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GENERAL AWARENESS1. When is National Girl Child Day observed?

1) January, 25th 2) January, 24th 3) January, 23rd4) January, 22nd 5) None

2. Who was the Chief Guest of Republic Day Celebrations 2014 in India?1) Shinzo Abe 2) Wang Xi 3) Peroshkro 4) Hu Jintao 5) None

3. 2014 Ramanujan Award given to _____1) Anand Sinha 2) Pradeep Dhawan 3) Anand Kumar4) Farhan Akthar 5) None

4. Only lady to be included in ICC Umpire's list is _____1) Kate Blackwell 2) Belinda Clark 3) Miriam de Kreek4) Kathy Cross 5) Lyn Larsen

5. In the 59th Idea Filmfare Awards, the Best Actor Award was awarded to FarhanAkthar for the movie _____1) Ram Leela 2) The Good Road 3) Bhaag Milka Bhaag4) Great Beauty 5) None

6. NRLM stands for ______1) New Research Landing Machine2) National Research Livelihood Machine3) Nava Bharat Remedial Learning Mission4) National Rural Locomotive Mission5) National Rural Livelihood Mission

7. India and China signed BDCA. BDCA - Border Defence Co-operation Agreementis related to ______1) Radcliffe Line 2) Line of Actual Control3) Line of Control 4) Mc Mohan Line 5) Durand Line

8. Syed Modi Badminton title 2014 won by ______1) Saina Nehwal 2) P.V. Sindhu 3) Deepika Pallakilal4) Sania Mirza 5) None

9. Committee appointed on Prasara Bharti is headed by ______1) Rangarajan 2) Raghuram Rajan 3) Susheel Kumar4) No such committee 5) Other than those given in options

10. The book written by Amish Tripati is _____1) The Immortals of Meluha 2) Imagining India3) Accidental Prime Minister 4) The Mortal Drama 5) None

11. Who is the Chief of NIA - National Investigation Agency?1) J.K. Swamy 2) N. Srinivasan 3) P. Shome 4) Sam Pitroda 5) S.C. Sinha

12. 'Tell - Tale' is a mobile application developed for smart phones to ____1) improve women safety through SOS alert2) know the required address 3) communicate with people in abroad4) convey wishes on special occasions 5) None

13. INS Vikramaditya is India's largest aircraft carrier purchased from which country?1) USA 2) Canada 3) China 4) Russia 5) Japan

14. Who recently became the fastest century maker in ODI for 36 balls?1) Corey Anderson 2) H.D. Rutherford3) L.R.P.L. Taylor 4) N.L.Mc. Cullum 5) None

15. The Best Football player for men, 2013 is ____1) Nodine Angerer 2) Diego Maradona3) Isaac Powell 4) Christiano Ronaldo 5) None

SBI Clerk s MODEL TEST - 11

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16. NRI Awards are given for social service. This award for 2014 is given to _____1) Ela Gandhi 2) Ramakrishna Mission 3) Lisa4) All of those given in options 5) None

17. The name of a Robotic Rover sent by USA to study mars is ________1) Inclusion 2) Opportunity 3) Apollo 4) Lunokhad 5) None

18. Which is the largest nuclear power plant in India?1) Srinagar, Andhra Pradesh 2) Tarapur, Maharashtra3) Kudankulum, Tamil Nadu 4) Fatehabad, Haryana 5) Non

19. _____ is India's Coastguard Ship built by Cochin shipyard.1) Abhiyaan 2) Agnipath 3) INSA 4) Abhimaan 5) Abhinav

20. Article _____ is related to special status of Jammu and Kashmir.1) 370 2) 371 3) 372 4) 148 5) 149

21. ____ is the joint noval excercises between India and Japan.1) SIMBEX 2) GAGAN 3) Sahyog - Kajini 4) M - PESA 5) None

22. 'she' taxi was first time introduced in _____ state.1) Karnataka 2) Maharashtra 3) J & K 4) Delhi 5) Kerala

23. The capital city of Syria is _______1) Chile 2) Lisbon 3) Damascus 4) Paris 5) None

24. The head of World Health Organisation is _____.1) Margaret Chan 2) Viktor Zhdanov 3) Christiana lagarde4) Russel Powell 5) None

25. The organisation which takes care of the World Heritage sites and also selectsnew ones is _____1) UNESCO 2) UNHRC 3) UNGA 4) UNSC 5) None

26. The capital of Himachal Pradesh is _____1) Shimla 2) Shangai 3) Chandigarh 4) Patna 5) Jaipur

27. New Chairman of National Association of Software and Services Companies(NASSCOM) is _____1) R. ChandraSekhar 2) N.V. Chandru3) Rajeev Mathur 4) Shashikanth Sharma 5) R. Gandhi

