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SBI PO 2015 PRELIM (TIER I) EXAM MODEL PAPER

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Sections Number of questions Marks Duration of Exam

1. English Language 30 30 60 minutes 2. Reasoning 35 35

3. Quantitative Aptitude 35 35

Total = 100 Qs. Total marks = 100

Part 1 ENGISH LANGUAGE

Q. 1 - 15.Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words

are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The current global food situation is very serious and hence, we need to understand the reasons for such

a dramatic increase in food prices in a short period.

It is argued that increases in energy costs are resulting in cost push inflation but the contribution of

energy costs to overall costs in agriculture may not explain the huge increase in food prices. Related to

the current elevated energy prices, there has been a diversion of corn and edible oils to bio-fuels, which

is significantly influenced by policy mandates. Very clearly this diversion to bio-fuels is a policy induced

new reality, which coincided with price escalation in precisely those products and hence, is noteworthy.

The financialisation of commodity trade and current extraordinary conditions in global financial markets

could have influenced the spurt in prices. The recent reductions in interest rates in the U.S. and the

injection of liquidity have resulted in investors seeking new avenues such as commodity markets, in view

of the turbulence in financial markets and the low returns in treasuries. The relatively easy liquidity and

low interest rates, by themselves, make holding of inventories attractive and thus induce greater

volatility in commodity markets. The weakening of the U.S. dollar is also advanced as a reason for the

recent volatility in commodity markets, including food items. It is evident that this phenomenon is now

also coinciding with the across the board rise in food prices.

In brief, while there are demand and supply side pressures on food items, there is considerable merit in

the argument that the recent extraordinary increases in food prices are closely linked to public policy

responses to high energy costs in advanced economies, and the turbulence in financial markets and

financial institutions. It is said that the impact of such policy induced diversion of food to bio-fuels is

significant at this juncture and reflects a preference to fill the fuel tanks of automobiles rather than fill

the empty stomachs of people. Similarly, it is sometimes held that the weight accorded to financial

stability in public policy may now be at the expense of stability in real sector - especially of sensitive

commodities like food. At the same time, there is a general consensus that public policy in regard to

food in many economies around the world has not provided adequate incentive to farmers to increase

the supply of food and other agricultural products to comfortably match the growing demand over the

medium term.

Q. 1. In what way are bio-fuels responsible for the increasing cost of food?


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(A) It is a policy mandated to use bio-fuel in place of petroleum products especially in developing

countries.

(B) Certain essential food commodities are being used for manufacturing alternative fuels.

(C) The low cost of bio-fuels has created fluctuation in prices of other agricultural commodities.

(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) A and B only (5) None of these

Q. 2. Which of the following situation(s) has/have prompted investors to look towards commodity

markets?

(A) Dip in rates of interest in the U.S.

(B) Easy Liquidity.

(C) Volatility in commodity prices.

(1) A and B only (2) Band C only (3) A and C only (4) All the three (5) None of these

Q. 3. The passage lays emphasis on which of the following central theme(s)?

(A) The abysmally throwaway prices offered for food commodities.

(B) The worldwide acute shortage of food commodities.

(C) Promoting the use of bio-fuel for automobiles.

(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) All the three (5) None of these

Q. 4. Which of the following statements is FALSE in the context of the passage?

(A) Unusual conditions in global financial markets have aggravated the food price.

(B) No government would prefer fuelling vehicles to feeding the hungry.

(C) Maintenance of financial stability in public policy will be at the cost of stability in the real sector.

(1) A and B only (2) B and C only (3) B only (4) C only (5) None of these

Q. 5. Which of the following shows a cause-effect relationship between its two components?


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(1) Reduction in interest rates and abundance of food commodities

(2) Reduction in energy prices and increase in food commodity prices

(3) Turbulence in financial markets and escalation in production of food commodities

(4) Dipping of U.S. dollar value and volatility in commodity markets

(5) Injection of liquidity and the drop in investor confidence

Q. 6. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?

(1) Commodity markets have become erratic due to easy liquidity and low interest rate

(2) Governments of many countries have begun paying better prices for food commodities to ensure

their farmers are taken care of

(3) Farmers in developing countries have to compulsorily produce a certain quantity of bio-fuels

annually

(4) The financialisation of commodity trade has resulted in a dip in prices of food products

(5) The weakening of other currencies against the US dollar has resulted in high fuel prices

Q. 7. Which of the following best explains the phrase this phenomenon as used in the fourth

paragraph of the passage?

