TABLE OF CONTENTS BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams

BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams

ICSE Grade X - Term 1 Mock Papers Set -1

TABLE OF CONTENTS

SAMPLE PAPERS 2 MATHEMATICS 3 PHYSICS 14 CHEMISTRY 26 BIOLOGY 36 HISTORY & CIVICS 45 GEOGRAPHY 53

ANSWER KEYS 73 MATHEMATICS 74 PHYSICS 75 CHEMISTRY 76 BIOLOGY 77 HISTORY & CIVICS 78 GEOGRAPHY 79

SOLUTIONS 80 MATHEMATICS 81 PHYSICS 101 CHEMISTRY 122 BIOLOGY 142 HISTORY & CIVICS 161 GEOGRAPHY 172

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SAMPLE PAPERS

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MATHEMATICS

________________________________________________________ Maximum Marks: 40

Time allowed: One and a half hours (inclusive of reading time)

ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

________________________________________________________ Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

________________________________________________________

SECTION I (16 Marks)

Question 1 Which of the following represents the order of matrix (k is any real number)?

A. 1 x 1 B. 3 x 1 C. 1 x 3 D. 2 x 1

Question 2

The tax invoice of a company shows the cost of services provided by it as ₹1,200. If the rate of GST is 18%, then the total amount of the bill is:

A. ₹216 B. ₹1,216 C. ₹1,316 D. ₹1,416

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Question 3

In the following figure, DE is parallel to BC, AD = 1 cm, BD = 3 cm, and BC = 6 cm. The length of DE is equal to:

A. 1 cm B. 1.5 cm C. 2 cm D. 2.5 cm

Question 4

The fourth proportion of the numbers 7, 28, and 4 is:

A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 20

Question 5

Reema deposited ₹300 per month for 15 months in a bank's recurring deposit account. If the bank pays interest at the rate of 10% per annum, the amount she gets on maturity is:

A. ₹300 B. ₹3,800 C. ₹4,500 D. ₹4,800

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Question 6

If x∈N, then the solution set of the inequation is: 2x 5 1 − <

A. {-1, 0, 1, 2,…} B. {0, 1, 2, 3,...} C. {1, 2, 3,…} D. {-2, -1, 0,...}

Question 7

Find the sum of the first 20 terms of an arithmetic progression whose first term is 5 and last term is 295.

A. 30 B. 300 C. 3,000 D. 30,000

Question 8

If the ratio between the corresponding sides of two similar triangles is 4 : 5, then the ratio between the areas of these triangles is:

A. 2 : 3 B. √4 : √5 C. 4 : 5 D. 16 : 25

Question 9

The solution set representing the following number line is:

A. { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 ≤ x ≤ 7 B. { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 < x ≤ 7 C. { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 ≤ x < 7 D. { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 < x < 7

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Question 10

The roots of the quadratic equation are x x2 2 + 6 + 7 = 0

A. Real and unequal B. Real and equal C. Imaginary D. Cannot be determined

Question 11

If , then by using componendo and dividendo, find b

a = dc .3a 2b−

3a + 2b

A. 3c + 2d3c 2d−

B. 3c 2d−3c + 2d

C. 3c d−3c + d

D. c 2d−c + 2d

Question 12

If is a factor of , then the value of is equal to: (x 2) − 8x 3k f (x) = x2 − + k

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Question 13

The (n - 1) th term of the A.P 5, 7, 9,… is given by:

A. 2n + 1 B. n + 1 C. 2n - 1 D. n - 1

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Question 14

If the roots of the quadratic equation are equal, then the value of ‘ ’ is: x x2 − 2 + k k

A. -1 B. 1 C. 2 D. -2

Question 15

Two matrices A and B can be added only if:

A. Number of columns of A = Number of columns of B B. Both are rectangular. C. Both have the same order. D. Number of rows of A = Number of columns of B

Question 16

Which of the following are factors of the cubic polynomial, ? (x) x – 5x – 11x – 3f = 3 3 2

A. x ), (x ), (x ) ( + 1 − 3 + 31

B. x ), (x ), x ) ( − 1 − 3 ( + 31

C. x ), (x ), x )( + 1 + 3 ( + 31

D. x ), (x ), (x ) ( + 1 − 3 − 31

SECTION II (12 Marks) Question 17

A company sells its television sets at a price that involves 18% GST. If it sells TV sets across states and the GST per set being collected is ₹1,260, what would be the total amount charged for each television set?

A. ₹7,000 B. ₹9,520 C. ₹8,260 D. ₹7,740

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Question 18

Malini opens a recurring deposit account and deposits ₹600 per month for 5 years. If the rate of interest is 8% per annum, the value she receives at the end of the maturity period is:

A. ₹43,320 B. ₹ 43,330 C. ₹45,320 D. ₹45,330

Question 19

The number line that represents the solution of the inequation is: x ; x − 8 ≤ 2 < 4 ∈ R

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question 20

The solution set of quadratic equation is represented by 2x 63 0 x2 + − =

A. {7, 9} B. {-7, 9} C. {7, -9} D. {-7, -9}

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Question 21

What number must be added to each of 13, 25, 69, and 113 so that they are in proportion?

A. 10 B. 9 C. 8 D. 7

Question 22

If 27, 24, 21,... are in A.P and the sum of the first n terms is zero, then the value of n is:

A. 27 B. 19 C. 24 D. 17

SECTION III (12 Marks)

Question 23

When a polynomial is divided by , the remainder is . If the (x) px qf = x3 + + (x ) − a (a)f remainder is zero, then is a factor of the polynomial . x ) ( − a (x)f

(i) If is a factor of the given polynomial , then, x ) ( − 2 (x) px qf = x3 + +

A. p q 8 2 − = B. p q 2 + = − 8 C. p q 82 + = D. q p + = − 8

(ii) If it is given that and are factors of the polynomial , then the value of x ) ( − 2 x ) ( − 3 (x)f

’ is: p q ′ +

A. -11 B. -19 C. 11 D. 20

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(iii) If the given polynomial is divided by then it leaves the remainder as zero. Find , x2 − 1 .q

A. -2 B. -1 C. 1 D. 0

(iv) If it is given that and are factors of the polynomial f(x), then its third factor is x ) ( − 2 x ) ( − 3 given by:

A. x )( + 5 B. x ) ( − 5 C. x )( + 6 D. x ) ( − 6

Question 24

In the given figure, AB, CD, and EF are parallel lines. If B 10 cm, EF 15 cm,A = = C 6 cm,A = and , then find the following: E 1 cmC = 2

(i) FC

A. 0 cm1 B. cm9 C. cm8 D. 2 cm1

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(ii) DC

A. cm6 B. cm2 C. cm9 D. cm5

(iii) CB

A. 2 cm1 B. 4 cm1 C. 6 cm1 D. 8 cm1

(iv) Area of ΔF BEArea of ΔDBC

A. 25

B. 4 C. 4

25

D. 225

Question 25

Let , , and

(i) Find .A2

A.

B.

C.

D.

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(ii) Find . CA

A.

B.

C.

D.

(iii) Find . B5

A.

B.

C.

D.

(iv) Find . C B A2 + A − 5

A.

B.

C.

D.

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ICSE Grade X - Semester 1 2021 – 2022 PHYSICS

SCIENCE Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 40

Time allowed: One hour (inclusive of reading time)

ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY

The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Question 1

(a) Choose the correct statement for a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab.

A. The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray. B. The emergent ray is inclined to the incident ray. C. The emergent ray coincides with the incident ray. D. The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident ray.

[1]

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(b) Which of the following ray diagrams correctly depicts the refraction of light from air to glass?

[1]

(c) Where will the image be formed for an object placed at 25 cm from the optical centre of the convex lens, if the focal length of the lens is 12.5 cm?

A. At 25 cm on the same side of the lens as of the object B. At 12.5 cm on the other side of the lens as of the object C. At 25 cm on the other side of the lens as of the object D. At 12.5 cm on the same side of the lens as of the object

[1]

(d) A ray of light passing from one medium to another will pass undeviated in which of the following cases?

A. Angle of incidence is equal to 45°. B. Ray passes from a medium of higher optical density to a medium

of lower optical density. C. Refractive index is the same for both mediums. D. Angle of incidence is 90°.

[1]

(e) The refractive index of glass with respect to water is 1.125. If the speed of light in glass is 2 × 10 8 ms -1 , then the absolute refractive index of water is ___. (speed of light = 2 × 10 8 ms -1 )

A. 1.5 B. 1.7 C. 1.3 D. 1.9

[2]

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(f) An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the optical centre of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm, as shown in the figure.

Answer the following questions based on the given details.

[4]

(i) What will happen to the size of the image if we move the object away from the lens?

A. The size of the image will increase. B. The size of the image will first decrease and then

increase. C. There will be no change in the size of the image. D. The size of the image will decrease.

(ii) If instead of this lens, we use a lens of twice the focal length, what effect will there be on the power of the lens?

A. Power of the lens would increase by 2 times. B. Power of the lens would become half. C. Power will not change. D. Power will be squared.

(iii) If the object is placed at 32 cm from the lens, what will be the image position?

A. At 2F 2 B. Between F 2 and 2F 2 C. At infinity D. Beyond 2F 2

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(iv) What will be the characteristic of the image if the object is at 32 cm distance?

A. Enlarged, real, and inverted B. Enlarged, virtual, and erect C. Diminished, real, and inverted D. Same size, real, and inverted

Question 2

(a) The energy possessed by a body in a deformed state due to change in its configuration (shape) is known as ______.

A. Vibrational kinetic energy B. Gravitational potential energy C. Elastic potential energy D. Rotational kinetic energy

[1]

(b) What is the relationship between the SI unit of power (watt) and the C.G.S unit of power (erg s -1 )?

A. 1 W = 10 6 erg s -1 B. 1 W = 10 7 erg s -1 C. 1 W = 10 10 erg s -1 D. 1 W = 10 12 erg s -1

[1]

(c) A monkey of mass 10 kg climbs up a 10 m rope in 10 s. Calculate the power spent by the monkey (g = 10 m/s 2 ).

A. 20 W B. 50 W C. 100 W D. 150 W

[1]

(d) Mechanical advantage and velocity ratio of a first-class lever:

A. is always greater than 1 B. can be greater than 1 or less than 1 or equal to 1 C. is always less than 1 D. can never be less than 1

[1]

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(e)

A car of mass 1,200 kg is moving with a uniform speed of 10 m/s. At point P, it increases its speed to 15 m/s and moves with a constant speed. At point Q, the car throws out some objects of a total mass of 200 kg and maintains the previous speed.

[2]

(i) Kinetic energy of the car

A. after point Q is 1,22,500 J. B. before P is 1,35,000 J. C. remains constant between P and Q. D. at any point between P and Q is 1,12,500 J.

(ii) The momentum of the car

A. before point P is 10,000 kg.m/s. B. after point Q is 18,000 kg.m/s. C. before point P and after point Q are equal. D. at any point between point P and point Q is 18,000

kg.m/s.

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(f)

A ball falls from point A to point B, as shown in the figure. Answer the following questions based on the given details. (gravitational acceleration = 10 m/s 2 )

[4]

(i) Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Potential energy at A = potential energy at B B. Potential energy at A > potential energy at B C. Potential energy at A < potential energy at B D. Sufficient data not available to compare the potential

energy at point A and point B

(ii) What is the speed of the ball at point B?

A. m/s √100 B. m/s √10 C. m/s √1 D. None of the above

(iii) If the mass of the ball is 10 g, then the change in kinetic energy from point A to point B is

A. 0.1 J B. 1 J C. 5 J D. 100 J

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(iv) If C is the midpoint of AB and the mass of the ball is 10 g, the kinetic energy of the ball at C is

A. 0.05 J B. 1 J C. 5 J D. 100 J

Question 3

(a) For an ideal machine, mechanical advantage is numerically equal to:

A. Efficiency B. Velocity ratio C. Effort/Load D. None of the above

[1]

(b) In a first-class lever, the load of 12 kgf is at a distance of 1.5 m from the fulcrum, and the effort of 9 kgf is applied at some distance from the fulcrum. At what minimum distance should the effort be applied to lift the load?

A. 1.2 m B. 1.5 m C. 2 m D. 2.2 m

[1]

(c) What is the value of mechanical advantage for the given arrangement of ideal pulleys?

A. 6 B. 8 C. 4 D. 2

[1]

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(d) A boy pulls up a box of 1 kg mass from 5 m to 10 m height. A girl further pulls up the box from 10 m to 20 m height. What is the difference in the amount of work done by the boy and the girl (g = 10m/s 2 )?

A. 100 J B. 200 J C. 50 J D. 0 J

[1]

(e) Why can't echoes be heard clearly in a small room? (Note: This question can have multiple correct answers)

A. Because small rooms absorb more sound B. Because the time gap between direct sound and reflected sound

is too low to be perceptible by the human ear C. Because small rooms reflect less amount of energy D. Because the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2

m, which is larger than the dimension of the room

[2]

(f) A man is riding a vehicle towards a vertical cliff with a velocity of 36 km/h. He fires a gunshot and hears its echo after 4 sec. The speed of sound in air is 320 m/s.

[4]

(i) The distance between the cliff and the position, where he shot the gun is:

A. 640 m B. 680 m C. 620 m D. 660 m

(ii) If the speed of the vehicle increases by 4 times, then the time taken to hear the echo is:

A. 11/3 seconds B. 10/3 seconds C. 3 seconds D. None of the above

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Question 4

(a) The power of a converging lens of focal length 150 cm is:

A. +0.66 D B. +0.5 D C. -0.66 D D. -0.5 D

[1]

(b) When an electric bulb glows:

A. light energy gets converted into heat and electrical energy. B. heat energy gets converted into light and electrical energy. C. electrical energy gets converted into heat and light energy. D. electrical energy gets converted into heat energy only.

[1]

(c)

The highest position of the bob of an ideal pendulum is 5 cm higher than the lowest position. The mass of the bob is 1 g.(g = 10 m/s 2 )

[2]

(i) Which of the following statementS is correct?

A. The maximum speed of the bob is 3 m/s. B. The maximum speed of the bob is 1 m/s. C. The minimum speed of the bob is 1 m/s. D. At some point in its oscillation, the speed of the bob is 3

m/s.

(ii) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Kinetic energy is maximum at the lowest point of the oscillation.

B. The total energy of the bob is 0.0005 J. C. Potential energy is maximum at the highest point of the

oscillation. D. The total energy of the bob is 0.05 J.

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(d) Which of the following is the condition for the occurrence of total internal reflection? (Note: This question can have multiple correct answers)

A. Light travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium. B. Light travels from denser medium to rarer medium. C. Angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle. D. Angle of incidence is smaller than the critical angle.

[2]

(e) The diagram shows a ray of light passing through a total reflecting prism with a critical angle of 42°. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions:

[4]

(i) Why does the ray of light pass undeviated through the face AB of the prism?

