SybeSEC+x Bonus Questions

9781118875070 Instructor Materials

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-401) Questions

Chapter 1

1. If SLE is calculated at $2,500 and there are an anticipated 4 occurrences a year (ARO), then ALE is:

A. $10,000

B. $5,000

C. $2,500

D. $625

Answer: A

ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy) is calculated as SLE (Single Loss Expectancy) multiplied by ARO.

2. Which type of risk strategy is undertaken when you attempt to reduce the risk?

A. transference

B. assessment

C. mitigation

D. avoidance

Answer: C

Taking steps to reduce the risk constitutes risk mitigation.

3. When assigning permissions to users, which principle should you adhere to?

A. Eminent domain

B. Least privilege

C. Manifest destiny

D. Risk deterrence

Answer: B

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Instructor Materials © Wiley 2014. All Rights Reserved.


When assigning permissions to users, always adhere to the Least Privilege principle. Give the users only the permissions they need to perform their duties and no more.

4. You have taken out an insurance policy on your data/systems to share some of the risk with another entity. What type of risk strategy is this?

A. transformation

B. Conveyance

C. Transference

D. Devolution

Answer: C

Risk transference involves sharing the risk with another party.

5. Separation of duties polices are designed to reduce the risk of what?

A. Breach of confidentiality

B. Burn

C. Turnover

D. Fraud

Answer: D

Separation of duties polices are designed to reduce the risk of fraud.

6. Your company owns a printing press worth $100,000. If it were damaged in a fire, it would be worth $8,000 in parts. What would the single loss expectance (SLE) be?

A. $108,000

B. $92,000

C. $8,000

D. Less than $1000

Answer: C

Using the formula SLE=Asset value * exposure factor, you come up with $100,000 x 8% or $8,000.

7. What would the Annualized Loss Occurrence be for the asset in Question 6 if a fire that might damage the press in that manner occurred once every 15 years?



A. $120,000

B. $220,000

C. $8,000

D. Less than $1000

Answer: D

ALO=SLE x (# of times this happens per year), so ALO=$8000 x (1/15)=$535 or “less than $1000”.

8. To prevent files from being copied on a workstation to removable media, you should disable which ports?

A. Serial

B. USB

C. Firewire

D. Marker

Answer: B

USB ports should be disabled to prevent users from copying files to thumb/flash drives.

Chapter 2

9. A ___________________ is a system designed to fool attackers into thinking a system is unsecured so they will attack it. Then the “victim” will learn their attack methods without compromising a live system.

A. Enticenet

B. Open Door

C. Honey Pot

D. Black hole

Answer: C

Honey pots are systems designed to be vulnerable points of attack on a separate network away from the corporate network. This way, the attacker sees the “honey pot” and attacks it, rather than the more valuable corporate data. At the same time, the company can learn that an attack has occurred and the methods used by the attacker.



10. In order to run “sniffer” software properly, the NIC in the computer running the software must be set to:

A. 10/100 Mode

B. Promiscuous Mode

C. Link Mode

D. Ethernet listening mode

Answer: B

Network cards on computers running sniffer software must be set to Promiscuous mode in order to listen to all packets on the network, not just those destined for it

11. ___________________ are used to monitor a network for suspect activity.

A. Intrusion detection system

B. Internet detection system

C. Intrusion deterrent system

D. Internet deterrent system

Answer: A

An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is used to monitor a network and detect suspect activities.

12. A(n) ___________________ is a message from the analyzer indicating that an event of interest has occurred.

A. E-mail

B. Alert

C. Sensor

D. Page

Answer: B

An alert is the message from an IDS analyzer that indicates something of interest has happened.

13. Which of the following is a passive method of threat response?

A. Logging the event

B. Terminating the connection

C. Changing network configuration



D. Shutting down the computer

Answer: A

By its very nature, a passive threat response does nothing to prevent the threat or attack, just acknowledges that one is or is about to happen. The other options listed take a much more active position against a possible threat.

14. Which port should be closed on systems to prevent the unauthorized running of programs?

A. 80

B. 111

C. 120

D. 157

Answer: B

Port 111 is the port address for the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) program, which allows remote users to start local programs.

Chapter 3

15. Which of the following devices are the first line of defense for networks connected to the Internet?

A. Routers

B. Hubs

C. Firewalls

D. Switches

Answer: C

Firewalls are the front line defense devices for networks that are connected to the Internet.

16. Servers or computers that have two NIC cards, each connected to separate networks, are known as what type of computers?

