SAMPLE COPY SAT I (REASONING TEST)

General Directions

TIMING

You will have 3 hours and 45 minutes to work on this test.

There are TEN separately timed sections. (We have included ONLY 4 Sections viz. Essay, Writing, Critical Reading and Quant in the sample paper, whereas on the USA UnivQuest Open Mock Test there will be 10 sections, the way the Actual SAT I (Reasoning) Test is designed.

One 25-minute essay

Six other 25-minute sections

Two 20-minute sections

One 10-minute section

You may work on only one section at a time.

The supervisor will tell you when to begin and end each section.

If you finish a section before time is called, check your work on that section. You may NOT turn to any other section.

Work as rapidly as you can without losing accuracy. Dont waste time on questions that seem too difficult for you.

MARKING ANSWERS

Carefully mark only one answer for each question.

Make sure each mark is dark and completely fills the circle.

Do not make any stray marks on your answer sheet.

If you erase, do so completely, incomplete erasures may be scored as intended answers.

Use only the answer spaces that correspond to the question numbers.

You many use the test book for scratch work, but you will not receive credit for anything written there.

After time has been called, you may not transfer answers to your answer sheet or fill in circles.

You may not fold or remove pages or portions of a page from this book, or take the book or answer sheet from the testing room.

SCORING

For each correct answer to a question, you receive one point.

For questions you omit, you receive no points

For a wrong answer to a multiple-choice question, you lose one fourth of a point

If you can eliminate one or more of the answer choices as wrong, you increase your chances of choosing the correct answer and earning one point.

If you cant eliminate any choice, move on. You can return to the question later if there is time.

For a wrong answer to a student-produced response (Grid-In) math question, you dont lose any points.

The essay is scored on a 1 to 6 scale by two different readers. The total essay score is the sum of the two readers scores

An off topic or blank essay will receive a score of zero.

DISCLAIMER

This SAMPLE PAPER is only an indicative specimen but the USA UnivQuest Open

Mock Test (SATI) will be comprising of 10 sections in all, the way the Actual

SAT-I (Reasoning ) Test is designed.

SAT 1 REASONING TEST ESSAY SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - XII

SECTION 1

ESSAY Time 25 minutes

The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely. Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet you will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers. Important Reminders:

A pencil is required for the essay. An essay written in ink will receive a score of zero. Do not write your essay in your test book. You will receive credit only for what you write on your

answer sheet. An off-topic essay will receive a score of zero. If your essay does not reflect your original and individual work, your test scores may be canceled. You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below.

Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below. Assignment: Is using humor the best way to approach difficult situations and problems? Plan and write an

essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading, studies, experience or observations.

BEGIN WRITING YOUR ESSAY ON PAGE 2 OF THE ANSWER SHEET.

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.

Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Both in society and in our own lives, todays problems are serious and require serious solutions. Increasingly, however, people are taught to laugh at things that arent usually funny and to cope with difficult situations by using humor. They are even advised to surround themselves with funny people. There is strong evidence that laughter can actually improve health and help fight discase. Adapted form Marshall Brain, How Laughter Works

SAT 1 REASONING TEST WRITING SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - XII

SECTION 4 Time 25 minutes

35 Questions

Turn to Section 6 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the

corresponding circle on the answer sheet The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.

In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective sentenceclear and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity.

EXAMPLE:

Laura Ingalls Wilder published her first book and she was sixty-five years old then.

(A) and she was sixty-five years old then (B) when she was sixty-five (C) at age sixty-five years old (D) upon the reaching of sixty-five years (E) at the time when she was sixty-five

1. The Womens Media Group recently launching an intern program in an effort to encourage minority

women to think about careers in publishing and electronic media.

(A) The Womens Media Group recently launching an intern program (B) The Womens Media Group recently would launch an intern program (C) Recently launching an intern program, the Womens Media Group (D) The Womens Media Group recently launched an intern program (E) An intern program recently launched by the Womens Media Group

2. Bears in Yosemite National Park have been known to break into cars for food, candy, or even toothpaste,

since such is the case, most campers heed posted warnings about the animals.