A. Because the speed of light is constant B. Because the refractive index of both the mediums is the

same C. Because the angle of incidence is 90° D. Because the angle of incidence is 0°

(ii) What angle does the ray QR make with the surface AC?

A. 30° B. 45° C. 60° D. 75°

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(iii) Which of the following is the correct path of light after refraction from the surface BC?

A. ST 1 B. ST 2 C. ST 3 D. ST 4

(iv) In which of the following will there be a decrease in the speed of light?

A. PQ to QR B. QR to RS C. RS to ST 1 D. RS to ST 2


ICSE SEMESTER 1 EXAMINATION SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

CHEMISTRY SCIENCE Paper – 2

________________________________________________________ Maximum Marks: 40

Time allowed: One hour (inclusive of reading time) ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.

The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

_______________________________________________________ Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

________________________________________________________

Question 1 Two elements P and Q with atomic radii 231 pm and 186 pm, respectively, [1] belong to the same group. If element P belongs to the 4th period, which period does element Q belong to?

A. 3rd period B. 4th period C. 5th period D. 6th period

Question 2 Identify the electrodes X and Y, respectively, in the image for the [1] electrorefining of copper.

A. Copper, Platinum B. Platinum, Copper C. Platinum, Platinum D. Copper, Copper

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Question 3 Identify the option that represents halogens and their position in the modern periodic [1] table.

A. O, S, Se, Te [Group 16] B. F, Cl, Br, I [Group 17] C. N, O, S, F [Group 17] D. N, P, As, Sb [Group 15]

Question 4 A compound contains 20% hydrogen and 80% carbon (by mass). If the vapour density of [1] the compound is 15, calculate its molecular formula.

A. C 2 H 2 B. C 2 H 6 C. C 3 H 4

D. C 6 H 6

Question 5 Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with calcium carbonate to produce a gas that turns moist [1] blue litmus paper red. Identify the gas.

A. Cl 2 B. CO 2 C. CO D. H 2

Question 6 Which of the following salt solution can be used to distinguish between sodium hydroxide [1] and ammonium hydroxide solutions?

A. FeCl 3 B. CuCl 2 C. ZnCO 3 D. CaCl 2

Question 7 Which ion will be discharged at the cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl [1] solution?

A. H + B. OH - C. Cl - D. Na +

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Question 8 Read the following statements: [1]

● Element P contains 7 valence electrons and belongs to the 3rd period. ● Element Q is the most electronegative element in the periodic table. ● Element R is a lustrous solid non-metal. ● Element S belongs to the 4th period and is a liquid non-metal.

Arrange the elements in the increasing order of their electron affinity.

A. P < Q < R < S B. R < S < P < Q C. R < S < Q < P D. S < R < Q < P

Question 9 The compound that contains only single covalent bonds is: [1]

A. CCl 4 B. C 2 H 4 C. O 2 D. N 2

Question 10 Which of the following options is not correct about the anode in an electrolytic cell? [1]

A. It is connected to the positive terminal of the battery. B. Anions present in the solution migrate to the anode. C. Current enters into the electrolytic cell through the anode. D. Reduction takes place at the anode.

Question 11 The best oxidising agent among the following elements would be: [1]

A. F B. H C. O D. N

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Question 12 An ionic bond is formed between two elements X and Y such that the formula [1] obtained is XY 3 . Determine the total number of electrons transferred from X→Y.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Question 13 The given table represents the observations recorded during an experiment [1] conducted between metal sulphates and caustic soda (excess). Which of the following elements can form the hydroxide B?

A. Zn B. Cu C. Ca D. Fe

Question 14 Which of the following elements is not suitable for the manufacture of a container [1] required to store copper sulphate solution?

A. Silver B. Gold C. Platinum D. Iron

Question 15 Identify the correct conversion of forms of energy in an electrolytic cell. [1]

A. Heat → Light B. Chemical → Electrical C. Light → Heat D. Electrical → Chemical

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Metal hydroxide Observation

A Forms precipitate

B No precipitate

Question 16 Which of the two groups in the modern periodic table are most likely to form [1] an ionic bond?

A. Group IA and IIIA B. Group VA and VIA C. Group IVA and VA D. Group IA and VIIA

Question 17 Determine the molecular formula of a compound having an empirical formula [1] as A 2 B. It is given that the vapour density is equal to its empirical formula weight.

A. A 4 B 2 B. A 2 B 4 C. A 3 B 6 D. A 2 B

Question 18 An ionic compound AB is electrolysed in its molten form. Which ion will be [1] discharged at the cathode?

A. A + B. A - C. B + D. B -

Question 19 The ionisation energy (in kJ mol -1 ) of some elements is given. [1]

● M → 520 ● N → 498 ● O → 419 ● P → 403

Which of these elements will undergo an oxidation reaction at the fastest rate?

A. M B. N C. O D. P

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Question 20 For which of the following compounds will the empirical formula be equal [1] to the molecular formula?

A. H 2 O 2 B. P 2 O 5

C. B 2 H 6 D. C 2 H 4

Question 21 Which of the following elements is best suited to be used as a cathode in [1] an electrolytic cell?

A. Lithium B. Aluminium C. Boron D. Potassium

Question 22 What will be the colour of the precipitate formed when zinc sulphate is treated [1] with excess ammonium hydroxide?

A. White B. Colourless C. Blue D. Green

Question 23 The atom of an element present in group VA of the modern periodic table [1] contains 3 shells. Find its valency and electronic configuration.

A. 3, (2, 8, 5) B. 5, (2, 8, 5) C. 3, (2, 8, 3) D. 5, (2, 8, 3)

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Question 24 Select the incorrect statement in terms of ionic and covalent bonds. [1]

A. Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points. B. In the aqueous state, ionic compounds are better conductors than covalent compounds. C. Ionic compounds are insoluble in water, while covalent compounds are highly soluble in

water. D. Ionic compounds are formed by the transfer of electrons, while covalent compounds are

formed by the sharing of electrons.

Question 25 Which of the following elements exhibits a diagonal relationship with beryllium? [1]

A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Aluminium D. Silicon

Question 26 Dry blue litmus paper turns red in the presence of: [1]

A. HCl(g) B. NaOH(aq) C. C 6 H 6 (aq) D. H 2 CO 3 (aq)

Question 27 Electrolytic dissociation of AlCl 3 will produce: [1]

A. AlCl 2 + and Cl -

B. AlCl + and 2Cl - C. Al 3+ and 3Cl - D. Al and Cl 2

Question 28 A compound of carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen contains these elements [1] in the ratio 18:2:7. Calculate the empirical formula of the compound.

A. C 3 H 4 N B. C 2 H 3 N C. CH 4 N D. CH 2 N 2

____________________________________________________________________________ 30

Question 29 Which of the following colours correctly denotes the presence of ferric ions [1] in a solution?

A. Pale blue B. Dirty green C. Reddish-brown D. Gelatinous white

Question 30 Study the given information about atoms X and Y. [1]

To which group does atom X and Y belong?

A. 8, 7 B. 7, 8 C. 15, 15 D. 16, 15

Question 31 The bonds involved in the formation of H 2 O and H 3 O + , respectively are: [1]

A. Covalent and ionic B. Ionic and covalent C. Co-ordinate and covalent D. Covalent and co-ordinate

Question 32 The vapour density of oxygen gas is: [1]

A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64

____________________________________________________________________________ 31

X Y

Number of protons 7 7

Number of neutrons 7 8

Period 2 2

Question 33 Identify the correct pairs of oxidising and reducing agents, respectively. [1]

A. MnO 2 , PbO 2 B. O 3 , H 2 S C. Na, SnCl 4 D. PbO 2 , O 2

Question 34 Study the given reaction: [1]

2Na(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + H 2 (g)

Identify the most suitable indicator to determine the nature of the product formed.

A. Phenolphthalein B. Blue litmus C. Red litmus D. Universal indicator

Question 35 Determine the oxidation state and valency, respectively, of a sodium atom. [1]

A. 0, 0 B. 0, 1 C. 1, 0 D. 1, 1

Question 36 Which of the following metal oxides is not amphoteric in nature? [1]

A. ZnO B. CuO C. Al 2 O 3 D. PbO

____________________________________________________________________________ 32

Question 37 Answer the following questions based on the understanding of ionic and covalent bonds. [4]

(i) Which of the following compounds can be placed in the beaker to complete the circuit?

A. NaCl(aq) B. NaOH(s) C. CCl 4 (l) D. C 4 H 10 (l)

(ii) Which of the following compounds will undergo the given dissociation reaction?

MX(aq) → M + (aq) + X - (aq)

A. ICl B. NaH C. CO D. NO

(iii) What is the general physical state in which ionic compounds are mostly found?

A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Plasma

(iv) The nature of the compound formed when hydrogen reacts with lithium and chlorine, respectively:

A. Ionic, Covalent B. Covalent, Covalent C. Covalent, Ionic D. Ionic, Ionic

____________________________________________________________________________ 33



BIOLOGY SCIENCE Paper – 3

________________________________________________________ Maximum Marks: 40

Time allowed: One hour (inclusive of reading time)

ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY

The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

__________________________________________________ Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

________________________________________________________

SECTION I (15 Marks) Question 1 Name the following by choosing the correct option: [5]

(i) A pair of chromosomes that contain the same genes in the same order along their chromosomal arms:

A. Heterologous chromosomes B. Parental chromosomes C. Homologous chromosomes D. Sister chromatids

(ii) The agent that can affect the rate of transpiration by the closure of stomata:

A. O 2 B. CO 2 C. H 2 O D. N 2

____________________________________________________________________________ 34

(iii) The process by which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration:

A. Diffusion B. Active transport C. Imbibition D. Osmosis

(iv) The primary constriction at the centre of the chromosome:

A. Centrosome B. Centromere C. Centriole D. Tetrad

(v) A plant is kept in a dark closed room for 48 hours before conducting any experiment on photosynthesis to remove:

A. Protein B. Starch C. DNA D. Carbon dioxide

Question 2 Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate option for each blank: [5]

(i) Chiasmata formation is a characteristic feature of ______.

A. prophase I B. metaphase I C. anaphase I D. telophase I

(ii) __________ is an example of imbibition.

A. Swelling of wooden doors B. Opening of stomata C. Uptake of water by root hair D. Loss of water through hydathodes

____________________________________________________________________________ 35

(iii) The pressure required to prevent the entry of water into an osmotically active solution is known as ___________.

A. turgor pressure B. solvent pressure C. solute pressure D. osmotic pressure

(iv) Guttation in plants takes place during ___________.

A. warm, humid nights B. heavy rainy days C. hot, sunny days D. cold winter nights

(v) The green parts of a variegated leaf contain _______ molecules that produce starch.

A. water B. chlorophyll C. carbon dioxide D. sunlight

Question 3 Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below: [5]

(i) What is the state of a cell wall when it is rigid and stretched due to an increase in volume?

A. Turgidity B. Diffusion C. Plasmolysis D. Flaccidity

(ii) During anaphase, which of the following pulls the chromosomes to the opposing poles?

A. Nucleolus B. Spindle fibres C. Cell membrane D. Centromere

____________________________________________________________________________ 36

(iii) What other substance, besides parchment paper, could be used as a semipermeable membrane during osmosis?

A. Animal bladder B. Woollen cloth C. Cotton cloth D. Net mesh

(iv) What happens during the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

A. Photolysis of water into oxygen and hydrogen B. Formation of starch from the polymerisation of glucose C. Reduction of water to make ATP D. Oxidation of carbon dioxide to produce glucose

(v) Which of the following is an alternative form of a specific gene?

A. Chromatin fibre B. Chromatid C. Allele D. DNA

SECTION II (15 Marks)

Question 4 Explain the following terms: [5]

(i) Osmosis:

A. Transfer of solvent molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration through a semipermeable membrane

B. Transfer of solvent molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration without a semipermeable membrane

C. Movement of substances from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration

D. Diffusion of substances through a semipermeable membrane against the concentration gradient by the utilisation of energy

____________________________________________________________________________ 37

(ii) Photolysis of water:

A. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen in the absence of light B. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and ozone in the absence of light C. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen in the presence of light D. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and ozone in the presence of light

(iii) Law of segregation:

A. The dominant trait is visible in the phenotype of the organism in a cross between pure contrasting characteristics, whereas the recessive trait is hidden.

B. A group of genes (or more) is sorted into gametes in a completely unrelated manner. C. Only a single gene copy is allocated in a gamete cell, and this is carried out in a random

manner. D. None of the above

(iv) Guttation:

A. Movement of solvent molecules through a selectively permeable membrane from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration

B. Loss of water in the form of water droplets by plants, from the margins of their leaves, through special pores known as hydathodes

C. Same concentration of water molecules and solute on either side of the cell membrane D. Movement of molecules of a substance from a region of higher concentration to a region

of lower concentration

(v) Active transport:

A. Forceful and inward movement of solvent molecules from the region of lower concentration to the region of higher concentration through a living cell membrane using ATP

B. Spontaneous movement of solvent molecules from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration through a living cell membrane without using ATP

C. Spontaneous movement of solute molecules like ions from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration through a living cell membrane without using ATP

D. Forceful and inward movement of solute molecules like ions from the region of lower concentration to the region of higher concentration through a living cell membrane using ATP

____________________________________________________________________________ 38

Question 5 [5] State the exact location of the following:

(i) Chromosomes during metaphase:

A. Move towards the poles B. Disappear during metaphase C. Lie along the equatorial plane D. Scattered throughout the cell

(ii) Root hair:

A. Outgrowths of epidermal cells B. Outgrowths of xylem tissue C. Outgrowths of stem D. None of the above

(iii) Grana:

A. In the inner membrane of the chloroplast B. Wall of the chloroplast C. In the chlorophyll D. In the stroma of the chloroplast

(iv) Guard cells:

A. More on the upper surface of dorsiventral leaves B. More on the lower surface of dorsiventral leaves C. On upper and lower surfaces of dorsiventral leaves D. None of the above

(v) Spongy parenchyma:

A. Between the upper and lower epidermis of dicot leaves B. Between the upper epidermis and palisade parenchyma of dicot leaves C. Between the lower epidermis and palisade parenchyma of dicot leaves D. Between the upper and lower epidermis of monocot leaves

____________________________________________________________________________ 39

Question 6 [5] State the function of the following:

(i) Dark reaction:

A. Fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide to make glucose B. Conversion of water into oxygen to generate ATP C. Reduction of water to make light energy D. Fixation of carbon dioxide to make chemical energy

(ii) Stomata:

A. Absorption of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere B. Absorption of sunlight C. Absorption of water from the soil through the roots D. Exudation of water droplets

(iii) Xylem:

A. Translocation of food from the leaves to the other parts of the plant B. Storage of food synthesised in the leaves during photosynthesis C. Conduction of water from the other parts of the plant to the roots D. Conduction of water from the roots to the other parts of the plant

(iv) Chromosomes:

A. Involve in the synthesis of protein directly B. Carry the genetic material C. Serve as a food reservoir of the cell D. Provide the site for cellular respiration

(v) Hydathodes:

A. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the margins of leaves of all plants on humid mornings

B. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the stems of all plants on humid mornings

C. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the stems of some plants on humid mornings

D. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the margins of leaves of some plants on humid mornings

____________________________________________________________________________ 40


Question 7 [5] The given diagram represents a stage during meiotic cell division. Answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the stage.

