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7/27/2019 RUHS Pre PG 2014 MBBS Section I Question Paper and Answer Key
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Pre PG-2014 MBBS
Section-I
Q. No. 1
0012001The carpal tunnel contains all the following important structures EXCEPT
Option 1 Flexor pollicis longus tendon
Option 2 Flexor digitorum profundus tendonOption 3 Median nerve
Option 4 Flexor carpi radialis tendon
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 20012002
In the female the inguinal canal does NOT contain which of the followingstructures
Option 1 Inferior epigastric artery
Option 2 Ilioinguinal nerve
Option 3 Round ligament of uterus
Option 4 Lymphatics from the fundus of uterus
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 30012003
While doing a pleural tap in the mid axillary line which of the following structureswill NOT be pierced
Option 1 Internal intercostal muscle
Option 2 Levatores costarum
Option 3 External intercostal muscle
Option 4 Parietal pleura
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 40012004
Which of the following muscles elevates the soft palate during the act ofswallowing
Option 1 Tensor veli palatine
Option 2 Palatoglossus
Option 3 Levator veli palatini
Option 4 Palatopharyngeus
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 50012005
While walking which of the following muscles raises the pelvis on thecontralateral side
Option 1 Gluteus maximus
Option 2 Gluteus medius
Option 3 Obturator externus
Option 4 Quadratus femoris
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 60012006
If the patient'seye sight is normal, which of the following cranial nerves is likelyto be damaged if both the direct and consensual light reflex is absent
Option 1 Optic nerve
Option 2 Oculomotor nerve
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Option 4 Abducent nerve
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 70012007
Which of the following arteries does not arise from the anterior surface of theaorta
Option 1 Celiac artery
Option 2 Superior mesenteric artery
Option 3 Inferior mesenteric artery
Option 4 Lumbar artery
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 8
0012008In the upper limb, the tendon that most commonly ruptures is
Option 1 Triceps
Option 2 Long head of biceps
Option 3 Brachioradialis
Option 4 Deltoid at insertion point.
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 90012009
Deep group of muscles in the posterior compartment of leg include all except
Option 1 Popliteus
Option 2 Plantaris
Option 3 Flexor hallucis longus
Option 4 Timialis posterion
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 100012010
Which of the following dural venous sinuses is not paired
Option 1 Inferior petrosal
Option 2 Transverse
Option 3 Cavernous
Option 4 Straight
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 110012011
Which of the following substances is most highly permeable across skeletalmuscle capillary pores
Option 1 Urea
Option 2 Glucose
Option 3 Sucrose
Option 4 Inulin
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 120012012
Relative taste indices of all of the following are 1 EXCEPT
Option 1 Quinine
Option 2 Chloracetic acid
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Option 4 Sodium chloride
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 130012013
All of the following are class II neurotransmitters EXCEPT
Option 1 Histamine
Option 2 Serotonin
Option 3 Dopamine
Option 4 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 14
0012014
During the middle trimester which is the following is the main site for production
of RBCs
Option 1 Liver
Option 2 Spleen
Option 3 Thymus
Option 4 Lymphnodes
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 150012015
Which one of the following conditions does NOT increase H+ ion secretion byrenal tubules
Option 1 PCO2
Option 2 Hypokalemia
Option 3 Angiotensin II
Option 4 Extracellular volume
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 160012016
All of the following increase renal calcium excretion EXCEPT
Option 1 Blood pressure
Option 2 Metabolic alkalosis
Option 3 PTH
Option 4 Vit D3
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 170012017
Which of the following does NOT increase thirst
Option 1 Plasma osmolarity
Option 2 Gastric distension
Option 3 ngiotensin II
Option 4 Blood volume
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 180012018
All of the following decrease glomerular filtration rate EXCEPT
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Option 2 Endothelin
Option 3 Nitric oxide
Option 4 Epinephrine
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 190012019
In terms of ml/min/100g of tissue weight, which organ has the highest bloodflow
Option 1 Kidney
Option 2 Liver
Option 3 Brain
Option 4 Heart
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 200012020
All of the factors listed below stimulate the growth hormone secretion EXCEPT
Option 1 Decreased blood glucose
Option 2 Obesity
Option 3 Exercise
Option 4 Ghrelin
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 210012021
Which of the following enzymes/proteins are NOT found in neutrophils
Option 1 Myeloperoxidase
Option 2 NADPH oxidase
Option 3 Defensins
Option 4 Catalase
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 220012022
Which one of the following reaction is of importance in oxidative stress in RBCs
Option 1 Fenton reaction
Option 2 Glutathione synthase
Option 3 Glutathione oxidase
Option 4 NADH oxidase