(1) Volatility in commodity markets which has led to hoarding

(2) Escalating food prices caused by high interest rates

(3) Easy liquidity because of lack of investment in America

(4) Weakening of the US dollar and consequent variability in commodity markets

(5) Fluctuation in energy prices and outdated public policy

Q. 8. Which of the following can be inferred from the contents of the passage?

(A) At present the demand for food items exceeds the supply.

(B) Fuel production has been given higher priority than caring for the millions who are starving.

(C) Farmers have not been motivated to increase their production of food.


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(1) A and B only (2) Band C only (3) A and C only (4) None of these (5) All A B & C

Q. 9. Which of the following can be a remedy of the global situation mentioned in the passage?

(A) Reducing the production of cars and thereby the demand for energy.

(B) Inducing farmers to increase their food and other agricultural produce.

(C) Increasing the prices of food items to compensate farmers for their losses.

(1) A only (2) A and B only (3) B only (4) B and C only (5) None of these

Q. (10 12): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in

the passage.

Q. 10. consensus

(1) deviant (2) disagreement (3) dejection (4) denial (5) dissuasion

Q. 11. elevated

(1) raised (2) stabilised (3) inclined (4) fallen (5) slanted

Q. 12. volatility

(1) agitation (2) effervescence (3) optimism (4) disparity (5) inactivity

Q. (13 15): Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word

given in bold as used in the passage.

Q. 13. incentive

(1) acceleration (2) surplus (3) baiting (4) inspiration (5) encouragement

Q. 14. advanced


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(1) put forward (2) set aside (3) taken over (4) marched forward (5) escalated further

Q. 15. turbulence

(1) tranquility (2) certainty (3) turmoil (4) restless (5) lackluster

Q. (16 25): In each question there is a statement followed by three starters which are denoted by (A),

(B) and (C). Each starter is a group of first few words of the sentence which, on proper completion, is

supposed to convey the same meaning of the original statement. Find out which one or more starters

can form grammatically correct sentence(s) to convey the SAME meaning of the original statement.

Q. 16. Even if you dislike him you must not be rude to him.

(A) You must be polite .......

(B) Although you must not be rude

(C) Since you dont like.......

(1) Any one of the three (2) A only (3) B only (4) C only (5) None of these

Q. 17. No sooner did he offer the bouquet to the guest than he left the dais.

(A) Hardly had he left the ....... (B) As soon as he left ..... (C) He left the dais immediately.....

(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Either A or B (4) Only C (5) Either B or C

Q. 18. That social worker is the most respected person in our district.

(A) All other persons .......

(B) Most other social workers .......

(C) All the social workers in our.......

(1) None of the three (2) Either A or B (3) Either A or C (4) Either B or C (5) Only A

Q. 19. They lost to their opponents although they played most valiantly.

(A) Their opponents .......


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(B) Despite the opponents.....

(C) The opponents played valiantly.......

(1) Any one of the three (2) Only A (3) Only B (4) Only C (5) None of these

Q. 20. It was too dark for us to be able to see anything.

(A) We could not see .......

(B) Since we could not see .......

(C) For us, it was so dark to .......

(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Either A or B (5) Either A or C

Q. 21. So terrible was the earthquake that all the skyscrapers in the locality were completely ruined.

(A) Owing to the intensity.......

(B) None of the skyscrapers in the .......

(C) The intensity of earthquake was so high that.......

(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) All the three (4) Either A or B (5) Only C

Q. 22. You must act as per my instructions only.

(A) Only you act....... (B) My instructions ....... (C) You must do......

(1) Any one of the three (2) Either A or B (3) Either B or C (4) Either A or C (5) None of these

Q. 23. If you are diligent, you can master any skill in a short time span.

(A) Unless you master....... (B) If you can be mastering .. (C) Inspire of being diligent

(1) None of the three (2) Either A or B (3) Either B or C (4) Either A or C (5) Any one of the three

Q. 24. However, often I tried my best, I could not succeed in my end devour.


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(A) Despite ....... (B) In spite of...... (C) Though I could not succeed.............

(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Either A or B (5) None of these

Q. 25. Do whatever you think appropriate.

(A) Dont do....... (B) Do you think....... (C) You dont think....

