed of bullet is ‘u’ from the surface of earth. Choose the correct statements

(A) The bullet can hit the fruit for any value of u 0

(B) The minimum value of ‘u’ to hit the fruit is 2 2g H X

2H

(C) If 2 2g H X

uH

and meanwhile the earth loses its

attraction, then also the bullet can hit the fruit

(D) If u gH , the bullet cannot hit the fruit

ground

H

X

u

fruit

Page 4: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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11. Two blocks A and B of mass 1 kg and 2kg respectively, are placed on smooth horizontal surface as shown in the figure. A force of 15 N acts on block B horizontally (g = 10 m/s2)

1 kg 2 kg = 30

15N

B

A

(A) the acceleration of blocks is 5 m/s2

(B) the magnitude of normal reaction given by smooth surface on block B is 20 N

(C) the magnitude of normal reaction given by smooth surface on block B is greater than 20 N

(D) the tension in the string is 10

3N

12. A 10 kg block is placed on a horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction is 0.2. A horizontal force P =

15 N first acts on it in the eastward direction. Later, in addition to P a second horizontal force Q = 20 N

acts on it in the northward direction:

(A) The block will not move when only P acts, but will move when both P and Q act

(B) If the block moves, the acceleration will be 0.5 2m /s

(C) When the block moves, its direction of motion will be 1tan 4 /3 east of north

(D) When both P and Q act, the direction of the force of friction acting on the block will be 1tan 3 / 4

west of south

13. All pulleys and threads are ideal. C is a point on the thread as shown. When the system is released from rest, at that instant,

(A) Acceleration of point C is 5g2

upwards

(B) Acceleration of block B is 2g upwards (C) Acceleration of block A is g downwards (D) Acceleration of point C is g downwards.

B

A M

C

accelarationdue togravity is g

m

14. The system shown is in vertical plane. Mass of ‘L’ shaped rod is

2m and coefficient of friction between 2m and rod is 0.5. Then(take ideal pulleys and ideal threads)

(A) Acceleration of m

2mass is zero

(B) Tension T in the thread marked in diagram is 5mg

4

(C) Friction force between 2m and rod is mg

2.

(D) Acceleration of ‘L’ shaped rod is g

8

Page 5: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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15. A rod is fixed between a vertical wall and a horizontal surface. A smooth ring of mass 1 kg is released from rest which can move along the rod as shown. At the release point spring is

vertical and relaxed. The natural 2( 10 / )g m s length of the

spring is ( 3 1)m Rod makes an angle of 30with the

horizontal. Ring again comes to rest when spring makes an

angle of 030 with the vertical.

(A) Force constant of the spring is 5

( 3 1) /2

N m

(B) Maximum displacement of ring is 2

3 1m

(C) Maximum extension in the spring is ( 3 1)m

(D) Normal reaction on ring due to rod when it again comes to rest is 5

( 3 1)2

N

16. A smooth track in the form of a quarter circle of radius 6m lies in the vertical plane. A particle moves from P1 to P2 under the

action of forces 1 2,F F

and 3F

Force 1F

is always toward P2

and always 20N in magnitude. Force2

F is always acts

horizontally and is always 30N in magnitude. Force 3

F always

acts tangentially to the track and is of magnitude 15N. Select the correct alternative(s):

(A) Work done by 1F

is 120J (B) Work done by 2F

is 180J

(C) Work done by 3F

is 45 J (D)1F

is conservative in nature

SECTION–3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

This section contains TWO paragraphs Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened –2 In all other cases

Page 6: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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Paragraph for 17 to 18

A block of mass M rests on a smooth horizontal surface over which it can move without friction. A small

body with mass m lies on the block as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the body and

the block is ,

M

m

L

F

17. For how many of the following different values of force F, mass m slides over the block?

(i) (M + m)g (ii) 2(M + m)g

(iii) 3(M + m)g (iv) 4(M + m)g

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) All four

18. If the force F is sufficient enough for the sliding to begin, in what time t will the mass m fall off M?

(A) 2ML

F (M m)g (B)

2ML

F 2 (M m)g (C)

4ML

F (M m)g (D)

4ML

F 2 (M m)g

Paragraph for 19 to 20

Three planks 1, 2 and 3 are arranged on a pulley system in a vertical plane as shown in figure. Plank 1

has a mass of m, plank 2 and plank 3 are massless. All the pulleys are mass less and frictionless. An

external vertical force mg is applied over plank 1. Assume planks are very close to each other and they

don’t rotate.