(A) toothpaste, since such is the case, most campers heed posted warnings about the animals (B) toothpaste, with most campers therefore heeding posted warnings about the animals (C) toothpaste, most campers heed posted warnings about the animals as a result (D) toothpaste; and most campers heed posted warnings about the animals because of that (E) toothpaste; therefore, most campers heed posted warnings about the animals

3. The annual National Concrete Canoe Competition attracts teams of engineering students having designed canoes that promote the versatility of concrete.

(A) having designed (B) who have designed (C) for designing (D) to be designing (E) and they designed

4. Anna Freud adapted classical psychoanalytic technique to the treatment of young children, being

Sigmund Freuds daughter.

(A) Anna Freud adapted classical psychoanalytic technique to the treatment of young children, being Sigmund Freuds daughter. (B) Anna Freud adapted classical psychoanalytic technique to the treatment of young children, and she was Sigmund Freuds daughter. (C) Anna Freud, who as Sigmund Freuds daughter adapted classical psychoanalytic technique to the treatment of young children. (D) Being Anna Freud, Sigmund Freuds daughter adapted classical psychoanalytic technique to the treatment of young children. (E) Anna Freud, Sigmund Freuds daughter, adapted classical psychoanalytic technique to the treatment of young children.

5. Mindful of the growing popularity of backyard compost piles among home gardeners, experts warn that

adding meat, dairy products, or cooking grease to compost will attract vermin.

(A) experts warn that adding meat, dairy products, or cooking grease to compost will (B) adding meat, dairy products, or cooking grease to compost, this is what experts warn will (C) and with warnings from experts that adding meat, dairy products, or cooking grease to compost

will (D) warnings from experts concerning the addition of meat, dairy products, or cooking grease to

compost will (E) experts warning that adding meat, dairy products, or cooking grease to compost would

6. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of an independent India, was a foe of colonialism, an advocate of civil disobedience, and a master of political oratory.

(A) was a foe of colonialism, an advocate of civil disobedience, and a master of (B) was a foe of colonialism, an advocate of civil disobedience, and mastering (C) was a foe of colonialism, advocated civil disobedience, and a master of (D) was a foe of colonialism, an advocate of civil disobedience, and he mastered (E) fought colonialism, was an advocate of civil disobedience, mastering

7. Strong wind, it having swept almost unchecked over great distances, is a prime component of the

grassland climate.

(A) it having swept almost unchecked over great distances, (B) sweeping almost unchecked over great distances, (C) being almost unchecked, will sweep over great distances, for it (D) with almost unchecked sweeping over great distances, (E) swept over great distances and almost unchecked,

8. Although she wrote 2,000 years ago, the Roman poet Sulpicia is still being read: her poems are available in English translation in a number of anthologies.

(A) read: her poems are (B) read, her poems are (C) read; her poems being (D) read: her poems are being (E) read, yet her poems are

9. The apparently chaotic images in certain types of contemporary painting strike many viewers as both

confusing but delightfully original.

(A) but (B) but also (C) yet (D) and as (E) and

10. The directors insistence that there be adequate stage lighting and professionally installed backdrops in

the theater was not obstinate but a determination to provide a safe work environment for the actors and stage crew.

(A) was not obstinate but a determination (B) was not obstinate but determined (C) was not because of obstinacy, he was determined (D) resulted not from obstinacy, but he was determined (E) resulted not from obstinacy but from a determination

11. Researchers have found that large fish are most likely to contain high levels of mercury than small fish.

(A) are most likely to contain high levels of mercury than small fish (B) are more likely to contain high levels of mercury compared to small fish (C) are more likely than small fish to contain high levels of mercury (D) compared with small fish most likely contain high levels of mercury (E) more likely contain higher levels of mercury than in small fish

The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is correct, select choice E.

