25
SET - A Page 1 of 25 RGUCET 2018 Entrance Test for Master of Arts in Social Work (MSW) Roll No. 18CET/MASW_____________ Form No Name (Block Letters) Signature of Candidate Signature of Invigilator Instructions: 1. Total Duration of the test is 2 hours (10 am to 12 pm). There are 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) in this booklet covering questions on Language Ability, Reasoning, General Awareness, Mathematical Aptitude/Data Interpretation and Analytical Skills. 2. All the questions are mandatory and carry equal marks. There is one (1) mark for every correct answer. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every wrong answer. 3. Mark the Answer Code correctly with a blue or black ball point pen in the space provided in the question booklet itself. No Separate Answer Script will be provided. Separate space has been provided towards the end of question booklet for any rough or calculative exercise. 4. Change of response by scratching or using white fluid is prohibited. Such candidate is liable to be kept under the category use of “Unfair Means”. 5. On completion of the entrance test, leave the hall after handing over the question booklet to the Invigilator. 6. Use of Mobile Phones, Calculators, Bluetooth Devices and Electronic Gadgets are strictly prohibited. 7. There are 26 pages in this question booklet, check all pages immediately after receipt. 8. Discrepancy, if any, should be brought to the notice of invigilator(s) within 05 minutes after receipt of this booklet. ------------------------------For Office Use Only----------------------------- Correct Marks: Examiner‟s Signature Negative Marks: Total Score:

SET - A...SET - A Page 1 of 25 RGUCET 2018 Entrance Test for Master of Arts in Social Work (MSW) Roll No. 18CET/MASW_____ Form No Name (Block Letters) Signature of Candidate Signature

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SET - A

Page 1 of 25

RGUCET 2018

Entrance Test for Master of Arts in Social Work (MSW)

Roll No.

18CET/MASW_____________

Form No

Name (Block Letters)

Signature of

Candidate

Signature of

Invigilator

Instructions:

1. Total Duration of the test is 2 hours (10 am to 12 pm). There are 100 Multiple Choice

Questions (MCQs) in this booklet covering questions on Language Ability, Reasoning,

General Awareness, Mathematical Aptitude/Data Interpretation and Analytical Skills.

2. All the questions are mandatory and carry equal marks. There is one (1) mark for every

correct answer. 0.25 marks will be deducted for every wrong answer.

3. Mark the Answer Code correctly with a blue or black ball point pen in the space provided in

the question booklet itself. No Separate Answer Script will be provided. Separate space has

been provided towards the end of question booklet for any rough or calculative exercise.

4. Change of response by scratching or using white fluid is prohibited. Such candidate is liable

to be kept under the category use of “Unfair Means”.

5. On completion of the entrance test, leave the hall after handing over the question booklet to

the Invigilator.

6. Use of Mobile Phones, Calculators, Bluetooth Devices and Electronic Gadgets are strictly

prohibited.

7. There are 26 pages in this question booklet, check all pages immediately after receipt.

8. Discrepancy, if any, should be brought to the notice of invigilator(s) within 05 minutes after

receipt of this booklet.

------------------------------For Office Use Only-----------------------------

Correct Marks: Examiner‟s Signature

Negative Marks:

Total Score:

SET - A

Page 2 of 25

1. Which State has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribes in Total Population?

(A) Mizoram

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Jharkhand

Answer:

2. Which of the following scheme is related to adolescent girls?

(A) Ujjwala

(B) Sabla

(C) Naari Shakti

(D) All the above

Answer:

3. Women‟s Hockey World Cup, 2018 is being organized in:

(A) Moscow

(B) London

(C) Beijing

(D) France

Answer:

4. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality

between males and females in a society at a given time?

(A) Age composition

(B) Sex ratio

(C) Literacy Rate

(D) Death Rate

Answer:

5. The magnitude of population growth refers to:

(A) The total population of an area

(B) The number of persons added each year

(C) The rate at which the population increases

(D) The number of females per thousand males

Answer:

6. Which of the following is an example of „Social Justice‟?

(A) Reverse Discrimination

(B) Scholarship for poor students

(C) Both of the Above

(D) None of the Above

Answer:

SET - A

Page 3 of 25

7. What has been the name of all women crew which circumnavigated the globe?

(A) INSV Tarini

(B) INS Vikrant

(C) INS Viraat

(D) INS Vikramaditya

Answer:

8. Who conducts the periodical sample survey for estimating the poverty line in India?

(A) National Survery Organisation

(B) National Sample Survey Organisation

(C) Sample Survey Organisation

(D) None of the above.