28. The SANA is official news agency of _____.1) Ukraine 2) Syria 3) Finland 4) Britain 5) Japan

29. 'Roshni' is a project started to _____1) supply electricity to all villages.2) funding girl child education of BPL families3) provide exclusive training for Indian atheletes for olympics.4) rehabilitation program for those attempting suicide.5) improve naxal affected areas

30. Corbett National Park is located in ______1) Nainital 2) Bharatpur 3) Junagarh 4) Jorhat 5) Varanasi

31. Which of the following is NOT a Nationalised Bank?1) Union Bank of India 2) Central Bank of India3) YES Bank 4) Syndicate Bank 5) Indian Bank

32. What is a stale cheque?1) A cheque issued without drawer's signature2) A cheque with only signature of the drawer3) A cheque which has completed 3 months from date of its issue.4) Any one of the above 5) None

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33. What is the term 'current ratio' referred to?1) It is the current deposits to fixed assets ratio2) It is the ratio between the current liabilities to current assets.3) The rate of current employees in the bank to the customers.4) The rate of non-performing assets to current assets5) None of the above

34. Which of the following cities are the world’s first and second populous cities in2014? 1) Tokyo, Mumbai 2) London, Delhi 3) Tokyo, Delhi4) Berlin, Tokyo 5) None

35. The theme of World Population Day-2014 is ____________?1) Investing in Young People2) Stabilization of Population for Sustainable development3) Growing Population: a risk for tomorrow4) Curbing Population Growth 5) None

36. According to State of Forest report-2013, which among the following states haslost maximum forest cover in the country?1) Madhya Pradesh 2) West Bengal 3) Andhra Pradesh4) Maharashtra 5) Uttar Pradesh

37. Which among the following is the country’s first indigenously built warship thathas been handed over to the Indian Army, recently?1) INS Kamorta 2) INS Hamsa 3) INS Tejas4) INS Shivalik 5) None

38. The Signature bridge project is being constructed across river ___________?1) Ganga 2) Yamuna 3) Beas 4) Hoogly 5) Kaveri

39. In the latest Railway budget, the government has announced the first bullet trainin which corridor?1) Delhi-Agra 2) Mumbai-Ahmadabad 3) Delhi-Kanpur4) Delhi-Kolkata 5) Mumbai-Bangalore

40. Which of the following is full form of the 'BRA' as used in banking field?1) Brazilian Restructing Association2) Banking Resources for Agriculture3) Banking Resources Agreement4) Banking Regulation Act 5) Borrowing Risk Assesment

GENERAL ENGLISHDirections (Q.No.41-55): Read the following passage carefully and naswer thequestions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locatethem while answering some of the questions.

Frustration is a global cancer. It has spared no country. In somecountries, frustration exists because these countries are populated by “have-nots”. In other countries, which are populated by ‘haves’, frustration is amongthem also because they do ‘haves’. As far as India is concerned its educationsystem is breeding more and more frustration among both students and teachers.And yet no one sees what can be done to make it more meaningful. Many reformshave been discussed at length but have come to nothing for one reason or another.The authorities are now peddling the idea of autonomous colleges as a means oftoning up of teaching standards. They arguethat by allowing certain colleges tointroduce their own courses, hold seminars, and above all, evolve their own methodof assessing students, students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they make outthat such colleges will have free hand in nearly everything except granting degrees.

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In theory, all this sounds attractive enough. But there is little to show that themanagements concerned are keen on such reforms. Even today, nothing preventsa college from inviting guest speakers on the specialised subjects or holdingcourses in English for vernacular students. But not a single one of those who arenow clamouring for autonomy has bothered to do so. It is no secret that collegeswhich may be freed to an extent from university control are highly elitist: InMumbai, for example, there is a big cultural gulf between city colleges and suburbancolleges. If some of the former are now given a degree of autonomy, it will onlyheighten this disparity.

The answer to the vexing problem of declining standards in highereducation does not lie in encouraging the growth of ‘model’ institutions but inimproving overall standards. This is, of course, easier said than done. Since moreand more young people are seeking degrees, the only solution, however unpalatableit may sound, is drastically to reduce the number of those who are admitted tocolleges. Even though there is political pressure on many state governments tobuild new colleges and to reserve more seats for backward classes, it will besheer folly to expand such facilities recklessly without giving any thought to thequality of education imparted. If admissions are made far more selective, it willautomatically reduce the number of entrants. This should apply particularly tonew colleges, many of which are little more than degree factories. Only then canthe authorities hope to bring down the teacher-student ratio to manageableproportions. What is more, teacher should be given refresher courses every summervacation to brush up their knowledge. Besides, if college managements increasethe library budget it will help both staff and students a great deal. At the sametime, however, it will be unfair to deny college education to thousands of youngmen and women unless employers stop insisting on degrees even for clericaljobs. For a start, why can’t the Government disqualify graduates from securingcertain jobs, say, Class III and IV posts ? Once the degrees are delinked fromjobs, at least in some important departments, it will make many young peoplethink twice before joining college.

