Sbi Free Mock Test - Questions

7/29/2019 Sbi Free Mock Test - Questions

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Number of Questions: 200

TEST BOOKLET SERIES

cSerial

1JTS INSTITUTETEST BOOKLET No-1

1. This booklet contains four tests as follows:

(a) Test of English Language (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc): Questions 1-50(b) Test of General Awareness, Marketing and Computers: Questions 51-100(c) Test of Data Analysis and Interpretation: Questions 101-150(d) Test of Reasoning (High Level): Questions 151-2002. You will be given an aggregate time of 120 minute to answer all the four tests. The tests are notseparately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that do qualify in the writtentest as a whole you have to quality on each of the four tests separately.

3. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer

has been given by you. One-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted aspenalty.

4. Rough work, if you to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answer sheet. For thispurpose use the empty space in the margin or any where else you find in this booklet. Do not use anyother paper.

5. Indicate your answers on the separate answer-sheet using HB pencil. Follow the Instructions given onthe answer sheet for indicate your answers.

6. If your answer sheet contains answer-spaces for answering more than 200 questions, use only the first200 answer spaces for answering the 200 questions given in this booklet.

7. Do not open the booklet until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet isgiven, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left, insert the blunt end of your pencil under the coverfrom the top or the bottom edge and tear open along the right hand edge.

8. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 200 areproperly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test.

Name of the Candidate: .................................................................................................

Date.........................Roll No.........................Test No...............Center Code.................

Signature of the Invigilator....................................

1. Candidates Roll No: 2. Test Booklet Seriel No:4. Test Form No:3. Test Battery No:


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2 SBI PO-MOCK TESTJTS Institute

I: Test of English Language

Directions (Q. 1-15): Read the following passagecarefully and answer the questions given below it. Certainwords have been printed inboldto help you locate themwhile answering some of the questions.

Indeed, the western recession is really the beginning ofgood news for India! But to understand that we will haveto move away for a while from the topic of westernrecessionto the Japanese recession. For years, theJapanese style of management has been admired.However, over the last decade or so, one key questionhas sprung up, If Japanese management style is aswonderful as described, then why has Japan been in arecession for more than a decade?

The answer to this question is very simple. Culture playsa very important part in shaping up economies. Whatsucceeds in one culture fails in another. The Japanese are

basically non materialistic. And however rich they become,unlike others, they cannot just keep throwing and buyingendlessly. And once they have everything they need,there is a saturation point. It was only when companieslike Toyota realised that they cannot keep selling carsendlessly to their home market that they went reallyaggressive in the western markets and the rest is history.Japanese companies grew bigger by catering to the worldmarkets when their home markets shrunk.

And the markets have to shrink finally after attaining alevel of affluence. And thats great for the world becausethe earth needs sustainable development. It does notneed monstrous consumers, who keep consuming at the

cost of the environment and the earth. There should belimits to growth so that consumers are not converted intomaterial dustbins for the profit of a handful of corporations.

Owing to the materialistic culture elsewhere, it waspossible to keep selling newer products to the consumersdespite having existing ones which served equally well.They were lured through advertising and marketingtechniques of dustbinisation of the customer; and thenfinally, once they became ready customers, they weregiven loans and credits to help them buy more and more.When all the creditworthy people were given loans to alogical limit, they ceased to be a part of the market. Eventhis would have been understandable if it could work as

an eye-opener. Instead of taking the Right Step asToyota did, they preferred to take a short cut. Nowbanks went to the non-creditworthy people and gave themloans. The people expectedly defaulted and the entiresystem collapsed.

Now, like Toyota, western companies will learn to findnew markets. They will now lean towards India becauseof its common man. The billion-plus population in thenext 25 years will become a consuming middle class.Finally, the worlds attention will shift to the developingworld. Finally, there will be a real surge in the income ofthese people and in the next fifty odd years, one canreally hope to see an equal world in terms of material

plenty, with poverty being almost non-existent!And this will happen not by selling more cars to theAmericans and the Europeans. It will happen by creatingmarkets in India, China, Latin America and Africa, by giving

their people purchasing power, and by making productsfor them.

The recession has made us realise that it is not becauseof worse management techniques, but because of limitsto growth. And they will realise that it is great for PlanetEarth. After all, how many cars and houses must the richown before calling it enough? Its time for them to look at

others as well. Many years back, to increase his ownprofits, Henry Ford had started paying his workers more,so that they could buy his cars. In a similar fashion, nowthe developed world will pay the people of the developingworld so that they can buy their cars and washingmachines.

The recession will kick-start the process of making theentire world more prosperous, and lay the foundation oflimits to growth in the west and the foundation of realglobalisation in the world - the globalisation of prosperity.And one of its first beneficiaries will be India.

1. What does the author mean by the Right Step in thepassage?

1) Giving loans to creditworthy people only2) Considering market growth along with environmentprotection3) Restricting people to buy only such products as areneeded by them4) To start looking at newer avenues and markets5) None of these

2. According to the passage, which of the following wasNOT an effect of providing loans and credits to thecustomers?(A) The non-creditworthy people defaulted.(B) People bought new products which were not needed.(C) Poverty became non-existent.

1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only A and B4) Only Band C 5) Only C

3. Although admired for years, why did the scepticismover the Japanese management style start since the lastdecade?1) Japanese companies have been moving out of theirhome markets since the last decade.2) Japanese banks have provided loans indiscriminatelyto the creditworthy as well as non-creditworthy people.3) Japanese markets have been going through a period ofcontinuous recession since the last decade.4) The unlimited growth of the Japanese markets has comeat the cost of the western market.

5) None of these

4. Why is the recession the beginning of good news forIndia in the authors view?(A) India can provide an attractive market to the westerncompanies.(B) India has remained largely unaffected by recessionowing to its huge population.(C) Indians keep purchasing products despite owningequally good products.1) Only C 2) Only B 3) Only A4) Only Band C 5) None of these

5. According to the author, what is the main cause of the

Japanese recession?1) Only a handful of corporations earned profits and notthe people in general.2) Non-credit worthy people defaulted, which led to acollapse of the entire system.


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3) Consumers were sold newer products which were similarin quality to the existing ones.4) Japanese do not purchase endlessly and thus whenproducts had been sold to every customer, the marketsslowed down.5) None of these.