(1) Any one of the three (2) Only C (3) Either B or C (4) Only B (5) None of these

Q.26-30.Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to

form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Nobody likes to practice it, no matter how easy and how beneficial it is.

(B) An ounce of patience is worth, or at times even better than a pound of brains.

(C) Patience, a virtue, is considered to be even better than wisdom.

(D) This is the biggest drawback in us, in our national character.

(E) Every one of us agrees with this fact in principle, without reservation.

(F) But, unfortunately, when it comes to practicing patience, there is a problem.

Q. 26. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) statement after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Q. 27. Which of the following should be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Q. 28. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Q. 29. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E


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Q. 30. Which of the following should be the THIRD statement after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Answers

Q. 1. Ans - (2)

Q. 2. Ans - (1)

Q. 3. Ans - (1)

Q. 4. Ans - (4)

Q. 5. Ans - (4)

Q. 6. Ans - (1)

Q. 7. Ans - (4)

Q. 8. Ans - (3)

Q. 9. Ans - (3)

Q. 10. Ans - (2)

Consensus means an agreement to something or an opinion that all members of a group agree with so

its antonym should be disagreement.

For other options:

deviantdifferent from what most people consider to be normal & acceptable

(Deviant is an adjective, consensus is a noun)

dejectiona feeling of unhappiness & disappointment.

deniala statement that says something is not true or does not exist.

dissuasionpersuade some body not to do something.

Q. 11. Ans - (4) elevated means raised or increased so the antonym is fallen.

For other options:


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raisedincreased (synonym of elevated).

stabilisedto have become or made something firm, steady and unlikely to change.

Inclinedwanting to do something.

slantedsloping in one direction.

Q. 12. Ans - (5) Volatility means likely to change suddenly.

Its antonym is inactivity that means having no effect.

For other options:

Agitationto argue strongly for something you want especially for changes in a law, in social conditions.

effervescence is the synonym of volatility.

optimisma feeling that good things will happen & that something will be successful.

disparitya difference, especially one connected with unfair treatment.

Q. 13. Ans - (5) incentive means something that encourages you to do something so the synonym is

encouragement

For other options:

accelerationan increase in how fast something happens.

surplusan amount that is extra or more than you need.

baitingdeliberately try to make somebody angry by making cruel or insulting remarks.

inspirationsomething that makes you want to be better, more successful.

eg. Her charity work is an inspiration to us.

Q. 14. Ans - (1) Advanced here means to put an idea, a The or a plan for other people to discuss so its

synonym is put forward.

For other options:

set aside a system in which the government pays farmers not to use some of their land for growing

crops.

taken overan act of taking control of something (a company, or a business)

marched forwardan act of marching or a journey made by marching.

escalated furthermade something greater, worse or more serious.


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Q. 15. Ans (3) turbulence means a situation in which there is a lot of sudden change, confusion,

disagreement and sometimes violence.

turmoil means a state of great anxiety, confusion & uncertainty.

For other options:

tranquilitya quite and peaceful state (antonym of turbulence)

certaintya thing that is certain or the state of being certain.

restless unable to stay still or be happy where you are because you are bored or need a change.

lacklusternot interesting or exciting; dull.

Q. 16. Ans - (2) you must be polite to him even if you dislike him

The above statement is similar to the question.

Q. 17. Ans - (4) He left the dais immediately after offering the bouquet to the guest.

Q. 18. Ans - (1) None of these (No other person is respected greater than this person)

Q. 19. Ans - (2) Their opponents won although they played most valiantly.

Q. 20.(1)We could not see as it was very dark. It was too dark for us to be able to see anything means It

was so dark that we could not see anything.

('So' should be followed by 'that')

Q. 21. Ans - (5) The intensity of the earthquake was so high that all the skyscrapers in the locality were

completely ruined.

Q. 22. Ans - (3) My instructions must be followed by you.

or

You must do what I say / instruct

Q. 23. Ans - (1) None of these(being diligent can only result in becoming master of any skill )

Q. 24. Ans - (4) Despite trying best, I could not succeed in my end devour.

Inspire of trying best, I could not succeed in my end eavour.

Note : (Inspite of is equivalent to despite)

Q. 25. Ans - (5)

Q. 26. Ans - (4)


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Q. 27. Ans - (1)

Q. 28. Ans - (2)

Q. 29. Ans - (3)

Q. 30. Ans - (5)

Part - 2 Reasoning

Q. 1. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having different weight, R is heavier than only P. S is lighter than Q

and heavier than T. Who among them is the heaviest?

