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1 | Page RRB JE Model Question Paper Quant Q1. Two pipes P and Q can fill a container in 9 min and 12 min respectively. Both of them start filling simultaneously and after some time the pipe Q is removed and it is observed that the container gets filled after 8 min. Find the time for which Q is used. 1) 4/3 min 2) 10 min 3) 6/5 min 4) 8 min Q2. Evaluate [7 + 9 - 2 × (2 + 79) - 45 ÷ 9 + (27 ÷ 9 + 5 × 3 - 19)] × (-3 ÷ 2) 1) 122 2) 128 3) 228 4) 245 Q3. How much pure alcohol should be added to 400 ml of a 15% solution to increase the strength of the solution 32%? 1) 80 ml 2) 100 ml 3) 160 ml 4) 150 ml Q4. If sin x = 3/5, and 0° < x < 90°, the value of tan x + sec x is: 1) 1/2 2) 2 3) 5/2 4) 3 Q5. Determine the value of ‘x’, if x = 227 – [(27 ÷ 3) – (42 ÷ 14) + (5 × 18 ÷ 3)] + 1 1) 191 2) 194 3) 79 4) 192

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Page 1: RRB JE Model Question Paper - Testbook · added to 400 ml of a 15% solution to increase the strength of the solution 32%? 1) 80 ml 2) 100 ml 3) 160 ml ... Who took the oath as the

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RRB JE Model Question Paper

Quant

Q1. Two pipes P and Q can fill a container in 9 min and 12 min respectively. Both of them start filling simultaneously and after some time the pipe Q is removed and it is observed that the container gets filled after 8 min. Find the time for which Q is used.

1) 4/3 min

2) 10 min

3) 6/5 min

4) 8 min

Q2. Evaluate [7 + 9 - 2 × (2 + 79) - 45 ÷ 9 + (27 ÷ 9 + 5 × 3 - 19)] × (-3 ÷ 2)

1) 122

2) 128

3) 228

4) 245

Q3. How much pure alcohol should be added to 400 ml of a 15% solution to increase the strength of the solution 32%?

1) 80 ml

2) 100 ml

3) 160 ml

4) 150 ml

Q4. If sin x = 3/5, and 0° < x < 90°, the value of tan x + sec x is:

1) 1/2

2) 2

3) 5/2

4) 3

Q5. Determine the value of ‘x’, if x = 227 – [(27 ÷ 3) – (42 ÷ 14) + (5 × 18 ÷ 3)] + 1

1) 191

2) 194

3) 79

4) 192

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Q6. If p – 2q = 4, then the value of p3 – 8q3 – 24pq – 64 is:

1) 2

2) 0

3) 3

4) -1

Q7. The average weight of the first 14 persons out of 15 persons is 75 kg. The weight of the 15th person is 28 kg more than the average weight of all the 15 persons. The weight of 15th persons is:

1) 102 kg

2) 105 kg

3) 93 kg

4) 108.75 kg

Q8. Refer the data table given below and answer the following question.

Number

of employees

Annual salary

(in lakhs)

Bonus as the

percent of annual

salary

Manager 1 36 50%

Executive 5 12 20%

Trainee 1 2 20%

What is the average bonus (in rupees)?

1) 3040002

2) 166666.67

3) 208000

4) 434286

Q9. Some money is divided among A, B and C in such a way that 5 times of A’s share, 3 times of B’s share and 2 times of C’s share are equal. The ratio among the shares of A, B and C is:

1) 5 : 3 : 2

2) 2 : 2 : 5

3) 15 : 10 : 6

4) 6 : 10 : 15

Q10. A shopkeeper mixed low-quality vegetable oil costing Rs. 40 per litre with sunflower refined oil costing Rs. 80 per litre in the ratio of 2 ∶ 3 respectively. If he sold the mixture at Rs. 100 per litre, find his profit percentage.

1) 42.75%

2) 47.5%

3) 51.5%

4) 56.25%

Q11. Two trains are moving in the same direction at the speed of 35 km/hr and

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71 km/hr. Time taken by faster train to cross a man sitting in the slower train is 48 seconds. What will be the length (in metres) of the faster train?

1) 540

2) 420

3) 480

4) 660

Q12. On what sum will the difference between S.I and C.I for 2 years at 10% per annum be equal to Rs.100/- ?