6. Why according to the author is the current recession

great for Planet Earth?(A) It will make people non-materialistic like the Japanese.(B) The unlimited market growth, which caused hazardsto the environment, would be checked to a certain extent.(C) Banks will now provide loans only to the creditworthypeople.(D) Developing countries will also be benefited by shiftedmarkets.1) Only A 2) Only Band D 3) Only Aand B4) Only B 5) None of these

7. What does the author mean by the dustbinisation ofthe customer?1) Convincing the customer to buy products he does not

need2) Denying the non-creditworthy people any loans3) Denying more loans to people who have already takenloans to a logical limit4) Moving from old customers in the home market toforeign markets5) None of these

8. Why does the author foresee the markets being createdin the developing countries instead of America andEurope?1) All developing countries have materialistic culture.2) Developed countries are willing to make an effort toachieve globalization.

3) The American and European markets have had a largenumber of credit defaulters.4) Recession has not hit the markets of developingcountries yet.5) None of these

9. How does the author foresee the future globalisationas an analogy to Henry Fords example?(A) Car companies would start selling cars in developingcountries as well.(B) By paying the developing world, the developed worldwould increase its own profit, in turn bringing affluenceto the developing world as well.(C) To earn profit, the companies in developing countries

would move to foreign land.1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C4) Only A and C 5) None of these

Directions (Q.10-12): Choose the word which is mostsimilar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used inthe passage.

10. Key1) Foundation 2) Solution 3) Requisite4) Difficult 5) Important

11. Aggressive1) Violent 2) Determined 3) Demanding4) Offensive

12. Catering1) Considering 2) Lending 3) Supplying4) Working 5) Indulging

Directions (Q. 13-15): Choose the word/phrase which ismost opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold asused in the passage.

13. Consuming1) Destroying 2) Exhausting 3) Greedy4) Curtailing 5) Spending

14. Surge1) Decrease 2) Deteriorating 3) Weakening4) Atrophy 5) Crumble

15. Prosperous1) Distressed 2) Helpless 3) Worse4) Worthless 5) Underprivileged

Directions (Q. 16-20): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3)and 4) given below each statement should replace thephrase printed in bold in the sentence to make itgrammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as itis given and no correction is required, mark 5) as theanswer.

16. The grim job market has taken its toll on students,many of those had hoped for a much better future.1) much of whom 2) many of whom 3) several of those4) many of which 5) No correction required

17. The relationship we have with our clients are thecornerstone of our future.1) our client are 2) each clients is 3) our clients is4) all clients are 5) No correction required

18. Many developed countries have been attempting tobuy agricultural land in other countries to meet their owndemand.1) has been attempting2) have being attempting

3) are being attempting4) have been attempted5) No correction required

19. A nuclear testing fills the air with radioactive dust andleft the area uninhabitable1) and leaves the 2) also leaves the 3) and leaving the4) and making the 5) No correction required

20. Modem ideas of governance started back to the timewhen people began to question kings.1) started when 2) set back to 3) start back to4) date back to 5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 21-25): Each question below has two

blanks, each blank indicating that something has beenomitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that bestfits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. One of the TV cameramen was __________ in theleg by a bullet when he was _____________ in the middleof a gun fight between two gangs.1) hurt, entered 2) Shot, caught 3) injured, came4) stabbed, trapped 5) beaten, engulfed

22. Although the fire was very small, everyone_____________ and rushed out of the cinema hall_____________ complete chaos.1) shouted, leading

2) died, producing3) injured, resulting4) scared, making5) panicked, causing


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23. The____________of pesticides and fertilizers whilegrowing the vegetables and fruits is one of the greatest___________ to the health these days.1) production, dangers2) consumption, problem3) overuse, threats4) application, rewards5) amount, injury

24. The groups mission is to _________ peace betweenthe nations and help different people ___________ eachother better.1) maintain, understand2) remain, address3) keep, interact4) advise, find5) communicate, friendly

25. History _______________ the kings and influentialleaders whereas the real battle was ________________by the soldiers who remain little known and celebrated inthe texts.

1) remembers, played2) highlights, underwent3) biased, lead4) glorifies, fought5) writes, done

Directions (Q. 26-30): Rearrange the following sixsentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)and (F) in the propersequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answerthe questions given below them.(A) In all varieties of humour, especially the subtle ones,it is therefore what the reader thinks which gives extrameaning to these verses.(B) But such a verse may also be enjoyed at the surface

level.(C) Nonsense verse is one of the most sophisticated formsof literature .(D) This fulfils the authors main intention in such a versewhich is to give pleasure.(E) However, the reader who understands the broadimplications of the content and allusion finds greaterpleasure.(F) The reason being it requires the reader to supply ameaning beyond the surface meaning.

26. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence?1) (D) 2) (E) 3) (B)4) (C) 5) (A)

27. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST)sentence?1) (F) 2) (E) 3) (D)4) (A) 5)(C)

28. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence?1) (E) 2) (A) 3) (F)4) (D) 5) (C)

29. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence?1) (A) 2) (E) 3) (F)4) (B) 5) (C)

30. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence?1 ) (A) 2) (B) 3) (F)4) (C) 5) (D)

Directions (Q.,31-35): Which of the phrases 1),2),3) and4) given below each statement should be placed in theblank space provided so as to make a meaningful andgrammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentencesis appropriate, mark 5) as the answer.31. When we reached the crash site, we weredelighted................1) on seeing no survivor

2) we saw everyone living3) to seeing no one breathing4) to see everyone alive5) None of these

32. Even though the school premises had a lot ofspace.................1) there were plenty of play areas for the children2) there was no playground for the children3) yet it remained under utilised.4) there was no shortage of classrooms5) None of these

33. .......................but today, his performance was fairly

interesting and riveted everyone to their seats.1) He is a brilliant performer2) He tried his best to entertain everyone3) His performances are generally boring4) Although he performed after a very long time .5) None of these

34. In order to help the organization come out of thehuge losses, the employees....................1) demanded a compensatory package2) started an agitation against the management3) decided to join the rival organization4) decided to file a case against the organization5) None of these

35. ......................before being packaged for distributionin the market.1) The milk is pasteurized2) After the milk is pasteurized3) Until the milk is pasteurized4) Firstly the pasteurization of milk5) None of these

Directions (Q. 36-45): In the following passage thereare blanks, each of which has been numbered. Thesenumbers are printed below the passage and against each,five words are suggested, one of which fits the blankappropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

In economics, the term recession generally describes thereduction of a countrys Gross Domestic Product (GDP)for at least two quarters. A recession is (36) by rising un-employment, increase in government borrowing, (37) ofshare and stock prices, and falling investment. All of thesecharacteristics have effects on people. Some recessionshave been anticipated by stock market declines. The real-estate market also usually(38) before a recession. How-ever, real-estate declines can last much longer than reces-sions. During an economic decline, high-(39) stocks suchas financial services, pharmaceuticals and tobacco (40) tohold up better. However, when the economy starts to re-cover growth, stocks tend to recover faster. There is sig-nificant disagreement about how health care and utilities

tend to (41).