41. The author’s chief concern seems to be1) frustration among students2) spread of college education 3) standard of education4) autonomy to colleges 5) delinking of degrees

42. The author’s attitude is1) cynical 2) optimistic 3) critical 4) conservative 5) Constructive

43. What, according to the passage, would be the result of granting autonomy to somecolleges ?1) the teacher-students ratio will come down2) disparity between city and suburban colleges will increase3) colleges will multiply4) some colleges would start selling degrees 5) all of these

44. Which of the following is the most significant feature of the scheme of autonomouscolleges according to the passage ?1) they can introduce new courses 2) they can hold seminars3) they can evolve their method of assessment 4) they can award degrees5) they can make admissions without restrictions

45. The author does not believe that1) colleges have the capacity to develop courses2) colleges have the expertise for assessment3) some colleges are only degree factories4) college managements are really keen on reforms5) some colleges are ‘elitist’

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46. To which of the following does the author give precedence?1) increasing library facilities 2) holding refresher courses for teachers3) abolishing reservation for backward classes4) stopping opening of new colleges.5) instituting entrance examinations.

47. Where has the author slipped while making suggestions?1) the teacher-student ratio be brought down2) improvement should not be restricted to select institutions3) college teachers need refresher courses4) political pressures should be withstood 5) None of these

48. Frustration in the world is a result of which of the following?(i) large number of “haves” (ii) large number of “have-nots”(iii) cancerous cells1) only (i) 2) only (ii) 3) only (iii) 4) (i) and (ii) only 5) None

49. Which of the following is the main difficulty, according to the passage, in the wayof improving standards?1) paucity of library facilities 2) paucity of funds2) ever increasing number of young men wanting degrees4) grant of autonomy to college 5) absence of refresher courses.

50. How, according to the passage, can the number of student taking college educationbe reduced ?1) making selective admissions2) by reducing the number of colleges3) by abolishing the reservations of seats for backward classes4) by discouraging the founding of model institutions5) by removing some of the students already admitted

51. Why, according to the passage, do more and more young men go for collegeeducation?1) because more and more colleges are opened2) because more and more seats are reserved for backward classes3) because employers insist on degrees even for clerical jobs4) because many colleges help them get degrees easily5) because more and more facilities are made availableDirections (52-53) : Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaningas the word given in bold as used in the passage.

52. vexing1) annoying 2) recurring 3) irresolvable 4) complex 5) dangerous

53. evolve1) introduce 2) start 3) develop 4) abandon 5) establishDirections (54-55) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of theword given in bold as used in the passage.

54. folly1) right 2) exact 3) mistake 4) action 5) wisdom

55. heighten1) widen 2) decrease 3) strengthen 4) dissolve 5) disappearDirections (Q.No.56 - 60): Which of the phrases 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below. Shouldreplace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentencegrammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and 'No improvement'.

56. The policeman stopped him for jumping the red light but let him out.1) let him through 2) let him by 3) let him off4) No improvement 5) let him of

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57. There is an endless running of traffic on the Delhi road.1) river 2) stream 3) heariness 4) No improvement 5) Ocean

58. If you are absent for a week, you have to catch with the work when you return.1) catch in with 2) catch on with3) catup up with 4) No improvement 5) catch to with

59. He gave witness at the sensational trial.1) proof 2) advice 3) evidence 4) No improvement 5) thruth

60. The actress said that it sometimes took her two hours to put her make-up.1) put up 2) put on 3) pot over 4) No improvement 5) put offDirections (Q.No.61-65): Find the mis-spelt word.

61. 1) Final 2) Untill 3) Fulfil 4) Careful 5) None62. 1) Neighbour 2) Receive 3) Seize 4) Receipt 5) None63. 1) Acommodation 2) Commendable 3) Superstitious 4) Callous 5) Adoptioin64. 1) Grammer 2) Organizer 3) Carrier 4) Instructor 5) Sunogate65. 1) Opening 2) Stopping 3) Beginning 4) Referring 5) Miscanceive

Directions (Q.No.66-70): Read each sentence to find out whether there is anygrammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Thenumber of that part is the answer. If there is no error. The answer is 5, i.e. Noerror. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

66. Neither her husband (1) / nor her brother were able (2) / to help in (3)/ her work(4) / No error.(5)

67. When I shall see him (1) / I shall tell him (2) / that you had called (3)/ him (4) /No error.(5)

68. None of my friends (1) / are applying (2) / for this job (3) / right now (4) / Noerror.(5)

69. Our mathematics teacher (1) / often emphasizes on (2) / the need for a (3)/ lot ofpractice (4) / No error.(5)

70. The boys (1) / returned back home (2) / after a (3)/ tiring day. (4) / No error.(5)Directions (Q.No.71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach. Five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Findout the appropriate word in each case.

