SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

CLASS: TYBSCIT – SEMESTER - VI

SUBJECT: SOFTWARE QUALITY ASSURANCE

1. Concept of "Total Quality" was created in ______.

A. Japan

B. US

C. UK

D. South Korea

2. Quality can be defined as Conformance to _________.

A. Specification

B. Market

C. Developer

D. Company

3. Quality can be recognized but not defined. This is called as the _________ view of quality

A. Transcendental

B. User

C. Product

D. Manufacturing

4. "Quality is fitness for purpose". This is called as the ______ view of quality.

A. Product

B. User

C. Transcendental

D. Manufacturing

5. When Quality depends on the amount which the customer is willing to pay, it is called as

_____.

A. User

B. Manufacturing

C. Value

D. Product

6. ___________ is simply the input values to be passed to the system under test.

A. Test Plan

B. Test Design

C. Test Data

D. Test Cases

7. ________ is a document defines work products to be tested, how they will be tested and

test type.

A. Test Plan

B. Test document

C. Test case

D. Test note

8. ___________ cost arises from efforts to defects.

A. Appraisal

B. Prevention

C. Internal failure

D. External failure.

9. A__________ document is a high level document defines software testing approach to

achieve testing objective.

A. Test Plan

B. Test Strategy

C. Test case

D. Test note

10. Which of the following defect attribute denotes the order in which defects need to be

fixed?

A. Severity

B. Priority

C. Intensity

D. Complexity

11. _________decides the execution of the inspection, defines the schedules, allocates time

and defines objectives of inspection.

A. Reviewer

B. Moderator

C. Author

D. Manager

12. Name the step that is precedor to the step 'follow up'

A. Inspection Meeting

B. Decision on comment

C. Planning for inspection

D. Individual preparation

13. name the audit that checks whether the phase defined in the SDLC model achieves it

outcome or not

A. Predelivery Audit

B. Periodic Audit

C. Phase End Audit

D. Product Audit

14. This is the person who prepares the artifact for inspection

A. Scribe

B. Moderator

C. Author

D. Reviewer

15. One of the following is not a a characteristic of nice domain

A. orthogonal

B. complete

C. linear

D. inconsistent

16. _________ is not involved in System Testing.

A. Developers

B. Designer

C. User

D. Testers

17. ___________ is conducted on whole integrated system to estimate the systems

compliance with its specified set of requirements.

A. Integration Testing

B. Interface Testing

C. System Testing

D. Unit Testing

18. ____________is largely a white box oriented.

A. Module testing

B. Integration Testing

C. Design testing

D. Proposal testing

19. Hybrid Integration Testing is also known as ____________.

A. Big-Bang Integration Testing

B. Sandwich Integration Testing

C. Bottom-Up Integration Testing

D. Integration Testing

20. Which testing is concerned with behavior of whole product as per specified requirements?

A. Acceptance testing

B. Component testing

C. System testing

D. Integration testing

21. System architecture is determined during which phase?

A. Requirement gathering

B. Implementation

C. Development

D. Design

22. Verifying that whether software components are functioning correctly and identifying the

defects in them is objective of which level of testing?

A. Integration testing

B. Acceptance testing

C. Unit testing

D. System Testing

23. "Stubs" and "Drivers" are used is which type of testing?

A. Alpha Testing

B. Beta Testing

C. Integration Testing

D. Unit Testing

24. What is the objective of integration testing?

A. To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements

B. To verify that system meets user expectation and needs

C. To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly

D. To verify that interfaces between different parts of system

25. _______________are the Testers of System Testing?

A. Developers

B. Business Analysts

C. Independent Testers

D. Customers

SUBJECT: SECURITY IN COMPUTING

1. The academic security model is ________________

A. Wide Open

B. Closed and Locked

C. Secure and reliable

D. Portable

2. What are the 3 D`s of Security?

A. Defense-Detection-Deterrence

B. Data security - Detection-Deterrence

C. Defense-Data integrity -Deterrence

D. Data security –Data integrity- Defense

3. What are the lifecycle phases of malicious mobile code?

A. Exploit – Find -Infect - Repeat

B. Find – Exploit – Infect - Repeat

C. Infect – Exploit – Find - Repeat

D. Repeat- Exploit- Find- Repeat

4. What is the name of a self-encrypted virus designed to avoid detection by the scanner?

A. Polymorphic

B. Macro

C. Script

D. Worm

5. What is the long form of CIA?

A. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

B. Central Intelligence Agency

C. Cyber security Investigation Agency

D. Cyber security, Internet, Accessibility

6. If the virus executes, does its damage, and terminates until the next time it is executed, it is

known as?