In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by severalimportant indicators of economic downturn. These(42)high oil prices; which led to (43) high food prices due


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to a dependence of food production on petroleum, as wellas using food crop products such as ethanol and biodieselas an (44) to petroleum; and global inflation; a substantialcredit crisis leading to the drastic bankruptcy of large andwell (45) investment banks as well as commercial banks invarious, diverse nations around the world; increasedunemployment; and signs of contemporaneous economicdownturns in major economics of the world, a global

recession.36. 1) imagined 2) depict 3) shown

4) visualized 5) characterized37. 1) increase 2) variance 3) more

4) decrease 5) abundance38. 1) weakens 2) initiates 3) awakens

4) strengthens 5) volatile39. 1) maintained 2) yield 3) heavy

4) result 5) payment40. 1) are 2) want 3) tend

4) yearn 5) made41. 1) distribute 2) recover 3) wait

4) increased 5) fight

42. 1) meant 2) show 3) numbered4) included 5) encompass43. 1) fearful 2) dangerous 3) abnormally

4) healthy 5) nutritious44. 1) alternative 2) variant 3) substitute

4) element 5) integral45. 1) wealthy 2) costly 3) stand

4) created 5) established

Directions (Q.46-50): In each of these questions fourwords are given denoted by (A), (B), (C) & (D). Two ofthese only may be either synonyms or antonyms. Findout the correct pair in each question.

46. (A) ECSTASY

(B) DEPRESSION(C) INTOXICATION(D) COMPRESSION1) A-B 2) B-D 3) AD4) C-D 5) None of these

47. (A) TRANQUILLITY(B) LOYALTY(C) CALAMITY(D) UPROARl) A-C 2) B-D 3) B-C4) C-D 5) None of these

48. (A) VILIFICATION

(B) NULLIFICATION(C) DENIGRATION(D) FALSIFICTIONl) A-B 2) B-C 3) A-C4) B-D 5) None of these

49. (A) OPAQUE(B) TRANSLUCENT(C) TRANSVERSE(D) TRANSVESTITE1) A-D 2) 8-D 3) C-A4) B-A 5) None of these

50. (A) EXORBITANT

(B) EXPEDITIOUS(C) QUICK(D) QUEST1) C-D 2) A-B 3) A-D4) C-B 5) None of these

II: Test of General Awareness

51. Competence Theory said that a person derivesauthority because of his-(1) Personal competence

(2) Technical authority(3) Personality(4) Behavioural attitude(5) None of these

52. Give the full form of MBO :(1) Management balance officers(2) Management by objectives(3) Management bank officers(4) Management banking officers(5) None of these

53. Placement of an employee to a position having higherpay, privileges, benefits is known as(1) Training (2) Promotion (3) Transfer

(4) Recruitment (5) None of these

54. When a new employee is informed about the rules, andregulations, procedures, etc. It is known as(1) Orientation training(2) On-job-training(3) Off-job-training(4) Placement training(5) None of these

55. In 1910, who launched a new movement called'Scientific Management' ?(1) F. W. Taylor (2) B. M. Jones (3) S. B. Kennedy(4) J. B. Arthur (5) None of these

56. In marketing terms, Attitude can best be defined as a(1) rude behaviour of salesperson(2) rude behaviour of consumer(3) mental state of consumer(4) ego of the marketing executive(5) None of these

57. The nominal scale used for marketing research, refersto__(1) population characteristics based on age or sex orownership of a specific consumer durable(2) ordering of scale(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) Neither (2) and (2)

(5) None of these

58. Reference group influences vis-a-vis consumptiondecision, is a function of the___(1) product category(2) group characteristics(3) group communication process(4) All of the above(5) None of these

59. Just in time (JIT) technique is getting wider acceptanceworld over. The technique was first introduced in(1) India (2) Indonesia (3) Japan(4) America (5) None of these


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60. 'Gate keepers___(1) use the products(2) reports on product performance(3)control the flow of information into buyingcentre

(4) issue challan for discharge of products(5) None of these61. Consumer Day is celebrated on__

(1) 15th March (2) 16th March (3) 20thApril(4) 20th March (5) None of these

62. A situation whereby market is expanded by developingnew products to satisfy new consumer needs is called__(1) Market development(2) Diversification(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) Neither (1) and (2)(5) None of these

63. The level of commitment that consumers feel toward agiven brand is called__(1) Brand equity (2) Brand name (3) Brand loyalty

(4) Brand utility (5) None of these64. Assigning specific jobs and work places to the selectedcandidates is known as__(1) Placement (2) Recruitment (3) Transfer(4) Promotion (5) None of these

65. As a counsellor, a personnel manager__(1) reminds the management of moral obligations towardsemployees(2) encourages the employees(3) tries to settle the disputes between labourandmanagement(4) All of the above(5) None of these

66.The twelth five year plan of India is for the five yearsranging from-(1) 2009 2014 (2) 2008 2013 (3) 2012-2017(4) 2006 2011 (5) None of these

67..DSCR indicates the ability of a company to -(1) meet its current liabilities(2) service its shareholders(3) meet its long term debt obligations(4) raise further capital(5) None of these

68.An IPO is---------

(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to itsshareholders(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its sharesfor the first time to the public(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlistedcompany(4) a book building process(5) None of these

69. A decreasing current ratio indicates_________(1) a stable liquidity(2) an increasing liquidity(3) a strained liquidity(4) satisfactory current solvency

(5) None of these

70.Private equity investors, invest in a company basedmainly on ________ .(1) the age of the company(2) the location of the company(3) the activity undertaken by the company(4) the creditability and the valuation of the company(5) the existing profitability of the company

71. Which of the following is technically least sound?(1) Programmer (2) User (3) System analyst(4) Computer operator (5) None of these

72.Which was not there during the fourth generation ofcomputer?(1) Minicomputers(2) Semiconductors (3) CRT terminal(4) Personal computers (5) None of these

73. What is a back up?(1) Restoring the information back up(2) Exact copy of asystems information(3) Ability to get a system up and running in the eventof a system crashor failure.(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

74.Which of the following elements is unique to a SmartCard?(1) Magnetic stripe (2) Microchip(3) Signature (4) Photograph (5) None of these

75. Internet was started as(1) TCP/IP experiment(2) Network for defences forces of America(3) Group of research scientists of Bell Lab(4) Contribution was done by all the above institutions(5) None of these