Answer:

9. „Whistle Blower‟ relates to:

(A) RTI Act

(B) Consumer Protection Act

(C) Both

(D) None of the Above

Answer:

10. Who is the author of the book „Development as Freedom‟?

(A) Pranab Mukharjee

(B) Amartya Sen

(C) Shashi Tharoor

(D) Karl Marx

Answer:

11. Consider the following components of the PURA model of economic development:

1. Facilitate road connectivity in villages

2. Enhancement of electricity in rural areas

3. Establishment of cyber café in villages

4. Construction of hospital in rural areas

Which of the components given above is/are the major connectivity formulated by the

PURA model?

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:

SET - A

Page 4 of 25

12. „Good Governance Day‟ in India is celebrated on:

(A) 25 December

(B) 09 November

(C) 26 January

(D) 02 October

Answer:

13. Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) relates to:

(A) Socio-Cultural Rights

(B) Economic Rights

(C) Solidarity Rights

(D) All the Above

Answer:

14. Agnostics are the people:

(A) Who believe in God

(B) Who do not believe in God

(C) Both

(D) None of the above

Answer:

15. Watershed Project is aimed at:

(A) Recharge of Ground Water

(B) Water Harvesting

(C) Flood Control

(D) All the Above

Answer:

16. When is “World Elder Abuse Awareness Day” observed?

(A) June 15

(B) March 16

(C) February 19

(D) May 26

Answer:

17. Recently in which state the Saubhagya scheme was launched as part of achieving universal

household electrification in the country?

(A) Assam

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Nagaland

(D) Manipur

Answer:

SET - A

Page 5 of 25

18. One of the critical mechanism by which the environment controls population of species is:

(A) Spread of disease

(B) Removal of excreta

(C) Check on death rate

(D) Supply of food

Answer:

19. Global Warming could affect:

(A) Climate

(B) Food production

(C) Melting of glaciers

(D) All of the above

Answer:

20. Which of the following was the first country to introduce Goods & Services Tax?

(A) India

(B) Germany

(C) France

(D) USA

Answer:

21. India‟s “Look East” Policy represents its efforts to cultivate extensive economic and

strategic relations with which of the following?

(A) China & Japan

(B) Nations of Southeast Asia

(C) Nations of Asia Pacific Region

(D) Africa Region

Answer:

22. Article 45 under the Directive Principles of State policy in the Indian Constitution, provides

for:

(A) Rights of minorities to establish educational institutions

(B) Free and compulsory primary education

(C) Education for weaker sections of the country

(D) Giving financial assistance to less advanced states

Answer:

23. Ujjwala Scheme relates to:

(A) Electricity Connection

(B) Employment Generation

(C) LPG Connection

(D) Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao

Answer:

SET - A

Page 6 of 25

24. What is the current figure (2018) of states and union territories respectively in India?

(A) 28, 07

(B) 30, 05

(C) 29, 06

(D) 29, 07

Answer:

25. The theme of World Environment Day, 2018 has been:

(A) Solid Waste Management

(B) Beat Plastic Pollution

(C) Dust and Air Pollution

(D) Green Economy

Answer:

26. The teenage young athlete who has claimed gold in the 400m race at the IAAF World U-20

meet in Finland:

(A) Leema Das

(B) Jyoti Boruah

(C) Hima Das

(D) Gita Gogoi

Answer:

27. Section 498A of IPC relates to:

(A) Child Marriage

(B) Child Labour

(C) Domestic Violence

(D) Fraud and Corruption

Answer:

28. Which of the following is not considered as a social indicator of poverty?

(A) Less number of means of transport

(B) Illiteracy level

(C) Lack of access to health care

(D) Lack of job opportunities

Answer:

SET - A

Page 7 of 25

29. The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) aims to enhance the production of:

1. Rice

2. Wheat

3. Fruits

4. Vegetables

5. Pulses

6. Coarse Cereals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below -

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(B) 1 ,2 and 5 only

(C) 1, 2 ,3 and 5 only

(D) 1 ,2, 5 and 6 only

Answer:

30. Bringing Green Revolution to Eastern India is a sub scheme of:

(A) National Mission on Agriculture Extension and Technology

(B) National Mission for sustainable agriculture

(C) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

(D) It is not a sub scheme

Answer:

31. Which programme was launched to prevent child trafficking and rescue children from

persons who try to engage them in begging, sexual trade and other anti-social activities?

(A) Kilkaari

(B) Muskaan

(C) Rahat

(D) Khushi

Answer:

32. India has been described under Article 1 of the Constitution as a:

(A) Group of States

(B) Federation of States

(C) Cluster of States

(D) Union of States

Answer:

SET - A

Page 8 of 25

33. The order of following words as seen in Preamble of Indian constitution is:

1. DEMOCRATIC

2. SOCIALIST

3. SOVEREIGN

4. SECULAR

5. REPUBLIC

(A) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

(C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

(D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

Answer:

34. Indian Constitution ensures 'Justice' in which of the following?

(A) Social

(B) Economic

(C) Political

(D) All of the above

Answer:

35. Kalamkari painting refers to:

(A) A hand-painted cotton textile in South India

(B) A handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India

(C) A block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India

(D) A hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India

Answer:

36. Which of the following are statutory bodies?

(a) Election Commission of India

(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)

(c) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a), (b), and (c)

(B) (b), (c), and (d)

(C) (b) and (c)

(D) (b) and (d)

Answer:

37. The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India is due to:

(A) Industrial Waste

(B) Thermal Power Plants

(C) Natural Sources

(D) Agricultural Practices

Answer:

SET - A

Page 9 of 25

38. Assertion (A): The problems of environmental sustainability are difficult to resolve.

Reason (R): Our understanding how environment works and how different human choices

affect environment is inadequate.

Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) (A) is true and (R) is false

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer:

39. Skills Acquisition and Knowledge _______ for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) is

aimed at providing market relevant training to youths across the country. What is “A” in

SANKALP?

(A) Accessibility

(B) Awareness

(C) Accumulation

(D) None

Answer:

40. MH- 370, the unfortunate aeroplane which disappeared with 227 passengers on board was

flying from………………..to……………

(A) Kuala Lumpur to NewYork

(B) Singpore to Beijing

(C) Kuala Lumpur to Beijing

(D) Beijing to Singpore

Answer:

41. How many National Teams have won the FIFA World Cup ever since its inception in 1930?

(A) 21

(B) 32

(C) 08

(D) 06

Answer:

42. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right in India?

(A) Right to Equality

(B) Right to Constitutional Remedies

(C) Right to Work

(D) Right to Education

Answer:

SET - A

Page 10 of 25

43. Consider the following statements about Arunachal Pradesh:

1. The population density in the state has increased from 13 persons per sq km in 2001 to

17 in 2011.

2. 77% of the population in the state resides in rural areas.

3. The sex ratio has decreased from 938 women per thousand men to 893.

Which of the statements are correct about the state as per Census 2011? Choose the correct

options:

(A) All the three statements are correct

(B) Only 1 and 2

(C) Only 2 and 3

(D) Only 1 and 3

Answer:

44. Article ______ of Indian constitution prohibits child labour.

(A) 22

(B) 23

(C) 24

(D) 25

Answer:

45. The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act was passed in:

(A) 1997

(B) 2007

(C) 2013

(D) 2016

Answer:

46. Which line separates Arunachal Pradesh from Tibet?

(A) Curzon Line

(B) Durand Line

(C) McMahon Line

(D) Maginot Line

Answer:

SET - A

Page 11 of 25

47. Which of the following is not an example of an NGO?

1. Trust

2. Non-Profit Company (Pvt.)

3. A Central University

4. Society registered under Societies Registration Act, 1860

Choose the correct answer:

(A) 1 and 3

(B) Only 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) None

Answer:

Q. Read the following passage carefully and answer the Question No(s). 48 to 52 that follow:

Risk and protective factors play a critical role in suicide prevention. Risk factors are

characteristics that make it more likely that individuals will consider, attempt, or die by suicide.