A. Temporary virus

B. Resident virus

C. Nonresident virus

D. Stealth virus

7. What is Authentication?

A. Encryption

B. Proof of Identity

C. Access

D. Modification

8. A system for encryption and decryption is called as___________

A. Cryptosystem

B. Encryption

C. Decryption

D. Security System

9. What is full form of SANs?’

A. Service area networks

B. Storage area networks

C. Selected area networks

D. Single area networks

10. ________________ Command specifies that a particular user or role will have access to

perform specific action on database objects

A. REVOKE

B. GRANT

C. UPDATE

D. DENY

11. PSTN stand for_____

A. Private Switched Telephone Network

B. Public Switched Telephone Network

C. Private Switched Transmission Network

D. Public Switched Transport Network

12. DNS Stands for

A. Domain Name Service

B. Domain Name System

C. Data Name Service

D. Data Name System

13. The connection less protocol used in transport layer in OSI reference model is

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. IP

D. RARP

14. A packet filter firewall filters at __________

A. Physical Layer

B. Data Link Layer

C. Network Layer or Transport Layer

D. Application Layer

15. Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission _______

A. Signal

B. Frequency

C. Phase

D. Amplitude

16. MTU rate stands for ________________

A. Maximum Transfer Unit

B. Minimum Transfer Unit

C. Maximum Transreceive Unit

D. Minimum Transreceive Unit

17. Which of the following method is used to evade IDSs?

A. Denial of service

B. Fragmentation

C. Pattern matching

D. Access attack

18. Which is not a VoIP component?

A. MCUs

B. PBX

C. Software Endpoints

D. Hardware Endpoints

19. From the following, which is not common file permission?

A. Write

B. Execute

C. Stop

D. Read

20. Which of the following software provide system resource access to virtual machines?

A. Virtual Machine

B. Hypervisor

C. Kernel

D. Hyper-v

21. Which is the best security for the hypervisor access?

A. Token

B. Encryption

C. Lock

D. Password

22. If an attacker attempts to “break out” of a guest OS to access the hypervisor or

neighboring guest OS’s referred as:

A. Sniffing

B. Spoofing

C. Escape

D. Stealing

23. NAS is stand for_____________

A. Network Attached Storage

B. Network Attached System

C. Network Attached Service

D. Network Attached Security

24. Which is the primary element of SDL?

A. Security not modify

B. Security define

C. Security criteria

D. Security guaranteed

25. How many methods of exploiting web forms?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

SUBJECT – BUSINESS INTELLIGENCE

Q1.The tools for performing a passive business intelligence analysis is found

at__________________ level in business intelligence system

a) Data exploration

b) Data mining

c) Optimization

d) Decisions

Q2. ____________is a broad category of applications and technologies for gathering,

storing, analyzing, and providing access to data to help enterprise users make better

business decisions.

a) Data Mining

b) Data mart

c) Data warehouse

d) Business intelligence

Q3. In ETL ‘E’ stands for

a) External

b) Extraction

c) Extreme

d) None of the above

Q4. ___________measurements express the level of conformity of a given system to the

objectives for which it was designed.

a) Effectiveness

b) Efficiency

c) Evaluation

d) Feedback

Q5. Which of the following areas are affected by BI?

a) Revenue

b) CRM

c) Sales

d) All of the mentioned

Q6. _____________methods select the relevant attributes before moving on to the subsequent

learning phase, and are therefore independent of the specific algorithm being used.

a) Filter

b) embedded

c) wrapper

d) Scaling

Q.7 which of the statement is not true about Data Mining?

a) The term data mining refers to the overall process consisting of data gathering and analysis, development of inductive learning models and adoption of practical

decisions and consequent actions based on the knowledge acquired.

b) Data mining analysis is to draw a fresh conclusion without investigating the past data, observations and interpretations

c) Data mining activities can be subdivided into two major investigation streams, interpretation and prediction.