A. Telophase I B. Prophase I C. Metaphase I D. Anaphase I

(ii) Label the part marked ‘X’.

A. Centriole B. Centrosome C. Centromere D. Chiasma

(iii) Name the stage that follows the one shown here.

A. Interphase B. Anaphase I C. Telophase I D. Metaphase I

(iv) What is the diploid number of chromosomes shown in the diagram?

A. 6 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

____________________________________________________________________________ 41

(v) What is the significance of this stage?

A. Gene duplication B. Gene isolation C. Gene recombination D. Gene repair

Question 8 [5] Observe the given diagram and answer the questions:

(i) Name the physiological process that takes place in the given organelle. [1]

A. Photosynthesis B. Imbibition C. Diffusion D. Transpiration

(ii) Label the parts marked a, b, c, and d. [3]

A. a. Thylakoid b. Inner membrane c. Grana d. Stroma B. a. Grana b. Stroma c. Inner membrane d. Thylakoid C. a. Grana b. Inner membrane c. Thylakoid d. Stroma D. a. Thylakoid b. Grana c. Inner membrane d. Stroma

(iii) Which phase of the mentioned physiological process takes place in the part labelled c? [1]

A. Dark reaction B. Light reaction C. Active transport D. Osmosis

____________________________________________________________________________ 42


HISTORY & CIVICS

Time Allowed: 60 minutes Maximum Marks: 40

Instructions: 1. All questions are compulsory. 2. The marks intended for questions are given in brackets. 3. Select the correct option for each of the following questions. 4. Part I comprises 20 questions of 1 mark each. Part II comprises 6 questions of 2 marks each

and Part III comprises 2 questions of 4 marks each.

Part I

____________________________________________________________________________ 43

Q1 Identify the system in which the legislature has two chambers.

A. Unicameralism B. Bicameralism C. Tricameralism D. Quadricameralism

(1)

Q2 What is the current maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha?

A. 245 members B. 250 members C. 255 members D. 260 members

(1)

Q3 Elections to the Lok Sabha are conducted in territorial constituencies, wherein the candidate with the highest number of votes in a constituency wins the election. What is this system known as?

A. Proportional representation B. Referendum C. First past the post system D. None of the above

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 44

Q4 The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to different States and Union Territories is mentioned in which schedule of the Indian Constitution?

A. First Schedule B. Second Schedule C. Third Schedule D. Fourth Schedule

(1)

Q5 Both the Union and State Governments have the power to make laws on subjects mentioned in which of the following lists?

A. Union List B. State List C. Concurrent List D. Residuary List

(1)

Q6 Which chamber of the Parliament can be dissolved by the President through a no-confidence motion?

A. Lok Sabha B. Rajya Sabha C. Both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha D. Neither the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(1)

Q7 Who has the power to impeach the President of India?

A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court B. Chief Election Commissioner C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha D. Parliament

(1)

Q8 If I am the Defence Minister and I introduce a Bill in the Parliament, what will it be called?

A. A Public Bill B. A Private Member’s Bill C. A Service Bill D. A Legal Bill

(1)

Q9 Identify the first session of the Parliament in a calendar year.

A. Winter Session B. Budget Session C. Monsoon Session D. None of the above

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 45

Q10 If the strength of the Lok Sabha is 550 seats, what is the minimum number of seats my party should win for me to be the Leader of the Opposition?

A. 40 B. 45 C. 50 D. 55

(1)

Q11 Who introduced an annexation policy called the Doctrine of Lapse?

A. Lord Canning B. Lord Dalhousie C. Lord Linlithgow D. Lord Mountbatten

(1)

Q12 The Lex Loci Act of 1850 allowed a ____, who had converted to a different faith, to inherit his ancestral property.

A. Christian B. Hindu C. Muslim D. Adivasi

(1)

Q13 Which among the following is not a land revenue system introduced by the British?

A. Permanent Settlement B. Mahalwari Settlement C. Ryotwari Settlement D. General Service Enlistment Act

(1)

Q14 Who among the following passed the General Service Enlistment Act?

A. Lord Mountbatten B. Lord Linlithgow C. Lord Canning D. Lord Dalhousie

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 46

Q15 The 34th Regiment of Bengal Native Infantry of the British Army was stationed at a garrison in ____.

A. Mohanpur B. Chak Kanthalia C. Barrackpore D. Patuliya

(1)

Q16 Who among the following was reinstated as the emperor after the sepoys reached the Red Fort in Delhi?

A. Bahadur Shah II B. Bakht Khan C. Nana Saheb D. Birjis Qadr

(1)

Q17 Which among the following transferred all powers of the English East India Company to the British Crown?

A. Government of India Act, 1830 B. Government of India Act, 1833 C. Government of India Act, 1853 D. Government of India Act, 1858

(1)

Q18 Which among the following wars shattered the image that the British were invincible?

A. First Afghan War B. Crimean War C. Opium War D. Anglo-Persian War

(1)

Q19 Why did the British realise the urgent need of the support of Indians during the Second World War?

A. The British did not want to involve themselves in the war. B. The British wanted to divert the attention of Indians. C. Japan was aggressively winning Asian countries, and the British

anticipated an attack on India. D. The British wanted to divide the Indians.

(1)

Part - II

____________________________________________________________________________ 47

Q20 Which of the following was not a part of the Proclamation of Queen Victoria in 1858?

A. Policy of non-intervention B. Imperial Civil Services C. Policy of intervention D. Moral and material advancement of people

(1)

Q21 If I am a Member of Parliament, I can be disqualified under the anti-defection law:

A. If I abstain from voting contrary to the order of my political party B. If I vote in the House against my party’s orders C. If I vote in the House as per my party’s orders D. If I am an independent member and join a political party within six months

(2)

Q22 If I am a Member of Parliament in the 17th Lok Sabha, what parliamentary privileges am I likely to enjoy?

A. Freedom of speech inside the Parliament B. Freedom from arrest in civil cases C. Freedom from jury service D. Power to make rules of procedure

(2)

Q23 Which of the following option(s) is true about Rajya Sabha?

A. It is a permanent body. B. One-third of its members retire every two years. C. Elections to the Rajya Sabha are conducted on the basis of proportional representation. D. A member of Rajya Sabha serves for a term of five years.

(2)

____________________________________________________________________________ 48

Q24 Which of the following developments can be attributed to the Swadeshi Movement?

A. Development of large-scale chemical and pharmaceutical industries in India

B. Competition against the monopoly of the British Indian Steam Navigation Company

C. Permanent erosion of British textile and spices in the Indian market D. Rise of local banking and insurance companies

(2)

Q25 Pick the names of the British officials behind the Morley–Minto Reforms from the following:

A. Secretary of State for India, Joseph Morley B. Secretary of State for India, John Minto C. Viceroy of India, Minto D. Secretary of State for India, John Morley

(2)

Q26 Why did Gandhi support the Khilafat Movement?

A. To establish a united Hindu–Muslim front B. He was highly concerned about Turkey’s politics C. To counter the effect of British policies, which were increasing

communal divisions D. To stand in solidarity with the Ottoman Empire in exchange for their

support in the National Movement

(2)

Part - III

____________________________________________________________________________ 49

Q27 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

As per Article 81 of the Constitution, the composition of the Lok Sabha should represent changes in the population of India. Thus, the ratio between the number of seats in a state and the population should be nearly the same for all the states, such that every state in India is equally represented. Smaller states, which have a population of less than 60 lakh, are exempted from this rule. So, as the population of India increases, the strength of the Lok Sabha should also increase. However, the strength of the Lok Sabha has remained constant as the delimitation exercise, i.e., a process of redrawing Lok Sabha boundaries, was last completed in 1976. There has been a freeze on the delimitation exercise till 2026. So, when the delimitation exercise would be carried out in 2026, the strength of the Lok Sabha would increase. The government wants to build a new Parliament complex to accommodate the MPs as the old Parliament building would be insufficient to accommodate them.

(ⅰ) What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha at present?


(1)

(ⅱ) Which of the following option(s) are true about the Lok Sabha?

A. Maharashtra, being the most populous state, has the highest number of representatives in the Lok Sabha.

B. A maximum of 13 seats are reserved for the Union Territories. C. 84 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes. D. 47 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Tribes.

(2)

(ⅲ) To be a member of the Lok Sabha, you:

A. Should be a citizen of India B. Should not be insolvent C. Should not hold an office of profit under the government D. All of the above

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 50

Q28

(ⅰ)

(ⅱ)

(ⅲ)

The following questions are based on this case study.

In which year was the Simon Commission set up?

A. 1919 B. 1905 C. 1935 D. 1928

When the commission arrived in India, which of the following did they aim to do?

A. To evaluate the functioning of the Government of India Act, 1919 B. To discuss India’s partition C. To discuss India’s independence D. To discuss the First World War with Indian leaders.

Why did the Indians protest against the Simon Commission?

A. They did not want independence immediately. B. The Commission had only British members. C. No Indians were included as members of the Commission. D. They were against the Second World War.

(1)

(1)

(2)

ICSE Grade X - Term 1

Mock Papers Set -1

GEOGRAPHY

Time Allowed: 60 minutes Maximum Marks: 40

Instructions: 1. All questions are compulsory. 2. The marks intended for questions are given in brackets. 3. Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Part I Topography

____________________________________________________________________________ 51

Q1

Give the six figure grid reference of the hill with a spot height of 280 metres as shown in the map.

A. 879589 B. 872591 C. 872582 D. 882582

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 52

Q2

Name the feature represented in the grid reference number: 6131.

A. A delta with an area of 1080 square metres. B. A town with a population of 1080 persons. C. A hill with a triangulated height of 1080 metres. D. A hill with a spot height of 1080 metres.

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 53

Q3

Ramnadi is a ________ bank tributary of the Kalinadi.

A. Central B. Right C. Left D. None of the above

(1)

Q4

Identify the contour feature represented here.

A. A conical hill B. A plateau C. A waterfall D. A ridge

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 54

Q5

What is the area enclosed by Eastings 81 and 82 and Northings 31 and 33?

A. 18km² B. 19km² C. 10km² D. 2km²

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 55

Q6

What would be the distance between A and B when measured along the route?

A. 3.65km B. 3.65m C. 5.65km D. 5.65m

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 56

Q7

Identify the feature represented in the grid reference number: 8030.

A. Metalled road B. Unmetalled road C. Cart track D. Broad-gauge railway line

(1)

Q8

Identify the drainage pattern shown in the grid reference number: 7212.

A. Dendritic B. Radial C. Trellis D. None of the above

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 57

Q9

The highlighted region indicated by B represents:

A. Cultivable land B. Forest area C. Uncultivable land D. River

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 58

Q10

Identify the type of settlement.

A. Scattered B. Nucleated C. Linear D. None of the above

(1)

Part II

____________________________________________________________________________ 59

Q11 Arrange the following layer of evergreen forest in an order from top to bottom.

1. Emergent layer 2. Canopy 3. Understorey 4. Shrub layer 5. Forest floor

A. 1-->3-->2-->4-->5 B. 1-->2-->3-->4-->5 C. 1-->2-->4-->3-->5 D. 4-->2-->3-->1-->5

(1)

Q12 With respect to tropical deciduous forest, which of the following statements is/are right?

1. This type of forest is widespread in montane regions. 2. They spread over regions which receive very low rainfall.

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

(1)

Q13

Photoperiod is an important aspect that affects the type of vegetation found in a place. Which of the following statements describes photoperiod.

A. It is the duration of time when plants pause their photosynthesis process B. It is the duration of time when plants shed their leaves C. It is the duration of time when plants receive sunlight during the day. D. None of above

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 60

Q14 Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity of flora and fauna in India:

A. India has a huge biodiversity of flora, but it lacks diversity in terms of fauna. B. India's biodiversity increased rapidly during colonial times. C. India has a huge biodiversity in terms of both flora and fauna. D. All above are true

Identify the correct statement.

(1)

Q15 Why are tank irrigation systems considered non-perennial?

A. It is fed by non-perennial rivers B. Not suitable for perennial crops C. Rain-fed nature D. None of the above

(1)

Q16 Which quantitative aspect is responsible for water scarcity?

A. Overexploitation of water B. Rainwater Harvesting C. Water pollution D. None of Above

(1)

Q17 1. El Nino is characterised by warm ocean surface waters near the coast of Peru.

2. El Nino causes lower than normal monsoon rainfall in India.

Read the above given statements carefully and select the option that is true.

A. Statement 1 is correct. B. Statement 2 is correct. C. Both statements are correct. D. Both statements are false.

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 61

Q18 Which of the following given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 2 only

(1)

Q19 Consider the following statements:

1. Delhi generally receives monsoon showers from the Bay of Bengal branch of monsoon. 2. Monsoon winds come from the North-west direction in India. 3. Withdrawal of monsoon is a rapid process all over India. 4. During winter, some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast due to northeast trade winds.

Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?

A. Only 1 and 4 B. Only 2 C. Only 1, 2, and 4 D. Only 2 and 4

(1)

Phases of monsoon Characteristics

1. Onset of monsoon Withdrawal of Easterly Jet Stream from the Northern Plains of India.

2. Break of monsoon October heat phenomenon.

3. Retreat of monsoon Clear skies and rise in temperature.

____________________________________________________________________________ 62

Q20 Consider the following statements about the Indian monsoon:

1. India receives most of its rainfall during the advancing monsoon season.

2. Kerala is the first state on the Indian mainland to receive rainfall during the advancing monsoon season.


A. Statement 1 is correct. B. Statement 2 is correct. C. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct. D. Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

(1)

Q21 Which of the following is not a characteristic associated with climatic controls?

A. Temperature B. Humidity C. Precipitation D. Landform

(1)

Q22 What do you understand by the term retreating monsoon?

A. The monsoon winds entering the country at the start of winter. B. The monsoon winds leaving the country at the end of the monsoon season. C. The monsoon winds entering the country at the end of summer. D. The monsoon winds leaving the country at the start of summer.

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 63

Q23 Choose the correct statement.

For a normal monsoon season in India, which among the following conditions facilitates the movement of monsoon winds from the ocean to the Indian land?

1. Presence of high pressure conditions around the island of Madagascar. 2. Intense heating of the Tibetan plateau, resulting in low pressure

conditions over the Indian mainland.

A. Statement 1 is correct. B. Statement 2 is correct. C. Both statements are correct. D. Both statements are incorrect.

(1)

Q24 Choose the correct statements with reference to monsoon troughs.