76. Cut operation also can be accomplished by using theshort cut key(1) Ctrl +x(2) Ctrl +a(3) Ctrl +c(4) Ctrl +d(5) None of these

77.A program permanently stored in hardware is called(1) Cellular program (2) Software(3) Firmware (4) Shareware (5) None of these

78. Taking back-up of a file against crash is a(1) Preventive measure(2) Curative measure

(3) Decisive measure(4) All of these(5) None of these

79.What is NOT a feature of networking?(1) Reliability(2) Greater storage space(3) Connectivity(4) All are features of networking(5) None of these

80. Which of the following transmission techniquespermits data flow in only one direction?(1) Simplex (2) Half-duplex (3) Full duplex

(4) Multiplexing (5) None of these

81. Which of the following relieves the host computerfrom tedious jobs and does them itself?


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(1) Remote concentrator(2) Message switcher(3) Front end processor(4) Demux(5) None of these82. RAM is a(1) File (2) Network (3) Memory(4) Disk (5) None of these

83. Which of the following is/are called key policy ratesissued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?(A) Bank Rate(B) Cash Reserve Ratio(C) Statutory Liquidity RatioChoose the correct answer.(1) Only (A)(2) Only B(3) Only (B) and (C)(4) Only (A) and (B)(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

84. Project Tiger is a scheme launched by the

(1) Government of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh(2) Government of India(3) United Nations Wildlife Fund(4) Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (SPCA)(5) None of these

85. Which of the following is an innovative mechanismadopted by banks to meet the targets fixed of lending topriority sector by the banks?(1) Buying & selling of Priority Sector LendingCertification(2) Sale of Kisan Vikas Patra(3) Inter-Bank Participation Certificates(4) Adoption of Core Banking Solution

(5) None of these86. As a policy to boost the agricultural sector in thecountry, the Government of India has taken several specialmeasures over the years. Which of the following cannotbe considered a measure/measures which will have a directimpact(s) on the agricultural sector?(A) Setting up of a National Food Processing Bank(B) Opening irrigation, sanitation and water projects fordevelopment under public-private participation(C) Efforts to bring down fiscal deficit to 5.5 percent levelof GDP(1) Only (A)(2) Only (B)

(3) Only (C)(4) Only (A) and (B)(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

87. Many people talk about the rollback of stimuluspackages provided by the Government of India last yearto help certain sectors. If these stimulus packages arerolled back, this would mean that(A) those who have availed these benefits would berequired to return them to the Government of India.(B) no such incentives would be available henceforth tothese sectors.(C) all such benefits/incentives would be available to allthe people across the country and will not be restricted

to some selected few.(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C)(4) Only (A) and (C) (5) Only (B) and (C)

88. The rate at which banks borrow from the RBI is called

(1) SLR (2) CRR (3) Interest Rate(4) Bank Rate (5) Repo Rate

89. Consider the following taxes:(A) Corporation tax(B) Customs duty

(C) Wealth tax(D) Excise duty

Which of these is/are indirect taxes?(1)Only (A) (2) Only (D)(3) Only (B) and (D) (4) Only (A) and(C)(5) Only (B) and (C)

90. Consider the following statements:Full convertibility of the rupee may mean(A) Its free float with international currencies(B) Its direct exchange with any other internationalcurrency at any prescribed place inside and outside thecountry(C) It acts like any other international currencyWhich of these statements are correct?

(1) Only (A) and (B) (2) Only (A) and (C)(3) Only (B) and (C) (4) All (A), (B) and (C)(5) None of the above

91. Who is the final authority for deciding the design,form and material of bank notes?(1) Central Government(2) Reserve Bank of India(3) Indian Banks Association(4) Note Issuing Authority of India(5) None of these

92. Which of the following organisations/agencies has

asked all the banks in India to form customer servicepanels at branch levels?(1) Indian Banks Association(2) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)(3) Supreme Court of India(4) Securities & Exchange Board of India(SEBI)(5) None of these

93. As reported in the newspapers, the collection of DirectTaxes, which includes IT, FBT, STT and BCTT, grew byabout 50% during the current fiscal year. Which of thefollowing is the name of the tax levied on a cash withdrawalof deposit from/to a bank?(1) IT (2) FBT

(3) STT (4) BCTT(5) None of these

94. Which of the following schemes has been launchedspecifically for helping senior citizens to avail loan bymortgage of their residential property?(1) English Mortgage Scheme(2) Senior Capital Loan Scheme(3) Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme(4) DEMAT Account Scheme(5) None of these

95.Cryogenic Engines are being developed indigenously

by an Indian organisation. These engines are normallyused for which of the following purposes?(1) Used for space programme(2) Used for generating nuclear power(3) Used by railways as they are very fast and fuel efficient


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(4) Used in fighter planes(5) None of these

96. According to the UN Convention on the rights tochildren, which of the following is not a right?(1) Safe drinking water(2) Adequate standard of living(3) Education

(4) Marriage(5) None of these

97. World Tourism Day is observed on(1) 24th September (2) 25th September(3) 26th September (4) 27th September(5) None of these

98. Name the anti-Islam filmmaker who has been arrestedfor violating terms of his probation in a 2010 bank fraudcase.(1) Nakoula Basseley Nakoula(2) Sam Bacile

(3) Morris Sadek(4) J Christopher Stevens(5) None of these

99. Which of the following is a self-employmentprogramme for educated unemployed youth?(1) Prime Ministers Rozgar Yojana(2) Swarn Jayanti Sahakari Rozgar Yojana(3) National Social Assistance Programme(4) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana(5) None of these

100. Who is the president of the World Bank?(1) Paul Wolfowitz

(2) James Wolfensohn(3) Rodrigo De Rato(4) Allen Greenspan(5) Jim Yong Kim

YearState

2009 2010 2011 2012

A Q A Q A Q A Q

P 18700 1480 12640 1075 16400 1560 14680 2200

Q 14690 735 13480 670 14500 1 510 12680 1060

R 10480 1 050 1 2000 960 13700 1 550 14600 1750

S 16000 650 12450 625 18400 2000 9600 1050

T 20500 820 16900 1180 12600 1 200 13400 1875

U 12780 960 8600 690 15800 1570 12440 1230

V 18400 1850 19600 1765 24800 2728 22400 1950

Total 111550 7545 95670 6965 116200 12118 99800 11115

III: Data Analysis and Interpretation

Directions(Qs.101-105): Study the table to answer these

questions.

Note: A = Appeared Q = Qualified.

Above table shows that number of candidates appeared

and qualified in a competitive examination from different

States over the years. Study the table carefully and an-

swer the questions.