(1) Q (2) P (3) S (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Q. 2. What should come next in the following number series?

8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 6 5 4 3 2 1

(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 5 (5) None of these

Q. 3. In a certain code language, 'come now' is written as 'ha na'; 'now and then' is written as 'pa da na'

and 'go then' is written as 'sa pa'. How is 'and' written in that code language?

(1) sa (2) pa (3) na (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. 4. Each consonant in the word DISTEMPER is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and

each vowel in the word is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following

will be the fourth letter from the right end after the replacement?

(1) T (2) M (3) S (4) P (5) None of these

Q. 5. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters NDOE using each letter only

once in each word?


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(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

Q. 6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does

not belong to that group?

(1) BD (2) NQ (3) RP (4) MK (5) FH

Q. 7. In a certain code GEAR is written as '5934' and RIPE is written as '4869'. How is PAGE written in

that code?

(1) 6359 (2) 6539 (3) 4359 (4) 6459 (5) None of these

Q. 8. How many such digits are there in the number 64382179 each of which is as far away from the

beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?


Q. 9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does

not belong to that group?

(1) 39 (2) 91 (3) 78 (4) 52 (5) 45

Q. 10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORDINAL each of which has as many letters

between them in the word as in the English alphabet?


Q. (11 12): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

(i) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.

(ii) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.

(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.

(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.


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Q. 11. Which of the following means 'D is maternal uncle of K'?

(1) D N - K (2) D N + K (3) D X N K (4) D X N + K (5) None of these

Q. 12. Which of the following means 'M is nephew of R'?

(1) MX T+ R (2) RJ + MX T (3) R J + M (4) R X J + M (5) None of these

Q. (13 15): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below :

519 378 436 624 893

Q. 13. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the

following will be the second smallest number?

(1) 519 (2) 378 (3) 436 (4) 624 (5) 893

Q. 14. If '1' is subtracted from the first digit in each number and '1' is added to the second digit in each

number, which of the following will be the third digit of the second highest number?

(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4 (5) 3

Q. 15. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of

the following will be the highest number?

(1) 519 (2) 378 (3) 436 (4) 624 (5) 893

Q. (16 20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

M, D, P, K, R, T andW are sitting around a circle facing at the center. D is second to the right of P who is

third to the right of K. T is third to the right of W who is not an immediate neighbour of D. M is third to

the left of R.

Q. 16. Who is third to the left of D?

(1) W (2) P (3) K (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these


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Q. 17. Who is to the immediate left of M?

(1) K (2) W (3) D (4) T (5) None of these

Q. 18. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate right of the first

person?

(1) DT (2) TP (3) PR (4) KW (5) None of these

Q. 19. Who is second to the right of T?

(1) D (2) K (3) M (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Q. 20. Who is to the immediate left of R?

(1) W (2) P (3) K (4) T (5) None of these

Q. (21 27): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions

numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance

from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions

logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q. 21. Statements: Some books are papers.

Some papers are desks.

Some desks are chairs.

Conclusions: I. Some books are desks. II. Some papers are chairs. III. Some books are chairs.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) Only I and II follow

Q. 22. Statements: All pins are rods.

Some rods are chains.

All chains are hammers.

Conclusions : I. Some pins are hammers. II. Some hammers are rods. III. No pin is hammer.


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(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows

(3) Only III follows

(4) Only either I or III and II follow

(5) None of these

Q. 23. Statements: Some buses are trucks.

Some trucks are boats.

No boat is jeep.

Conclusions: I. Some jeeps are buses. II. Some boats are buses. III. Some jeeps are trucks.

(1) None follows (2) Only III follows (3) Only I follows (4) Only II follows (5) Only II and III follow

Q. 24. Statements: All tables are sofas.

All sofas are beds.

All beds are mats.

Conclusions: I. Some mats are sofas. II. Some beds are tables. III. Some mats are tables.

(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only II follows (3) Only II and III follow (4) Only I and III follow (5) All

follow

(2)

Q. 25. Statements: Some pots are buckets.

All buckets are tubs.

All tubs are drums.

Conclusions: I. Some drums are pots. II. All tubs are buckets. III. Some drums are buckets.