1. It is a zone of low-pressure located just below the ITCZ in summer in India. 2. ITCZ helps in attracting the southwest monsoon to the Indian subcontinent.

A. Only statement 1 is true. B. Only statement 2 is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements are false.

(1)

Q25 Which is the most widely used type of irrigation system in India?

A. Drip irrigation system B. Sprinkler irrigation system C. Tube well irrigation system D. Canal irrigation system

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 64

Q26 Choose the correct statements regarding monsoon in India.

1. Every region in India receives rainfall from June to September. 2. Monsoon is the climate associated with a seasonal reversal in direction

of winds.

A. Only 1 is true. B. Both 1 and 2 are false. C. Both 1 and 2 are true. D. 1 is false and 2 is true.

(1)

Q27

Match the following.

A. a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4 B. a - 2, b - 1, c - 3, d - 4 C. a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3 D. a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 1

(1)

Location Annual rainfall (in cm)

a) Bengaluru 1) 225.3 cm (Very high rainfall)

b) Shillong 2) 88.9 cm (Low rainfall)

c) Mumbai 3) 8.5 cm (Very low rainfall)

d) Leh 4) 183.4 cm (High rainfall)

____________________________________________________________________________ 65

Q28 Match the following:

A. 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d B. 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a C. 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c D. 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - a, 4 - c

(1)

Q29 The following events can be noticed in which season?

1. The Northern Hemisphere is oriented away from the sun. 2. Origin of northeast trade winds. 3. A high-pressure region develops over the Indian subcontinent.

A. Summer B. Winter C. Rainy D. Both (A) and (C)

(1)

1) Equatorial regions a) Cold climate

2) Polar regions b) Hot climate

3) Retreating monsoon c) Early June to mid-September

4) Advancing monsoon d) October to November

____________________________________________________________________________ 66

Q30 The climate of India has been described as :

A. Tundra type B. Desert type C. Mediterranean type D. Monsoon type

(1)

Q31 Which of the following is NOT true with regard to laterite soil?

A. Laterite soil develops under tropical and subtropical climates with alternate wet and dry seasons.

B. Heavy rainfall causes leaching of silica and lime, while iron oxide and aluminium compounds are left behind.

C. It is very fertile and supports a wide variety of crops. D. It is deficient in humus content.

(1)

Q32 There are certain methods to conserve soil in plain areas as we do on hill slopes, mulching is one of them. In this context, choose the correct statement which explains the process of ‘mulching’.

A. Carving broad flat steps along steep slopes to reduce speed of running water

B. Digging trenches in front of man-made barriers to collect water and arrest soil erosion

C. Planting strips of grass in between crops to break the flow of wind D. Covering of soil with organic matter to help in moisture retention

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 67

Q33 Cotton is a crop that requires the following conditions to be grown:

1. Ample sunshine with fairly dry conditions. 2. Nutrient-rich soil. 3. Soil which is well aerated. 4. Soil which can hold a lot of water.

Which soil is best suited for cultivating cotton?

A. Red soil B. Laterite soil C. Black soil D. Alluvial soil

(1)

Q34 Which of the following layers of soil is a mixture of sand, silt, and clay and consists mainly of minerals and leached materials such as iron and aluminium compounds?

A. Topsoil B. Bedrock C. Subsoil D. Weathered rocks

(1)

____________________________________________________________________________ 68

Q35 Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

A. I - 1, II - 2, III - 3, IV - 4 B. I - 4, II - 2, III - 3, IV - 1 C. I - 4, II - 3, III - 2, IV - 1 D. I - 1, II - 3, III - 2, IV - 4

Column A Column B

I. Black soil 1. Fine clayey material with deep horizon

II. Khadar 2. New alluvium

III. Bangar 3. Old alluvium

IV. Mountain soil 4. Coarse material with thin soil profile

____________________________________________________________________________ 69

Q36

Identify the region ‘B’ marked on the map of India.

A. Malwa Plateau B. Bari Doab C. Vidarbha D. Rann of Kutch

____________________________________________________________________________ 70

Q37

On the map of India. ‘A’ is marked as a mountain range. Identify A using the following options.

A. Karakoram Range B. Baba Budan Hills C. Patkai Bum D. Lushai Hills

ANSWER KEYS

____________________________________________________________________________ 71

MATHEMATICS

____________________________________________________________________________ 72

1 A 18 A

2 D 19 B

3 B 20 C

4 C 21 C

5 D 22 B

6 C 23(i) B

7 C 23(ii) C

8 D 23(iii) D

9 D 23(iv) A

10 C 24(i) B

11 B 24(ii) A

12 D 24(iii) B

13 A 24(iv) C

14 B 25(i) D

15 C 25(ii) C

16 D 25(iii) B

17 C 25(iv) A

PHYSICS

____________________________________________________________________________ 73

Question 1 (a) A Question 3 (a) B

(b) C (b) C

(c) C (c) B

(d) C (d) C

(e) C (e) B,D

(f) (i) D (f) (i) D

(ii) B (ii) A

(iii) B Question 4 (a) A

(iv) C (b) C

Question 2 (a) C (c) (i) B

(b) B (ii) D

(c) C (d) B,C

(d) B (e) (i) D

(e) (i) C (ii) A

(ii) D (iii) B

(f) (i) B (iv) A

(ii) D

(iii) A

(iv) A

CHEMISTRY

____________________________________________________________________________ 74

1. A 21. A

2. D 22. B

3. B 23. A

4. B 24. C

5. B 25. C

6. D 26. D

7. A 27. C

8. C 28. A

9. A 29. C

10. D 30. C

11. A 31. D

12. C 32. B

13. A 33. B

14. D 34. D

15. D 35. B

16. D 36. B

17. A 37. (i) A

18. A 37. (ii) B

19. D 37. (iii) A

20. B 37. (iv) A

BIOLOGY

____________________________________________________________________________ 75

1(i) C. 5(i) C.

1(ii) B. 5(ii) A.

1(iii) A. 5(iii) D.

1(iv) B. 5(iv) B.

1(v) B. 5(v) C.

2(i) A. 6(i) A.

2(ii) A. 6(ii) A.

2(iii) D. 6(iii) D.

2(iv) A. 6(iv) B.

2(v) B. 6(v) D.

3(i) A. 7(i) B.

3(ii) B. 7(ii) D.

3(iii) A. 7(iii) D.

3(iv) B. 7(iv) C.

3(v) C. 7(v) C.

4(i) A. 8(i) A.

4(ii) C. 8(ii) C.

4(iii) C. 8(iii) B.

4(iv) B.

4(v) D.

HISTORY & CIVICS

____________________________________________________________________________ 76

Q1 B Q13 D Q25 C, D

Q2 A Q14 C Q26 A, C

Q3 C Q15 C Q27 (ⅰ) B

Q4 D Q16 A Q27 (ⅱ) C, D

Q5 C Q17 D Q27 (ⅲ) D

Q6 A Q18 A Q28 (ⅰ) D

Q7 D Q19 C Q28 (ⅱ) A

Q8 A Q20 C Q28 (ⅲ) B, C

Q9 B Q21 A, B

Q10 D Q22 A, B, D

Q11 B Q23 A, B, C

Q12 B Q24 A, B

GEOGRAPHY

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Q1 C Q11 B Q21 D Q31 C

Q2 C Q12 D Q22 B Q32 D

Q3 B Q13 C Q23 C Q33 C

Q4 B Q14 C Q24 B Q34 C

Q5 A Q15 C Q25 C Q35 A

Q6 C Q16 C Q26 D Q36 D

Q7 D Q17 C Q27 C Q37 A

Q8 A Q18 C Q28 C

Q9 C Q19 A Q29 B

Q10 C Q20 C Q30 D

SOLUTIONS

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MATHEMATICS

Question 1

Which of the following represents the order of matrix (k is any real number)?

A. 1 x 1 B. 3 x 1 C. 1 x 3 D. 2 x 1

Answer: A.

Solution:

Given,

Matrix has order 1 3, and matrix has order 3 1. × ×

Therefore, the order of matrix is 1 1 . ×

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Question 2

The tax invoice of a company shows the cost of services provided by it as ₹1,200. If the rate of GST is 18%, then the total amount of the bill is:

A. ₹216 B. ₹1,216 C. ₹1,316 D. ₹1,416

Answer: D.

Solution: Given, Cost of services = ₹1,200 Rate of GST = 18% GST = 18% of 1,200 = ₹216 Total amount of bill = 1,200 + 216 = ₹1,416

Question 3

In the following figure, DE is parallel to BC, AD = 1 cm, BD = 3 cm, and BC = 6 cm. The length of DE is equal to:

A. 1 cm B. 1.5 cm C. 2 cm D. 2.5 cm

Answer: B.

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Solution: In and , ADE △ ABC △

A A ∠ = ∠ ADE ABC ∠ = ∠

[AA similarity criterion] ADE ABC ⇒ △ ~ △ ⇒

ABAD = BC

DE ⇒

41 = 6

DE E .5 cm ⇒ D = 4

6 = 1

Question 4

The fourth proportion of the numbers 7, 28, and 4 is:

A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 20

Answer: C.

Solution: The given numbers are 7, 28, and 4. Let the fourth proportion be ‘ ’. k

⇒ 728 = k

4 k 28 4 6 ⇒ 7 = × ⇒ k = 1

Question 5

Reema deposited ₹300 per month for 15 months in a bank's recurring deposit account. If the bank pays interest at the rate of 10% per annum, the amount she gets on maturity is:

A. ₹300 B. ₹3,800 C. ₹4,500 D. ₹4,800

Answer: D.

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Solution: Given, P = ₹300, n = 15, r = 10%

PI = × 2 × 12n(n+1) × r

100 300 ⇒ I = × 2 × 12

15(15+1) × 10100

300 ⇒ I = × 2415×16 × 1

10 300 ⇒ I = × 24

240 × 110

300 ⇒ I = Total amount deposited by Reema = 300 15 = ₹4,500 × Therefore, the amount that Reema will get on maturity = 4,500 + 300 = ₹4,800

Question 6

If x∈N, then the solution set of the inequation is: 2x 5 1 − <

A. {-1, 0, 1, 2,…} B. {0, 1, 2, 3,...} C. {1, 2, 3,…} D. {-2, -1, 0,...}

Answer: C

Solution: Given,

2x 5 5 2x 2x x 1 − < ⇒ 1 − < ⇒ − 4 < ⇒ − 2 < Since, and x∈ N x > − 2 Therefore, {1, 2, 3, …}x =

Question 7

Find the sum of the first 20 terms of an arithmetic progression whose first term is 5 and last term is 295.

A. 30 B. 300 C. 3,000 D. 30,000

Answer : C.

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Solution: Given, First term, a = 5 Last term, l = 295 Number of terms, n = 20

(a ) (5 95) 0 00 3, 00 S20 = 2n + l = 2

20 + 2 = 1 × 3 = 0

Question 8

If the ratio between the corresponding sides of two similar triangles is 4 : 5, then the ratio between the areas of these triangles is:

A. 2 : 3 B. √4 : √5 C. 4 : 5 D. 16 : 25

Answer: D.

Solution: Given, The ratio between the corresponding sides of two similar triangles is 4 : 5. The ratio of areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of the squares on their corresponding sides. ∴ Ratio between the areas of these triangles = 6 5

5242

= 2516 = 1 : 2

Question 9

The solution set representing the following number line is:

A. { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 ≤ x ≤ 7 B. { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 < x ≤ 7 C. { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 ≤ x < 7 D. { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 < x < 7

Answer: D.

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Solution: The given number line represents the solution set for all real numbers lying between -1 and 7, excluding these values. Therefore, the solution set representing the number line is: { } , x : x ∈ R − 1 < x < 7

Question 10

The roots of the quadratic equation are x x2 2 + 6 + 7 = 0

A. Real and unequal B. Real and equal C. Imaginary D. Cannot be determined

Answer: C.

Solution: The given equation is = 0 x x2 2 + 6 + 7 Here, 2, b 6, c 7a = = = Discriminant, 4ac 0 D = b2 − = 62 − 4 × 2 × 7 = − 2 < 0 Hence, the roots of the given equation are imaginary.

Question 11

If , then by using componendo and dividendo, find b

a = dc .3a 2b−

3a + 2b

A. 3c + 2d3c 2d−

B. 3c 2d−3c + 2d

C. 3c d−3c + d

D. c 2d−c + 2d

Answer: B.

Solution: Given, b

a = dc

Multiplying both the sides by , we get, 23

2b3a = 2d

3c

By using componendo and dividendo, 3a 2b−3a + 2b = 3c 2d−

3c + 2d

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Question 12

If is a factor of , then the value of is equal to: (x 2) − 8x 3k f (x) = x2 − + k

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer: D.

Solution: Given,

is a factor of x 2) ( − x 8x 3k ) ( 2 − + Remainder ∴ f (2) 2 8(2) 3k 4 16 3k = = 2 − + = 0 ⇒ − + = 0 ⇒ 2 3k 0 − 1 + = ⇒ k 123 = ⇒ 4k =

Question 13

The (n - 1) th term of the A.P 5, 7, 9,… is given by:

A. 2n + 1 B. n + 1 C. 2n - 1 D. n - 1

Answer: A.

Solution: The given A.P is 5, 7, 9,… Here, a = 5, d = 2

a ((n 1) 1)d tn 1− = + − − 5 ((n 1) 1) tn 1− = + − − × 2

5 ((n 2) tn 1− = + − × 2 5 2n 4 tn 1− = + −

2n tn 1− = + 1

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Question 14

If the roots of the quadratic equation are equal, then the value of ‘ ’ is: x x2 − 2 + k k

A. -1 B. 1 C. 2 D. -2

Answer: B.

Solution: The given equation is = 0 x x2 − 2 + k Since the roots are equal, ac b2 − 4 = 0 ⇒ (1)(k) 0 ( )− 2 2 − 4 = ⇒ 4k 4 − = 0 ⇒ 1k =

Question 15

Two matrices A and B can be added only if:

A. Number of columns of A = Number of columns of B B. Both are rectangular. C. Both have the same order. D. Number of rows of A = Number of columns of B

Answer: C.

Solution: Two matrices A and B can be added only if they have the same order. For example,

A = and B = can be added as both have the same order, i.e., 2 x 2.

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Question 16

Factors of cubic polynomial is (x) x – 5x – 11x – 3f = 3 3 2

A. x )(x )(x ) ( + 1 − 3 + 31

B. x )(x )(x ) ( − 1 − 3 + 31

C. x )(x )(x )( + 1 + 3 + 31

D. x )(x )(x ) ( + 1 − 3 − 31

Answer: A. Solution:

(x) x – 5x – 11x – 3f = 3 3 2 (x) x )(3x x ) f = ( + 1 2 − 8 − 3 (x) x )(x )(x ) f = ( + 1 − 3 + 3

1

SECTION II (12 Marks) Question 17

A company sells its television sets at a price that involves 18% GST. If it sells TV sets across states and the GST per set being collected is ₹1,260, what would be the total amount charged for each television set?