In view of the (71) demand for personnel with commerce background,in the post-liberalization period, courses in commerce have (72) the attention ofstudents and parents. There is growing (73) for these courses not only in schoolsbut also in colleges. But the (74) of commerce education in schools leaves (75) tobe desired. It popularity, importance and quality, to a large extent, dependsmuch on the teaching methodology being (76) in schools of course, the (77) reviewand (78) of syllabi also (79). But this aspect is (80) taken care of suitably, by theconcerned organizations.

71. 1) exraggerated 2) unreasonable 3) tremedous4) increasing 5) diminishing

72. 1) distorted 2) ameliorated 3) attracted 4) weighed 5) encouraged73. 1) demand 2) contempt 3) dissatisfaction 4) commotion 5) urgency74. 1) awareness 2) intricacy 3) status 4) necessity 5) quality75. 1) scope 2) much 3) short 4) everything 5) nothing76. 1) abandoned 2) practiced 3) contemplated 4) asimilated 5) taught77. 1) unscrupulous 2) partial 3) expert 4) general 5) periodical78. 1) discussions 2) perusal 3) reduction 4) updating 5) formulation79. 1) matters 2) flourishes 3) desires 4) encompasses 5) needs80. 1) duly 2) seldom 3) being 4) often 5) never

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

81. 14 18.6 12 19.3 ____ 1) 41 2) 33.5 3) 291.5 4) 8.32 5) None

82.18696 28728 ___20853 11916

1) 181331

2)164441

3) 155246

4) 161241

5) None

83.6 1 13 6 5 ___7 4 3

1)65184

2) 1884

3)79284

4) 47587

5) None

84. 3158 4602 ? 39 347 1)5483 2) 5883 3) 5783 4) 5913 5) 5773

85.1 3 1 223 6 1 ___3 7 2 7

1)239

2)149

3) 229

4) 429

5) None

86. 8.2% of 365 1.75% of 108 ___ 1) 1602 2) 28.04 3) 43.24 4) 53.76 5) None

87. 2135 15 32 ? 45 24 1) 18 2) 24 3) 36 4) 44 5) None

88. 2 2 2 296 63 ? 111 8350

1) 33856 2) 30276 3) 174 4) 185 5) 18489. 4368 + 2158 - 596 - ? = 3421 + 1262

1) 1066 2) 1174 3) 1247 4) 1387 5) 120790. 2172 1832 956 514x

1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12 5) 1591. 205 ? 13 33625 25005

1) 22 2) 27 30 33 4) 39 5) 6292. 69 3 0.85 14.5 3

1) 36.45 2) 23.85 3) 42.95 4) 18.65 5) 31.0593. 68% of 595 - 43% of 372=_____

1) 224.64 2) 232.84 3) 278.44 4) 260.24 5) 244.6494. 743 + 958 = ? % of 5670

1) 34 2) 26 3) 30 4) 22 5) None95. 65% of 400 + ? =44% of 800 - 12% of 400

1) 1936 2) 44 3) 2116 4) 46 5) None96. What can be the maximum percentage discount (Approx) that a merchant can

offer on his marked price so that he ends up selling at no profit-no loss, if heinitially marked his goods up by 40%1) 33.333% 2) 66.666% 3) 30% 4) 14% 5) 28.5%

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97. A can fill a cistern in 12 minutes and another pipe B can fill it in 15 minutes, butpipe C can empty it in 5 minutes. If the A & B are kept open for first 5 minutesand then C is opened, number of minutes taken to empty the cistern is____1) 42 2) 45 3) 38 4) 22 5) 48

98. A and B each working alone can do work in 15 days and 25 days respectively.They started the work together, but B left after some days and there by remainingwork in 7 days. After how many days from starting did B left work?1) 7 2) 9 3) 3 4) 5 5) 4

99. Sachin Tendulkar (Cricketer) played 80 innings and scored an average of 99runs. His score in the last inning is zero runs. To have an average of 100 at theend, his score in the last innings should have been______1) 60 2) 80 3) 90 4) 100 5) 120

100. A boat covers 12 km upstream and 18 km downstream in 3 hours, while it covers

36 km upstream and 24 km downstream in 612

hours what is the speed of the

current?1) 2 km/hr 2) 2.5 km/hr 3) 1.5 km/hr 4) 1 km/hr 5) None

101. The simple interest on Rs. 4,000 in 3 years at the rate of x% per annum equalsthe simple interest on Rs. 5,000 at the rate of 12% per annum in 2 years. Thevalue of x is1) 8% 2)10% 3) 12% 4) 10.5% 5) 11.5%

102. Santhosh bought 30 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 10 per kg and 35 kg at the rate ofRs. 11 per kg. He mixed the two. At what price per kg. should he sell the mixtureto make a 30% profit in the transaction?