Major risk factors include prior suicide attempt(s), mood disorders, substance abuse, and access

to lethal means. Protective factors are characteristics that make it less likely that individuals will

consider, attempt, or die by suicide. Major protective factors include effective mental health

care, connectedness, problem-solving skills, and contacts with caregivers. Risk and protective

factors are found at various levels: individual (e.g., genetic predispositions, mental disorders,

personality traits), family (e.g., cohesion, dysfunction), and community (e.g., availability of

mental health services).

Risk factors are often confused with warning signs of suicide. The two are very different.

Warning signs indicate an immediate risk of suicide, whereas risk factors indicate someone is at

heightened risk for suicide, but indicates little or nothing about immediate risk. Warning signs

are only applicable to individuals, whereas risk and protective factors are found in individuals

and communities.

48. Which of the following is not a warning sign as per the passage?

(A) Threatening suicide

(B) Seeking means for suicide

(C) Individual with substance abuse

(D) Dramatic mood changes

Answer:

49. Who is more prone to suicide?

(A) A risk factor target group with low connectedness to family and friends

(B) Family history of suicide but no prior attempt

(C) An individual with substance abuse

(D) An individual poor in coping ability

Answer:

SET - A

Page 12 of 25

50. Why are risk and protective factors important?

(A) Decreasing risk factors generally decrease risk, and increasing protective factors

generally decrease risk

(B) Decreasing risk factors generally decreases risk, and increasing protective factors

generally increases risk

(C) Restricting access to prescription medications (risk factor) and increasing teen

problem-solving skills (protective factor) may prove effective in reducing suicide

attempts.

(D) None of the above

Answer:

51. Identify the risk factor target groups:

(A) Gay and lesbian rejected by their families

(B) An individual with history of suicidal attempt

(C) Individual with substance abuse treatment

(D) All the Above

Answer:

52. The paragraph above highlights on:

(A) Suicidal attempt can be reduced with increase in connectedness among family

members and caregivers.

(B) A person with genetic predispositions and personality traits like impulsivity is prone

to suicidal attempt.

(C) Warning signs need immediate assistance than risk factors.

(D) All the Above

Answer:

53. Active Listening means:

(A) Staring directly in the eye to show your interest.

(B) Wait for the speaker to pause to ask clarifying questions

(C) Both A and B

(D) None

Answer:

54. …………… is the ability to think clearly and rationally about what to do or what to believe.

(A) Rational Thinking

(B) Critical Thinking

(C) Analytical Thinking

(D) Emotional Intelligence

Answer:

SET - A

Page 13 of 25

55. Choose the best quadrant of Time Management:

(A) When it is both Urgent & Important

(B) It is Important but not Urgent

(C) It is Urgent but not Important

(D) Neither Important nor Urgent

Answer:

56. BRICS summit is held in:

(A) South Africa

(B) Brazil

(C) China

(D) Russia

Answer:

Q. Study the following table and answer the Question No(s). 57 to 59 accordingly:

Expenditures of a company per annum over the given years:

57. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this

period?

(A) 32.43

(B) 33.72

(C) 34.18

(D) 36.66

Answer:

58. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately

what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?

(A) 0.1%

(B) 0.5%

(C) 1.0%

(D) 1.25%

Answer:

SET - A

Page 14 of 25

59. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure

on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately:

(A) 4:7

(B) 10:13

(C) 15:18

(D) 5:8

Answer:

Q. The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states, P, Q, R, S

and T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex. Answer Question No(s). 60 to 62

accordingly:

60. If the male population above poverty line for State R is 1.9 million, then the total population

of State R is:

(A) 4.5 million

(B) 4.85 million

(C) 5.35 million

(D) 6.25 million

Answer:

61. What will be the number of females above the poverty line in the State S if it is known that

the population of State S is 7 million?