A. Routed

B. Dual-homed

C. Firewalled



D. Protected

Answer: B

Dual-homed computers have two NICs installed, each connected to a separate network.

17. A firewall operating as a ___________________ firewall will pass or block packets based on their application or TCP port number.

A. Packet filter

B. Proxy

C. Stateful inspection

D. dual-homed

Answer: A

Packet filters examine each incoming (and usually outgoing) packet then pass or discard it based on a defined list of applications or TCP or UDP port numbers.

18. Which of the following is NOT a routing protocol?

A. RIP

B. BGP

C. OSPF

D. ICMP

Answer: D

ICMP is used for carrying error, control and informational packets between hosts. However, it is not a routing protocol.

19. In TCP/IP parlance, any computer or device with an IP address on a TCP/IP network is known as a(n):

A. host

B. device

C. unit

D. IP responder

Answer: A

Host is the generic name for any device on a network with an IP address.



20. The TCP protocol functions at which layer of the TCP/IP model?

A. Application

B. Host-to-Host

C. Internet

D. Network Access

Answer: B

In the TCP/IP model, TCP functions at the Host-to-Host layer

21. According to the TCP/IP model, HTTP functions at which layer?

A. Application

B. Host-to-host

C. Internet

D. Network Access

Answer: A

HTTP, and other protocols like FTP and SMTP, function at the application layer where they provide network services.

22. What TCP port does HTTP use?

A. 21

B. 23

C. 25

D. 80

Answer: D

HTTP uses TCP port 80

23. What TCP port does Telnet use?

A. 21

B. 23

C. 25

D. 80

Answer: B

TCP port 23 is used for Telnet connections



24. If you wanted to connect two networks securely over the Internet, what type of technology could you use?

A. Repeater

B. Bridge

C. VPN

D. Telnet

Answer: C

The only technology listed that will allow you to connect two networks over the Internet securely is the Virtual Private Network, which connects two private networks together securely

Chapter 4

25. Which access control model is a static model that uses predefined access privileges for resources that are assigned by the administrator?

A. RBAC

B. MAC

C. DAC

D. CAC

Answer: B

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) uses predefined access privileges for resources. The administrator assigns the privileges to users.

26. Which access control method model allows the owner of a resource to grant privileges to information they own?

A. RBAC

B. MAC

C. DAC

D. CAC

Answer: C

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) allows a user to grant or deny access to any resource they own.



27. Which access control method model grants rights or privileges based on their job function or position held?

A. RBAC

B. MAC

C. DAC

D. CAC

Answer: A

The Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) model allows a user to received privileges based on their position. For example, a backup operator role would give anyone who occupied that role the ability to perform backups, including the security privileges that went along with it.

28. Which authentication method uses a Key Distribution Center (KCD)?

A. CHAP

B. Login & Authentication

C. Identification and Authentication

D. Kerberos

Answer: D

Of the authentication methods listed, only Kerberos uses a KDC.

29. Which of the following is NOT a tunneling protocol?

A. L2TP

B. SLIP

C. PPTP

D. L2F

Answer: B

The Serial Line Internet Protocol is an ancient TCP-IP only point-to-point remote access protocol and not a protocol used for tunneling. The three primary tunneling protocols are PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol), L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) and L2F (Layer 2 Forwarding protocol).

30. Which remote access protocol, implemented almost exclusively by Cisco, is a central server providing remote



access usernames that dial-up users can use for authentication.

A. VPN

B. SLIP

C. RADIUS

D. TACACS+

Answer: D

Although RADIUS performs in much the same manner, TACACS+ is used almost exclusively by Cisco. Whereas RADIUS is more of a generic standard used by many different companies. TACACS+ is gaining ground, however.

31. Which of the following Evaluation Assurance Levels (EAL) specifies that the user wants assurance that the system will operate correctly, but threats to security are not viewed as serious?

A. EAL 7

B. EAL 5

C. EAL 3

D. EAL 1

Answer: D

In EAL 1, the user must be assured that the system will operate correctly, but threats to security are not viewed as serious. The other EAL levels promote higher levels of security.

32. Which of the following Evaluation Assurance Levels (EAL) is the common security benchmark for commercial systems?

A. EAL 1

B. EAL 2

C. EAL 3

D. EAL 4

Answer: D

EAL 4 the baseline for most security in commercial systems. It uses positive security engineering based on good commercial development practices. The others all have lower requirements for security.



33. Whether or not your server operating system can force the change of a password is considered what kind of a security issue?