12. While working at Harvard Observatory classifying stars, Antonia Maury becoming one of the

A B first astronomers to identify a spectroscopic binary star with her discovery of Beta Aurigae in C D 1889. No error E

13. Before steamships started crossing the North Atlantic in the early nineteenth century, the best way

to travel between Europe and America has been on sailing ships called packets. No error A B C D E

14. The most successful algebra teachers do not have their students simply memorize formulas A B

and equations; they make sure that their students also understand the underlying C D mathematical concepts. No error

E 15. Of three common approaches to writing music, composers generally seem to find A B C

instrumental improvisation the more congenial. No error D E 16. Among the most dangerous environmental threats that we face are compu garbage, the A B

nonbiodegrable and often toxic waste resulting from the improper disposal of obsolete C D personal computers. No error

E 17. Slanting through the tress, yesterdays late afternoon sun cast more deeper shadown on the

A B C D bedroom wall. No error

E 18. After sampling the grapes, the six judges decided that the homegrown produce A B

tasted better than the import company. No error C D E

19. For most of recent history, people have used energy wastefully, but now that supplies of A B

essential fuels are becoming rapidly depleted, environmentalists are urging people to change C it. No error D E

20. As the guide led us through the exhibit of ancient Russian icons, she interspersed explanations A of the objects with stories about her own first encounters with Russian art, giving you a B C D unique personal dimension to the tour. No error

E 21. The region bounded by the northwest corner of Greenland, the northern tip of Labrador, and A

the Mackenzie Delta include the islands collectively known as the Canadian Arctic B C D Archipelago. No error

E

22. Because traffic was unusually heavy, Jim arrived ten minutes late for his job interview even A B though he had ran desperately all the way from the bus stop. No error

C D E 23. As adults, male golden silk spiders live not is webs of their own making but rather in webs A B C

made by female spiders. No error D E 24. Mr. Hanson proudly demonstrated his companys latest cell phone, a model that flashes the A B C

time in color- coded numerals when pressing a button. No error D E

25. At a time when interest in twentieth- century classical music seems on the verge A B

to disappear, the avant-garde compositions of the 1960s and 1970s manage to retain their C D popularity. No error

E 26. A powerful advocate to equal rights, Belva Lockwood was twice a candidate for President A B

long before the Nineteenth Amendment to the Constitution allowed women to vote. No error C D E

27. Persistent use of antibacterial soaps in homes both kills many innocuous bacteria and A B

encourages harmful ones to develop even more resistant strain. No error. C D E

28. Annual visitors to New York Citys Central Park number almost ten times that of Mount A B C D

Rushmore. No error E 29. To insist that a poem means whatever one wants it to mean is often ignoring the intention and A B C

even the words of the poet. No error D E

Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten. Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.

Questions 30-35 refer to the following passage. (1) The decade after 1937 saw considerable growth in the African American press in the United States.(2) Traditionally, African American newspapers had been distributed only through the mail and at newsstands in a few large cities. (3) However, in 1938 LeRoy Brannic founded a newspaper distributorship, the Great Eastern News Corporation, in New York City, with outlets in cities throughout the country. (4) It was controlled and operated entirely by African Americans. (5) Brannics company put African American newspapers into wide circulation across the country. (6) Though viewed as a modern means of mass communication, newspapers in fact date back to ancient Rome

(7) Increased circulation brought more income with which African American publishers could improve production. (8) The Scott Syndicate in Atlanta, Georgia, was mass-producing 32 different newspapers by the mid-1940s. (9) Syndication offered the advantages of shared news, features, and printing,each paper still maintaining contact with its local community through a small staff employed there.

(10) Salaries rose, and while the older, self- made men retained ownership of the newspapers. (11) College-educated reporters began to join newspaper staffs. (12) Coverage expanded. (13) Some of the more successful papers could support their own foreign correspondents. (14) Increased use of photographyin the newspapers, made possible by the purchase of expensive printing equipment, meant more work and better salaries for African American photographers

30. In order to maintain a logical flow of ideas, which of the following sentences should be omitted from

the passage?