101. Which of the following states registered the maxi-

mum percentage of those qualified with respect to

those appeared in 2011 ?

(1) S (2) T (3) P (4) Q (5) None

102. For which of the following years the percentage of

candidates qualified with respect to those appeared

for state V is the minimum ?

(1) 2009 (2) 2010 (3) 2011 (4) 2012(5) None

103. Which of the following stateregistered a continous

increase with respect to the previous year in the

number of candidates qualified ?

(1) P (2) Q (3) V (4) T

(5) None

104. What approximately is the average number of

candidates qualified in 2004 from the given States ?

(1) 1585 (2) 1588 (3) 1590

(4) None of the above (5) None

105. What is the approximate average number of candi-

date, appeared from state Q every year ?

(1) 14480 (2) 14485 (3) 14490

(4) 13838 (5) None

Directions (Q.106-110): Study the informationcarefully to answer the questions that follow.In a ship there are 1200 passengers. 18 per cent of thetotal number of passengers are from Britain. Two-fifthsof the total number of passengers are from SouthAfrica. 6 per cent of the total number of passengers are

from Madagascar. The remaining number of passengersare from India. 25 per cent of the number of passengersfrom Britain are females. Half the number of passengersfrom South Africa are males. There is no female

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passenger from Madagascar. Two-thirds of the numberof passengers from India are females.106. What is the ratio of the number of passengers fromMadagascar, the number of female passengers fromSouth Africa and the total number of passengers fromIndia?(1) 2:5:18 (2) 3:10:18 (3) 3:11:18(4) 2: 18: 5 (5) None of these

107. The number of male passengers from South Africais approximately what percentage of the total number ofpassengers from Britain?(1) 111 (2) 115 (3) 120(4) 125 (5) 131

108. What is the average number of male passengersfrom all the four countries?(1) 154.5 (2) 164.5 (3) 145(4) 164 (5) None of these

109. What is the difference between the number of male

passengers from Madagascar and the number of malepassengers from India?(1) 64 (2) 82 (3)74(4)72 (5) None of these

110.What is the total number of male passengers fromBritain and female passengers from India together?(1)340 (2)420 (3) 350

(4)460 (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 111 to 115) : Read the following table

carefully and answer the questions give below it :

AVERAGE MARKS OBTAINED BY 20 BOYSAND 20 GIRLS IN FIVE SUBJECTS FROM FIVE

DIFFERENT SCHOOLS.

B = Boys G = Girls

Mx M= Maximum Marks

Schools

P Q R S T

Sub. Mx B G B G B G B G B G

M

English 200 85 90 80 75 100 110 65 60 105 110

History 100 40 50 45 50 50 55 40 45 65 60

Geog. 100 50 40 40 45 60 55 50 55 60 65

Science 200 105 125 110 120 125 115 85 90 140 135

Maths 200 120 110 95 85 135 130 75 80 130 135

111.What were the total marks obtained by boys in Historyfrom school Q ?

(1) 900 (2) 1000 (3) 800 (4) 1300(5) None of these

112.In which of the following subjects did the girls havehighest average percentage of marks from all theschools ?

(1) Science (2) Geography

(3) English (4) History(5) Mathematics

113.The pooled average marks of both the boys and thegirls in all the subjects was minimum from which ofthe following schools ?

(1) Q (2) P (3) T (4) S(5) R

114.In case of which of the following schools was thetotal marks obtained by girls in Mathematics 100%

more than the total marks obtained by boys in History?

(1) R (2) S (3) P (4) Q(5) T

115.What was the difference between the total marksobtained in Mathematics by boys from school R andthe girls from school S ?

(1) Nil (2) 1100 (3) 100 (4) 1200(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 116 to 120) : Study the followinggraph carefully and answer the questions givenbelow it :

IMPORTS OF 3 COMPANIES OVER THE YEARS(RS. IN CRORE)

116.In which of the following years the imports made byCompany B were exactly equal to the average imports

made by it over the given years ?(1) 2002 (2) 2003 (3) 2004 (4) 2005(5) None of these

117.In which of the following years was the differencebetween the imports made by Company B and C themaximum ?

(1) 2005 (2) 2004 (3) 2001 (4) 2002(5) None of these

118.In which of the following years was the imports madeby Company A exactly half of the total imports madeby Company B and C together in that year ?

(1) 2002 only (2) 2003 only

(3) 2002 and 2003 (4) 2005 only

(5) None of these

119.What was the percentage increase in imports byCompany B from 2002 to 2003 ?

(1) 10 (2) 25 (3) 40 (4) 20(5) None of these

120.In which of the following years was the total importsmade by all the three companies together themaximum ?

(1) 2006 only (2) 2007 only

(3) 2005 only (4) 2005 & 2007 only

(5) None of these121.Ashok borrowed some money at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a.For the first two years, at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a for thenext three years and at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. For the

100806040200

Company ACompany BCompany C

2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007


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period beyond five years. If he pays a total interestof Rs. 11,400 at the end of nine years, how muchmoney did he borrow ?

(1) Rs. 16,000 (2) Rs. 14,000

(3) Rs. 18,000 (4) Rs. 12,000

(5) None of these

122.Twenty-four men can complete a work in sixteen days.

Thirty-tow women can completed the same work intwenty-four days. Sixteen men and sixteen womenstarted working and worked for twelve days. Howmany more men are to be added to complete theremaining work in 2 days ?

(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 16(5) None of these

123.An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Qand R in the ratio of 5 : 8 : 12 respectively. If the totalshare of Q and R is four times that of P, what isdefinitely the P's share ?

(1) Rs. 3,000

(2) Rs. 5,000(3) Rs. 8,000

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

124.The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 1/11th ofthe sum of the number and the number obtained byinterchanging the positions of the digits. What isthe difference between the digits of that number ?

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 6

(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

125.The length of a rectangular plot is 20 meters more thanis breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot @ Rs. 26.50

per meter is Rs. 5,300, What is the length of the plotin meters ?

(1) 40 (2) 120 (3) 50

(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Directions (126-130): Study the following graphs carefullyto answer these questions.

Quantity of various items produced and the amountearned by selling them Quantity produced Total = 2000tons.

Income by selling the products Total = Rs. 45 millions

126. If the expenditure incurred in production of productC per ton was Rs. 16000, what was the per centprofit earned?

(1) 12.5 (2) 11.11 (3) 12.25(4) 11.28 (5) None of these

127. What is the average per ton selling price of all the sixproducts together?

(1) Rs. 20,525 (2) Rs. 18,500(3) Rs. 22,500 (4) Rs. 20,500

(5) Rs.18,525

128.What is the selling price of product A per ton?