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 230012023
Which of the following is a complement fixing immunoglobulin
Option 1 IgA
Option 2 IgM
Option 3 IgD
Option 4 IgE
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 240012024
Which of the following sugars is not found in human glycoprotein
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Option 2 Fructose
Option 3 Galactose
Option 4 Mannose
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 250012025
Which of the following conditions is NOT due to Peroxisomal abnormalities
Option 1 Infantile Refsum disease
Option 2 Adrenoleukodystrophy
Option 3 Hyperoxaluria type I
Option 4 Maple syrup disease
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 260012026
Cholesterol is the main lipid component in
Option 1 Chylomicrons
Option 2 VLDL
Option 3 LDL
Option 4 HDL
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 270012027
Which of the following is not increased by Insulin
Option 1 Fatty acid synthesis
Option 2 Glycogen synthesis
Option 3 Protein synthesis
Option 4 Lipolysis
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 280012028
Hers' disease is caused due to deficiency of
Option 1 Glucose 6 phosphatase
Option 2 Liver debranching enzyme
Option 3 Acid maltase
Option 4 Liver phosphorylase
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 290012029
Lactate as a substrate can be utilized by all of the following organs EXCEPT
Option 1 Liver
Option 2 Brain
Option 3 Heart
Option 4 Kidney
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 300012030
Which one of the following minerals does not function as prosthetic groups inenzymes
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Option 2 Copper
Option 3 Selenium
Option 4 Magnesium
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 310012031
Which on of the following drugs is most likely to cause hypoglycaemia when usedto treat type 2 diabetes
Option 1 Metformin
Option 2 Glyburide
Option 3 Acarbose
Option 4 Meglitol
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 320012032
Benzodiazepine overdose is best treated with
Option 1 Flumazenil
Option 2 Naloxone
Option 3 Acetylcysteine
Option 4 Pancuronium
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 330012033
All of the following have been derived from plant extracts EXCEPT
Option 1 Etoposide
Option 2 Atropine
Option 3 Reserpine
Option 4 Chloroquin
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 340012034
Warfarin does not act on the post translational modification of which of thefollowing clotting factors
Option 1 Factor VII
Option 2 Factor VIII
Option 3 Factor IX
Option 4 Factor X
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 350012035
Which of the following agents acts through cytotoxic T-lymphocyte associatedantigen CTLA-4
Option 1 Rituximab
Option 2 Abatacept
Option 3 Muromonab
Option 4 Alefacept
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 360012036
If allopurinol is used as an adjunct in chemotherapy to offset hyperurecemia, thedose of which anti-cancer agent needs to be reduced to 25% of normal
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Option 2 Vincristine
Option 3 Mercaptopurine
Option 4 Fluorouracil
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 370012037
Which of the following is not an anti-tumor antibiotic
Option 1 Doxorubicin
Option 2 Bleomycin
Option 3 Mitomycin
Option 4 Daptomycin
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 380012038
Cyclosporine levels are increased by which of the following agents
Option 1 Ketoconazole
Option 2 Albendazole
Option 3 Metronidazole
Option 4 Phenobarbitone
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 390012039
Which of the following agents is active against Aspergillus sp
Option 1 Itraconazole
Option 2 Voriconazole
Option 3 Fluconazole
Option 4 Posaconazole
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 400012040
Which statement regarding ciprofloxacin is accurate
Option 1 It is a good agent against MRSA
Option 2 It belongs to the group macrolides
Option 3 It causes crystalluria
Option 4 It's use may cause tendinitis and tendon rupture
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 410012041
Withdrawal of which antiepileptic agent is least likely to cause recurrence ofseizures
Option 1 Clonazepam
Option 2 Phenobarbitone
Option 3 Diazepam
Option 4 Ethosuximide
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 420012042
Peripheral neuritis due to INH may be alleviated with the concomitant us of whichof the following agents
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Option 2 Carbamazepine
Option 3 Pyridoxine
Option 4 Methylcobalamine
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 430012043
Which one of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs has the longest half life
Option 1 Amodiarone
Option 2 Mexiletine
Option 3 Lidocaine
Option 4 Procainamide
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 440012044
The drug of choice for the treatment of Strongyloides stercoralis is
Option 1 Albendazone
Option 2 Piperacine
Option 3 Ivermectin
Option 4 Praziquantel
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 450012045
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor induced cough is attributable toincreased levels of
Option 1 Bradykinin
Option 2 Somatostatin
Option 3 Histamine
Option 4 Angiotensin
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 460012046
Under which Section of the IPC is medical negligence punishable?