1) 1212

2) 1215

3) 13 4) 13.7 5) 1414

103. A student by reading 6 hours per day can finish a book in 18 days. The studenthas to read how many hours per day to finish the two books each of size of abovebook in 12 days is _____hours1)9 2) 18 3) 12 4) 15 5) None

104. The average of 11 results is 50 If the average of the first six results is 49 and thatof last six is 52, the sixth result is1) 52 2) 50 3) 54 4) 56 5) 49

105. A whole sale retailer on selling 25 mts of cloth gains the selling price of 5 mts ofcloth. The gain of the trader in % is_____

1) 25% 2) 20% 3) 3313

% 4) 28% 5) 29%

Directions (Q.No.106 & 107): What approximate value should come in place ofquestion mark(?)

106. [739% of 383] 628 = ______1) 10 2) 4.5 3) 15.75 4) 19.25 5) 1.50

107. (9795+7621+938) (541+831+496) = _____1) 4 2) 13 3) 9 4) 17 5) 4

108. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 400% and the denominator in

increased by 500%, the resultant of fraction is 1021

. what was the original fraction?

1) 5

122)

813

3)1714

4)47

5) None

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109. The breath of a rectangle is half of its length. Also, the length of the rectangleequal to the radius of circle of area 154 sq. cms. what is the perimeter of therectangle?1) 20.5 cm 2) 22 cm 3) 42 cm 4) 10.5 cm 5) 21 cm

110. In an examination it is required to get 45% marks to pass, Sravya secured 612marks and failed by 108 marks. What are the maximum marks of the examination?1) 1800 2) 1600 3) 1700 4) 1500 5) None

111. If two men (or) six women (or) four boys can finish a work in 99 days, then howmany days will one man, one women and one boy together take to finish the samework?1) 54 days 2) 44 days 3) 66 days 4) 156 days 5) 108 days

112. A train moves past a telegraph post and a bridge 264 mts long in 8 seconds and 20seconds respectively. what is the speed of the train?1) 81.2 kmph 2) 76.2 kmph 3) 89.2 kmph 4) 79.2 kmph 5) None

113. A man can row 913

kmph in still water and finds that it takes thrice as much time

to row up than as to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of thecurrent is

1) 3.6 kmph 2) 4m kmph 3) 313

kmph 4) 4 23

kmph 5) None

Directions (Q.No.114-115): In a box there are 4 blue, 4 red, 4 white and 4 blackballs.The find probability of the following ? ( If four are picked at a time)

114. All four not be red.

1)19601990

2) 18191820

3) 99364

4) 1

4555) None

115. Not even one out of is white

1) 18191820

2) 99364

3)19601990

4) 1

4555) None

Directions (Q.No.116-120): Study the following graph and answer the questions116-120 given below.The following table shows FDI in Indian states during the year 2013-14.

States U.P. Maharastra Karnataka Kerala Delhi (MP)

Madhya Pradesh

(AP) Andhra Pradesh

FDI (in Rs. crs)

490 590 660 560 410 510 684

Pie-chart showing investent in different sectors.

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116. What is the ratio between the investment of AP in IT and others in U.P.?1) 35:74 2) 12:17 3) 17:12 4) 72:35 5) None

117. In which of the following states the ratio of investments in power sector is 7:8?1) U.P., Maharashtra 2) Delhi, Maharashtra3) Delhi , UP 4) U.P, Karnataka 5) U.P., Kerala

118. The total investment in road sector by these states is1)Rs.780.80crs. 2) Rs.768.80crs3) Rs. 689.80 crs 4) Rs.768.40 crs. 5) None

119. The FDI in Cinema sector in Delhi is what percent less than that in Kerala inothers?1) 65% 2)75% 3) 80% 4) 85% 5) 70%

120. FDI in Maharashtra in Telecom sector is what percent of that in A.P. in I.T.Sector?1) 35% 2) 40% 3) 30% 4) 45% 5) 25%

TEST OF REASONING121. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written

in that code?1) RMNBSFEJ 2) BNMRSFEJ 3) RMNBJEFS 4) TOPDQDCH 5) None

122. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?1) Break 2) Change 3) Split 4) Divide 5) Separate