A. ₹7,000 B. ₹9,520 C. ₹8,260 D. ₹7,740

Answer: C. ₹8,260

Solution: Let the selling price of a television set be ₹x. ⇒ Taxable value = ₹x Rate of GST = 18% GST paid = ₹1,260 (given) ⇒ 18% of x = ₹1,260 ⇒ x = = ₹7,000 18

1260 × 100 Total amount charged for each television set = Price of the television set + GST = ₹7,000 + ₹1,260 = ₹8260 ∴ The total amount charged for each television set is ₹8,260.

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Question 18

Malini opens a recurring deposit account and deposits ₹600 per month for 5 years. If the rate of interest is 8% per annum, the value she receives at the end of the maturity period is:

A. ₹43,320 B. ₹43,330 C. ₹45,320 D. ₹45,330

Answer: A

Solution:

Given,

The amount she invests per month, P = ₹600

Number of months, n = months 2 605 × 1 =

Rate of interest, r = 8% per annum

Total amount invested = n P ×

= 600 0 × 6

= ₹36,000

Interest = P × 2 ×12n × (n+1) × r

100

= = 7,320 006 × 2 ×1260 × (60+1) × 8

100

Maturity amount = Amount invested + Interest

= ₹36,000 + ₹7,320

= ₹43,320

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Question 19

The number line that represents the solution of the inequation is: x ; x − 8 ≤ 2 < 4 ∈ R

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B.

Solution:

Given, x − 8 ≤ 2 < 4

Rule: If both sides of an inequation are multiplied or divided by the same positive number, then the sign of the inequality remains the same. On dividing the inequation by 2, we get

⇒ − 4 ≤ x < 2 Also, a darkened circle indicates that the number is included, and a hollow circle indicates that the number is not included in the solution set.

The same solution is represented on the number line as follows:

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Question 20

The solution set of quadratic equation is represented by 2x 63 0 x2 + − =

A. {7, 9} B. {-7, 9} C. {7, -9} D. {-7, -9}

Answer: C.

Solution: The given equation is 2x 63 0 x2 + − = Using the quadratic formula,

x = 2ab ± − √ b 4ac2−

⇒ x = 2 × 12 ±− √2 4(1)( 63)2− −

⇒ x = 22 ± − √4 + 252

⇒ x = 22 ± − √ 256

⇒ x = 22 ± 16−

, ⇒ x = 7 − 9

Question 21

What number must be added to each of 13, 25, 69, and 113 so that they are in proportion?

A. 10 B. 9 C. 8 D. 7

Answer: C.

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Solution: Let x be added to each of 13, 25, 69, and 113 so that the resulting numbers are in proportion. It means,

13 x) (25 x) : (69 x) (113 x)( + : + : + : + ⇒ 25 + x

13 + x = 69 + x113 + x

(13 x)(113 x) (25 x)(69 x) ⇒ + + = + + 1469 13x 113x x 1725 25x 69x x ⇒ + + + 2 = + + + 2

1469 126x x 1725 94x x ⇒ + + 2 = + + 2 126x 4x x x 1725 469 ⇒ − 9 + 2 − 2 = − 1

32x 256 ⇒ = ⇒ x = 32

256 = 8

Question 22

If 27, 24, 21,... are in A.P and the sum of the first n terms is zero, then the value of n is:

A. 27 B. 19 C. 24 D. 17

Answer: B. Solution: The given AP is 27, 24, 21,…

a = 27; d = 24 - 27 = -3

[2a n )d] Sn = 2n + ( − 1

Since the sum is 0,

[2 7 n )( )] ⇒2n × 2 + ( − 1 − 3 = 0

( 54 n 3) 0 ⇒ n − 3 + =

( 57 n ) 0 ⇒ n − 3 =

or ⇒ n = 0 7 n 0 5 − 3 =

or ⇒ n = 0 n = 357

or ⇒ n = 0 9n = 1

Since the number of terms cannot be equal to 0, 9n = 1

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Question 23 When a polynomial is divided by , the remainder is . If the (x) px qf = x3 + + (x ) − a (a)f remainder is zero, then is a factor of the polynomial . x ) ( − a (x)f

(i) If is a factor of the given polynomial , then, x ) ( − 2 (x) px qf = x3 + +

A. p q 8 2 − = B. p q 2 + = − 8 C. p q 82 + = D. q p + = − 8

Answer: B.

Solution: Given,

is a factor of the polynomial x ) ( − 2 (x) px qf = x3 + + f (2) 0 ∴ =

2 p(2) q 0 ⇒ 3 + + = 8 2p q 0 ⇒ + + =

2p q ⇒ + = − 8

(ii) If it is given that and are factors of the polynomial , then the x ) ( − 2 x ) ( − 3 (x) px qf = x3 + + value of ’ is: p q ′ +

A. -11 B. -19 C. 11 D. 20

Answer: C.

Solution: Given,

is a factor of the polynomial x ) ( − 2 (x) xf = x3 + p + q (2) ⇒ f = 0

(2) 0 ⇒ 23 + p + q = p ⇒ 8 + 2 + q = 0

…(1) p ⇒ 2 + q =− 8 Also,

is a factor of the polynomial x ) ( − 3 px qf (x) = x3 + + (3) 0 ⇒ f =

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(3) 0 ⇒ 33 + p + q = 7 p ⇒ 2 + 3 + q = 0

…(2) p q 7 ⇒ 3 + =− 2 Subtracting equation (2) from equation (1), we get,

9 p = − 1 Substituting the value of ‘p’ in equation (1), we get,

( 9) 2 − 1 + q =− 8 8 ⇒ q − 3 =− 8

8 0 ⇒ q = 3 − 8 = 3 p 9 0 1 ∴ + q =− 1 + 3 = 1

(iii) If the given polynomial is divided by , then it leaves the remainder as zero. Find . x2 − 1 q

A. -2 B. -1 C. 1 D. 0

Answer: D.

Solution: Given, When is divided by it leaves the remainder as zero. (x)f , x2 − 1 ∴ is a factor of f(x). x )(x ) x2 − 1 = ( − 1 + 1 ∴ and (1)f = 0 ( ) f − 1 = 0

and ⇒− 1 − p + q = 0 1 + p + q = 0 and … (1) ⇒ p − q = − 1 … (2) p + q = − 1

Subtracting equation (1) from equation (2), we get, q = 0

(iv) If it is given that and are factors of the polynomial , then its third factor is x ) ( − 2 x ) ( − 3 (x)f given by:

A. x )( + 5 B. x ) ( − 5 C. x )( + 6 D. x ) ( − 6

Answer: A.

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Solution: We have,

(x) px qf = x3 + + In (ii), we get the values of ‘p’ and ‘q’ as and 9 p = − 1 30q = Substituting the values of ‘p’ and ‘q’, we get,

= (x)f 19x 30 x3 − + Since and are factors of , x 2) ( − x ) ( − 3 (x)f

= will completely divide . x ) ( − 2 x ) ( − 3 5x x2 − + 6 (x)f = (x)f 19x 30 x3 − +

Therefore, the third factor = x 5x +62 −x 19x + 303 − = (x 2)(x 3)− −

(x 2)(x +2x 15)− 2 − = (x 3)−(x +2x 15)2 − = (x 3)−

(x 3)(x + 5)− = x )( + 5

Question 24

In the given figure, AB, CD, and EF are parallel lines. If B 10 cm, EF 15 cm,A = = C 6 cm,A = and , then find the following E 1 cmC = 2

(i) FC

A. 10 cm B. 9 cm C. 8 cm D. 12 cm

Answer: B. Solution: In and ACBΔ F CE,Δ

...(Vertically opposite angles) ACB F CE ∠ = ∠

...(Alternate angles) CAB CF E ∠ = ∠ ...(AA similarity) ACB F CEΔ ~ Δ

Therefore, = ACCF

ABF E

= 6CF 15

10 F cmC = 9

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(ii) DC

A. cm6 B. cm2 C. cm9 D. cm5

Answer: A.

Solution: In and , F BAΔ F DCΔ

(Corresponding angles) F BA F DC ∠ = ∠ (Common angles) AF B CF D ∠ = ∠ (AA similarity) F BA F DCΔ ~ Δ

Therefore, = AFCF

ABCD

= CFAC + CF AB

CD = 9

6+9 10CD

D cmC = 6

(iii) CB

A. 2 cm1 B. 4 cm1 C. 6 cm1 D. 8 cm1

Answer: B.

Solution: In and , F BEΔ DBCΔ

(Corresponding angles) BEF BCD ∠ = ∠ (Common angles) F BE DBC ∠ = ∠ (AA similarity) F BE DBCΔ ~ Δ

Therefore, = BCBE

CDEF

= BCBC+21

615

BC 1) 5BC( + 2 × 6 = 1 C 4 cmB = 1

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(iv) Area of ΔF BEArea of ΔDBC

A. 2

5 B. 4 C. 4

25

D. 225

Answer: C

Solution: = Area of ΔF BE

Area of ΔDBC )( CDEF 2

= = )( 615 2

425

Question 25

Let , , and

(i) Find .A2

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D.

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Solution:

(ii) Find C.A

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

(iii) Find B.5

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

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Solution:

(iv) Find C B. A2 + A − 5

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:

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PHYSICS (Question + Correct answer + Solution)

____________________________________________________________________________ 99

Question 1

(a) Choose the correct statement for a rectangular glass slab.

A. The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray B. The emergent ray is inclined to the incident ray C. The emergent ray coincides with the incident ray D. The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident ray

Answer: A

Solution: For refraction of light by a rectangular glass slab, the extent of bending is equal and opposite at the opposite ends. So, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.

When a light ray enters the glass slab from the air medium, = air μ glass ( i = angle of incidence, r 1 = angle of refraction) ⇒ sin i

sin r1

When a light ray enters the air medium from the glass slab,

= glass μ air ( r 2 = angle of incidence, e = angle of emergence) ⇒ sin esin r2

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r 1 = r 2 (alternate angle) ⇒

air μ glass = ⇒ 1 μglass air

= ⇒ sin isin r1

sin esin r2

sin i = sin e (as, sin r 1 = sin r 2 ) ⇒ i = e ⇒

Therefore, we can see that the incidence angle and emergence angle are equal. Hence, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.

(b) Which of the following ray diagrams correctly depicts the refraction of light from air to glass?

A.

B.

C.

D.

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Answer: C

Solution: When a ray of light travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it bends towards the normal. The light ray in the given case is travelling from air (rarer medium) to glass (denser medium). So, it must bend toward the normal.

(c) Where will the image be formed for an object placed at 25 cm from the optical centre of the convex lens, if the focal length of the lens is 12.5 cm?

A. At 25 cm on the same side of the lens as of the object B. At 12.5 cm on the other side of the lens as of the object C. At 25 cm on the other side of the lens as of the object D. At 12.5 cm on the same side of the lens as of the object

Answer: C

Solution: Given: The focal length of the lens is 12.5 cm. The object is placed at 25 cm.

This means the object is placed at 2F 1 , so the image will be formed at an equal distance on the other side of the lens, i.e., at 2F 2 .

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(d) A ray of light passing from one medium to another will pass undeviated in which of the following cases?

A. Angle of incidence is equal to 45°. B. Ray passes from a medium of higher optical density to a medium of lower

optical density. C. Refractive index is the same for both mediums. D. Angle of incidence is 90°.

Answer: C

Solution: When the refractive index of both the mediums is the same, the speed of light in both the mediums remains the same. Hence, when light passes from one medium to another with the same speed, there is no deviation, i.e., there is no change of path even for a non-zero angle of incidence.

(e) The refractive index of glass with respect to water is 1.125. If the speed of light in glass is 2 × 10 8 ms -1 , then the absolute refractive index of water is ___. (speed of light = 3 × 10 8 ms -1 )

A. 1.5 B. 1.7 C. 1.33 D. 1.9

Answer: C

Solution: Here, the refractive index of glass with respect to water i.e., w μ g = 1.125. Speed of light in glass = 2 × 10 8 ms -1 Speed of light in air = 3 × 10 8 ms -1 Absolute refractive index of glass μ g = Speed of light in air

speed of light in glass

μ g = 3 × 108

2 × 108 ∴ μ g = 1.5.

As we know that

The refractive index of glass with respect to water w μ g is given as:

w μ g = efractive index of glass Refractive index of water R /

w μ g = μa g μa w

a μ w = = μa g μa w

1.51.125 1.33 =

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(f) (i) What will happen to the size of the image if we move the object away from the lens?

A. The size of the image will increase. B. The size of the image will first decrease and then increase. C. There will be no change in the size of the image. D. The size of the image will decrease.

Answer: D

Solution: As the object moves away from the focus of the convex lens, the size of the image keeps on decreasing and becomes point size as the object reaches an infinite distance from the lens.

(ii) If instead of this lens we use a lens of twice the focal length, what effect will there be on the power of the lens?

A. Power of the lens would increase by 2 times. B. Power of the lens would become half. C. Power will not change. D. Power will be squared.

Answer: B

Solution: Power of a lens is inversely related to the focal length of the lens.

P ∝ f1

So, as the focal length is doubled, the power of the lens will be halved.

(iii) If the object is placed at 32 cm from the lens, what will be the image position?

A. At 2F 2 B. Between F 2 and 2F 2 C. At infinity D. Beyond 2F 2

Answer: B

Solution: As the object is moved away from the lens, the distance at which the image is formed keeps on decreasing, and as the object moves beyond 2F distance, the image is formed between F and 2F on the other side of the lens. Since in this case the focal length, i.e., F = 15 cm, that means 2F = 30 cm.

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When the object is at 32 cm, it is just beyond 2F. So, the image will be formed between F and 2F on the other side, i.e., between F 2 and 2F 2 .

(iv) What will be the characteristic of the image if the object is at 32 cm distance?

A. Enlarged, real, and inverted B. Enlarged, virtual, and erect C. Diminished, real, and inverted D. Same size, real, and inverted

Answer: C

Solution: The image formed when the object is placed beyond 2F is a diminished, real, and inverted image between F and 2F on the other side.

Question 2

(a) The energy possessed by a body in deformed state due to change in its configuration (shape) is known as ______.

A. Vibrational kinetic energy B. Gravitational potential energy C. Elastic potential energy D. Rotational kinetic energy

Answer: C

Solution: When an external force is applied on a body, its shape changes. By the property of elasticity, the body regains its shape when the force is removed. The energy possessed by the body in its deformed state is known as the elastic potential energy and is equal to the work done to deform the body.

(b) What is the relationship between SI unit of power (watt) and C.G.S unit of power (erg s -1 ).

A. 1 W = 10 6 erg s -1 B. 1 W = 10 7 erg s -1 C. 1 W = 10 10 erg s -1 D. 1 W = 10 12 erg s -1

Answer: B

Solution: 1 W = 1 J s -1 = 10 7 erg s -1

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(c) A monkey of mass 10 kg climbs up a 10 m rope in 10 s. Calculate the power spent by the monkey (g = 10 m/s 2 ).