(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I and III follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) All follow (5) None of these

Q. 26. Statements: All pins are bags.


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All chalks are bags.

All needles are bags.

Conclusions : I. Some needles are pins. II. Some chalks are needles. III. No needle is pin.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only III follows

(3) Only either I or III follows

(4) Only either I or III and II follow

(5) None of these

Q. 27. Statements: All flowers are trees.

All trees are jungles.

No jungle is hill.

Conclusions: I. No flower is hill. II. No tree is hill. III. Some jungles are flowers.

(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow

(3) Only I and III follow (4) Only II and III follow

(5) All follow

Q. (28 30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

R%E5D2#9AFB@J3IKM41WU8VN*GZ5 67

Q. 28. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately

followed by a consonant and immediately preceded by a number?


Q. 29. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above

arrangement?

(1) B (2) U (3) W (4) N (5) None of these


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Q. 30. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the fourteenth from the right end?

(1) B (2) # (3) N (4) U (5) None of these

Answers

Q. 1. (1) Q > S > T > R > P

So, its clear that Q is heaviest among all.

Q. 2. (4) 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 6 5 4 3 2 1 5

Now it will starts with 5.

Q. 3. (5) In a certain code:

So, code for and is - da

Q. 4. Word:

D I S T E M P

E R

E I T U E N Q

E S

Fourth Right is N

Q. 5. (3) Word:

N D O E

(1) DONE, NODE

Q. 6. (2)

Q. 7. (1) In a certain code:


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In a same code:

P A G E 6 3 5 9

Q. 8. (3) 6 4 3 8 2 1 7 9

Arranging in 1 2 3 4 6 7 8 9

Ascending order

These are two such numbers

Q. 9. (5) 39,91, 78, and 52 is dividable by 13 but 45 is not.

Q. 10. (4) Word

So, there the three letters of pairs are made.

DA, IL, NL

Q. 11. (3) (i)

D N K

So, D is maternal aunt of K.

(ii) D N K

So, D is paternal aunt of k.

(iii) D N K

So, D is maternal uncle of K.

(iv) D N K

So, D is paternal uncle of K.

Q. 12. (2) (i) M T R

M is uncle of R

(ii) R J M-T


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M is nephew of R.

(iii) R J M

Ms sex is not clear.

(iv) R J M

Sex of M is not clear.

Q. 13. (4) After interchange the position

915 873 634 426 398

So, 624 will be second smallest number.

Q. 14. (4) After subtracting 1 from the first digit in each number and 1 added to second digit.

429 288 346 534 803

2nd highest

highest number

third digit of second highest number = 4

Q. 15. (5) After interchanging the position of first and second digit.

159 738 346 264 983

highest number

Q. (16 - 20):

Q. 16. (5)

Q. 17. (3)

Q. 18. (4)

Q. 19. (3)

Q. 20. (1)


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Q. (21 27):

Q. 21. (1)

Q. 22. (4)

Q. 23. (1)

Q. 24. (5)

Q. 25. (2)

Q. 26. (3)

Q. 27. (5)


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Q. 28. (1) There is no such symbol

Q. 29. (1) L16 L5 = L11 = B

Q. 30. (3) R14 R7 = R7 = N

Part 3 Quantitative Aptitude

Q. (1 5): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following

questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

Q. 1. (54. 78)2 = ?

(1) 3000 (2) 3300 (3) 3500 (4) 3700 (5) 3900

Q. 2. (7171 + 3854 + 1195) (892 + 214 + 543) = ?

(1) 13 (2) 18 (3) 3 (4) 26 (5) 7

Q. 3. (562% of 8 16) + 1449 = ?

(1) 4145 (2) 5675 (3) 6035 (4) 7325 (5) 8885

Q. 4. = ?

(1) 240 (2) 270 (3) 330 (4) 290 (5) 310

Q. 5. 63251 x 82 = ? x 42105

(1) 101 (2) 123 (3) 147 (4) 165 (5) 189


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Q. (6 10): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