Option 1 304
Option 2 304 A
Option 3 304 B
Option 4 304 C
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 470012047
In deaths due to Asphyxia, the last structure to be dissected should be
Option 1 Head
Option 2 Neck
Option 3 Thorax
Option 4 Abdomen
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 480012048
All of the following are true except Incised wounds EXCEPT
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Option 2 Bleeding is generally less than that in cases of laceration
Option 3 Tailing is present
Option 4 Length of injury has no correlation with the length of weapon
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 490012049
A sample of gastric lavage from a patient of poisoning turned black when treatedwith Silver Nitrate and heated. The most probable poison is
Option 1 Pyrethrin
Option 2 Malathion
Option 3 Aluminium sulphide
Option 4 Parathion
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 500012050
A dead body was found to have marks like branches of a tree on the trunk. Themost likely cause of death could be
Option 1 Firearm injury
Option 2 Bomb blast injury
Option 3 Lightening injury
Option 4 Transportation injury (road side accident)
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 510012051
The difference in concentration of H+ ion in a solution of pH 2.0 compared withsolution of pH 7.0 is
Option 1 5 fold
Option 2 1/5thas much
Option 3 105 fold
Option 4 10-5as much
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 520012052
Which of the following has the fastest conduction velocity
Option 1 A fibres
Option 2 A fibres
Option 3 A fibres
Option 4 A fibres
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 530012053
Which of the following statement is FALSE in case of Type 2B skeletal musclefibres
Option 1 It is red in colour
Option 2 It is large in diameter
Option 3 Oxidative capacity is low
Option 4 Myosin ATPase activity is fast
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 54All f th f ll i i id tid EXCEPT
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Option 1 Endorphin
Option 2 Octapeptide
Option 3 Substance P
Option 4 Metenkephalin
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 550012055
Which of the following statements regarding temperature regulating mechanismsactivated by cold is FALSE
Option 1 Shivering
Option 2 Hunger
Option 3 Horripilation
Option 4 Cutaneous vasodilation
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 560012056
Which of the following is the highest in the hierarchy of evidence
Option 1 Case series
Option 2 Cohort studies
Option 3 Case control study
Option 4 Randomised control study
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 570012057
All of the following are examples of contagious diseases EXCEPT
Option 1 Scabies
Option 2 Trachoma
Option 3 Syphilis
Option 4 Schistosomiasis
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 580012058
Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine
Option 1 Yellow fever
Option 2 Hepatitis B
Option 3 InfluenzaOption 4 Rabies
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 590012059
Isolation of a measles patient is recommended
Option 1 From the onset of catarrhal stage to 1stday of rash
Option 2 From the onset of catarrhal stage to 3rd day of rash
Option 3 From the onset of catarrhal stage to 5thday of rash
Option 4 From the onset of catarrhal stage to 7th
day of rash
Correct Option 2
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0012060
Option 1 Bleaching powder
Option 2 Crude phenol
Option 3 Formalin
Option 4 Cetrimide
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 610012061
All of the following are absolute contraindication for insertion of IUD EXCEPT
Option 1 Suspected pregnancy
Option 2 Cancer of cervix
Option 3 Congenital malformations of uterus
Option 4 Previous ectopic pregnancy
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 620012062 All of the following are measures of dispersion EXCEPT
Option 1 Range
Option 2 Modal deviation
Option 3 Mean deviation
Option 4 Standard deviation
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 630012063
Waste sharps come under which category of biomedical waste
Option 1 Category 1
Option 2 Category 2
Option 3 Category 3
Option 4 Category 4
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 640012064
Which of the following toxicants are suitable as larvicides in mosquito control
Option 1 Abate
Option 2 Lindane
Option 3 DDT
Option 4 OMS-33
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 650012065
Culex mosquito is a vector for all of the following diseases EXCEPT
Option 1 Brugian filariasis
Option 2 Japanese encephalitis
Option 3 West Nile fever
Option 4 Viral arthritis
Correct Option 1
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0012066 Endemic ascites is cause by
Option 1 Beta oxalyl amino-alanine
Option 2 Pyrrolizidine alkaloids
Option 3 Aflatoxin
Option 4 Argemone Mexicana
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 670012067