123. Which of the following symbols should replace question mark in the given expressionin order to make the expressions 'A > D' and 'F > C' definitely true?A > B > C ? D > E = F1) > 2) < 3) < 4) = 5) Either = or >

124. If the first three letters of the word COMPREHENSION are reversed and just afterthe last three letters are added and then the remaining letters are reversed,then which letter will be exactly in the middle?1) H 2) N 3) R 4) S 5) None

125. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'CORPORATE' each of whichhas as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

126. In a certain code VISHWANATHAN is written as NAAWTHHSANIV. How isKARUNAKARANA written in that code?1) AKNUARRANKA 2) KAANRAURNAAK3) NKKRANKRAUK 4) RURNKAAVNAK 5) None of these

127. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ARTSE usingeach letter only once in each word?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

128. If 'P' meas 'divided by', 'R' means 'multiplied by', 'T' means 'added to' and 'W' means'subtracted' from then.60T48P8W6R9 = ?

1) 12 2) 16123

3) 1402

4) 24 5) None of these

129. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which isthe one that does not belong to that group?1) Radish 2) Ginger 3) Turmeric 4) Potato 5) Cabbage

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130. In a certain code CREAM is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written in thatcode?1) EBFAQ 2) EBDAQ 3) BEDQA 4) BEFQA 5) NoneDirections (Q.No.131-135): In the following questions symbols @, $, , # and are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than B’.‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.‘P Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.‘P Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.Now In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,find out which of the two conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/aredefinitely true and give your answer accordingly.

131. Statements: H@T, T#F, F E, EVConclusions: I. V$F II. E@T III. H@V IV. T#V1) Only I, II and III are true 2) Only I, II and IV are true3) Only II, III and IV are true 4) Only I, III and IV are true5) All I, II, III and IV are true

132. Statements: D#R, RK, K@F, F$JConclusions: I. J#R II. J # K III. R#F IV. K@D1) Only I, II and III are true 2) Only II, III and IV are true3) Only I, III and IV are true 4) All I, II, III and IV are true5) None of the above

133. Statements: N B, B$W, W#H, HMConclusions: I. M@W II. H@N III. W N IV. W#N1) Only I is true 2) Only III is true3) Only IV is true 4) Only either III or IV is true5) Only either III or IV and I are true

134. Statements: RD, D$J, J#M, M@KConclusions: I. K#J II. D@M III. R#M IV. D@K1) None is true 2) Only I is true 3) Only II is true4) Only III is true 5) Only IV is true

135. Statements: M$K, K@N, NR, R#WConclusions: I. W@K II. M$R III. K@W IV. M@N1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I, II and III are true3) Only III and IV are true 4) Only II, III and IV are true 5) None of theseDirections (Q.No.136-140): In each of the questions below are given four statementsfollowed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the givenstatements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly knownfacts. Read all the conclusions and follows from the given statements disregardingcommonly known facts.

136. Statements: All cups are bottles Some bottles are jugsNo jug is plate Some plates are tables

Conclusions: I. Some tables are bottles II. Some plates are cupsIII. No table is bottle IV. Some jungs are cups

1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows4) Only IV follows 5) Only either I or III follows

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137. Statements: Some chairs are handlesAll handles are potsAll pots are matsSome mats are buses

Conclusions: I. Some buses are handlesII. Some mats are chairsIII. No bus is a handleIV. Some mats are handles

1) Only I, II and IV follows 2) Only II, III and IV follows3) Only either I or III and II follow 4) Only either I or III and IV follow5) Only either I or III, II and IV follow

138. Statements: All birds are horsesAll horses are tigersSome tigers are lionsSome lions are monkeys

Conclusions: I. Some tigers are horsesII. Some monkeys are birdsIII. Some tigers are birdsIV. Some monkeys are horses

1) Only I and III follow 2) Only I, II and III follow3) Only II, III and IV follow 4) All I, II, III and IV follow 5) None

139. Statements: Some benches are wallsAll walls are housesSome houses are jungles All jungles are roads

Conclusions: I. Some roads are benchesII. Some jungles are wallsIII. Some houses are benchesIV. Some roads are houses

1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I and III follow3) Only III and IV follow 4) Only I, III and IV follow 5) None

140. Statements: Some sticks are lampsSome flowers are lampsSome lamps are dressesAll dresses are shirts

Conclusions: I. Some shirts are sticksII. Some shirts are flowersIII. Some flowers are sticksIV. Some dresses are sticks

1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows4) Only III follows 5) Only IV followsDirections (Q.No.141-145): Study the following information carefully and answerthe given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and X are captains of eight different cricketteams namely Australia, Newzeland, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, England, WestIndies and South Africa, but not necessarily in the same order. All of them areseated around a circular table and are facing the centre.