A. 20 W B. 50 W C. 100 W D. 150 W

Answer: C

Solution: Given, Mass of monkey, m = 10 kg Height, h = 10 m Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2 Time taken = 10 s We know, work done by the monkey = mgh = 10 10 10 J × × = 1000 J We know, Power = time taken

work done = W = 100 W 10

1000

(d) Mechanical advantage and velocity ratio of a first-class lever:

A. is always greater than 1 B. can be greater than 1 or less than 1 or equal to 1 C. is always less than 1 D. can never be less than 1

Answer: B

Solution: Some important points about Class I level are as follows:

● When the effort arm is longer than the load arm, the mechanical advantage and the velocity ratio of the ideal first-class lever are greater than 1. Such levers serve as force multipliers.

● When the effort arm is equal to the load arm, the mechanical advantage

and the velocity ratio of the ideal first-class lever are equal to 1.

● When the effort arm is shorter than the load arm, the mechanical advantage and the velocity ratio of the ideal first-class lever are less than one. Such levers are used to obtain gain in speed.

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Hence, the mechanical advantage and the velocity ratio of a first-class lever can be greater than 1, less than 1, or equal to 1.

(e) (i) Kinetic energy of the car

A. after point Q is 1,22,500 J. B. before P is 1,35,000 J. C. remains constant between P and Q. D. at any point between P and Q is 1,12,500 J.

Answer: C

Solution:

Given, Mass of car = 1,200 kg Speed of the car = 10 m/s

Kinetic energy (K.E.) before point P = ½ mv 2 = ½ x (1200 10 10) = × × 60,000 J

Speed of the car in between the point P to Q = 15 m/s

Kinetic energy (K.E.) from point P to Q = ½ mv 2 = ½ x (1200 15 15) = × × 1,35,000 J

As from P to Q there is no change in speed and mass, there is no change in Kinetic energy of the car and hence it remains constant.

After point Q, Mass of the car = (1,200 - 200) kg = 1,000 kg Kinetic energy (K.E.) after point Q is = ½ mv 2 = ½ x (1000 15 15) = × × 1,12,500 J

(ii) The momentum of the car

A. before point P is 10,000 kg.m/s. B. after point Q is 18,000 kg.m/s. C. before point P and after point Q are equal.

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D. at any point between point P and point Q is 18,000 kg.m/s.

Answer: D

Solution:

Given, Mass of the car = 1,200 kg Speed of the car = 10 m/s

Momentum of car before point P = mv = (1200 10) kg.m/s × = 12,000 kg.m/s

Speed of the car in between the point P to Q = 15 m/s Momentum of body between point P to point Q = mv = (1200 15) kg.m/s × = 18,000 kg.m/s

As from P to Q there is no change in speed and mass, there is no change in momentum and it remains constant.

After point Q, Mass of the car = (1200 - 200) kg = 1,000 kg Momentum of car after point Q is = mv = (1000 15) kg.m/s × = 15,500 kg.m/s

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(f) (i)

A ball falls from point A to point B (gravitational acceleration = 10 m/s 2 ).

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Potential energy at A = potential energy at B B. Potential energy at A > potential energy at B C. Potential energy at A < potential energy at B D. Sufficient data not available to compare the potential energy at point

A and point B

Answer: B

Solution: We know, potential energy = mass gravitational acceleration height × × As we can see in the diagram, the height of point A is greater than the height of point B. Therefore, potential energy at A > potential energy at B.

(ii) What is the speed of the ball at point B?

A. m/s √100 B. m/s √10 C. m/s √1 D. None of the above

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Answer: D

Solution: We know that energy is conserved at all points. Total energy at point A = Total energy at point B Kinetic energy at point A + Potential energy at point A = Kinetic energy at point B + Potential energy at point B (½ mv 2 ) A +(mgh) A = (½ mv 2 ) B +(mgh) B ⇒

(mgh) A = (½ mv 2 ) B (As speed at point A is 0 m/s and height of point B is ⇒

0 m) m(10 1) = ½ mv 2

B ⇒ ×

v 2

B = 20 ⇒ v B = ⇒ √20

(iii) If the mass of the ball is 10 g, then the change in kinetic energy from point point A to B is

A. 0.1 J B. 1 J C. 5 J D. 100 J

Answer: A

Solution: Given, Mass of ball, m = 10 g = 0.01 kg, Gravitational acceleration, g = 10 m/s 2

We know that energy is conserved at all points.

Kinetic energy at point A is 0 J.

Total energy at point A = Total energy at point B Kinetic energy at point A + Potential energy at point A = Kinetic energy at point B + Potential energy at point B (½ mv 2 ) A +(mgh) A = (½ mv 2 ) B +(mgh) B ⇒

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(mgh) A = (½ mv 2 ) B (As speed at point A is 0 m/s and height of point B ⇒ is 0 m) m(10 1) = ½ mv 2

B ⇒ ×

v 2

B = 20 ⇒ v B = ⇒ √20

Kinetic energy at point B is (½ mv 2 ) B = ½ (0.01 20 ) J = 0.1 J. ×

(iv) If C is the midpoint of AB and the mass of the ball is 10 g, the kinetic energy of the ball at C is

A. 0.05 J B. 1 J C. 5 J D. 100 J

Answer: A

Solution: Given, Mass of ball, m = 10 g = 0.01 kg, Gravitational acceleration, g = 10 m/s 2

At point A, Height of A = 1 m Potential energy at A = mgh = 0.01 10 1 J = 0.1 J × ×

Kinetic energy = ½ mv 2 = 0 J (v is the speed of the ball = 0 m/s) Total energy = potential energy + kinetic energy = 0 + 0.1 J = 0.1 J

Height of C, h = ½ height of AB = 0.5 m × Potential energy = mgh = (0.01 10 0.5) J = 0.05 J × ×

We know that total energy is conserved. Total energy = 0.1 J Kinetic energy = Total energy - potential energy = (0.1 - 0.05) J = 0.05 J

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Question 3

(a) For an ideal machine, mechanical advantage is numerically equal to:

A. Efficiency B. Velocity ratio C. Effort/Load D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution: For an ideal machine (free from friction, etc.), the work output is equal to the work input. So, the efficiency is 1 for such machines. As mechanical advantage is the product of efficiency and velocity ratio, M.A = V.R × η As η = 1 for an ideal machine. So, the mechanical advantage is numerically equal to the velocity ratio.

(b) In a first-class lever, the load of 12 kgf is at a distance of 1.5 m from the fulcrum, and the effort of 9 kgf is applied at some distance from the fulcrum. At what minimum distance should the effort be applied to lift the load?

A. 1.2 m B. 1.5 m C. 2 m D. 2.2 m

Answer: C

Solution:

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Given, load = 12 kgf, effort = 9 kgf, and load arm = 1.5 m

Applying the Principle of Moments about fulcrum:

load oad arm f fort f fort arm ⇒ × l = e × e

12 .5 f fort arm ⇒ × 1 = 9 × e

ef fort arm m ⇒ = 2

(c) What is the value of mechanical advantage for the given arrangement of ideal pulleys?

A. 6 B. 8 C. 4 D. 2

Answer: B

Solution: In general, if there are movable pulleys with one fixed pulley, the mechanical n advantage is written as:

.A. ⇒ M = 2n

In the given diagram, there are three movable pulleys. So, .A. ⇒ M = 23 = 8

(d) A boy pulls up a box of 1 kg mass from 5 m to 10 m height. A girl further pulls up the

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box from 10 m to 20 m height. What is the amount of excess work done by the girl (g = 10m/s 2 )?

A. 100 J B. 200 J C. 50 J D. 0 J

Answer: C

Solution: We know, potential energy = mgh

Where m is the mass of an object, g is the gravitational acceleration, and h is the height of the object. Work done = change in potential energy = mg(change in h)

For 1st case, Work done = mg(change in h) = 1 10 (10 - 5) J × × = 50 J

For 2nd case, Work done = m × g × (change in h) = 1 10 (20 -10) J × × = 100 J

Difference in work done by the girl and the boy = (100 - 50) J = 50 J

(e) Why can't echoes be heard clearly in a small room?

A. Because small rooms absorb more sound B. Because the time gap between direct sound and reflected sound is too low to

be perceptible by the human ear C. Because small rooms reflect less amount of energy D. Because the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m which is

larger than the dimension of the room

Answer: B and D

Solution: For an echo to be heard distinctly, the time interval between the original sound and the reflected one must be at least 0.1 seconds. This happens when the distance between the obstacle and the source is more than 17.2 m. In small rooms, reflected sound comes back before 0.1 seconds as the distance between the source and the obstacle is less than 17.2 m. So, we are not able to hear echoes distinctly in small

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rooms.

(f) (i) The distance between the cliff and the position where he shot the gun is:

A. 640 m B. 680 m C. 620 m D. 660 m

Answer: D

Solution:

Given, Speed of sound = 320 m/s Speed of vehicle = 36 km/h = 10 m/s Time taken to hear the echo = 4 seconds Distance travelled by sound in 4 seconds = 20 , 80 m3 × 4 = 1 2 Distance moved forward by vehicle in 4 seconds = 0 0 m1 × 4 = 4 Total distance between the cliff and first position = 2

1280+40 60 m= 6

(ii) If the speed of the vehicle increases by 4 times, then the time taken to hear the echo is:

A. 11/3 seconds B. 10/3 seconds C. 3 seconds D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution: In 2nd case, Speed of vehicle = 6 44 km h 0 m s 3 × 4 = 1 / = 4 /

Let the time taken to listen to the echo be seconds. t Distance travelled by sound in t seconds = 20 20 t3 × t = 3 Distance moved forward by vehicle in t seconds = 0 0 t4 × t = 4 Total distance between the cliff and first position is = 2

320t + 40t 80 t= 1

According to the question, 80 t 60 ⇒ 1 = 6

seconds ⇒ t = 311

Question 4

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(a) Power of a converging lens of focal length 150 cm is:

A. +0.66 D B. +0.5 D C. -0.66 D D. -0.5 D

Answer: A

Solution: Power of a spherical lens is inverse of the focal length in metres, i.e., = P 1

f (in m) Here, 50 cm .5 mf = + 1 = + 1 ∴ = = = P f

1 11.5 .66 D0

(b) When an electric bulb glows:

A. Light energy gets converted into heat and electrical energy. B. Heat energy gets converted into light and electrical energy. C. Electrical energy gets converted into heat and light energy. D. Electrical energy gets converted into heat energy only.

Answer: C

Solution: In an electric bulb, the current flowing through the filament generated a vast amount of heat. However, due to the lack of air inside the bulb, it does not burn. The filament has a high melting point as well, due to which the filament does not melt, but it glows. Hence, electrical energy gets converted into heat energy and light energy.

(c) (i) Which of the following statements is correct.

A. The maximum speed of the bob is 3 m/s. B. The maximum speed of the bob is 1 m/s. C. The minimum speed of the bob is 1 m/s. D. At some point in its oscillation, the speed of the bob is 3 m/s.

Answer: B

Solution: Given, Mass of the bob, m = 1 g = 0.001 kg g = 10 m/s 2

At the highest point and lowest point of the bob, the total energy is

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conserved.

At the highest point, the bob changes direction of motion so it comes to rest at that point and so the speed of the bob is 0 m/s.

Hence, there is no kinetic energy (K.E). So, K.E at highest point is zero.

Thus, Total energy of the bob at highest point = Potential energy(P.E) at highest point + Kinetic energy (K.E) at highest point

= mgh + 0 = mgh

At the lowest point, the speed is maximum and potential energy is minimum (P.E = 0, as height at lowest point is assumed to be 0).

Thus, Total energy at lowest point = Kinetic energy at lowest point + Potential energy at lowest point

= ½ mv 2 + 0 = ½ mv 2

Therefore, by conservation of energy between the highest and the lowest point.

mgh = ½mv 2

v = √2gh = m/s √2 0 .05× 1 × 0

= 1 m/s

Hence, the maximum speed is 1 m/s and minimum speed is 0 m/s. Therefore, there is no position where the speed of the bob is 3 m/s.

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(ii) Which of the following statements is incorrect.

A. Kinetic energy is maximum at the lowest point of the oscillation. B. The total energy of the bob is 0.0005 J. C. Potential energy is maximum at the highest point of the oscillation. D. The total energy of the bob is 0.05 J.

Answer: D

Solution: Given, Mass of bob, m = 1 g = 0.001 kg g = 10 m/s 2

At the highest point and lowest point of the bob, the total energy is conserved.

At the highest point, the bob changes direction of motion so it comes to rest at that point and so the speed of the bob is 0 m/s.

Hence, there is no kinetic energy and potential energy is maximum at the highest point.

At the lowest point, the speed is maximum, so the kinetic energy is maximum and potential energy is minimum (P.E = 0, as height at lowest point is assumed to be 0).

Total energy at top point= Potential energy at top point = mgh = (0.001 10 0.05) J × × = 0.0005 J

As total energy is conserved, so total energy will be the same at all points of oscillation.

(d) Which of the following is the condition for the occurrence of total internal reflection?

A. Light travels from rarer medium to denser medium. B. Light travels from denser medium to rarer medium. C. Angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle. D. Angle of incidence is smaller than the critical angle.

Answer: B and C

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Solution: Total internal reflection is a phenomenon in which a light ray gets completely reflected back in the same medium and no part of it gets refracted. This occurs when a ray of light travels from a denser to rarer medium, and the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.

Critical angle for a medium-air boundary depends on the refractive index of that medium and is given as: sin C = 1/μ ⇒

Where C = critical angle, μ = refractive index of the medium.

(e) (i) Why does the ray of light pass undeviated through the face AB of the prism?

A. Because the speed of light is constant B. Because the refractive index of both the mediums is the same C. Because the angle of incidence is 90° D. Because the angle of incidence is 0°

Answer: D

Solution : When a ray of light passes from one medium to another of different optical density, it deviates from its original path, depending on the mediums the deviation varies.

For a light to pass undeviated, either of the two conditions must be there: ● Either the mediums must have the same optical density, causing no

change in the speed of the ray of light and hence, no deviation from the original path.

● The ray must strike the surface normally, i.e., with an angle of incidence of 0°.

In this case, the second condition is satisfied and because of this, the light passes undeviated even though it goes from a medium of lower optical density to a medium of higher optical density.

(ii) What angle does the ray QR make with the surface AC?

A. 30° B. 45° C. 60° D. 75°

Answer: A

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Solution : The ray strikes the surface AC at an angle of incidence of 60°. The angle it makes with the surface = 90° - the angle of incidence = 90° - 60° = 30°

(iii) Which of the following is the correct path of light after refraction at the surface AC?

A. ST 1 B. ST 2 C. ST 3 D. ST 4

Answer: B

Solution : The ray, after striking the surface AC, deviates through an angle of 60° and hence, emerges normally from the surface BC. Therefore, it follows the ray ST 2 .