Orange red colour on Nitric acid test indicates the presence of
Option 1 Fusarium toxins
Option 2 Claviceps fusiformis
Option 3 Argemone mexicana
Option 4 Crotolaria alkaloids
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 680012068 Which of the following vegetables is the richest source of dietary iron
Option 1 Cabbage
Option 2 Cauliflower
Option 3 Spinach
Option 4 Tomato
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 690012069
Overweight is defined as BMI more than or equal to( )
Option 1 20
Option 2 25
Option 3 30
Option 4 35
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 700012070
Which of the following diseases does NOT come under "spotted fever group"
Option 1 Indian tick typhus
Option 2 Rocky mountain fever
Option 3 Rickettsial pox
Option 4 Q fever
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 710012071
Nonspecific esterase is positive in all the cat of AML EXCEPT
Option 1 M3
Option 2 M4
Option 3 M5
Option 4 M6
Correct Option 4
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0012072 The following protein defects can cause hereditary sphero EXCEPT
Option 1 Ankyrin
Option 2 Paladin
Option 3 Glycophorin C
Option 4 Anion transport protein
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 730012073
Mantle cell lymphoma is positive for all of the following EXCEPT
Option 1 CD 5
Option 2 CD 20
Option 3 CD 23
Option 4 CD 43
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 740012074 which of the following are characteristic markers of HL
Option 1 CD 15 AND CD 30
Option 2 CD 15 AND CD 45
Option 3 CD 15 AND CD 3
Option 4 CD 30 AND CD 68
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 750012075
Which of the following statement is incorrect about PV
Option 1 Characterized by Hb> 18.5 gm/dl in males and 16.5 g/dl in females
Option 2 Serum erythropoietin is below ref range
Option 3 Hypercellular marrow with micromegakaryocytes
Option 4 JAK2V617F mutation
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 760012076
The finnish type of nephrotic syndrome occurs fue to the gene mutation affectingthe following protein
Option 1 Podocin
Option 2 Alfa actinin
Option 3 Nephrin
Option 4 CD 2 activated protein
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 770012077
Which of the following statement about graft Vs host disease (GVHD) is leastappropriate
Option 1 Occurs when host is immunocompropmised
Option 2 Occurs when donor cells are immunocompromised
Option 3 Is also called Runt disease
Option 4 Common cause is stem cell transplantation
Correct Option 2
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0012078 Flexner Wintersteinar rosettes are characteristically seen in
Option 1 Retinoblastoma
Option 2 Melanoma
Option 3 Neuroblastoma
Option 4 Dysgerminoma
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 790012079
Reactive oxygen intermediates are released by
Option 1 Catalase
Option 2 NADP oxidase
Option 3 Glutathione peroxidase
Option 4 Superoxide dismutase
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 800012080 Ca stomach developing secondary to perniciuous anemia in occurs in the
Option 1 Prepyloric region
Option 2 Pyloric region
Option 3 Body
Option 4 Fundus
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 810012081
Which of the following gene defect is associated with development of MEN 2A
Option 1 Point mutation in RET proto-oncogene: extra cellular domain
Option 2 Point mutation in RET proto oncogene: cytoplasmic catalytic domain
Option 3 Point mutation in BRCA 1 gene
Option 4 Point mutation in Rb gene
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 820012082
Which of the following is a procoagulant protein
Option 1 Thrombomodulin
Option 2 Protein C
Option 3 Protein S
Option 4 Thrombin
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 830012083
All of the following features are seen in viral pneumonias EXCEPT
Option 1 Presence of interstitial inflammatory infiltrate
Option 2 Predominance of alveolar exudate
Option 3 Bronchiolitis
Option 4 Multi nucleated giant cell in the alveolar wall
Correct Option 2
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0012084 fibrosis (NCPF)
Option 1 Fibrosis in and around portal tract
Option 2 Thrombosis of medium an d small portal vein branches
Option 3 Non specific inflammatory cell infiltrate in the portal tracts
Option 4 Bridging fibrosis
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 850012085
The following statement is INCORRECT about tumor suppressor NF2 gene
Option 1Germ like mutation in the NF2 gene predisposed to the development of neurofibromatosis
type 2
Option 2 Patients with NF2 deficiency develop benign bilateral shwannomas of acoustic nerve
Option 3 Located on chromosome no 21q12
Option 4Product of NF2 gene, Merlin shows a great homology with the red cell membrane cytosolicprotein 4.1
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 86
0012086Which is the first human disease proved to be of viral origin ?