A. Management

B. Operational

C. Physical

D. Organizational

Answer: B

This kind of issue is particularly an operational security issue because it is concerned with the ability of the operating system to perform a specified function.

Chapter 5

34. Wireless Ethernet conforms to which IEEE standard?

A. IEEE 1394

B. IEEE 802.2

C. IEEE 802.10

D. IEEE 802.11

Answer: D

Wireless Ethernet is actually IEEE standard 802.11b, a subset of IEEE 802.11.

35. ___________________ is the security layer for wireless 802.11 connections using WAP.

A. WEP

B. WIP

C. WTLS

D. WAS

Answer: C

Wireless transport layer security (WTLS) is the security layer for wireless connections that use the wireless access protocol (WAP).



36. Which type of attack is one in which a rogue wireless access point poses as a legitimate wireless service provider to intercept information that users transmit?

A. NRZ

B. Faulty access point

C. Ordinal data

D. Evil twin

Answer: D

An evil twin attack is one in which a rogue wireless access point poses as a legitimate wireless service provider to intercept information that users transmit.

Chapter 6

37. Which hypervisor model needs the operating system to be up and cannot boot until it is?

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

Answer: B

The Type II hypervisor model needs the operating system to be up and cannot boot until it is.

38. Which of the following is NOT one of the three cloud service models recognized by the NIST?

A. IaaS

B. SaaS

C. PaaS

D. XaaS

Answer: D

The three cloud service models recognized by the NIST are: SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS.

39. Which of the following is NOT one of the cloud delivery models recognized by NIST?



A. Hybrid

B. Community

C. Unlisted

D. Private

Answer: C

The four cloud delivery models recognized by the NIST are: private, public, community, and hybrid.

Chapter 7

40. Which RAID level provides for no fault tolerance?

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 3

D. RAID 5

Answer: A

RAID 0 allows many disk partitions to join together to provide users with a single, larger, disk space. If any drive fails, the entire disk space is unavailable.

41. The process of making a computing environment more secure from attacks and intruders is known as ___________________.

A. Locking up

B. Polishing

C. Hardening

D. Securing

Answer: C

While securing is what you are trying to accomplish, the process of making a computing environment (such as an operating system) is known as hardening.

42. A ___________________ is a repair made while the system being repaired remains in operation.

A. Patch

B. Hotfix



C. Service Pack

D. Live Patch

Answer: B

A hotfix is a patch, upgrade, or repair that is made while the system is “hot” (in operation). It does not require any downtime to fix a particular problem with a hotfix.

43. Which of the following will NOT contribute to network hardening?

A. Installing new anti-virus software on workstations

B. Updating network switch firmware to newest versions

C. Putting passwords on all remote-configurable network hardware

D. Locking down all unused ports on the firewall

Answer: A

Although it is important to overall network security, installing workstation anti-virus software does not contribute as significantly to network hardening as the other items listed.

Chapter 8

44. Individuals who specialize in the making of codes are known as ___________________.

A. Cryptographers

B. Cryptanalysts

C. Cryptationists

D. Cryptosteganogrphers

Answer: A

Those that develop or make codes are known as Cryptographers.

45. Individuals who specialize in the breaking of codes are known as ___________________.

A. Cryptographers

B. Cryptanalysts

C. Cryptationists



D. Cryptosteganogrphers

Answer: B

Cryptanalysts are individuals who specialize in the breaking of codes.

46. What kind of cryptographic method replaces one character with another from a “match-up list” to produce the ciphertext? The decoder wheels kids get in cereal boxes often make this kind of cryptography.

A. Substitution cipher

B. Transposition cipher

C. Steganographic cipher

D. Watermark cipher

Answer: A

Substitution ciphers work by substituting character-for-character from a list so that every “A” becomes a “T” for example.

47. Which method of cryptography uses a sequence of photons to represent the encrypted data?

A. Mathematical Cryptography

B. Molecular Cryptography

C. Quantum Cryptography

D. Optic Cryptography

Answer: C

In quantum cryptography, the sequence or position of photons represents the encrypted data.

48. Which method of code breaking tries every possible combination of characters in an attempt to “guess” the password or key?

A. Mathematical

B. Brute Force

C. Frequency Analysis

D. Algorithm Errors

Answer: B

Brute force methods simply try many different combinations



of alphanumeric characters in an attempt to simply stumble upon the correct combination.

49. Which hashing algorithm uses a 160-bit hash value?

A. SHA

B. MD

C. DES

D. AES

Answer: A

The Secure Hash Algorithm creates a 160-bit hash algorithm.