(iv) In which of the following will there be a decrease in the speed of light?

A. PQ to QR B. QR to RS C. RS to ST D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution : The speed of light is inversely related to the refractive index of a medium so when light moves from a denser medium to a rarer medium, its speed increases and its speed decreases as it moves from a rarer to denser medium. In the given cases this condition is only satisfied when ray moves from PQ to QR. Hence, the speed of the ray will increase in this case.

CHEMISTRY

Question 1 Two elements P and Q with atomic radii 231 pm and 186 pm, respectively, [1] belong to the same group. If element P belongs to the 4th period, which period does element Q belong to?

A. 3rd period B. 4th period C. 5th period D. 6th period

Answer: (A) 3rd period

Solution: As we move from left to right across a period, the atomic radius decreases, whereas it increases as we go down a group. As per the information provided in the question, elements P and Q belong to the same group and the atomic radius of P (231 pm) is greater than that of Q (186 pm). Following the general trend for atomic radius, we can conclude that the position of Q is higher than that of P within the group. Given that P belongs to the 4th period, the only possible option is the 3rd period.

Question 2 Identify the electrodes X and Y, respectively, in the image for the [1] electrorefining of copper.

A. Copper, Platinum B. Platinum, Copper C. Platinum, Platinum D. Copper, Copper

Answer: (D) Copper, Copper

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Solution: The process of electrorefining involves the purification of impure metals using the principle of electrolysis. During the electrorefining of copper, the electrodes used at both ends are made of copper. The cathode is made up of a thin strip of pure copper, while the anode is composed of impure copper.

Question 3 Identify the option that represents halogens and their position in the modern periodic [1] table.

A. O, S, Se, Te [Group 16] B. F, Cl, Br, I [Group 17] C. N, O, S, F [Group 17] D. N, P, As, Sb [Group 15]

Answer: (B) F, Cl, Br, I [Group 17]

Solution: The word ‘halogen’ comes from the Greek language; it means ‘salt-forming’. This name is given to the elements present in group 17 of the modern periodic table. The elements fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), and iodine (I) are known as halogens as they combine with metals to produce salts.

Question 4 A compound contains 20% hydrogen and 80% carbon (by mass). If the vapour density of [1] the compound is 15, calculate its molecular formula.

A. C 2 H 2 B. C 2 H 6 C. C 3 H 4 D. C 6 H 6

Answer: (B) C 2 H 6

Solution: Let us calculate the empirical formula of the given hydrocarbon.

From the calculations, we obtained the empirical formula as CH 3 . Empirical formula mass = 12 u + 3 u = 15 u

From the relation between vapour density and molecular formula mass, we know that,

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Element Percentage composition

Atomic mass

Atomic ratio Simplest ratio

C 80 12 .671280 = 6 6.67

6.67 = 1

H 20 1 0120 = 2 20

6.67 = 3

olecular formula mass 2 apour densityM = × V …………...(i)

Also, , where n is a natural number. olecular formula mass n mpirical formula massM = × E

………….…(ii)

Putting the relations (i) and (ii) together, we get, apour density n mpirical formula mass2 × V = × E

5 n 5 ⇒ 2 × 1 = × 1 2 ⇒ n =

Now, molecular formula = (CH 3 ) n = (CH 3 ) 2 The molecular formula is C 2 H 6 .

Question 5 Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with calcium carbonate to produce a gas that turns moist [1] blue litmus paper red. Identify the gas.

A. Cl 2 B. CO 2 C. CO D. H 2

Answer: (B) CO 2

Solution: Acids react with metal carbonates and metal bicarbonates to produce salt, water and liberate carbon dioxide gas.

Chemical reaction: Calcium carbonate + Hydrochloric acid → Calcium chloride + Water + Carbon dioxide CaCO 3 (s) + HCl(aq) → CaCl 2 (aq) + H 2 O(l) + CO 2 (↑)

The carbon dioxide released when tested against a moist litmus paper reacts with the moisture to produce carbonic acid and turns blue litmus red.

Chemical reactions: H 2 O(l) + CO 2 (g) → H 2 CO 3 (aq) H 2 CO 3 (aq) → 2H + (aq) + CO 3

2- (aq) (H + ions released are responsible for turning blue litmus red.)

Question 6 Which of the following salt solution can be used to distinguish between sodium hydroxide [1] and ammonium hydroxide solutions?

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A. FeCl 3 B. CuCl 2 C. ZnCO 3 D. CaCl 2

Answer: (D) CaCl 2

Solution: The solutions of ammonium hydroxide and sodium hydroxide can be distinguished by using any salt solution of calcium. Ammonium hydroxide is a weak base; thus, the concentration of hydroxide ions in the solution is low as compared to that in case of sodium hydroxide. Upon treatment of sodium hydroxide solution with a salt solution of calcium, a white precipitate of calcium hydroxide is obtained due to a double displacement reaction. CaCl 2 (aq) + NaOH(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + Ca(OH) 2 (↓)

On the other hand, there is no precipitation when a salt solution of calcium is treated with ammonium hydroxide solution. CaCl 2 (aq) + NH 4 OH(aq) → No precipitate formation

Question 7 Which ion will be discharged at the cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl [1] solution?

A. H + B. OH - C. Cl - D. Na +

Answer: (A) H +

Solution: The dissociation of aqueous NaCl solution takes place as follows: NaCl → Na + + Cl - H 2 O → H + + OH -

The cations (Na + and H + ) migrate towards the cathode, while the anions (Cl - and OH - ) move towards the anode. Out of Na + and H + , H + lies at a position lower to Na + in the electrochemical series. This means that H + will get discharged at the cathode. So, at the cathode, 2H + + 2e - → H 2

Similarly, between the anions, Cl - will get preferably discharged at the anode.

Question 8 Read the following statements: [1]

● Element P contains 7 valence electrons and belongs to the 3rd period.

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● Element Q is the most electronegative element in the periodic table. ● Element R is a lustrous solid non-metal. ● Element S belongs to the 4th period and is a liquid non-metal.

Arrange the elements in the increasing order of their electron affinity.

A. P < Q < R < S B. R < S < P < Q C. R < S < Q < P D. S < R < Q < P

Answer: (C) R < S < Q < P

Solution: The given statements can be analysed as follows: ● Element P belongs to the third period. Thus, it should have 3 shells. Further, the element

has 7 electrons in its valence shell. So, its electronic configuration should be 2, 8, 7. Therefore, element P is chlorine.

● Element Q is the most electronegative element in the periodic table. Thus, element Q is fluorine .

● Non-metals are generally non-lustrous in nature. A solid lustrous non-metal is iodine. Thus, element R is iodine .

● Element S belongs to the fourth period and is a liquid non-metal. Thus, element S is bromine.

Now, electron affinity is defined as the amount of energy released when an electron is added to the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous atom. As we move down the group, the value of electron affinity decreases. Thus, for the given elements, the increasing order of electron affinity should be R < S < P < Q. However, the electron affinity of chlorine is greater than that of fluorine due to the small size of fluorine. So, the correct order is: R < S < Q < P

Question 9 The compound that contains only single covalent bonds is: [1]

A. CCl 4 B. C 2 H 4 C. O 2 D. N 2

Answer: (A) CCl 4

Solution: There are three different types of covalent bonds, namely: ● Single covalent bond: Formed by sharing one pair of electrons between the two bonding

atoms ● Double covalent bond: Formed by sharing two pairs of electrons between the two

bonding atoms

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● Triple covalent bond: Formed by sharing three pairs of electrons between the two bonding atoms

The nature of bonds in the given molecules is as follows:

Question 10 Which of the following options is not correct about the anode in an electrolytic cell? [1]

A. It is connected to the positive terminal of the battery. B. Anions present in the solution migrate to the anode. C. Current enters into the electrolytic cell through the anode. D. Reduction takes place at the anode.

Answer: (D) Reduction takes place at the anode.

Solution: An electrolytic cell consists of two electrodes and an electrolytic solution, all placed in a non-conducting vessel. The electrode connected to the negative terminal of the battery is known as cathode, while the electrode connected to the positive terminal of the battery is known as anode. Upon passage of electricity through the solution, the anions migrate towards the anode where oxidation takes place. The cations, on the other hand, migrate towards the cathode where reduction takes place. The current enters into the electrolytic cell through the anode.

Question 11 The best oxidising agent among the following elements would be: [1]

A. F B. H

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4 single covalent bonds between C and Cl atoms

1 triple covalent bond between the two N atoms

1 double covalent bond between the two O atoms

1 double covalent bond between the two C atoms and 4 single covalent bonds between

C and H atoms

C. O D. N

Answer: (A) F

Solution: The best oxidising agent would be the element that can readily remove electrons from other elements. For this to happen, the element should be highly electronegative. We know that the electronegativity of an element increases from left to right across a period and decreases from top to bottom in a group. Out of the given elements, fluorine is located at the extreme right and top of the periodic table (2nd period and group 17). Thus, F is the best oxidising agent.

Question 12 An ionic bond is formed between two elements X and Y such that the formula [1] obtained is XY 3 . Determine the total number of electrons transferred from X→Y.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer: (C) 3

Solution: An ionic bond is formed when the electrons lost by an electropositive element are gained by an electronegative element. Analysing the given chemical formula, we can understand that atom X loses 1 electron each to 3 atoms of Y to form XY 3 . Hence, the number of electrons transferred from X to Y is 3.

Question 13 The given table represents the observations recorded during an experiment [1] conducted between metal sulphates and caustic soda (excess). Which of the following elements can form the hydroxide B?

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A. Zn B. Cu C. Ca D. Fe

Answer: (A) Zn

Solution: Caustic soda is the common name for sodium hydroxide (NaOH). Metal sulphate + Sodium hydroxide → Metal hydroxide + Sodium sulphate Among the given elements, all the metal hydroxides except zinc hydroxide form a precipitate upon reacting with caustic soda (NaOH).

ZnSO 4 (aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Zn(OH) 2 (s) + Na 2 SO 4 (aq) [White]

Zinc hydroxide dissolves in excess NaOH to form soluble sodium zincate.

Zn(OH) 2 (s) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na 2 ZnO 2 (aq) + 2H 2 O(l)

Question 14 Which of the following elements is not suitable for the manufacture of a container [1] required to store copper sulphate solution?

A. Silver B. Gold C. Platinum D. Iron

Answer: (D) Iron

Solution: According to the electrochemical series, the metals placed at the higher positions are more reactive and can easily displace the metals lying at the lower positions from their salt solutions. The given elements can be arranged in the decreasing order of their reactivity as follows: Iron (Fe) > Copper (Cu) > Silver (Ag) > Gold (Au) > Platinum (Pt)

Out of the given elements, only iron is more reactive than copper. Thus, iron can displace copper from its solution.

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Metal hydroxide Observation

A Forms precipitate

B No precipitate

Fe(s) + CuSO 4 (aq) → FeSO 4 (aq) + Cu(s)

Thus, it is not safe to store copper sulphate in an iron vessel.

Question 15 Identify the correct conversion of forms of energy in an electrolytic cell. [1]

A. Heat → Light B. Chemical → Electrical C. Light → Heat D. Electrical → Chemical

Answer: (D) Electrical → Chemical

Solution: An electrolytic cell is a setup that uses electrical energy to dissociate the electrolytes and obtain products at the electrodes. Thus, there is a conversion of electrical energy to chemical energy.

Question 16 Which of the two groups in the modern periodic table are most likely to form [1] an ionic bond?

A. Group IA and IIIA B. Group VA and VIA C. Group IVA and VA D. Group IA and VIIA

Answer: (D) Group IA and VIIA

Solution: The formation of an ionic bond is favoured by a large difference in the electronegativity of the bonding atoms. The elements in group IA are the most electropositive elements, while the elements in group VIIA are the most electronegative elements in their respective periods. Thus, the electronegativity difference when these elements combine with each other is the maximum. Hence, they are the most likely to form an ionic bond. Example: Element from group IA: Na Element from group VIIA: Cl The resultant compound formed is NaCl (ionic).

Question 17 Determine the molecular formula of a compound having an empirical formula [1] as A 2 B. It is given that the vapour density is equal to its empirical formula weight.

A. A 4 B 2

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B. A 2 B 4

C. A 3 B 6 D. A 2 B

Answer: (A) A 4 B 2

Solution: Given, Empirical formula = A 2 B Also,

apour density Empirical formula weightV =

From the relation between vapour density and molecular formula weight, we know that, olecular formula weight 2 apour densityM = × V

olecular formula weight 2 mpirical formula weight ⇒ M = × E …………...(i)

Also, olecular formula weight n mpirical formula weightM = × E …………...(ii)

Where n is a natural number

From (i) and (ii), 2n =

Now,

olecular formula (Empirical formula) BM = n = (A B)2 2 = A4 2

Question 18 An ionic compound AB is electrolysed in its molten form. Which ion will be [1] discharged at the cathode?

A. A + B. A - C. B + D. B -

Answer: (A) A +

Solution: As AB is an ionic compound, it is formed by A + and B - ions. During electrolysis, the dissociation of molten AB will take place as follows: AB → A + + B -

In an electrolytic cell, cations are discharged at the cathode and anions at the anode. So, A + will be discharged at the cathode and B - at the anode.

Question 19

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The ionisation energy (in kJ mol -1 ) of some elements is given. [1] ● M → 520 ● N → 498 ● O → 419 ● P → 403

Which of these elements will undergo an oxidation reaction at the fastest rate?

A. M B. N C. O D. P

Answer: (D) P

Solution: Ionisation energy is the energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous atom. Lower the ionisation energy of an atom, the easier it is to remove an electron from its outermost shell. An oxidation reaction involves the loss of electrons from an atom. Thus, the element with the least ionisation energy will undergo oxidation reaction at the fastest rate. Out of the given elements, P has the least ionisation energy and will undergo oxidation at the fastest rate.

Question 20 For which of the following compounds will the empirical formula be equal [1] to the molecular formula?

A. H 2 O 2 B. P 2 O 5

C. B 2 H 6 D. C 2 H 4

Answer: (B) P 2 O 5

Solution: The empirical formula of a compound gives the simplest whole number ratio of atoms present in one molecule of the compound.

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Molecular formula Ratio of atoms Simplest whole number ratio

Empirical formula

H 2 O 2 2:2 1:1 HO

P 2 O 5 2:5 2:5 P 2 O 5

B 2 H 6 2:6 1:3 BH 3

Thus, the molecular formula and empirical formula are the same only for P 2 O 5 .

Question 21 Which of the following elements is best suited to be used as a cathode in [1] an electrolytic cell?