(1) Rs. 17,580 (2) Rs. 18,570

(3) Rs.17,850 (4) Rs. 18,750

(5) None of these

129.Approximately, What was the average selling priceper ton of products D & E together?

(1) Rs. 21,800 (2) Rs. 22,800

(3) Rs. 22,000 (4) Rs. 22,500

(5) Rs. 23,500130.Which product has the highest selling price per ton?

(1) A (2) B (3) C

(4) D (5) None of these

Direction: (131-135) Study the following questions toanswer these questions:

131. What is the ratio between the total number ofemployees in Scale III and Scale IV respectively?

(1) 19:9 (2) 9:19

(3) 17:9 (4) 9:17

(5) None of these

132. Total number of employees in Scale VI is what percent of the total number of employees in Scale-I?

(1) 2.8 (2) 2.4(3) 3.6 (4) 3.2

(5) None of these

133. In Public Relations department the number ofemployees in Scale II is less than that in Scale I bywhat percent? (rounded off to two digits afterdecimal).

(1) 14.67 (2) 16.67

(3) 14.29 (4) 16.27

(5) None of these

134. Out of the total number of employees in Personneldepartment, approximately what per cent of

employees are in scale II?(1) 30 (2) 28

(3) 22 (4) 20

(5) 25

Dept / Scale I II III IV V VI

Personnel 225 120 75 40 25 4

Operations 725 426 250 126 65 20

Systems 750 576 320 144 70 28

Accounts 300 288 120 60 35 15

Maintenance 325 240 85 30 20 8

Public Relations 175 150 100 50 35 5


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135. What percentage of Scale IV officers are deployed inOperations department?

(1) 26.5 (2) 28

(3) 28.5 (4) 27

(5) None of these

Directions(Q. 136-140): Study the following tablecarefully to answer the questions given below it. Percentage of students passed overappeared from six States over the years

in an admission test.

136. If the number of students appeared from each Statein the year 2002 was 5000, approximately what was theaverage number of students qualified?(1) 1810 (2) 1550 (3) 1380(4) 1780 (5) 1860

137. If in the year 1998, 18500 students appeared fromState C and 17200 students appeared from State E,what was the total number of students qualified fromthese two States together?(1) 10262 (2) 10444 (3) 10536(4) 10833 (5) None of these

138. If the number of students appeared from State A in1997 was more than that in 1996 by 20%, what was theratio of numbers qualified in the State A in 1996 and 1997respectively?(1) 4 : 9 (2) 16 : 27 (3) 5 : 6(4) 32 : 45 (5) None of these

139. If the numbers of students qualified from State D

in 1999 and 2000 were in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively,what was the respective ratio of students appeared inthese years?(1) 13 : 27 (2) 13 : 19 (3) 26 : 57(4) 19 : 27 (5) None of these

140. If the average number of students qualified fromState e for the given years was 532, what was theaverage number of students appeared?(1) 1420 (2) 1350 (3) 1422(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Directions (Q. 141-145): These questions are based onthe following graphs:Distribution of candidates studying Arts and Com-merce from seven different institutes A, B, C, D, E, Fand G.Total Number of Students Studying

Arts = 3800

Total Number of Students StudyingCommerce= 4200

141. What is the ratio between the number of students

studying Arts from Institute E and the number ofstudents studying Commerce from Institute D respec-tively?(1) 17 : 19 (2) 19 : 27 (3) 14 : 19(4) 19 : 21 (5) None of these

142. What is the total number of students studying Artsfrom Institutes A and G together?(1) 1102 (2) 918 (3) 966(4) 1130 (5) None of these

143. How many students are studying commerce fromInstitutes B and D together?

(1) 1158 (2) 1302 (3) 1232(4) 1272 (5) None of these

144. How many students are studying Arts and Com-merce from Institue B?(1) 1418 (2) 2000 (3) 1018(4) 1208 (5) None of these

145. What is the ratio between the numbers of studentsstudying Arts and Commerce respectively from InstituteE?(1) 19 : 27 (2) 17 : 29 (3) 19 : 29(4) 17 : 27 (5) None of these


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Directions (Q.146-150): Study the following tablecarefully to answer these questions. Production (in lakh tonnes) of product by sixcompanies over the given years.

146.Production of Company B in 1999 was what percent

of the total production of all the companies together forthat year (rounded off to the nearest integer) ?(1) 17 (2) 20(3) 22 (4) 18(5) None of these

147. During which year was the percentage increase/decrease in production from the previous year thelowest for Company A?(1) 2002 (2) 1998(3) 2000 (4) 1999(5) None of these

148. What was the difference between the total produc-

tions of companies E & F (in lakh tonnes) in the givenyears?(1) 178 (2) 86(3) 76 (4) 72(5) None of these

149. Approximately what was the average production ofall the six companies (in lakh tonnes) in the year 1998?(1) 590 (2) 550(3) 570 (4) 450(5) 620

150. What was the percent fall in production of

Comapny C in 2000 over that in 1999 (rounded off totwo digits after decimal)?(1) 25.61 (2) 26.51(3) 36.07 (4) 37.16(5) None of these

IV: Test of Reasoning (High Level)

(Directions (Q. 151-155): These questions are based onthe following arrangement. Study the arrangementcarefully to answer these questions. )5 D E F 6

I 4 B M A 7 $ J # H L O @ P T U 2 R Q

151. How many such vowels are there in the abovearrangement each of which is immediatelyfollowed by a numeral and also immediatelypreceded by a consonant?1) None 2) One 3) Two4) Three 5) None of these

152. Which of the following is exactly midway betweenthe sixth element from the right end and the eighthelement from the left end of the arrangement?1)# 2) J 3)$4)H 5) None of these

153. The position of the first and the fourteenthelements in the arrangement are interchanged.Similarly, the second. and the fifteenth elementsare interchanged, and so on, upto the twelfth andtwentyfifth elements. Which element will besecond to the right of eighth element from theright end after rearrangement?1) P 2) @ 3)

4) 1 5) None of these

154. How many such symbols are there in the abovearrangement, each of which is immediatelypreceded by a numeral and also immediately

followed by a consonant?1) None 2) one 3) Two4) Three 5) More than three

155. Four of the following five are alike in a certain wayon the basis of their positions in the abovearrangement and so form a group. Which is theone that does not belong to the group?1) 14 : MA 2) HL: @ P 3)6

:4B4) PT: 2R 5)7A: #J

Directions (Q. 156-160): In each of the questions beloware given four statements followed by four conclusions

numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the givenstatements to be true even if they seem to be at variancefrom commonly known facts. Read all the conclusionsand then decide which of the given conclusions logicallyfollows from the given statements disregarding commonlyknown facts.