Q. 6. 16 24 48 120 360 1260 ?

(1) 3780 (2) 4725 (3) 5355 (4) 5040 (5) 4410

Q. 7. 499 622 868 1237 1729 2344 ?

(1) 3205 (2) 3082 (3) 2959 (4) 3462 (5) 2876

Q. 8. 8 31 122 485 1936 7739 ?

(1) 30950 (2) 46430 (3) 934650 (4) 42850 (5) 38540

Q. 9. 529 841 961 1369 1681 1849 ?

(1) 2809 (2) 2601 (3) 3249 (4) 3481 (5) 2209

Q. 10. 20 24 33 49 74 110 ?

(1) 133 (2) 147 (3) 159 (4) 163 (5) 171

Q. (11 15): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q. 11. 811.81 + 88.11 + 0.88 + 1.88 + 8 =?

(1) 910.68 (2) 912.56 (3) 904.88 (4) 902.67 (5) None of these

Q. 12. 22440 = 34 12

(1) 55 (2) 3136 (3) 65 (4) 3025 (5) None of these

Q. 13. 3402 ? =

(1) 162 (2) 21 (3) 441 (4) 42 (5) None of these


`

Q. 14. 8451 + 793 + 620 - ? = 6065 + 713

(1) 4912 (2) 4712 (3) 4312 (4) 4512 (5) None of these

Q. 15. 81 + 20 x 0.75 - 9 =?

(1) 97 (2) 107 (3) 87 (4) 77 (5) None of these

Q. 16. In a class of 35 students and 6 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20% of the total

number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 40% of the total number of students. How

many sweets were there?

(1) 245 (2) 161 (3) 406 (4) 84 (5) None of these

Q. 17. One-third of a number is 96. What will 67% of that number be?

(1) 192.96 (2) 181.44 (3) 169.92 (4) 204.48 (5) None of these

Q. 18. Tanvi started a business investing Rs. 45,000/-. After 8 months Anisha joined her with a capital of

Rs.52,000/-. At the end of the year the total profit was Rs.56,165/-.What is the share of profits of

Anisha?

(1) Rs.21,450/- (2) Rs.24,440/- (3) Rs.27,635/- (4) Rs.31,765/- (5) None of these

Q. 19. The ages of Sonal and Nitya are in the ratio of 9:5 respectively. After 8 years the ratio of their ages

will be 13 : 9. What is the difference in years between their ages?

(1) 4 years (2) 12 years (3) 6 years (4) 14 years (5) None of these

Q. 20. 30 men can do a piece of work in 16 days. How many men would be required to do the same

work in 20 days?

(1) 12 (2) 36 (3) 48 (4) 24 (5) None of these


`

Q. 21. The product of two successive numbers is 4032.Which is the greater of the two numbers?

(1) 63 (2) 64 (3) 65 (4) 66 (5) None of these

Q. 22. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.1,516/- is the same as loss incurred after selling the

article for Rs.1,112/-. What is the cost price of the article?

(1) Rs. 1,314/- (2) Rs.1,343/- (3) Rs. 1,414/- (4) Rs. 1,434/- (5) None of these

Q. 23. By how much is 1/4th of 428 smaller than 5/6th of 216?

(1) 61 (2) 67 (3) 73 (4) 79 (5) None of these

Q. 24. The compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 22,000/- at the end of two years is

Rs.5,596.8. What would be the simple interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the

same period?

(1) Rs.5,420/- (2) Rs.5,360/- (3) Rs.5,280/- (4) Rs.5,140/- (5) None of these

Q. 25. Prithvi spent Rs.89,745/- on his college fees, Rs.51,291/- on Personality Development Classes and

the remaining 27% of the total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount?

(1) Rs.1,85,400/- (2) Rs.1,89,600/- (3) Rs.1,91,800/- (4) Rs.1,93,200/- (5) None of these

Q. (26 30): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether

the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and

your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Give answer (1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone

is not sufficient.

Give answer (2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone

is not sufficient.

Give answer (3) if both statements A and B together are needed to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if either the statement A alone or statement B alone is sufficient to answer the

question.


`

Give answer (5) if you cannot get the answer from the statement A and B together, but need even more

data.