d) The data mining process is based on inductive learning methods

Q.8 The term ________________theory is reserved for the variety of mathematical models

and methods that can be found at the core of each data mining analysis and that are

used to generate new knowledge.

a) mathematical learning

b) machine learning

c) deep learning

d) static learning

Q.9 An _______in the company information systems, expected to supervise

the access to the information sources.

a) expert

b) trainer

c) developer

d) Tester

Q.10 Through which the effort of representation is justified by the remarkable

conciseness of the information achieved .

a) through a well-designed documentation

b) through a class diagram

c) through a well-designed chart

d) through a well-designed journal

Q11. The fuzzy partition methods assign each observation to what type of clusters?

a) same

b) different

c) existing

d) Random

Q12. In minimum distance method, what is the criterion between two clusters?

a) single linkage

b) complex linkage

c) complete linkage

d) optional linkage

Q13. In maximum distance method, what is the criterion between two clusters?

a) single linkage

b) complex linkage

c) complete linkage

d) optional linkage

Q14 what technique is used in agglomerative hierarchical method for clustering?

a) bottoms down

b) bottoms up

c) top down

d) top up

Q15. The silhouette coefficient involves the combination of cohesion and ?

a) separation

b) assimilation

c) combination

d) Adhesion

Q16. Which of the following is not reasons motivates relational marketing..

a) Increased flow of information and the introduction of e-commerce

b) Customers certain loyalty

c) Systematic/Automatic gathering of sales transactions

d) Increase in advanced analysis techniques

Q17. Which of the following is not a decision-making option for a relational marketing

strategy?

a) Prices

b) Distribution Channels

c) Product

d) Sales Processes

Q18. Which of the following are the customers of high value?

a) B2B

b) B2C

c) B2C2B

d) B2B2C

Q19. Which of the following is decision-making processes?

a) ETL Process

b) Staging Process

c) Data Mining

d) Marketing Campaigns

Q20. Which of the following are the indirect methods that are used to acquire customers

data?

a) Telephonic Conversations

b) Display Advertisement Boards

c) Sending email to customers

d) Talk with Sales Agents

Q21. JESS is an abbreviation for ________.

a) Java Enhanced System Sell

b) Java Expert System Sell

c) Java Expert Sub System

d) Java Enhanced Sub System

Q22.Mathematical models are developed by

a) doing mathematical calculation

b) exploring the relationships with data.

c) developing mathematical logic

d) exploiting the relationships among system control variables ,parameters and

Evaluation metrics

Q23. ___________technologies enabling factors that have facilitate development of BI with

complex organizations

a) Application

b) System

c) business information

d) Hardware and Software

Q24. Decisions can be classified into their ____________

a) concept and thoughts

b) Supply and Demand

c) Nature and Scope

d) Techniques

Q25.BI supports _______________ for data.

a) Files

b) Data Marts & Data Warehouse.

c) Data Mining

d) System database

SUBJECT: IT IN SECURITY MANAGEMENT

1. ITSM is performed by IT Service _________ through an appropriate mix of people,

process and information technology.

A) Subscriber

B) Developer

C) Customer

D) Provider

2. Which of the following is proper sequence of ITSM Life cycle Phases?

A)design, strategy, transition, operation , continual improvement

B) strategy, design, transition, operation , continual improvement

C) transition, strategy, design, operation , continual improvement

D) strategy, continual improvement, design, transition, operation

3 Which of the following is NOT from four perspectives (4P’s) or attributes to explain the

concept of ITSM :

A) Piracy

B) Products

C) Partners

D) Processes

4 What is the RACI model used for?

A) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity

B) Defining requirements for a new service or process

C) Analyzing the business impact of an incident

D) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management

5. What is the BEST description of an external customer?

A). Someone who works in the same organization but in a different business unit to the

service provider

B). Anyone who gets charged for the delivered services

C). Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service provider

D). Customers for whom the cost of the service is the primary driver

5. What are the 4 P's of Service Design?

a. People, Products, Processes and Partners

b. Public, Processes, Products and Partners

c. Private, Processes, Partners, Products

d. People, Partners, Public, Products

6. _________service design is relevant for organizations involved in developing ,delivering

or supporting services.