T T/2

3 2

m

mg

1

19. If the whole assembly is taken in an elevator, which is moving upwards with an acceleration g, the reaction

between plank 2 and 3 will be

(A) 3

mg2

(B) 2 mg (C) mg (D) zero

20. The reaction between 2 and 3, if the elevator falls freely.

(A) mg (B) mg/3 (C) mg/2 (D) zero

Page 7: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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PART-II: CHEMISTRY SECTION–1 (Maximum Marks: 32)

This section contains EIGHT questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened 0 In all other cases

21. For the reduction of nitric acid to ammonium ion, the number of electrons required is

22. How many P – P bonds in white phosphorus (P4) ?

23. Number of moles of NaOH required for complete neutralization of H+ in solution which is formed by

hydrolysis of 1 mole of PCl5 :

24. Maximum number of ‘O’ atoms are bonded with each Si in SiO2 :

25. How many moles of PH3 gas is produced when 1 mole of calcium phosphide reacts with excess of water ?

26. What is the change in the oxidation number of nitrogen when very dil. HNO3 reacts with Zn metal?

27. A molten mixture contain following substance, Cu, FeO, PbO, CaO, MgO, Ag

Find total number of substances which are removed when molten mixture is treated with SiO2.

28. Ti is purified by following method :

x Heating2 2at high temp.

TiIImpure metal I Pure metal I

Vapours

Find the value of ‘x’.

Page 8: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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SECTION–2 (Maximum Marks: 32) This section contains EIGHT questions

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened –2 In all other cases

29. Step(s) which is/are involved in the extraction of metal from galena is/are (A) magnetic separation (B) froth floatation (C) roasting (D) carbon reduction 30. Calcination of which ore produce CO2 ? (A) Limonite (B) Dolomite (C) Calamine (D) Malachite 31. Mercury can be stored in (A) Fe container (B) Pt container (C) Ag container (D) Au container 32. Which of the following has sulphide of iron ? (A) Chalcopyrite (B) Fool’s gold (C) Limonite (D) Magnatite 33. The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N – N bond(s) is(are):

(A) 2N O (B) 2 3N O (C) 2 4N O (D) 2 5N O

34. HI can be prepared by which of the following methods ?

(A) 3 2PI H O

(B) 2 4KI H SO conc.

(C) 2 2H I

(D) 2 2I H S

35. Which of the following reaction(s) is/are written correctly (w.r.t. products) ?

(A) 4 2 4 2 2 4 32FeSO H SO Cl Fe SO 2HCl

(B) 2 4 2 2 2 4Na SO Cl H O Na SO 2HCl

(C) 2 2 2 2 4SO 2H O Cl H SO 2HCl

(D) 2 2 2 3(excess)

I 6H O 5Cl 2HIO 10HCl

36. Which of the following oxyacids of sulphur have S – S bond ?

(A) 2 2 7H S O (B) 2 2 8H S O (C) 2 2 6H S O (D) 2 2 5H S O

Page 9: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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SECTION–3 (Maximum Marks: 16) This section contains TWO paragraphs

Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened –2 In all other cases

Paragraph for 37 to 38

When triatomic gas X3 reacts with an excess of potassium iodide solution buffered with a borate buffer (pH = 9.2), diatomic product Y2 is liberated which can be titrated against a standard solution of sodium thiosulphate. This is a quantitative method for the estimation of X3 gas in the mixture of X3 and X2 of some atom X.

37. X2 and Y2 are respectively

(A) 2 2Cl , I (B) 2 2O , I (C) 2 2N , I (D) 2 2O , H

38. When liberated Y2 reacts with sodium thiosulphate it produces (Z). Identify (Z)

(A) 2 4Na SO (B) 2 4Na SO S (C) 2 2 3Na S O (D) 2 4 6Na S O

Paragraph for 39 to 40

Read the following paragraph which involve extraction procedure of Mercury and answer the following questions :

Mercury is mainly exist as bright red coloured ore cinnabar. The ore is crushed and concentrated by gravity separation or froth floatation. Concentrated ore is heated in air to produce Hg vaours (B.P. = 357°C) and

condensed to Hg l . Hg obtained in this way contain traces of other metals dissolved in it, particularly

B.P. 1751 C B.P. 908 C B.P. 765 CPb Zn Cd .

39. Process which are involved in the extraction of Hg from cinnabar

(A) Roasting, Self reduction, Carbon reduction

(B) Calcination, Carbon reduction, Liquiation

(C) Roasting, Self reduction, Distillation

(D) Roasting, Electrolytic reduction, Vapour phase refining

40. When zinc amalgam (Zn – Hg alloy) reacts with dil. H2SO4, it produces :

(A) 4 4 2ZnSO HgSO H (B) 4 2ZnSO Hg SO

(C) 4 2Zn HgSO SO (D) 4 2ZnSO Hg H

Page 10: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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PART-III: MATHEMAITCS SECTION–1 (Maximum Marks: 32)

This section contains EIGHT questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened 0 In all other cases

41. The value of 2 2 22 3tan tan tan

7 7 7

is . Find the sum of digits of .

42. In triangle ABC, AB = AC and BC = AB + AI where I is in-centre of triangle ABC. Angle ABC = 2

k

then k is

43. Number of solutions of tan = cot 5 and sin 2 = cos 4 in ,2 2

where n

5

for n = 0, 1, 2.