1) 11,000

2) 10,000

3) 10,500

4) 12,500

Q13. In a division sum, the divisor is 5 times the remainder and the quotient is 6 times the remainder which is 83. What is the dividend?

1) 169943

2) 159963

3) 259943

4) 206753

Q14. The LCM of two numbers is 17 times the HCF. The sum of HCF and LCM is 630. If one of the numbers is 35, then the other number is?

1) 185

2) 560

3) 245

4) 595

Q15. Find the quadratic equations whose roots are the reciprocals of the roots of x2 + 4x + 6 = 0?

1) 6x2 - 4x + 1

2) 6x2 + 4x + 1

3) 4x2 + 6x + 1

4) 4x2 - 6x + 1

Q16. Rahul got 5 marks less than twice as many marks as Saurabh got in an exam. The total marks scored by Saurabh, Rahul and Kuldeep combined together is 150. If the ratio of marks scored by Saurabh and Kuldeep is 7 : 10, how many marks did Rahul get?

1) 55

2) 65

3) 45

4) 35

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Q17. A square and a rectangular plot of land have the same perimeter. If the side of the square is 60 cm and the rectangle is of length 70 cm, then the area of the rectangle is

1) 3500 cm2

2) 2800 cm2

3) 2500 cm2

4) 2200 cm2

Q18. Rs. 5000 amounts to Rs. 6920 in 4 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate becomes 1.5 times to itself, the amount of the same principal in 5 years will be:

1) Rs. 6000

2) Rs. 7000

3) Rs. 8600

4) Rs. 9000

Q19. A bag contains 1 rupee, 2 rupees and 50 paise coins in the ratio 2 : 1 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 110, the number of 50 paise coins is:

1) 60

2) 50

3) 40

4) 66

Q20. Find the smallest number which when increased by 3 is divisible by each of 34, 27 and 18?

1) 912

2) 909

3) 915

4) 918

Q21. Average of 10 numbers is 14. If each number is multiplied by 6, then what will be the new average?

1) 70

2) 84

3) 56

4) 92

Q22. A superfast express train travels 7

km in the first quarter of an hour, 17 km

in the second quarter and 42 km in the

third quarter. Find the average speed of

the express train per hour over the

entire journey.

1) 88 km/h

2) 22 km/h

3) 94.33 km/h

4) 95.5 km/h

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Q23. Mohan purchased an article at a discount of 30% and sold it to Shyam at 20% profit. What is the ratio between the marked price and the price for which Shyam purchased the article?

1) 25 : 21

2) 20 : 17

3) 12 : 11

4) 4 : 1

Q24. If a, b, c are in A.P. as well as in

G.P. then

1) a = b ≠ c

2) a ≠ b = c

3) a ≠ b ≠ c

4) a = b = c

Q25. If (3x - y) : (x + 5y) = 5 : 7, then the value of (x + y) : (x - y) is

1) 2 : 3

2) 3 : 2

3) 3 : 1

4) 1 : 3

Q26. If the price of wheat rises by 25%,

then by how much percentage must a

man reduce his consumption in order to

keep his budget the same as before?

1) 15%

2) 20%

3) 25%

4) 30%

Q27. Average age of 4 daughters of a

family is 12 years. The average age of

daughters and their parents is 26 years.

If the mother is 4 years older than the

father, then what is the age (in years) of

the father?

1) 56

2) 52

3) 48

4) 44

Q28. The ratio of expenditure and

savings is 4 : 5. If the income increases

by 20% and the savings increases by 6%,

then by how much percent should his

expenditure increase.

1) 8%

2) 12.75%

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3) 37.5%

4) 16%

Q29. The angle of elevation from a point

on a ground to the airplane is 60°. After

15 seconds angle of elevation of the

plane become 30°. If the plane is flying

at the height of 1500√3 meters then the

speed of the plane is?

1) 300 m/s

2) 200 m/s

3) 100 m/s

4) 150 m/s

Q30. A vendor buys 4 bananas at Rs. 3

and sells 3 bananas at Rs. 4. What will

be the result?

1) 43.75% profit

2) 77.7% loss

3) 77.7% profit

4) 43.75% loss

GA

Q31. As per the interim budget 2019,

how many Jan Dhan accounts were

opened in the last five years?

1) 21 crore

2) 34 crore

3) 16 crore

4) 27 crore

Q32. Who took the oath as the First Lokayukta of Nagaland on February 22, 2019?