P is sitting third to the left of the Sri Lankan captain. Only twopeople sit between T and W. Neither T nor W is an immediate neighbour of P.

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Neither T nor W is the captain of Sri Lanka. The captain of South Africa sitssecond to the right of S. S is not immediate neighbour of P, S is not Sri Lankancaptain and P is not the captain of South Africa. The Australian captain sits thirdto left of V. Australian and Srilankan captains are not immediate neighbours ofeachother. Only one person sits between S and the Indian captain. Captains ofPakistan and New Zeland are immediate neighbours of each other. S is not thecaptain of New Zeland's team. Only one person sits between Q and the captain ofEngland. The captain of England is immediate neighbour of X. W and Q are notimmediate neighbours of eachother.

141. How many people sit between T and the captain of England, when counted incloskwise direction from T?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Four 5) Five

142. Who amongst the following is the captain of the Austrilian team?1) P 2) V 3) W 4) T 5) Q

143. Which of the following would come in the place of question mark based upon thegiving seating arrangement?VS XR TV RP ?1) SW 2) WX 3) QW 4) QX 5) VR

144. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?1) R is the captain of South Africa 2) W is an immediate neighbour of V3) Captains of Australia and England are immediate neighbours of eachother4) Four people sit between W and Q 5) X sits second to left of S.

145. Who amongest the following is the Indian captain?1) Q 2) V 3) X 4) T 5) Can't be determinedDirections (Q.No.146-150): In each question below is given a group of lettersfollowed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have tofind out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters basedon the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. Ifnone of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark 5 i.e.'None of these' as your answer.Letter : M A T W R E K I H F U B N PSymbol/Digital Code : 4 @ 3 7 © 2 8 % 1 # $ 6 9 5Conditions:(i) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as thecode for the first letter.(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as thecode for the last letter.(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes are tobe interchanged.(iv) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to becoded as ' '.

146. AEBRMH1) @26©41 2) 126©4@ 3) 126©41 4) @26©4@ 5) None

147. HBEAFU1) 162@#$ 2) 62$# 3) 162@#1 4) $62@#1 5) None

148. BKNIRT1) 689%©6 2) 689%©3 3) 698%©3 4) 389%©3 5) None

149. IRFAME1) 2©#@% 2) 2©#@42 3) %©#@4% 4) ©#@4 5) None

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150. MRTPFW1) 4©35#7 2) 7©35#4 3) 7©35#7 4) 4©35#4 5) NoneDirections (Q.No.151-155): Read the following information carefully and answerthe questions which follow.Three digit numbers given below519 378 436 624 893

151. If the postions of the first and the third digits with in each number are interchanged,which of the following will be the second smallest number?1) 519 2) 378 3) 436 4) 624 5) 893

152. If '1' is subtracted from the first digit in each number and '1' is added to thesecond digit in each number, which of the following will be third digit of thesecond highest number?1) 9 2) 8 3) 6 4) 4 5) 3

153. If the positions of the first and the second digits with in each number areinterchanged, which of the following will be the highest number?1) 519 2) 378 3) 436 4) 624 5) 893

154. If the positions of all digits with in each number are arranged in ascending order,which of the following will be the second digit of the first lowest number.1) 1 2) 6 3) 5 4) None 5) Can't be determined

155. If all three-digit numbers are arranged decending order, which of the followingwill be the second smallest number.1) 519 2) 378 3) 436 4) 624 5) NoneDirections (156-160): Study the following information carefully and answer thequestions given below.

M, D, P, K, R, T and W are sitting around a circle facing at thecenter. D is second to the right of P. Who is third to right of K. T is third to theright of W. Who is not immediate neighbour of D. M is third to left of R.

156. Who is third to left of D?1) W 2) P 3) K 4) Data Inadequate 5) None

157. Who is to the immediate left of M?1) K 2) W 3) D 4) T 5) None

158. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to immediate right ofthe first person?1) DT 2) TP 3) PR 4) KW 5) None

159. Who is second to the right of T?1) D 2) K 3) M 4) Data Inadequate 5) None

160. Who is to the immediate left of R?1) W 2) P 3) K 4) T 5) None

MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

161. Marketing includes1) socio-economic activity 2) consumer-oriented process3) certain market 4) All of these 5) None of these

162. RSS stands for1) Real Save System 2) Role Saver System3) Real Saver System 4) Real Simple Syndication 5) None of these

163. ECRM stands for1) Economic Cost Rule Management2) Electronic Customer Rate Money3) Electronic Cost Relationship Management4) Electronic Customer Relationship Management 5) None of these