a. ITIP

b. ITID

c. ITIL

d. ITIS

7. The architecture and designs should be ____enough to respond quickly to business needs.

a. complex

b. flexible

c. incapable

d. inconsistent

8. Which one of the following is not an element of service design?

a.Functionality

b.Resources

c.Schedule

d.Dissatisfaction

9. _________ provides a formal and universal standard for organizations seeking to have

their service management capabilities audited and certified.

a. ISO/ICE 20000

b. ISO/IEC2000

c. ISO/IEC20000

d. ISO/ECI 20000

10. The___process model provides best practice guidelines on the delivery in to the live

operational environment of modified services required by company

a. Service Transition Process module

b. Service Transaction Process module

c. Service Transition Proceed module

d. Service Transition modified module

11. Service Transition Process module ensures that all change in service management

processes are implemented in _____manner.

a. mismatch

b. coordinated

c. Improper

d. compatible

12. The main objective of _____service transition phase is to develop anf improve

capabilities used to implement new or modified services.

a. Information Technology Information zone

b. Information Technology Information Point

c. Information Technology Information library

d. Information Technology Information Hub

13. Benefit of service transition process model is to increase ___rate of business changes and

releases

a. non adaptable

b. failure

c. decline

d. success

14. When components are ____it leads to changes in hardware and software maintainence

contracts

a. decommissioned

b. commissioned

c. preserved

d. restored

15. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?

A. Predicting the impact of incidents on the network

B. A type of Incident that is used as a best practice model

C. A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incident

D. An Incident that requires a separate system

16. What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?

A. The underlying cause of a Known Error is known. The underlying cause of a Problem

is not known

B. A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure. A Problem does not involve

such an error.

C. A Known Error always originates from an Incident. This is not always the case with a

Problem.

D. With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified. This is not the

case with a Known Error.

17. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change

Management. What information is this?

A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change

Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)

B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors

C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change

Management

18. Incident Management has a value to the business by?

A. Helping to control cost of fixing technology

B. Enabling customers to resolve Problems

C. Helping to maximise business impact

D. Contributing to the reduction of impact

19. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?

A. A user calls the Service Desk to order a new mouse

B. A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of

an application

C. A user calls the service desk to reset their password

D. A user logs onto an internal web site to download a licensed copy of software from a

list of approved options

20. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A. Identifying, selecting and prioritizing market opportunities.

B. Improving the cost-effectiveness of delivering IT services.

C. Making recommendations for improvements in each lifecycle phase

D. Ensuring applicable quality management methods are employed

21. The primary purpose of Continual Service Improvement is to continually align and

realign IT Services to changing business needs.” What is the main way in which this is

achieved?

A. Identifying and implementing improvements to measurement methods that support IT

processes

B. Identifying and implementing improvements to IT services that support business

processes

C. Identifying and implementing improvements to technologies that support IT processes

D. Identifying and implementing improvements to business processes that support IT

services

22. What is the main goal of using the Deming Cycle?

A. Measuring and reviewing improvements

B. Facilitating steady ongoing improvement

C. Performing an effective gap analysis

D. Setting clear goals and targets

23. When improving processes, what are four important areas that measurements and metrics

can be focused on?

A. Purpose, Objectives, Inputs and Outputs

B. Performance, Compliance, Quality and Value

C. Objectives, Roles, Responsibilities, and Outcomes

D. Performance, Resources, Measurability and Value

24. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Baselines are a mechanism for real-time monitoring of quality

B. Baselines need to be documented and accepted within an organization

C. Baselines must always be conducted by an independent third party

D. Baselines are only used to validate earlier improvement activity

25. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between technology

and service metrics?

A. The main purpose of service metrics is to support technology metrics

B. Technology metrics are used in calculating end-to-end service metrics

C. Service metrics are not directly supported by technology metrics

D. Technology metrics are calculated from end-to-end service metrics

SUBJECT: PRINCIPLES OF GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS

1. A ‘data model’ is a language that allows the definition of________________.

a) The ‘structures’ that will be not used to store the base data

b) The ‘integrity constraints’ that the stored data has to obey at all moments in time

c) Different data types with attribute values.

d) Data Redundancy can be eliminated

2. Which of the following statements is true?

a) A table or relation is itself not a collection of ‘tuples’ (or records)

b) Each table is a collection of tuples that are similarly reshaped

c) An ‘attribute’ is a named field of a tuple, with which each tuple associates a value,

the tuple’s ‘attribute value’

d) Table cannot have multiple columns.