Q. 26. Is X an even number?

A. X is divisible by 2

B. X + an odd number is an odd number.

Q. 27. The ages of Tanish and Shivay are in the ratio of 6 : 5. What is the age of Shivay?

A. The ages of Tanish and Danish are in the ratio of 3 : 2.

B. After 6 years the ratio of Danish's and Shivas ages will be 7 : 6.

Q. 28. In how many days 15 men can complete a piece of work?

A. If 16 children can complete the same piece of work in 48 days.

B. If 9 men can complete the same piece of work in 27 days.

Q. 29. What is the salary of C, in a group of A, B, C, D, E and F whose average salary is Rs. 60,600/- ?

A. Total of the salary of A and E is Rs. 64,500/-.

B. Total of the salary of B and F is Rs. 52,600/-.

Q. 30. What is the three digit number?

A. One-third of that number is less by 27 of the half of that number.

B. One-fifth of that number is 20% of that number.

Answers


`

Q. 1. (1) We can suppose 54.78 to 55 because we need not to calculate exact value so the square of

(55)2 is = 3025 it is the nearest to 3000 to answer will be 3000 (approx)

Q. 2. (5) (7171+3854+ 1195) (892+214+543) = ?

12220 1649 = ?

= 7.410 = 7 (approx)

Q. 3. (3) (562% of 816) + 1449 = ?

= 4585.92 + 1449 = ?

= 6034.92 = 6035 (approx)

Q. 4. (4) = 290 (approx)

Q. 5. (2) 63251 82 = ? 42105

= ?

= 123 (approx)

Q. 6. (4) 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5, 4...........

So no. will be 5040

Q. 7. (2) +1231, +1232, +1233,...........

So no. will be 3082

Q. 8. (1) 4-1, 4-2, 4-3, 4-4, 4-5..............

So no. will be 30950

Q. 9. (5) (23)2, (29)2, (31)2,(37)2, (41)2, (47)2

So, no. will be 2209

Q. 10. (3) +22, +32, +42, +52, +62...........

So, no. will be 159

Q. 11. (1) 811.81 + 88.11 + 0.88 + 1.88 + 8 = ?

= 910.68

Q. 12. (4) 22440 = 34 12


`

=

= 55

= 3025

Q. 13. (2) 3402 ? =

3402 ? = 162

? =

= 21

Q. 14. (5) 8451 + 793 + 620 - ?

= 6065 + 713

9864 - 6778 = ?

= 3086

Q. 15. (3) 81 + 20 0.75 - 9 = ?

81+15-9 = ?

= 87

Q. 16. (5) No. of Students = 37

No. of Teachers = 6

According to questions

No. of Sweets =

35 (35 20%) + 6 (35 40%)

= 35 7 + 6 14

= 245 + 84 = 329

Q. 17. (1) Suppose number is x

1/3 of number is 96

=

X = 288

67% of 288 =

= 192.96


`

Q. 18. (5) Total investment by Tanvi Himanshu the year

4500012 = 540000

Total investment ofAnisha for 4 years

52000 4 = 208000

Ratio of their investment

540000 : 208000

540 : 208

135 : 52

Profit made by Anisha =

= Rs. 15618.07

Q. 19. (5)

Let Age of Sonal = 9x

Age of Nitya = 5x

According to question

=

= 81x + 72 = 65x + 104

= 16x = 32

x = 2

Required diff = 9x - 5x

= 4x = 4 2 = 8 years

Q. 20. (4) M1d1 = M2d2

30 16 = M2 20

M2 =

= 24

Q. 21. (1) Suppose two consecutive number is x and

x +1


`

x2 + x = 4032

x2 + x - 4032 = 0

x2 + 64x - 4032 = 0

x (x + 64) - 63(x + 64) = 0

x = 63

So, greater number will be x + 1

i.e. 63+1

= 64

Q. 22. (1) cost price =

= 1314

Q. 23. (3) 428

= 107 and 216

= 180

180 107 = 73

Is 73 less.

Q. 24. (3) If rate of interest = R% year

Then 5596.8 = 22000

=

1

=

= 1

= -1

=

+ 1 =

= (1.12)2 = 1 +

R = 0.12 100 = 12%

S I =

= Rs. 5280

Q. 25. (4) Let the total amount = x

According to question,

x (100 - 27)% = 89745 + 51291

x 73% = 141036


`

x =

100 = 193200

Q. 26. (4) (i) Even is number is always divisible by 2

(ii) Even number + an odd number always results in an odd number.

Q. 27. (4)We can not answer the question even with both the statements.

Q. 28. (2) From statement I

9 27 = 15 x

X =

So, only statement II is sufficient answer.

Q. 29. (4) Because the salary of D is not known so we can not fin dout the salary of C.

Q. 30. (1) Suppose number is x.

Then x

=

27

= - 27

= - 27

X = 27 6

X = 162

Only statement I is necessary to answer.

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