(A) Sentence 3 (B) Sentence 6 (C) Sentence 9 (D) Sentence 12 (E) Sentence 13

31. In context, which of the following is the best revision of the underlined portion of sentences 4 and 5

(reproduced below) ?

It was controlled and operated entirely by African Americans. Brannics company put African American newspapers into wide circulation across the country.

(A) It was controlled and operated entirely by African Americans, and Brannics company (B) It was controlled and operated entirely by African Americans, though Brannics company (C) Being controlled and operated entirely by African Americans, it was Brannics company that (D) Controlled and operated entirely by African Americans, Brannics company (E) Brannics company, which was controlled and operated entirely by African Americans,

has 32. In context, which of the following is best placed at the beginning of sentence 8 (reproduced below) ?

The Scott Syndicate in Atlanta, Georgia, was mass-producing 32 different newspapers by the mid-1940s.

(A) Unexpectedly, then, (B) For example, one company, (C) Nevertheless, (D) In short, (E) On the other hand,

33. In context, which is the best version of the underlined portion of sentence 9 (reproduced below) ?

Syndication offered the advantages of shared news, features, and printing, each paper still maintaining contact with its local community through a small staff employed there.

(A) printing, and their papers still maintained (B) printing; instead, each paper still maintained (C) printing, while allowing each paper to maintain (D) printing, though each paper maintains (E) printing; each paper will still maintain

34. In context, what is the best way to deal with sentence 10 (reproduced below) ?

Salaries rose, and while the older, self-made men retained ownership of the newspapers.

(A) Insert the word had immediately before retained. (B) Connect it to sentence 11 with a comma, changing newspapers. College-educated to

newspapers, college-educated. (C) Switch it with sentence 11. (D) Place it immediately before sentence 7. (E) Change while to yet.

35. In context, which is the best place to put the following sentence?

Syndication also created financial prosperity and new career opportunities for African Americans.

(A) Immediately before sentence 2 (B) Immediately before sentence 5 (C) Immediately before sentence 7 (D) Immediately before sentence 8 (E) Immediately before sentence 10

SAT 1 REASONING TEST CRITICAL READING SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - XII

SECTION 3 Time 25 minutes

23 Questions Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section

Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the

sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Example:

Hoping to ------- the dispute, negotiators proposeda compromise that they felt would be ------- to both labor and management.

(A) enforce . . useful (B) end . . divisive (C) overcome . . unattractive (D) extend . . satisfactory (E) resolve . . acceptable

1. Some fans feel that sports events are ------- only when the competitors are of equal ability, making the

outcome of the game -------.

(A) successful . . assured (B) boring . . questionable (C) dull . . foreseen (D) interesting . . predictable (E) exciting . . uncertain

2. Alfred Schnittkes musical compositions are -------: phrases are clipped, broken into sections, and split

apart by long rests.

(A) garnished (B) improvisational (C) fragmented (D) cautious (E) uniform

3. The consumer advocate claimed that while drug manufacturers ------- the supposed advantages of their proprietary brands, generic versions of the same medications are often equally -------.

(A) tout . . efficacious (B) research . . innocuous (C) market . . prohibitive (D) laud . . counterproductive (E) extract . . prescriptive

4. Latoyas ------- is shown by her ability to be -------: she can see her own faults more clearly than anyone else can.

(A) perceptiveness . . self-centered (B) objectivity . . restrictive (C) cynicism . . self-destructive (D) open-mindedness . . complacent (E) insightfulness . . self-critical

5. The bearded dragon lizard is a voracious eater, so ------- that it will consume as many insects as possible.

(A) abstemious (B) cannibalistic (C) slovenly (D) insatiable (E) unpalatable

6. Because drummer Tony Williams paved the way for later jazz-fusion musicians, he is considered a -------

of that style.