3. Which of the following statements is true in connection with a ‘tuple’?

a) The set of tuples in a relation at some point in time is called the ‘relational

instance’ at that moment

b) This tuple set is always infinite

c) It is not possible to count how many tuples are there.

d) Tuples are not referred as rows.

4. In the ____________ data model, a database is viewed as a collection of relations,

commonly also known as tables. A table or relation is itself a collection of tuples (or

records).

a) Hierarchical

b) Relational

c) Network

d) Object-Oriented

5. ___________ is a database that is optimized for storing and querying data that

represents objects defined in a geometric space.

a) Spatial

b) Relational

c) Temporal

d) Object-Oriented

6. The boundary and interior of one object is completely contained in the interior or the

boundary of the other object, their interiors intersect, and the boundary or the interior of

one object and the boundary of the other object intersect is called ___________________ .

a) Touches

b) Equals

c) Covers

d) Contains

7. The interior and boundary of one object is completely contained in the interior of the

other object is called ___________________.

a) Touches

b) Equals

c) Disjoint

d) Contains

8. Which form of representation does a paper map use?

a) analogue

b) digital

c) binary

d) decimal

9. The __________ operation creates an output layer based on a user-defined query that

selects particular features from the input layer. The output layer contains only those

features that are selected during the query.

a) Dissolve

b) Append

c) Select

d) Merge

10. ___________ that works with neighbouring cell values.

a) Local

b) Zonal

c) Focal

d) Global

11. Which option more suitable for Longitude, latitude, and elevation data for point

locations made available through a navigational satellite system and a receiver.

a) GIS Data

b) Analog Data

c) Digital Data

d) Global positioning system (GPS) data

12. Manual digitizing on the computer monitor by using a data source such as a DOQ as

the background is nothing but_________.

a) On-screen digitizing

b) Scanning

c) Digitizing

d) Encoding

13. ___________ is digitizing method that converts an analog map into a scanned file in

raster format, which can then be converted back to vector format through tracing.

a) On-screen digitizing

b) Scanning

c) Digitizing

d) Encoding

14. Choose most suitable for Public data formats for transferring geospatial data such as

DLGs and DEMs from the USGS.

a) SSURGO (Soil Survey Geographic)

b) STATSGO (State Soil Geographic)

c) Spatial Data Transfer Standard (SDTS)

d) Vector product format (VPF)

15. A database prepared by the U.S. Census Bureau that contains legal and statistical area

boundaries, which can be linked to the census data.

a) SSURGO (Soil Survey Geographic)

b) STATSGO (State Soil Geographic)

c) Spatial Data Transfer Standard (SDTS)

d) TIGER (Topologically Integrated Geographic Encoding and Referencing)

16. The standard overlay operator for TWO layers of polygon is the _________operator

a) Polygon intersection

b) Polygon distortion

c) Polygon Combination

d) Polygon Scaling

17. GLONASS stands for _______________________________

a) Global Navigation Satellite System

b) Geographic Navigation Satellite System

c) Global Navigation Spatial System

d) Global Navigation Satellite Sources

18. GIS that supports raster processing by using language tom express operations on

raster’s are known as ________

a) Map data

b) Map algebra

c) Mapping

d) Analysis

19. The raster name and constants that are used in expression are called _________

a) Operands

b) Operators

c) Function

d) Numerical value

20. ___________ returns the remainder of division

a) Integer division

b) Mathematical division

c) Modulo division

d) Relational division

21. ______analysis is performed when we want to understand which part of network is

‘CONDITIONALLY CONNECTED’ to a chosen node on the network

a) Need

b) Path

c) Capacity

d) Trace

22. GPS stands for _______

a) Global Positioning System

b) Government Positioning Satellites

c) Geographic Pressure Sensors

d) Global Position System

23. In the network analysis each line a direction of transportation is associated with

________

a) Directed Network

b) Directed analysis

c) Undirected network

d) Undirected analysis

24. Which is the type of Model?

a) Descriptive

b) Prescribed

c) Predictors

d) Statistical

25. Tracing functions on a network are_______________________

a) Tracing upstream

b) Tracing back and forth

c) Tracing with condition and direction

d) Tracing with values