44. The maximum value of (a + b – c)(b + c – a)(c + a – b) – abc is (where a, b, c are sides of triangle)

45. In triangle ABC, angle B = 2

3

and let P be any point on AC such that perpendiculars from P onto AB and

BC are of same length 20 3 then 10 10 1

AB BC

, where is

46. If

21 4 2cos x 1 12 tan y 2 tan y 2

= 1, then x + y = tan 1. Find + ||.

47. If three lines 1 2: , ;2 3y zL x y z L x and 3

11 1;

yx zLa b c

form a triangle of area 6 sq.

units then for the point of intersection , , of 2L and 3L is

48. If a plane passing through the point 1,2,3 cut +ve directions of coordinates axes in ,A B and C , then

the minimum volume of the tetrahedron formed by origin and , ,A B C is k, then k

9

Page 11: REVISION |JEE ADV–2015 PAPER-2 Date: 06-05-2021

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SECTION–2 (Maximum Marks: 32) This section contains EIGHT questions

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened –2 In all other cases

49. Let PQR be an acute angled triangle. Let a PQ

, b QR

and c RP

. If 2 3a

, 3 3b

and 9 3 3b c

, then which of the following is (are) true?

(A) Angle between a

and b

is 23

(B) . 3 3 3b c

(C) 2 2 6c a

(D) PQR is a right angled triangle

50. Consider a pyramid OPQRS located in the first octant with ' 'O as origin, and OP and OR along x-axis

and y-axis respectively. The base OPQR of the pyramid is a square, with 4 2OQ . The point ' 'S is

directly above the mid-point ' 'T of diagonal PR such that 8TS . Then (A) equation of plane containing , ,P Q S is 4x y

(B) the perpendicular distance from ' 'Q to the straight line containing RS is 2 6

(C) the perpendicular distance from ' 'O to PS is 6

(D) equation plane containing , ,P R S is 4x y

51. For the equation 3sin cos 3 9 cos sinx x x x in the interval 0,2

n

,where n is the integer

(A) Has exactly 1004 solution, If n = 2008 (B) Has exactly 1004 solution, if n = 2009 (C) Has exactly 1005 solution, if n = 2010 (D) Has exactly 1005 solution, if n = 2011

52. In a ABC ,if 1sec tan2 2A A , 2sec tan

2 2B B , 3sec tan

2 2C C , then

(A) 1 2 2 3 3 1 =1 (B) 2 2 21 2 3 <1

(C) 1 2 2 3 3 1 1 (D) 2 2 21 2 3 1

53. Let 1 2 3, ,v v v are three unit vectors in a plane such that they are equally inclined to each other. Then

which of following is true ?

(A) 1 2 2 33

.4

v v v v

(B) 1 2 334

v v v

(C) 1 2 3 0v v v

(D) 1 2 3. 0v v v

54. If ,a b

and c

are unit vectors such that 2 0a b c

. Then which of the following are true

(A) . . . 2a b b c c a

(B) . . . 2a b b c c a

(C) 2 3 2 4a b c

(where [ ]denotes GIF)

(D) 2 3 2 3a b c

(where [ ]denotes GIF)

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55. 3 3 3tan cot 12 8cos 2ec then can be

(A) 712

(B) 1112

(C) 1912

(D) 2312

56. The general solution of trigonometric equation given by sin 2x + cos 2x + sin x + cos x + 1 = 0 is given by

set S, then S contains (where n Z)

(A) n + 4

(B) 2(3n + 1)

3

(C) n –

4

(D) 2(3n – 1)

3

SECTION–3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

This section contains TWO paragraphs

Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)

is(are) correct For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS Marking scheme: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened –2 In all other cases

Paragraph for 57 to 58

Let ,a b

and c

be three coplanar vectors such that 2, 4, 3a b c

and . 3 , . 6a c b c

,

. 0a b

. Let d

is a vector such that angle between 3

a b and d is

.

Let 1 2,V V and 3V represents the volumes of the parallelepiped whose co-initial vectors are the triplets

, , , , ,a b d a c d

and , ,b c d

respectively, then

57. 1

2

VV

equals to

(A) 43

(B) 83

(C) 13

(D) 2

58. 2

3

VV

equals to

(A) 3 (B) 12

(C) 3

2 (D)

34

Paragraph for 59 to 60

Consider a triangle ABC. Let D, E, F are the foot of the altitudes on the sides BC, CA and AB respectively. Let H be the orthocenter, R be the circumradius of the triangle ABC. 59. The circumradius of the HBC

(A) R (B) 32R

(C) 23R

(D) 2R

60. The altitude AD intersects the circumcircle of ABC at P then AP (where a, b, c are sides of ABC opposite to vertex A, B, C respectively)

(A) 4 cos cosR B C (B) a (C) 2 cosR B C (D) 3

a b c

Wish you all the best