50. Which encryption algorithm is based on Rijndael?

A. AES

B. DES

C. RC

D. CAST

Answer: A

The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is based on the Rijndael encryption algorithm.

51. Which encryption algorithm uses a 40 to 128-bit key and is used on many products from Microsoft and IBM?

A. AES

B. DES

C. RC

D. CAST

Answer: D

CAST, developed by Carlisle Adams & Stafford Tavares, uses 40 to 128-bit encryption keys and is used on many products from MS and IBM.

52. Which of the following is NOT an asymmetric encryption algorithm?

A. RSA

B. 3DES

C. ECC



D. Diffie-Hellman

Answer: B

Triple DES (3DES) is a Symmetric key encryption algorithm. In other words, it uses the same key for encryption and decryption.

53. How does a user obtain a Message Authentication Code (MAC)?

A. It is assigned by the encryption software manufacturer.

B. It is applied for from a third party organization

C. It is specified by the user before the encryption software runs.

D. It is derived from the message itself using an algorithm.

Answer: D

The MAC is derived from the message as well as a key from the user. This maintains the integrity of the message being sent because the recipient knows that the message is authentic and that the sender is who they say they are.

54. Which U.S. government agency is responsible for creating and breaking codes?

A. FBI

B. ABA

C. NSA

D. NIST

Answer: C

The National Security Agency (NSA) is the agency responsible for keeping the governments communications secure. To do that it creates encryption codes, as well as tries to break others’ encryption codes.

55. Which U.S. government agency publishes lists of known vulnerabilities in operating systems?

A. FBI

B. ABA

C. NSA

D. NIST



Answer: D

The National Institute of Standards and Technology develops standards for the U.S. government. One of the many things they do is publish lists of known vulnerabilities in software and operating systems.

56. Which document is used to propose a new standard?

A. RFP

B. RFC

C. RMA

D. PFD

Answer: B

A Request For Comment (RFC) is essentially a proposed standard document that is requesting people review it and make comments on the proposed standard.

57. Which organization is tasked with developing standards for, and tries to improve, the Internet.

A. ISOC

B. IEEE

C. IRFC

D. IETF

Answer: D

The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is constantly proposing standards to try and improve the Internet.

58. Which organization is primarily interested in developing the World Wide Web and its associated technologies?

A. W3C

B. IETF

C. IEEE

D. WWW

Answer: A

The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is a standards body that is primarily interested in developing standards (like XML) for the web as well as finding ways for the web to be used.



59. Which organization is concerned with defining technology and other electrical standards?

A. W3C

B. IETF

C. IEEE

D. WWW

Answer: C

The Institute for Electrical and Electronics Engineers is primarily concerned with standards for both electrical and electronic items (including some computer and telecommunications equipment). Ethernet is an IEEE standard.

60. Which PKCS standard is the standard for password-based cryptography?

A. PKCS #1

B. PKCS #3

C. PKCS #5

D. PKCS #7

Answer: C

The Public Key Cryptography Standard #5 is the standard that deals with password-based cryptography.

61. Which encryption/security measure, originally developed by Netscape, is used to establish a secure, lower-layer communication connection between two TCP/IP-based machines?

A. PKCS

B. SSL

C. TTS

D. Telnet

Answer: B

The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption method allows a secure TCP-level connection between two machines.

62. Which security standard is used to encrypt e-mails?

A. SSL



B. S/MIME

C. TTS

D. PKI

Answer: B

Secure MIME (S/MIME) is used to encrypt e-mail communications.

63. Which “X.” standard defines certificate formats and fields for public keys?

A. X.300

B. X. 305

C. X. 500

D. X. 509

Answer: D

The X.509 standard is the accepted standard for certificate formats and public key fields for use in PKI.

64. Which of the following is another name for a “tree” trust model?

A. Level

B. Ranked

C. Hierarchical

D. Graded

Answer: C

A hierarchical trust model is also known as a tree.

65. A certificate authority (CA) is an organization that is responsible for doing which three of the following with certificates (choose three)?

A. Issuing

B. Revoking

C. Promoting

D. Distributing

Answer: A,B,D

A certificate authority (CA) is an organization that is responsible for issuing, revoking, and distributing certificates.



66. Which of the following is not a component of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

A. CA

B. XA

C. RA

D. RSA

Answer: B

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) contains four components: Certificate Authority (CA), Registration Authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates.