Option 1 Japanese encephalitis
Option 2 Yellow fever
Option 3 Dengue
Option 4 Small pox
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 87
0012087
Which of the following is used commercially for sterilisation of disposable plastic
items
Option 1 Ethylene oxide
Option 2 Autoclave
Option 3 Glutaraldehyde
Option 4 Ethyl alcohol
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 880012088
Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to
Option 1 TransformationOption 2 Transduction
Option 3 Conjugation
Option 4 Mutation
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 890012089
Direct immunofluorescence test may be used for detection of
Option 1 Rabies virus antigen
Option 2 Antibodies in syphilis
Option 3 Malaria antibodies
Option 4 Complement levels
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Q. No. 900012090
Chediak- Higashi syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease which occurs due to
Option 1 T cell defects
Option 2 B cell defects
Option 3 Complement disorder
Option 4 Diminished phagocytic activity
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 910012091
Sensitivity to bacitracin can be used to identify
Option 1 Streptococcus pyogenes
Option 2 Str. agalactiae
Option 3 Str. equisimilis
Option 4 Str. Mitis
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 920012092
Which biotype of Corynebacterium diphtheria ferments starch and glycogen
Option 1 Gravis
Option 2 Intermedius
Option 3 Mitis
Option 4 All of the above
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 930012093
MacConkey's medium with sorbitol instead of lactose is used for detection of E colistrains
Option 1 O15 : B11
Option 2 O55 : B5
Option 3 O8 : B70
Option 4 None of the above
Correct Option 2
Q. No. 940012094
Which is the selective media for growing Yersinia enterocolitica from faeces
Option 1 Cycloserine - cefoxitin - sucrose agar
Option 2 Butzler's selective medium
Option 3 Cefsulodin iirgasan novobiocin agar
Option 4 Tinsdale agar
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 950012095
Which of the following bacteria is/are also named T strains
Option 1 Ureaplasma urealyticum
Option 2 Mycolplasma hominis
Option 3 Mycolplasma pneumoniaeOption 4 Acholeplasma
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Q. No. 960012096
"Owl' eye" appearance inclusions can be demonstrated in laboratory diagnosis of
Option 1 Herpes simplex virus infections
Option 2 Epstein - Barr virus infections
Option 3 Cytomegalovirus infections
Option 4 Measles virus infection
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 970012097
Which of the following viral markers is/are positive in super carriers of HepatitisB
Option 1 HBsAg & HBeAg
Option 2 HBsAg & anti HBc
Option 3 HBeAg & anti HBe
Option 4 HBcAg & HBeAg
Correct Option 1
Q. No. 980012098
Which fungus contains highly infectious arthrospores
Option 1 Histoplasma capsulatam
Option 2 Blastomyces dermatidis
Option 3 Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Option 4 Coccidioides immitis
Correct Option 4
Q. No. 990012099
Ergot alkaloids are toxins produced by
Option 1 Apergillus flavus
Option 2 Fusarium nivale
Option 3 Claviceps pupurea
Option 4 Penicillium rubrum
Correct Option 3
Q. No. 1000012100
Pseudotubercles may be formed around the eggs of
Option 1 Schistosoma haematobium
Option 2 Wuchereria bancrofti
Option 3 Clonorchis sinensis
Option 4 Fasciolopsis buski
Correct Option 1
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