(A) connoisseur (B) revivalist (C) beneficiary (D) disparager (E) progenitor

7. The politicians speech to the crowd was composed of nothing but -------, a bitter railing against the partys

opponents.

(A) digressions (B) diatribes (C) platitudes (D) machinations (E) acclamations

8. Favoring economy of expression in writing, the professor urged students toward a ------- rather than an

------- prose style.

(A) spare . . ornate (B) terse . . opinionated (C) personal . . academic (D) baroque . . embellished (E) repetitive . . intricate

Directions: The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.

Questions 9-12 are based on the following passages. Passage 1

Food has always been considered one of the most salient markers of cultural traditions. When I was a small child, food was the only thing that helped identify my family as

Line Filipino American. We ate pansit lug-lug (a noodle dish) 5. and my father put patis (salty fish sauce) on everything.

However, even this connection lessened as I grew older. As my parents became more acculturated, we ate less typically Filipino food. When I was twelve, my mother took cooking classes and learned to make French and

10. Italian dishes. When I was in high school, we ate chicken marsala and shrimp fra diablo more often than Filipino dishes like pansit lug-lug.

Passage 2

Jean Anthelme Brillat-Savarin who in 1825 confidently announced, Tell me what you eat, and I will tell

15. you who you are would have no trouble describing cultural identities of the United States. Our food reveals us as tolerant adventurers who do not feel constrained by tradition. We play with our food far more readily than we preserve the culinary rules of our varied ancestors.

20. Americans have no single national cuisine. What unites American eaters culturally is how we eat, not what we eat. As eaters, Americans mingle the culinary traditions of many regions and cultures. We are multiethnic eaters.

9. Which of the following statements best captures the relationship between the two passages?

(A) Passage 1 notes problems for which Passage 2 proposes solutions. (B) Passage 1 presents claims that are debunked by Passage 2. (C) Passage 2 furnishes a larger context for the experiences described in Passage 1. (D) Passage 2 provides an update of the situation depicted in Passage 1. (E) Passage 2 uses material presented in Passage 1 to correct a popular misconception.

10. The author of Passage 2 would most likely regard the mothers willingness to make French and Italian

dishes (lines 9-10, Passage 1) as

(A) laughably pretentious (B) understandably conservative (C) typically American (D) a regrettable compromise (E) a surprising attitude

11. The two passages differ in their discussions of food primarily in that Passage 1

(A) considers specific dishes eaten by particular people, whereas Passage 2 comments on a cultures general attitude toward eating

(B) contrasts the cuisines of different cultures, whereas Passage 2 emphasizes culinary practices common to all cultures

(C) presents an abstract theory of food, whereas Passage 2 offers a historical analysis of consumption (D) emphasizes the role of nostalgia in food preferences, whereas Passage 2 rejects that approach as

overly sentimental (E) outlines some popular choices in cuisine, whereas Passage 2 underscores those that are more

unusual 12. Unlike the author of Passage 2, the author of Passage 1 makes significant use of

(A) direct quotation (B) sociological analysis (C) hypothetical assumptions (D) historical sources (E) personal experience

Questions 13-24 are based on the following passages.

The passages below discuss the possibility of locating intelligent life on other planets. Passage 1 has been adapted from a 1999 book on the history of the universe. Passage 2 was excerpted from a 2000 book on the scientific quest for extraterrestrial life.