1) Justice Uma Nath Singh

2) Justice Amal Kumar Sarkar

3) Justice Kailas Nath Wanchoo

4) Justice Madhukar Hiralal Kania

Q33. Who has become the first woman flight engineer?

1) Punita Arora

2) Hina Jaiswal

3) Padmavathy Bandopadhyay

4) Divya Ajith Kumar

Q34. Frances H. Arnold, George P.

Smith and Sir Gregory P. Winter won

the Noble Prize for 2018 in which field?

1) Literature

2) Physics

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3) Economics

4) Chemistry

Q35. Which country has signed an accord to join the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation on 6 February 2019?

1) Albania

2) Macedonia

3) Croatia

4) Serbia

Q36. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Anti-Defection law?

1) 5th Schedule

2) 11th Schedule

3) 10th Schedule

4) 9th Schedule

Q37. Which Writ of the Indian Constitution is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to direct an authority to perform a function that it was not performing?

1) Mandamus

2) Certiorari

3) Quo-Warranto

4) Habeas Corpus

Q38. Which of the following rivers does not originate in India?

1) Ravi

2) Beas

3) Chenab

4) Ghaghara

Q39. Which of the following is the second largest brackish water lake in India after Chilika lake?

1) Bluebird lake

2) Pulicat lake

3) Hebbal lake

4) Vellayani lake

Q40. Who among the following presided the first Buddhist council held at Rajagriha?

1) Sabakami

2) Moggaliputta Tissa

3) Mahakasyapa

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4) Vasumitra

Q41. Who was the Governor General of India during the Second Anglo-Mysore war?

1) Warren Hastings

2) William Bentinck

3) Lord Cornwallis

4) Lord Dalhousie

Q42. The Simlipal National Park is located in which state?

1) Tamilnadu

2) Kerala

3) Odisha

4) Bihar

Q43. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest?

1) Bachhendri Pal

2) Chhurim

3) Anshu Jamsenpa

4) Anita Kundu

Q44. Which among the following is used to view web pages?

1) Website

2) Torrent

3) Network

4) Browser

Q45. Where is the Headquarter of the International Labour Organisation?

1) London

2) Geneva

3) The Hague

4) Washington D.C

GS

Q46. Which among the following is not

a function performed by the plant

hormone 'Auxin?

1) It helps to break the dormancy of

plants.

2) It prevents the separation of the

leaves.

3) It controls the growth of the plants.

4) All are functions of Auxin

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Q47. The Calvin Benson Cycle in the

plants takes place in ________.

1) Roots

2) Stem

3) Stroma of chlorophyll

4) Grana of chlorophyll

Q48. Which among the following is the

function of dendrochronology?

1) To ascertain the age of plants

2) To prevent the plants from falling

sick during the dry seasons

3) To study the process of

photosynthesis in plants

4) To study the process of responding to

any stimulus by a plant

Q49. Which among the following is NOT correct regarding the number of chromosomes in the corresponding organisms?

I. Frog: 14 pairs

II. Cat: 26 pairs

III. Dog: 26 pairs

1) Both I and III

2) Only III

3) Both I and II

4) All I, II and III

Q50. Which among the following

animals has nucleus in the Red Blood

Corpuscles (RBC)?

1) Camel

2) Dog

3) Rat

4) None of the above

Q51. Which among the following

controls the vision and the hearing

power in human beings?

1) Corpora Quadrigemina

2) Cerebrum

3) Pons

4) Cerebellum

Q52. Consider the following diseases.

I. Myxedema

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II. Exothalmic Goitre

III. Cretinism

Which among the following hormones is associated with all the above diseases?

1) Thyroxin

2) Lactogenic Hormone

3) Antidiuretic Hormone

4) Calcitonin

Q53. If the father has the blood group

'A' and the mother has the blood group

'O', which among the following is the

expected blood group of the child?

1) O

2) A

3) AB

4) Either 1 or 2

Q54. Which among the following is the

heaviest sub-atomic particle?

1) Proton

2) Neutron

3) Positron

4) Neutrino

Q55. The Equation of State for an ideal

gas is represented as ________.

1) PV = R/T

2) P/V = nRT

3) PV = nRT

4) PV = RT

Q56. Which among the following can

convert a galvanometer into an

ammeter?