Chapter 9

67. You are the administrator of the sybex.com website. You are working when suddenly web server and network utilization spikes to 100% and stays there for several minutes and users start reporting “Server not available” errors. You may have been the victim of what kind of attack?

A. DoS

B. Virus

C. Replay Attack

D. Man in the Middle

Answer: A

Although a virus can implant methods by which they occur or cause a server’s utilization to spike to 100%, this behavior is representative of the Denial of Service (DoS), mainly because network utilization was spiking along with it. This is especially true if the website is fairly high profile.

68. Which of the following is an attack where a program or service is placed on a server to bypass normal security procedures?

A. DoS

B. Replay

C. Social Engineering

D. Back Door



Answer: D

Back doors are programs or services that system designers use to bypass security. These back doors can also be put in place maliciously.

69. Which of the following is a type of attack that occurs when an attacker pretends to be a legitimate client, using information it has gained from a legitimate client (like it’s IP address).

A. DoS

B. Spoofing

C. Replay

D. Smurf

Answer: B

Spoofing occurs when an attacker pretends to be something they are not in order to gain access.

70. Which method of attack against a password happens when an attacker tries many different combinations of alphanumeric characters until successful?

A. Mathematical

B. Alphanumeric

C. Dictionary

D. Brute force

Answer: D

A brute force password attack is when an attacker tries many different combinations (sometimes hundreds and thousands) of random alphanumeric characters to try and “guess” the password.

71. ___________________ is a slang term for unwanted commercial e-mail.

A. IMAP

B. SPAM

C. SLIP

D. SPUCE

Answer: B

No one knows for sure who invented the term, but unwanted



or unsolicited commercial e-mail is generally known as spam.

72. The area of an application that is available to users (those who are authenticated as well as those who are not) is known as its:

A. ring of trust

B. attack surface

C. public persona

D. personal space

Answer: B

The area of an application that is available to users (those who are authenticated as well as those who are not) is known as its attack surface.

Chapter 10

73. On the outer edge of physical security is the first barrier to entry. This barrier is known as a(n) ___________________.

A. Blockade

B. Door

C. Perimeter

D. Stop

Answer: C

The perimeter is the outermost (farthest away from the objective) barrier.

74. A ___________________is the term for an area in a building where access is individually monitored and controlled.

A. Secured Room

B. Security Zone

C. Man Trap

D. Network perimeter

Answer: B

A security zone is an area within a building where access is monitored and controlled.



75. A ___________________ security device uses some biological characteristic of human beings to uniquely identify a person for authentication.

A. Biosecure

B. Biometric

C. Biotangeric

D. Biogenic

Answer: B

Biometric security devices use the unique identifying characteristics of the human body, like fingerprints & retina patterns to uniquely identify a person for security authentication.

76. Which kind of security attack is a result of the trusting nature of human beings?

A. social engineering

B. friendly neighbor

C. sociologic

D. human nature

Answer: A

Social engineering attacks work by using the trusting nature of people to gain access.

77. Computer room humidity should ideally be kept above ___________________ percent.

A. 25

B. 50

C. 75

D. 100

Answer: B

Ideally, humidity in a computer room should be set to no less than 50%

78. A ___________________ is used to provide EMI & RFI shielding for an entire room of computer or electronic equipment (also used to prevent eavesdropping).

A. Cone of silence



B. Room shield

C. Smart shield

D. Faraday cage

Answer: D

A Faraday cage is a grounded wire or metal mesh “cage” that is embedded into the walls of a room to prevent EMI & RFI seepage.

79. Which fire extinguisher type is the best to be used on computer equipment in the case of a computer fire?

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type C

D. Type D

Answer: C

The best type extinguisher would be the Type C extinguisher (non-conductive dry-chemical for electrical fires).

Chapter 11

80. Locking the door(s) to the server room involves what kind of security?

A. Management

B. Operational

C. Physical

D. Organizational

Answer: C

Because locking a door involves placing a physical barrier between a threat and the target, it would be a physical security measure.

81. Which of the following is NOT a goal of information security?

A. Prevention

B. Archival

C. Detection



D. Response

Answer: B

Even though archival is important in some cases, it is not a goal, per se, of information security.

82. Which of the following is an internal threat?

A. System Failure

B. Flood

C. Fire

D. Burglar

Answer: A

Only system failure could be considered an internal threat because the cause of the threat comes from within the organization.