Generations of science-fiction movies have conditioned us to consider bug-eyed monsters, large-brained intellectual humanoids, and other rather sophisticated extraterrestrial

Line Creatures as typical examples of life outside Earth. The 5. reality, however, is that finding any kind of life at all, even

something as simple as bacteria, would be one of the most exciting discoveries ever made. The consensus within the scientific community seems to be that we eventually will find not only life in other parts of

10. the galaxy but also intelligent and technologically advanced life. I have to say that I disagree. While I believe we will find other forms of life in other solar systems (if not in our own), I also feel it is extremely unlikely that a large number of advanced technological civilizations are out

15. there, waiting to be discovered. The most succinct support for my view comes from Nobel laureate physicist Enrico Fermi, the man who ran the first nuclear reaction ever controlled by human beings. Confronted at a 1950 luncheon with scientific arguments for the ubiquity of

20. technologically advanced civilizations, he supposedly said, So where is everybody? This so-called Fermi Paradox embodies a simple logic. Human beings have had modern science only a few hundred years, and already we have moved into space. It is not

25 hard to imagine that in a few hundred more years we will be a starfaring people, colonizing other systems. Fermis argument maintains that it is extremely unlikely that many other civilizations discovered science at exactly the same time we did. Had they acquired science even a thousand

30. years earlier than we, they now could be so much more advanced that they would already be colonizing our solar system. If, on the other hand, they are a thousand years behind us, we will likely arrive at their home planet before they

35. even begin sending us radio signals. Technological advances build upon each other, increasing technological abilities faster than most people anticipate. Imagine, for example, how astounded even a great seventeenth-century scientist like Isaac Newton would be by our current global

40. communication system, were he alive today. Where are those highly developed extraterrestrial civilizations so dear to the hearts of science-fiction writers? Their existence is far from a foregone conclusion

Passage 2

Although posed in the most casual of circumstances, 45 the Fermi Paradox has reverberated through the decades

and has at times threatened to destroy the credibility of those scientists seriously engaged in the Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence (SETI) research program. One possible answer to Fermis question (If there are

50 extraterrestrials, where are they?) is that extraterrestrials have in fact often visited Earth, and continue to do so. This is the answer of those who believe in the existence of unidentified flying objects, or UFOs. But few scien- tists, even those engaged in SETI, take the UFO claims

55 seriously. You wont find anyone around here who believes in UFOs, says Frank Drake, a well-known SETI scientist. If one discounts the UFO claims, yet still believes that there are many technological civilizations in the galaxy, why have they not visited us? Drakes answer

60 is straightforward: High-speed interstellar travel is so demanding of resources and so hazardous that intelligent civilizations dont attempt it. And why should they attempt it, when radio communication can supply all the information they might want?

65 At first glance, Drakes argument seems very persua- sive. The distances between stars are truly immense. To get from Earth to the nearest star and back, traveling at 99 percent of the speed of light, would take 8 years. And SETI researchers have shown that, to accelerate 70 a spacecraft to such a speed, to bring it to a stop,

and to repeat the process in the reverse direction, would take almost unimaginable amounts of energy. Astronomer Ben Zuckerman challenges Drakes notion that technological beings would be satisfied with

75 radio communication. Drakes implicit assumption is that the only thing were going to care about is intelligent life. But what if we have an interest in simpler life-forms? If you turn the picture around and you have some advanced extraterrestrials looking at the Earth, until

80 the last hundred years there was no evidence of intelligent life but for billions of years before that they could have deduced that this was a very unusual world and that there were probably living creatures on it. They would have had billions of years to come investigate. Zuckerman contends

85 that the reason extraterrestrials havent visited us is that so few exist.

13. Which statement about the Fermi Paradox is supported by both passages?

(A) It articulates a crucial question for those interested in the existence of extraterrestrials. (B) It clarifies the astronomical conditions required to sustain life on other planets. (C) It reveals the limitations of traditional ideas about the pace of technological change. (D) It demonstrates the scientific communitys fascination with the concept of interstellar travel. (E) It suggests that advanced extraterrestrial civilizations may be uninterested in our culture.

14. Which statement best describes a significant difference between the two passages?

(A) Passage 1 analyzes a literary form, while Passage 2 argues that literature has little bearing on science.

(B) Passage 1 presents an argument, while Passage 2 surveys current opinion in a debate. (C) Passage 1 concludes by rejecting the Fermi Paradox, while Passage 2 opens by embracing it.

(D) Passage 1 describes a phenomenon, while Passage 2 details a belief system that would reject such a phenomenon.