1) By connecting a shunt resistance

parallel to it

2) By connecting a very high resistance

in the series

3) By connecting a very low resistance

in the series

4) By connecting a very high resistance

in the parallel connection

Q57. Which among the following is the

emf of Leclanche Cell?

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1) 1.5 Volt

2) 2.5 Volt

3) 3.5 Volt

4) 0.5 Volt

Q58. A red paper in green light will

appear as ________.

1) Black

2) Blue

3) Yellow

4) Green

Q59. A body is called as hypersonic if

the mach number is ________.

1) 5

2) >5

3) <5

4) >10

Q60. Which among the following is

correct regarding a particle in the

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) in the

mean position?

1) Restoring force acting on particle is

maximum.

2) The potential energy is zero.

3) The velocity of the particle is zero.

4) Acceleration of the particle is

maximum.

Q61. The viscosity of an ideal fluid is

________.

1) 0.01 poise

2) 1 poise

3) 0.1 poise

4) Zero

Q62. Which among the following has the SI unit as Newton metre?

1) Moment of Force

2) Impulse

3) Momentum

4) None of the above

Q63. Which among the following is a

saturated hydrocarbon?

1) Ethylene

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2) Propene

3) Ethane

4) All 1, 2 and 3

Q64. Which among the following is

used as the washing soda?

1) Sodium Carbonate

2) Sodium Benzoate

3) Sodium Iodate

4) Sodium Chloride

Q65. Which among the following is

known as the most electronegative

atom?

1) Carbon

2) Fluorine

3) Iodine

4) None of the above

Q66. Which among the following

produces the poisonous gas 'phosgene'

when exposed in sunlight?

1) Tri-Nitro Glyceride

2) Chloroform

3) Sulphur di Oxide

4) None of the above

Q67. Cinnabar is an ore of which among

the following metals?

1) Mercury

2) Lead

3) Tin

4) Antimony

Q68. The Convention on Biological

Diversity came into force in the year

________.

1) 1995

2) 1996

3) 1998

4) 1993

Q69. According to the Noise Pollution

(Regulation and Control) Rules 2000,

which among the following is the sound

limit for silence zones during night?

1) 50 dB

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2) 40 dB

3) 70 dB

4) 30 dB

Q70. Which among the following is an

air pollutant that has NOT been

included for monitoring under the

National Air Quality Monitoring

Program (NAMP)?

1) Sulphur di Oxide

2) Respirable Suspended Particulate

Matter

3) Carbon di Oxide

4) Oxides of Nitrogen

Q71. The study of grass is known as

________.

1) Agronomy

2) Pharmacognosy

3) Dendrology

4) Agrostology

Q72. Aluminium salt commonly used to

stop bleeding is?

1) Potash alum

2) Aluminium sulphate

3) Aluminium nitrate

4) Aluminium Chloride

Q73. Which among the following is NOT

an abiotic component of the ecosystem?

1) Minerals

2) Humidity

3) Water

4) Bacteria

Q74. The vehicle emission norms were

first introduced in India in ________

for petrol vehicles and in _______ for

diesel vehicles

1) 1993, 1994

2) 1991, 1992

3) 1993, 1995

4) 1996, 1997

Q75 Which among the following helps

in monitoring air pollution?

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1) Lichen

2) Bacteria

3) Fungi

4) Algae

Reasoning

Q76. N walked 15 meters towards west,

took a right turn walked 15 meters. He

then took a left turn and walked 15

meters and again took a left turn and

walked 15 meters. How far is N now

from the starting point?

1) 60 meters

2) 40 meters

3) 30 meters

4) Data inadequate

Q77. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the problem figures?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Q78. In the following question, select

the one which is different from the other

three responses.

1) JCDSP

2) VMRUZ

3) KAWYG

4) FQXEN

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Q79. An Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) are given below.

Assertion (A): Pesticides must be used in more quantity on crops.

Reason (R): Pesticides helps to protect the crops from insects and crop diseases.

Choose the correct option.

1) A is true but R is false.

2) A is false but R is true.

3) Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A.

4) Both A and R are false

Q80. CHEMISTRY is related to

CHEMICALS in the same way

GEOGRAPHY is related to ______

1) Rocks

2) Temperature

3) Earth Science

4) Wind

Q81. Directions: One statement is given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to

consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions be definitely drawn from the given statement.