156. Statements: a. Some rats are cats.b. All cats are dogs.c. No dog is a horse.d. All horses are bulls.

Conclusions: I. No dog is a bull.II. Some dogs are bulls.III. Some dogs are rats.

IV. Some bulls are rats.1) None follows2) All follow3) Only either I or II and III follow


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4) Only I and III follow5) Only I, II and III follow

157. Statements:a. Some umbrellas are sticks.b. Some sticks are balls.c. Some balls are bats.d. All bats are guns.

Conclusions:I. Some baIls are umbreIlas.II. Some guns are bats.III. Some sticks are guns.IV. Some balls are guns.

1) Only I, II and IV follow2) Only II and IV follow3) Only II, 1lI and IV follow4) Only I, Il and III follow5) None of these

158. Statements:

a. Some books are notebooks.b. Some notebooks are dictionaries.c. Some dictionaries are filesd. All files are envelopes.

Conclusions:I. Some envelopes are notebooks.II. Some files are books.III. Some books are dictionaries.IV. No book is an envelope .

1) None follows2) Only I, II and III follow3) Only II and III follow4) Only III and IV follow

5) None of these

159. Statements:a. Some keys are chains.b. All chains are locks.c. All locks are numbers.d. No number is a digit.

I. Some keys are numbers.II. All chains are numbers.III. Some locks are keys.IV. No digit is a chain.

Conclusions:1) Only I and II follow

2) Only I, II and III follow3) Only II and III follow4) Only II, III and IV follow5) All follow

160. Statements:a. Some floppies are CDs.b. Some CDs are keyboards.c. Some keyboards are computers.d. Some computers are monitors.

Conclusions:I. Some monitors are floppies.II. No floppy is a monitor.III. Some computers are CDs.

IV. Some keyboards are floppies.1) Only I follows2) Only I, III and IV follow3) Only II flows

4) Only either I or II follows

5) None of these

161. Four of the following five are alike in a certain wayand so form a group. Which is the one that doesnot belong to the group?1)133 2)112 3) 984) 91 5) 104

162. In a certain code LETHARGY is written asZHSBMFUI. How is MANGROVE written in thatcode?1)FUPSNBOH 2)SPWFNBOH3)SPWFHOBN 4) FWPSNBOH5) None of these

163. If it is possible to make a meaningful word fromthe second, the third, the fourth, the fifth and theeighth letters of the word MANGROVES, the firstletter ofthe word is your answer. If more than onesuch word can be formed, your answer is X and

if no such word can be formed youranswer is Z.1) A 2) R 3) G4) X 5) Z

164. In a certain code SAID is written as #%35 andRED is written as @ 65. How is RAISE written inthat code?1 ) @ % 3 # 5 2 ) @ 6 % # 53 ) # % 3 @ 5 4 ) # % 6 @ 55) None of these

165. In a class of 36 students Ravis rank from the topis 12. Radhika ranks three places above Ravi. What

is Radhikas rank from the bottom?1)27 2) 28 3) 264)29 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 166-170): Study the following informationcarefully to answer these questions.Ten executives A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J stay in flatsin two rows opposite each other. One row has 5 flatsfacing North and the other row has 5 flats facing South.Fs flat is second to the right of Js flat, which is exactlyopposite of Cs flat facing North. Ds flat is on theimmediate left of Js flat and As flat is on the immediateleft of Cs flat. Bs flat is on the right of Cs flat. I and E

have flats at the two ends of the same row. Flats of Eand H are opposite each other.

166. Which of the following is the correct position of Gsflat?1) Facing North2) Opposite Cs flat3) To the left of Fs flat4) To the left of Js flat5) None of these

167. Who stays opposite B ?I) F 2) G 3) D4) F or G 5) None of these

168. Which of the following statements is definitely true?1) Js flat is facing North.2) G and A have flats opposite each other


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3) Bs flat is to the right of Es flat.4) Gs flat is to the left of Js flat.5) None of these

169. Which of the following groups of persons haveflats in the same row?1) ACG 2) GIE 3) GJF4) FAJ 5) None of these

170. Which of the following pairs of executives stay inthe flats at the ends of a row?1)FD 2) HD 3) HG4) GD 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 171-175): Following are theconditions for the selection of an Economist in an

organisation:

To be eligible for selection, the candidate must:I. be a postgraduate in Economics with minimum

55% marks.II. have secured minimum 65% marks at graduation

in any discipline .III. have completed 21 years of age but not more

than 28 years of age as on 1.4.2006.IV. have at least one years post-qualification

experience of working as an officer.V. have cleared the selection test with at least 50%

marks.However, if a candidate satisfies all the above-

mentioned conditions except(i) at IV above, but is PhD in Economics, the case

may be referred to theVice President (VP) of the organisation.

(ii) at I above, but has secured minimum 50% marksin postgraduation and has at least 2 years of

postqualification experience, the case is to bereferred to the Board of Directors.

In each ofthe following questions details of onecandidate are given as regards his/her candidature. Youhave to read the infonnation provided and decide his/herstatus based on the conditions given above and theinformation provided. You are not to assume anythingother than the information provided in each question. Allthese cases are given to you as on 1.4.2006. Now readeach question and decide which of the following coursesof action you would take in each case and mark youranswers accordingly.

Give answer1) if the candidate is to be selected.2) if the case is to be referred to the Board of

Directors.3) if the case is to be referred to the Vice-

President.4) if the data provided is not adequate to take a

decision.5) if the candidate is not to be selected.

171. Vikas Mehrotra is a graduate and postgraduate inEconomics with 70% and 60% marks respectively.He has also got PhD in Economics in 2005 at the

age of 26 years. Immediately after submitting hisPhD thesis in July 2005, he joined a private bankas a Finance Executive. He has cleared theselection test with 64% marks.

172. Shyamlal, an Economics graduate with 68% marks,did his postgraduation in Economics in 2004 atthe age of 24 years. He has cleared the selectiontest with 70% marks. He has secured a secondclass with 56% marks atpostgraduation. He hasbeen working as an officer since December 2004.

173. Ranjana is a graduate in Economics and MBA inFinance with 70% marks at each level. She is 25

years old and has been working as a FinanceExecutive for the last 1 years. She has clearedthe selection test with 60% marks.

174. Nikita has done BCom with 72% marks and hasdone MA in Economics securing 63% marks. Shehas been working as a Finance Officer for last 2years. Her date of birth is 24.12.1978.