(E) Passage 1 defends a viewpoint, while Passage 2 questions that viewpoints place in scientific research.

15. The author of Passage 1 mentions monsters, humanoids, and creatures (lines 2-4) primarily

to

(A) question the literary value of science fiction (B) contrast fictional notions with a scientific perspective (C) offer examples of the human fear of the unknown (D) criticize science fiction for being unduly alarmist (E) suggest that scientific research has been influenced by science fiction

16. In line 17, ran most nearly means

(A) fled (B) accumulated (C) traversed (D) managed (E) incurred

17. Passage 1 suggests that the Fermi Paradox depends most directly on which assumption? (A) Extraterrestrial civilizations may not wish to be discovered by human beings. (B) Extraterrestrial civilizations would most likely have discovered technology at about the same time human beings discovered it. (C) Extraterrestrial technology would develop at roughly the same rate as human technology. (D) Extraterrestrial civilizations would inevitably use technology for aggressive ends. (E) Science is a more powerful form of human knowledge than are art and literature.

18. The claim made in Passage 1 that a consensus exists (lines 8-11) would most likely be interpreted by

the author of Passage 2 as

(A) evidence of compromise in the scientific community (B) an attack on SETI researchers (C) support for Fermis analysis (D) a revelation of an unexpected truth (E) an oversimplification of a complex debate

19. The author of Passage 1 mentions Isaac Newton (lines 37-40) in order to

(A) emphasize the rapid rate of technological innovation (B) acknowledge the impact of a profound thinker (C) criticize the inflexibility of Newtons contemporaries (D) speculate about Newtons influence on current research (E) highlight the value of scientific curiosity

20. In lines 44-48, the author of Passage 2 indicates that the Fermi Paradox has been

(A) thoroughly misunderstood (B) surprisingly influential (C) overwhelmingly perplexing (D) intermittently popular (E) frequently misquoted

21. How would Frank Drake (line 56, Passage 2) most likely respond to the statement by the author of

Passage 1 about humans colonizing other systems (line 26) ?

(A) The means to accomplish such a project may be beyond our reach. (B) Interstellar colonization is as morally problematic as was colonization on Earth. (C) We would do better to study indigenous life-forms rather than search for extraterrestrial creatures. (D) Humans would be wise to consider that they themselves are subject to colonization. (E) Funding for such an undertaking would pose a thorny political issue for any government.

22. In line 57, claims most nearly means

(A) demands (B) assertions (C) rights (D) territories (E) compensations

23. In line 63, radio communication is cited as a

(A) complex interaction (B) technological relic (C) common occurrence (D) practical alternative (E) dramatic advance

24. Both the author of Passage 1 and Ben Zuckerman (line 73, Passage 2) imply that researchers seeking life on another planet should focus on which of the following?

(A) Seasonal variations in color due to plant life (B) Evidence of the most basic forms of life (C) Signs of artificially created structures (D) Signals that might be radio communications (E) Changes in geological surface features

SAT 1 REASONING TEST QUANT SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - XII

Time 25 minutes Max. Marks - 72

1. If x and y are numbers such that (x + 9) (y 9) = 0, what is the smallest possible value of x2 + y2?

(A) 0 (B) 9

(C) 18 (D) 81

(E) 162

2. A new roll of film has p pictures. After t pictures are taken, there are k pictures left. What is t in terms of p and k ?

(A) p + k (B) p k

(C) k p (D) pk

(E) pk

INSTRUCTION

1. The Use of calculator is permitted.

2. This section consists of total 18 Questions.

3. Questions 1 to 8 are Multiple Choice Questions having 5 answer choices with only

one correct answer.

4. Questions 9 to 18 are student response questions. You have to write your answer in the

space provided there.

5. Questions 1 to 18 carry 4 marks each.

6. There is negative marking and 1 mark will be deducted for wrong answer (only for multiple

choice questions).