(A) 3 million

(B) 2.43 million

(C) 1.33 million

(D) 5.7 million

Answer:

SET - A

Page 15 of 25

62. What will be the male population above poverty line for State P if the female population

below poverty line for State P is 2.1 million?

(A) 2.1 million

(B) 2.3 million

(C) 2.7 million

(D) 3.3 million

Answer:

Q. Study the following bar charts and answer the Questions No(s). 63 and 64 accordingly:

63. The ratio of the maximum exports to the minimum imports was closest to:

(A) 64

(B) 69

(C) 74

(D) 79

Answer:

SET - A

Page 16 of 25

64. The ratio of Exports to Imports was highest for which country?

(A) A

(B) I

(C) J

(D) K

Answer:

Q. The following pie charts exhibit the distribution of the overseas tourist traffic from India. The

two charts show the tourist distribution by country and the age profiles of the tourists

respectively. Answer the Question No(s). 65 and 66 accordingly:

65. What percentage of Indian tourists went to either USA or UK?

(A) 40 %

(B) 50 %

(C) 60 %

(D) 70 %

Answer:

SET - A

Page 17 of 25

66. The ratio of the number of Indian tourists that went to USA to the number of Indian tourists

who were below 30 years of age is?

(A) 2:1

(B) 8:3

(C) 3:8

(D) Cannot be determined

Answer:

Q. The following line graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who qualified an

examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the examination over a

period of seven years from 1994 to 2000. Answer the Question No(s). 67 and 68 accordingly:

67. The difference between the percentages of candidates qualified to appeared was maximum

in which of the following pairs of years?

(A) 1994 and 1995

(B) 1997 and 1998

(C) 1998 and 1999

(D) 1999 and 2000

Answer:

68. If the number of candidates qualified in 1998 was 21200, what was the number of

candidates appeared in 1998?

(A) 32000

(B) 28500

(C) 26500

(D) 25000

Answer:

SET - A

Page 18 of 25

Q. In a school the periodical examination are held every second month. In a session during April

2001 - March 2002, a student of Class IX appeared for each of the periodical exams. The

aggregate marks obtained by him in each periodical exam are represented in the line-chart given

below. Answer the question No(s). 69 to 70 accordingly:

69. In which periodical exams did the student obtain the highest percentage increase in marks

over the previous periodical exams?

(A) June, 01

(B) August, 01

(C) October, 01

(D) December, 01

Answer:

70. In which periodical exams there is a fall in percentage of marks as compared to the previous

periodical exams?

(A) None

(B) June, 01

(C) Oct, 01

(D) Feb, 02

Answer:

SET - A

Page 19 of 25

71. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure:

(A) 8

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 14

Answer:

72. A university admitted 100 students who transferred from other institutions. Of these

students, 34 transferred from two-year community colleges, 25 transferred from private

four-year institutions, and the rest transferred from public four-year institutions. If two

different students are to be selected at random from the 100 students, what is the probability

that both students selected will be students who transferred from two-year community

colleges?

(A) 17/150

(B) 19/163

(C) 9/ 137

(D) NONE

Answer:

73. Find the next number in the series:

3 6 11 18 ……

(A) 30

(B) 22

(C) 27

(D) 29

Answer:

74. Find the next letter in the series:

A Z B Y …………

(A) C

(B) X

(C) D

(D) Y

Answer:

SET - A

Page 20 of 25

Q. Below are some figures for agricultural imports. Answer the Question No(s). 75 and 76

accordingly.

75. Which month showed the largest total decrease in imports over the previous month?

(A) March

(B) April

(C) May

(D) July

Answer:

76. What percentage of rice was imported in April?

(A) 17%

(B) 19%

(C) 21%

(D) 25%

Answer:

77. Which number replaces the question mark?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer:

SET - A

Page 21 of 25

Q. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre, with the

following conditions:

1. P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of R and V.

2. S is not the neighbour of P.

3. V is the neighbour of U.

4. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S.