83. An End User License Agreement (EULA) for software would be considered what classification of information?

A. Private

B. Restricted

C. Public

D. Limited Distribution

Answer: D

By its nature, an EULA is not for absolutely everyone, just those that purchase the software, but it isn’t like a top-secret document. Therefore, it could be classified as “Limited Distribution”

84. Which type of policy determines if information is secret, top-secret, or public?

A. Information retention policies

B. Information destruction policies

C. Information classification policies

D. Information Security policies

Answer: C

Information classification involves determining whether information is for internal use only or for public distribution or anywhere in between.



85. Which U.S. regulation dictates the standards for storage, use, and transmission of personal medical information?

A. EICAR

B. HIPAA

C. Graham-Leach Bliley Act of 1999

D. FERPA

Answer: B

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was enacted in 1996 to ensure privacy of personal medical information.

Chapter 12

86. How many programs are traditionally run during vulnerability scanning?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 12

D. more than 12

Answer: B

Penetration testing and vulnerability testing are very similar. One difference between the two is that while penetration testing tries a lot of things, vulnerability testing traditionally tries only one program – a vulnerability scanner.

87. “Full disclosure testing” is more often known as which of the following?

A. Gray box

B. Red box

C. White box

D. Black box

Answer: C

“Full disclosure testing” is more often known as white box testing.



88. ___________________ is the first step in the incident response cycle.

A. Investigating the incident

B. Incident identification

C. Documenting the response

D. Repairing the damage

Answer: B

In the incident response cycle, the first step is to identify the incident and determine if it is an incident, or just a false positive.

89. A major organization in the tracking and reporting of common computer and network security problems is ___________________.

A.SETI

B. IEEE

C. NCSA

D. CERT

Answer: D

The CERT is an organization that tracks and reports on computer and network security threats.

90. ___________________ is the process of keeping services and systems operational during a time of outage.

A. Backup

B. Hot-swap

C. High-availability

D. hot-sites

Answer: C

High-availability is the name for the processes that keep services online during a time when the rest of the company may be experiencing other outages (e.g. power, telephone)

91. The ___________________ method of backup keeps all data that has ever been on the system, regardless of its value.

A. Full backup

B. Full archival



C. Complete backup

D. Complete archival

Answer: B

The full archival method keeps all data that has ever been on the system during a backup and stores it either onsite or offsite for later retrieval.

92. Which of the following is NOT necessary to back up?

A. E-mail files

B. Databases

C. Applications

D. Registry.

Answer: C

Although you can back up applications, it is usually considered a waste of backup space as these items don’t change often and can usually be re-installed from original media.

93. A ___________________ is a backup location that can provide services within hours of complete system failure.

A. Hot site

B. Warm site

C. Code site

D. Active site

Answer: A

A hot site is ready to operate so that as soon as a major failure occurs, the hot site can take over operations immediately.

94. You require your ISP to keep your Internet connection up 99.999% of the time. In which document would this condition be placed?

A. Backup plan

B. Service level agreement

C. Disaster recovery plan.

D. Corporate minutes

Answer: B



Service level agreements specify what level of service a service provider (like an ISP) is willing to agree to, for a price.

95. Which specification is a fairly accurate estimation of how long a component will last?

A. MTFE

B. MTTR

C. MTBF

D. MTAR

Answer: C

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is the average length of time a component will last, given average use. Usually, this number is given in hours or days.

96. ___________________ provide rules for expected behaviors to people in an organization.

A. Standards

B. Guidelines

C. Orders

D. Policies

Answer: D

Policies provide rules for expected behaviors within an organization.

97. Background searches could be part of which policy?

A. Hiring Policy

B. Termination Policy

C. Ethics policy

D. Acceptable use policy

Answer: A

Hiring policies determine what is done during the hiring of an individual, including background searches.

98. The process for establishing boundaries for information sharing is known as ___________________.

A. Establishment



B. Share-level boundaries

C. Privatization

D. Compartmentalization

Answer: D

Compartmentalization is the process of establishing information sharing boundaries for use in protecting information.

99. Leaving a client’s files on your desk where the cleaning staff could see and browse through them is a violation of what type of policies?

A. Collusion

B. Due Care

C. Compartmentalization

D. Physical Access Control

Answer: B

Because you did not exercise due care over a client’s records and information, their information could be compromised. Due care policies are designed to protect client records and information.

100. Which of the following is the process of ensuring that policies, procedures, and regulations are carried out in a manner consistent with organizational standards?

A. Auditing

B. Inventory review

C. SOX

D. Baselining

Answer: A

Auditing is the process of ensuring that policies, procedures, and regulations are carried out in a manner consistent with organizational standards.


Documents

SybeSEC+x Bonus Questions