7 There is no negative marking for the wrong answers marked in the grid-ins (student

response questions)

3. The prime number p is a factor of 30 and is also a factor of 42. How many possible values are there for p?

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Four

(E) Five

4. In the xy plane, line q and line r are parallel. Line q passes through the point (3, 7), and line r passes through the point (3, 2). If the y- intercept for line r is -2, what is the equation of a line perpendicular to line q, which intersects line q on the y-axis?

(A) 4 33

y x (B) 3 34

y x

(C) 4 113

y x (D) 4 113

y x

(E) 3 114

y x

5. In a windowless, cube-shaped storage room, the ceiling and 4 walls, including a door, are completely painted. The floor is not painted. If the painted area is equal to 80 square meters, what is the volume of the room, in cubic meters?

(A) 16 (B) 20

(C) 64 (D) 256

(E) 400

6. There are red, blue and green buses in a city.

(i) All buses that go to the airport are red.

(ii) All blue buses go to the railway station.

Which of the following is TRUE based on the above statements?

(A) Red buses go only to the airport.

(B) Some blue buses could go to the airport.

(C) Green buses cannot go to the railway station.

(D) Some buses that go to the railway station could be red.

(E) None of these

7. The digits 3, 6, 7 and 8 will be used without repetition to form different 3- digit numbers. Of all such numbers, how many are greater than 500?

(A) 6 (B) 12

(C) 18 (D) 24

(E) 48

8. Mary earns $50 per week , after taxes, working part time at a hardware store. Her weekly budget allots $14 for paying back a loan , $16 for miscellaneous expenses and the rest for saving. Based on this budget, what is the fewest number of weeks that it will take her to save $450?

(A) 9 (B) 15

(C) 18 (D) 23

(E) 29

9. The first term of the sequence 8, 21, ...... is 8. Each term after the first term is 5 more than twice the term immediately preceding it. What is the sum of the first four terms of the sequence?

10. In Lewiston, 4 out of every 7 registered voters voted in the last election. If a total of 2000 votes were cast, what was the number of registered voters in Lewiston at the time of the last election?

11. In the figure, line l has equation y = mx + b, where m and b are constants. What is the value of mb?

12. In an art class, there were just enough staplers, rulers and glue bottles so that every 2 students had to share a stapler, every 3 students had to share a ruler, and every 4 students had to share a glue bottle. If the sum of the number of staplers, rulers, and glue bottles used by the class was 65, how many students were in the class?

13. If a and b are integers such that a + b < 1000 and 0.625ab , what is the greatest possible value of b?

14. How many positive integers less than 1,000 are multiples of 5 and are equal to 3 times an even integer?

15. If r is directly proportional to s and if 23

s when 4 ,5

r what is the value of r when 4 ?9

s

16. The circle in the xy- plane has center (5, 7) and intersects the y-axis at the origin and at point P, what is the y- coordinate of P?

17. The Positive number n is the product of three different prime numbers greater than 2. If the sum of these three prime numbers is also prime, what is the smallest possible value for n?

18. A grocery customer spent a total of $9.60 for ground beef and coffee. The coffee cost 2 times as much per pound as the ground beef, and the customer bought 3 times as many pounds of ground beef as pounds of coffee. How much, in dollars, did the customer spend on coffee? (Disregard the $ sign when gridding your answer. If, for example, your answer is $ 1.37, grid 1.37)

(2, 6) (8, 6)

O

l

x

y

O

P

(5,7

x

y

ANSWERS

WRITING 1. D 2. E 3. B 4. E 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. E 10. E 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. E 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. C 23. E 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. E 28. D 29. C 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. E

CRITICAL READING

1. E 2. C 3. A 4. E 5. D 6. E 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. E 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. E 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. D 24. B

QUANT

1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C

6. D 7. C 8. D 9. 175 10. 3500

11. 0 12. 60 13. 608 14. 33 15. 8

15 or 0.53

16. 14 17. 165 18. 3.84