175. Srikanth is a postgraduate in Economics securing52% marks. He has passed BSc with 72% marksand has been working as a Jr Manager since July2003 after completing postgraduation. He hascleared the selection test with 58% marks. He hasrecently completed 26 years of age.

Directions (Q. 176-180): In making decisions aboutimportant questions, it is desirable to be able todistinguish between strong arguments and weakarguments. Strong arguments must be both importantand directly related to the question. Weak argumentsmay not be directly related to the question and may be ofminor importance or may be related to the trivial aspectsof the question.

Each question below is followed by three argumentsnumbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of thearguments is a strong argument and which is aweak argument.

176. Should there be a complete ban on celebration ofvarious days in colleges?Arguments:I. No, there is nothing wrong in celebrating

the days and enjoying once in a while.II. Yes, children are giving more importance to

such celebrations than the studies.III. No, this type of celebration gives

opportunity for children to express theirfeelings.

1) Only I and II are strong2) Only II and III are strong3) Only III is strong

4) Only II is strong5) None of these

177. Should the Examination Boards give separate timefor reading the question paper over and abovethe stipulated time for answering the paper?

Arguments:I. No, it is not necessary to give separate time

since reading the question paper takes hardlyany time.

II. No, reading the question is a part of preparationfor writing the answer and therefore no separatetime is required to be given.

III. Yes, separate time is necessary since a lot of

time goes in reading the question paper and manystudents find it very difficult to complete theanswer paper in spite of having the knowledge.

1) Only I is strong


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2) Only II is strong3) Only III is strong4) Only II and III are strong5) None of these

178. Should the Government impose restrictions on accessto sensitive information to the journalists to avoidthe media hype?

Arguments:I. Yes, the media creates hype and publishes

distorted information at times

II. No, journalists should have an access to all theinformation as media is the best source to exposethe malfunctions in the society.

III. Yes, at times it leads to harassment of those whoare affected and alleged to be involved in thecrisis

1) All I, II and III are strong

2) Only I and II are strong

3) Only II and III are strong

4) Only II is strong

5) None is strong

179. Should the Government introduce a system ofobtaining bond from students for working in Indiabefore sanctioning education loan for higherstudies?

Arguments:I. No, this is not a workable solution and will

obstruct the development of young talent inthe country.

II. Yes, this is the only way to ensure use of thetalent of our country for the development of

the country and not only an individual.III. No, this step will be too harsh.

1) Only I is strong2) Only II is strong,3) Only I and II are strong4) None is strong5) None of these

180. Should the minimum age of marriage for boys bebrought down to 18 years?

Arguments:I. No an 18 year old boy is not capable of taking

re.sponsibility to start a family.

II. Yes, since the minimum age for marriage forgirls is 18 years, the same should beapplicable for boys as well.

III. No, the boys should be allowed to marry onlyafter they become self-dependent.

1) Only I is strong2) Only II is strong3) Only IlI is strong4) Only either I or II is strong5) None of these

Directions (Q. 181-185): In each question below is givena statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and

II. An assumption is something supposed or taken forgranted. You have to consider the statement and thefollowing assumptions and decide which of theassumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer1) if only assumption I is implicit,2) if only assumption II is implicit,3) if either I or II is implicit,4) if neither I nor II is implicit5) if both I and II are implicit.

181. Statement: We should revise e wage structure in

order to retain our good employees. - Commentof a member of the Management Committee of acompany

Assumptions:

I. Wage structures of other companies involved inparallel activities are better.

II. Wage structure is one of the most importantfactors for the employees of the company.

182. Statement: Do not indulge in unfair practices orelse you will be sacked from the college. -Warning to the students from the principal of a

college.Assumptions:

I. Some of the students were found using unfairpractices.

II. The principals warning may deter thestudents from using unfair practices.

183. Statement: Invest in our regular scheme and earnan interest of at least 10%. Advertisement by aFinancial Institution

Assumptions:I. 10% interest may attract a good number of

investors.II. No other scheme offers interest as high as

10%.

184. Statement:Make use of computers to maintain yourdata and get rid of the hassle.-An advice to theadministrative staff by the management

Assumptions:I. Members ofthc administrative staff are

conversant in operating computers.II. Maintaining administrative data is an

important activity for any organisation.

185. Statement: For easier and faster communication,use our broadband connections. - An advertisement

Assumptions:I. Many people are looking up for best

communication facilities.II. Broadband connections are preferred mode

of communication.

Directions (Q. 186- 190): Below is given a passagefollowed by several possible inferences which can bedrawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have toexamine each inference separately in the context ofthepassage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

Mark answer: 1) if the inference is definitely true, ie itproperly follows from the statement of facts given.Mark answer: 2) if the inference is probably true thoughnot definitely true in the light of the facts given.


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Mark answer: 3) if the data areinadequate, ie from the facts givenyou cannot say whether theinference is likely to be true or false.

Mark answer: 4) if the inference isprobably false though notdefinitely false in the light of the

facts given.

Mark answer 5) if the inference isdefinitely false, ie it cannot possi-bly be drawn from the facts given orit contradicts the given facts.

After being thwacked all over the parkover the last decade or so by compe-tition, India at last has a chance ofgetting a bit of its tea export marketback, courtesy the drought in Kenya,which could shrink that countrys2006 crop by 25% from last yearslevel of 330 million kg. There is animmediate market opening up in theform of next-door neighbour Pakistan,which sourced from Kenya almost66% of its calendar 2004 imports of120 million kg of mainly CTC Tea.Sensmg an opportunity with IndiasCTC teas coming qualitatively closerto Kenya than other origins like Viet-nam and Bangladesh with Sri Lankafocusing on the orthodox variety, the

consultative committee of plantationassociations is working withofficialdom to be part of a trade mis-sion to Islamabad and to invite a Pa-kistani tea delegation here. Indian teaexports to Pakistan are up, touchingby the seventh month of calendar2005, the 2004 level of 4 million kg.

186. Kenya is expecting a total teacrop of around 250 million kg in 2006.

187. If India wants to capture majorshare in the world tea market, it has

to provide better quality than that ofVietnam and Bangladesh.

188. Kenya till 2005 was the largesttea supplier in the world market.

189. Indias tea exports to Pakistanincreased substantially from 2004 to2005.

190. India is nor equipped to supplyquality tea to Pakistan as areplacement of supply from Kenya.

Directions (Q.191-195): The second figure in the first unit of the problemfigures bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly one of thefigures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure inthe second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figurewhich would fit in the question mark.

Directions (Q.196-200): In each of the questions given below which one ofthe five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on

the left, if the sequence were continued?

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Sbi Free Mock Test - Questions