164. Target customer means1) Staff 2) Ex-staff 3) Ex-customer4) The customer to whom goods/serice to be sold 5) Present customer

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165. Which is Marketing Strategy?1) HRM 2) System 3) Cost4) Undifferentiated Marketing Strategy 5) Coordination

166. Today, Marketing is _____1) Profit oriented 2) Cost oriented 3) Product oriented4) Consumer oriented 5) All of these

167. Which is shopping product?1) Furniture and Television 2) AC3) Motor cycle and Scooter 4) Car 5) All of these

168. The objectives of pricing includes ____1) Profit oriented objectives 2) Sales oriented objectives3) Skimming the cream price 4) 1 and 2 5) All of these

169. Which is the objective of advertising?1) To do entire selling job 2) To introduce New product3) To build brand preference 4) To remind the customers 5) All of these

170. Sales plan involves ____1) Determination of sales methods 2) Sales Area3) Price of product and services 4) All of these 5) None of these

171. Type of goods includes _____1) Contingent goods 2) Specific goods3) Existing goods (or) future goods 4) All of these 5) None of these

172. Short range planning is suitable for ____1) Adjustment in prices 2) Regular advertisement3) Seasonal purchasing 4) All of these 5) None of these

173. The objective of sales promotion includes ____1) To attract new customer 2) To reduce seasonal decline3) To introduce new products 4) All of these 5) None of these

174. Promotional mix includes ____1) price 2) programme 3) policy4) personal selling or salesmenship 5) All of these

175. Retailing is ____1) bank 2) super market3) wholesaler 4) All of these 5) None

176. Who is the users to industrial goods?1) Retailer or Wholesaler 2) Ultimate Consumer3) Producer or manufacturer of consumer goods4) Agent 5) None

177. Who is Satisfied customer?1) Agreed customer with quality, price, design and utility.2) Consumer 3) Staff 4) Potential Customer 5) All of these

178. Green marketing may be _____1) Polluted 2) Riskless 3) Environment friendly4) Product friendly 5) All of these

179. Which bank is authorised for issuing PAN card?1) UTI Bank (Axis Bank) 2) State Bank of India3) UCO Bank 4) Union Bank of India 5) SEBI

180. NBA stands for _____1) Net Book Act 2) National Banking Association3) Net Banking Assets 4) All of these 5) None of these

181. In keyboard, F2 key stands for ____1) run 2) compile 3) save 4) None of these 5) Close

182. In RAM, we can perform _____1) only write operation 2) only read operation3) Both read and write operation 4) Neither read nor write 5) None

183. Logical unit of the data area of disk is _____1) Floppy 2) Parameter 3) Formatting 4) Cluster 5) None

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184. Each sector in a floppy can hold ____ characters1) 512 2) 256 3) 125 4) 128 5) None

185. Find the odd man out?1) RING 2) MID 3) INTERNET 4) INTRANET 5) None

186. Pictorial representation of a program is ______1) Drawing 2) Diagram 3) Flow chart 4) Sketch 5) None

187. One way to display data in a structured format is called a _____1) Report 2) Linked list 3) Record 4) Structure 5) None

188. A macro is1) a peripheral device 2) stored code not can be included in other code3) software 4) hardware 5) None

189. A bus is ______1) software 2) a hardware data path3) a docking station 4) Part of modem 5) None of these

190. Micro computers have from ____ to _____ storage locations.1) 4k to 3k 2) 8k to 16k 3) 1k to 8k 4) 4K to 16K 5) None of these

191. An operating system is also called a _______1) disk storage 2) source program 3) supervisor4) transistors 5) None

192. Find the decimal value of 11012 ______1) 28 2) 48 3) 13 4) 16 5) None

193. ______ program is used to put data files in order.1) Editor 2) Sort/merge 3) Job control 4) Monitor 5) None

194. Which of the following is a direct access storage media?1) Punched paper tape 2) Magnetic drum3) Magnetic tape 4) Punched cards 5) None

195. The high level language meant for drawing figure which is commonly used bychildren is _____1) LOGO 2) C 3) BASIC 4) INTEL 5) None

196. Which of the following does not represent an I/O device?1) Speaker which beeps 2) Joy stick 3) Plotter 4) ALU 5) None

197. Buffer means ______1) data 2) temporary memory 3) duplicate4) printer 5) None

198. Analytical Engine was invented by _____1) Euler 2) Abacus 3) David 4) Charles Babbage 5) None

199. COBOL is widely used in ______ applications.1) space 2) scientific 3) mathematical 4) commercial 5) None

200. ROM is a ______1) Input device 2) Memory chip 3) Output device 4) Micro processor 5) None