Answer the Question No(s). 78 to 81 accordingly:

78. Which two of the following are not neighbours?

(A) RV

(B) UV

(C) RP

(D) QW

Answer:

79. Which one is immediate right to the V?

(A) P

(B) U

(C) R

(D) T

Answer:

80. Which of the following is correct?

(A) P is to the immediate right of Q

(B) R is between U and V

(C) Q is to the immediate left of W

(D) U is between W and S

Answer:

81. What is the position of S?

(A) Between U and V

(B) Second to the right of P

(C) To the immediate right of W

(D) Data inadequate.

Answer:

82. World Day Against Child Labour is celebrated on:

(A) 12 July

(B) 13 July

(C) 12 June

(D) 13 June

Answer:

SET - A

Page 22 of 25

83. Section 370 of IPC relates to:

(A) Child labour as a crime

(B) Corruption

(C) Human Trafficking and Forced Labour

(D) None of the Above

Answer:

84. Full form of DOTS:

(A) Direct Observation Treatment System

(B) Direct Overseas Transport System

(C) Direct Obscure Treatment System

(D) None of the above

Answer:

85. Synonym for Portend:

(A) Eerie

(B) Presage

(C) Astonishing

(D) Adore

Answer:

86. Synonym for Optimum:

(A) Maximum

(B) Minimum

(C) Large

(D) Huge

Answer:

87. Antonym for Justice:

(A) Inequality

(B) Poor

(C) Powerless

(D) Inequity

Answer:

88. Antonym for Shy:

(A) Inferior

(B) Ugly

(C) Anxiety

(D) Confident

Answer:

SET - A

Page 23 of 25

89. Phobia means:

(A) Irrational love

(B) Irrational fear

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the above

Answer:

90. The International Day of People with Disability is celebrated on:

(A) 3rd

December

(B) 1st December

(C) 10th

December

(D) 10th

October

Answer:

91. Which of the following is not a part of Sustainable Development Goals (SDG):

(A) No Poverty

(B) Decent Work

(C) Gender Equality

(D) None of the Above

Answer:

92. It was very noisy next door. Our neighbours _________________ a party.

(A) have

(B) had

(C) were having

(D) None of the above

Answer:

93. Jim is on holiday. He has ______________ to Italy.

(A) Went

(B) Going

(C) Gone

(D) All the above

Answer:

SET - A

Page 24 of 25

Q. Read the following passage carefully:

A 16 year old girl who studies in Class IX is the only daughter to her parents who loved her

sincerely. One day she elopes with a 24 year old male. Since 6 months the couple lives with the

in laws whose relationship with the newly wedded girl is stressful. To an extent, her sister-in-

law‟s husband who lives a kilometer away often comes and attempts to sexually abuse her in

absence of her husband. She is now admitted to a hospital in a psychiatric ward. She is diagnosed

with Dissociative Disorder, a stress related disorder.

Answer Question No(s). 94 to 97 on the basis of this case study:

94. What according to you should be the best solution to the case study above?

(A) Both the couple should attain marriage counselor for their happy married life.

(B) Punish the in-laws for their wrong doing.

(C) Counseling the girl to live with her parents and continue her studies.

(D) Let the couple live separately from their parents.

Answer:

95. With whom should the social worker intervene for the modification of the environment?

(A) The girl and her parents

(B) The policy and law makers

(C) The in-laws

(D) Both (A) and (C) collectively

Answer:

96. Dissociative Disorder is:

(A) Depressive symptom

(B) Disorder due to unbearable stress

(C) Cordial disorder

(D) None of the above

Answer:

97. Why should the court intervene in this case?

(A) The girl (victim) is a minor

(B) There is violation of fundamental right of the victim

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the above

Answer:

SET - A

Page 25 of 25

98. The recent controversy on the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 relates to:

(A) Life Sentence

(B) Provision of Anticipatory Bail

(C) Death Sentence

(D) None of the above

Answer:

99. We see in society many people like politicians who use the term “Social Worker” for their

occupation. What do you think is the most suitable reason?

(A) It is the social work that they are doing

(B) There is ambiguity in society about the meaning of social work

(C) It gives political mileage to their career

(D) None of the above

Answer:

100. Which of the following is an example of Parochialism:

(A) Regionalism

(B) Discrimination on the basis of language

(C) Caste based discrimination

(D) All the above

Answer:

[For Rough Work]