Statement: The rainfall was so intense that it caused floods throughout the city.

Conclusions:

I. The drainage system and proper water flow system were not properly constructed in the city.

II. Such a drastic weather change was

not foreseen and the city was not

prepared to handle it.

1) Only conclusion I is true.

2) Only conclusion II is true.

3) Either I or II is true.

4) Neither I nor II is true.

Q82. Find the wrong term in the following series.

39, 32, 42, 40, 49, 48, 56

1) 39

2) 42

3) 40

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4) 56

Q83. How many times do the minute

hand and the hour hand come opposite

to each other between 5 o'clock and 7

o'clock?

1) 2

2) 3

3) 1

4) 0

Q84. Choose the one which is odd from

the following options.

1) Jackfruit

2) Kiwifruit

3) Mango

4) Java plum

Q85. Which of the following answer figure patterns when combined cannot make the question figure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Q86. ‘P*Q’ means 'P is the father of Q'.

‘P-Q’ means 'P is the brother of Q'.

‘P+Q’ means 'P is the sister of Q'.

‘P@Q’ means 'P is the wife of Q'.

‘P/Q’ means 'P is the mother of Q'.

Which of the following shows ‘D as a

grandson of A’?

1) C/B-A*D+E

2) A*C-E@D/B

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3) B@A+C*D-E

4) A/C*E+D-B

Q87. Based on the analogy given, find the missing pair from the given options.

42 : 56 : : ----- : -----

1) 21 : 33

2) 74 : 135

3) 42 : 19

4) 54 : 61

Q88. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that “P > Q” definitely holds true?

Q __ T < U __ P ≥ S = R

1) ≥, <

2) ≥, ≥

3) <, ≤

4) <, ≥

Q89. Select the odd image from the

given alternatives.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Q90. In a certain language,

“Indian play cricket” is written as “R*26 B@8 C#21”

“cricket is game” is written as “K&14 C#21 S%23”

“Indian love game” is written as “S%23 B@8 X!31”

Then what is the code for “love”?

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1) K&14

2) B@8

3) X!31

4) R*26

Q91. One of the four words is a class to

which the other three belong. Identify

the class.

1) Arctic

2) Indian

3) Ocean

4) Southern

Q92. If SEED is written as OBCC, then

PLANT may be written as

1) HKPKT

2) KHXLS

3) LSBHD

4) EJNTV

Q93. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are nine shops. P is 6 km west of Q. S is in the middle of P and Q. U is 3 km north of S. R is 6 km east of Q. T is in the middle of Q and R. V is 3 km south of T. W is 4 km west of V. X is 6 km north of W.

What is the position of U with respect to

X?

1) East

2) North

3) West

4) South

Q94. Arrange the following options in logical order.

1. Homo Sapiens

2. Homo Habilis

3. Australopithecus

4. Homo Neanderthalensis

5. Homo Erectus

1) 32541

2) 32145

3) 35421

4) 54123

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Q95. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it.

AL, FQ, ?, MX, OZ

1) JU

2) AU

3) IU

4) UI

Q96. In the following question, select the missing number from the given responses.

1) 144

2) 174

3) 130

4) 169

Q97. Select the possible fold of transparent paper sheet from the given options.

1)

2)

3)

4)

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Q98. In the given figure, circle represents players in academy who play tennis, hexagon represents players in academy who plays badminton, triangle represents players in academy who plays football.

How many badminton players play

tennis but not football?

1) Z

2) Z, T

3) T, Z, X

4) Y, T, X

Q99. An Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) are given below.

Assertion (A): No one has the right to remove the Supreme court’s Chief Justice of India.

Reason (R): Supreme court is the highest judicial forum and final court of appeal under the constitution of India.

Choose the correct option.

1) A is true but R is false.

2) A is false but R is true.

3) Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A.

4) Both A and R are false

Q100. Flight to five different cities

Mumbai, Delhi, Goa, Hyderabad,

Bengaluru on five different days of week

in a random order. Flight to Hyderabad

is either on Friday or Saturday. There

are no flights on Monday and

Wednesday. Weekend flight are to Goa

and Delhi. A day before a flight to

Hyderabad, there is flight to Mumbai.

Two days after the flight to Goa, there is

flight to Bengaluru. There is a flight to

Delhi on ....?

1) Sunday

2) Monday

3) Tuesday

4) Saturday