A. Lithium B. Carbon C. Boron D. Oxygen

Answer: (A) Lithium

Solution: In an electrolytic cell, reduction occurs at the cathode. This means that the cathode should be made up of an element that can easily lose electrons to the incoming cation. For an element to easily lose electrons, it should have a lower ionisation energy. Ionisation energy increases from left to right across a period and decreases from top to bottom in a group. Out of the given elements, lithium belongs to group 1 and has the least ionisation energy. So, it is most suitable to be used as a cathode.

Question 22 What will be the colour of the precipitate formed when zinc sulphate is treated [1] with excess ammonium hydroxide?

A. White B. Colourless C. Blue D. Green

Answer: (B) Colourless Solution: Zinc sulphate reacts with ammonium hydroxide to form a white gelatinous precipitate of zinc hydroxide and ammonium sulphate. ZnSO 4 (aq) + 2NH 4 OH(aq) → Zn(OH) 2 (↓) + (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 (aq)

The precipitate dissolves in excess ammonium hydroxide to form a colourless solution of tetraamminezinc(II) sulphate. Zn(OH) 2 (↓) + (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 (aq) + 2NH 4 OH(aq) → [Zn(NH 3 ) 4 ]SO 4 (aq) + 4H 2 O(l)

Question 23 The atom of an element present in group VA of the modern periodic table [1]

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C 2 H 4 2:4 1:2 CH 2

contains 3 shells. Find its valency and electronic configuration.

A. 3, (2, 8, 5) B. 5, (2, 8, 5) C. 3, (2, 8, 3) D. 5, (2, 8, 3)

Answer: (A) 3 , (2, 8, 5)

Solution: The elements present in the group VA have 5 valence electrons. The valency of an atom having electrons more than 8 is given by (8 - number of valence electrons). Hence, the valency of the atom = 8 - 5 = 3 As the atom consists of 3 shells, its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 5.

Question 24 Select the incorrect statement in terms of ionic and covalent bonds. [1]

A. Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points. B. In the aqueous state, ionic compounds are better conductors than covalent compounds. C. Ionic compounds are insoluble in water, while covalent compounds are highly soluble in

water. D. Ionic compounds are formed by the transfer of electrons, while covalent compounds are

formed by the sharing of electrons.

Answer: (C) Ionic compounds are insoluble in water, while covalent compounds are highly soluble in water.

Solution: Ionic compounds are formed by the transfer of electrons between atoms with a significant difference in their electronegativities. Thus, ionic compounds are generally polar in nature. On the other hand, covalent compounds are formed by mutual sharing of electrons between atoms. Thus, they are majorly non-polar in nature. As water is a polar solvent, ionic compounds are generally soluble in water, while covalent compounds are generally insoluble in water.

Some properties of ionic and covalent compounds are as follows:

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Property Ionic compounds Covalent compounds

Bond formation Complete transfer of electrons Sharing of electrons

Melting and boiling points High Low

Electrical conductance Good conductors in molten and aqueous state Poor conductors

Question 25 Which of the following elements exhibit a diagonal relationship with beryllium? [1]

A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Aluminium D. Silicon

Answer: (C) Al Solution: Elements in the second period exhibit similarity in properties with the elements of the next group of the third period. These elements are known as bridge elements, and they lead to a diagonal relationship.

Thus, aluminium exhibits a diagonal relationship with beryllium.

Question 26 Dry blue litmus paper turns red in the presence of: [1]

A. HCl(g) B. NaOH(aq) C. C 6 H 6 (aq) D. H 2 CO 3 (aq)

Answer: (D) H 2 CO 3 (aq) Solution: Blue litmus paper can be used as a visual indicator to detect the presence of an acid. In an aqueous solution, an acidic substance furnishes H + ions that turn blue litmus red. Since the given litmus paper is dry, the acidic substance should be in aqueous form in order to carry out the colour change. Out of the given substances:

● HCl(g) → Present in gaseous form; thus, cannot release H + ions ● NaOH(aq) → Basic in nature, furnishes OH - ions in solution ● C 6 H 6 (aq) → Covalent compound, does not furnish any ions in aqueous solution ● H 2 CO 3 (aq) → Furnishes H + ions in solution, turns dry blue litmus paper red

Chemical reaction: H 2 CO 3 (aq) → 2H + (aq) + CO 3 2- (aq)

Question 27

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Solubility in water Highly soluble Scarcely soluble

Electrolytic dissociation of AlCl 3 will produce: [1]

A. AlCl 2 + and Cl -

B. AlCl + and 2Cl - C. Al 3+ and 3Cl - D. Al and Cl 2

Answer: (C) Al 3+ and 3Cl - Solution: Electrolytic dissociation of AlCl 3 produces:

AlCl 3 → Al 3+ + 3Cl -

Question 28 A compound of carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen contains these elements [1] in the ratio 18:2:7. Calculate the empirical formula of the compound.

A. C 3 H 4 N B. C 2 H 3 N C. CH 4 N D. CH 2 N 2

Answer: (A) C 3 H 4 N Solution: The empirical formula of the compound can be calculated as shown:

⇒ The empirical formula of the compound is C 3 H 4 N.

Question 29 Which of the following colours correctly denotes the presence of ferric ions [1] in a solution?

A. Pale blue B. Dirty green C. Reddish-brown D. Gelatinous white

Answer: (C) Reddish-brown

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Element Ratio Atomic weight

Relative number of atoms

Simplest ratio of whole numbers

C 18 12 1.51218 = 30.5

1.5 =

H 2 1 212 = 42

0.5 =

N 7 14 0.5714 = 0.5

0.5 = 1

Solution: The treatment of a ferric salt with an alkaline solution of sodium hydroxide or ammonium hydroxide results in the formation of a reddish-brown precipitate of ferric hydroxide, Fe(OH) 3 . This is an analytical test that verifies the presence of Fe 3+ ions in a solution.

Question 30 Study the given information about atoms X and Y. [1]

To which group do atoms X and Y belong?

A. 8, 7 B. 7, 8 C. 15, 15 D. 16, 15

Answer: (C) 15, 15 Solution: X and Y have the same number of protons and different number of neutrons. Hence, these are isotopes. Atomic numbers of both X and Y = Number of protons = 7 Further, for a neutral atom, number of electrons = atomic number = 7 So, the electronic configuration of both X and Y is 2, 5. The given atoms are of the same element, nitrogen, which belongs to group 15.

Question 31 The respective bonds involved in the formation of H 2 O and H 3 O + are: [1]

A. Covalent and ionic bonds B. Ionic and covalent bonds C. Coordinate and ionic bonds D. Covalent and coordinate bonds

Answer: (D) Covalent and coordinate bonds

Solution: The formation of H 2 O or water involves two covalent bonds between an oxygen atom and two hydrogen atoms.

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X Y

Number of protons 7 7

Number of neutrons 7 8

Period 2 2

The hydrogen ion suspended in water is quite unstable. Thus, it forms a coordinate bond with water, accepting an electron pair from the lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom.

Question 32 The vapour density of oxygen gas is: [1]

A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64

Answer: (B) 16 Solution: We know that, Vapour density = olecular mass2

1 × M Now, molecular mass of oxygen = 32 u Thus,

apour density of oxygen gas 2 V = 21 × 3

Hence, vapour density of oxygen = 16

Question 33 Identify the correct pairs of oxidising and reducing agents, respectively. [1]

A. MnO 2 , PbO 2

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B. O 3 , H 2 S C. Na, SnCl 4 D. PbO 2 , O 2

Answer: (B) O 3 , H 2 S

Solution: Oxidising agent: It is a substance that has the ability to get reduced and thereby oxidise other substances. Examples: PbO 2 , MnO 2 , O 3 , O 2 , etc. Reducing agent: It is a substance that reduces other substances and gets oxidised. Examples: H 2 S, Na, etc.

Question 34 Study the given reaction: [1]

2Na(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + H 2 (g)

Identify the most suitable indicator to determine the nature of the product formed.

A. Phenolphthalein B. Blue litmus C. Red litmus D. Universal indicator

Answer: (D) Universal indicator

Solution: The products formed in the given reaction are sodium chloride and hydrogen gas, which are neutral in nature. The indicators, phenolphthalein and litmus solutions, do not show any change in colour in a neutral medium. Thus, these indicators are not suitable to determine the nature of the products in the given reaction. The universal indicator gives different colours at different pH values. Thus, it can be used to detect the nature of products formed.

Question 35 Determine the oxidation state and valency, respectively, of a sodium atom. [1]

A. 0, 0 B. 0, 1 C. 1, 0 D. 1, 1

Answer: (B) 0, 1

Solution: The oxidation state of an atom represents the charge on the atom in its combined state. A sodium atom (in its elemental state) is neutral. Thus, its oxidation state is 0. The valency of an atom is the number of electrons it can lose, gain, or share to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration. The electronic configuration of a sodium atom is 2, 8, 1. It tends to lose one electron. Thus, its valency is 1.

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Question 36 Which of the following metal oxides is not amphoteric in nature? [1]

A. ZnO B. CuO C. Al 2 O 3 D. PbO

Answer: (B) CuO

Solution: Amphoteric oxides can react with both acids and bases to produce salt and water. Oxides of zinc, aluminium, and lead are amphoteric as they react with both acids and bases to produce salt and water. CuO is a basic oxide as it reacts with acids to form salt and water but does not react with a base. CuO + HCl → CuCl 2 + H 2 O

Question 37 Answer the following questions based on the understanding of ionic and covalent bonds. [4]

(i) Which of the following compounds can be placed in the beaker to complete the circuit?

A. NaCl(aq) B. NaOH(s) C. CCl 4 (l) D. C 4 H 10 (l)

Answer: (A) NaCl(aq)

Solution: Ionic compounds release ions when dissolved in water. These ions are responsible for the conduction of electricity. On the other hand, covalent compounds like CCl 4 and C 4 H 10 do

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not dissociate and exist as molecules in the solution. Thus, these covalent compounds will not conduct electricity. Also, NaOH conducts electricity only in an aqueous solution and not in the solid state. Thus, the bulb will only glow when NaCl(aq) is placed in the beaker.

(ii) Which of the following compounds will undergo the given dissociation reaction? MX(aq) → M + (aq) + X - (aq)

A. ICl B. NaH C. CO D. NO

Answer: (B) NaH

Solution: Ionic compounds dissociate into constituent ions (cation and anion) when dissolved in water. Out of the given compounds, NaH is an ionic compound. Thus, NaH will undergo a dissociation reaction to form Na + and H - ions in the aqueous solution.

(iii) What is the general physical state in which ionic compounds are mostly found?

A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Plasma

Answer: (A) Solid

Solution: Interparticle forces within an ionic compound are stronger as compared to covalent compounds. As a result, the particles in an ionic compound stay close to each other. Thus, they are usually found in a solid state.

(iv) The nature of the compounds formed when hydrogen reacts with lithium and chlorine, respectively, is:

A. Ionic, Covalent B. Covalent, Covalent C. Covalent, Ionic D. Ionic, Ionic

Answer: (A) Ionic, Covalent

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Solution: Ionic bonds are formed when an electropositive element combines with an electronegative element. Alkali metals are highly electropositive, and the electronegativity difference between Li and H is quite high. Thus, LiH is an ionic compound. Covalent compounds are formed between atoms with a low difference in their electronegativities. As the electronegativity difference between H and Cl is low, HCl is a covalent compound.

BIOLOGY

Question 1 Name the following by choosing the correct option: [5]

(i) A pair of chromosomes that contain the same genes in the same order along their chromosomal arms:

A. Heterologous chromosomes B. Parental chromosomes C. Homologous chromosomes D. Sister chromatids

Answer: C. Homologous chromosomes Solution: Homologous chromosomes are chromosome pairs (one from each parent) that are similar in length, gene position, and centromere location. The position of the genes on each homologous chromosome is the same.

(ii) The agent that can affect the rate of transpiration by the closure of stomata:

A. O 2 B. CO 2 C. H 2 O D. N 2

Answer: B. CO 2 Solution: Stomata are small openings on the lower epidermis of a leaf that help in transpiration. When the CO 2 level in the outside air exceeds the normal 0.03%, it causes the closure of stomata. Therefore, the rate of transpiration decreases.

(iii) The process by which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration:

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A. Diffusion B. Active transport C. Imbibition D. Osmosis

Answer: A. Diffusion Solution: Diffusion is the free movement of molecules of a substance from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration when the two are in direct contact with each other. This movement continues until the concentration of molecules becomes the same in all the available space.

(iv) The primary constriction at the centre of the chromosome:

A. Centrosome B. Centromere C. Centriole D. Tetrad

Answer: B. Centromere Solution: A centromere is a constricted region of a chromosome that separates it into a short arm (p) and a long arm (q). The centromere of each chromosome is located at a particular site. It is a point on a chromosome where mitotic spindle fibres attach to pull sister chromatids apart during cell division.

(v) A plant is kept in a dark closed room for 48 hours before conducting any experiment on photosynthesis to remove:

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A. Protein B. Starch C. DNA D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: B. Starch Solution: Starch molecules are produced by the process of photosynthesis. When a plant is kept in a dark region, i.e., away from sunlight, for around 48 hours, the process of photosynthesis halts, and the plant is destarched.

Question 2 Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate option for each blank: [5]

(i) Chiasmata formation is a characteristic feature of ______.

A. prophase I B. metaphase I C. anaphase I D. telophase I

Answer: A. prophase I Solution: Chiasmata is the point of contact between two non-sister chromatids that belong to the homologous chromosomes. When an exchange of genetic content at a particular chiasma can take place between both chromatids, it is known as chromosomal crossover. This chiasmata formation is observed in prophase I of meiosis.

(ii) __________ is an example of imbibition.

A. Swelling of wooden doors B. Opening of stomata C. Uptake of water by root hair D. Loss of water through hydathodes

Answer : A. Swelling of wooden doors Solution: Imbibition is a phenomenon in which living or dead plant cells absorb water by surface attraction. It causes an enormous increase in the volume of the substance.

(iii) The pressure required to prevent the entry of water into an osmotically active solution is known as ________.

A. turgor pressure B. solvent pressure C. solute pressure

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D. osmotic pressure

Answer: D. osmotic pressure

Solution: An osmotically active solution is a solution that allows the osmotic entry of water through a semipermeable membrane. If we apply some pressure to the solution side of the semipermeable membrane, it will halt the osmosis of water, which is a pure solvent. This is known as osmotic pressure. It is the minimum pressure that must be exerted to prevent the passage of pure solvent into the solution when the two are separated by a semipermeable membrane.

In the given illustration, it can be observed that the solvent molecules tend to pass through the semipermeable membrane into the solution side until the osmotic pressure (of the solution) is applied there.

(iv) Guttation in plants takes place during ___________.

A. warm, humid nights B. heavy rainy days C. hot, sunny days D. cold winter nights

Answer: A. warm, humid nights Solution: Guttation is the loss of water from hydathodes (small pores) on the leaf edge of a tiny herbaceous plant in the form of water droplets. A warm, humid atmosphere decreases transpiration, while the plant’s root system absorbs excess water. As a result, hydrostatic pressure develops within the plant which forces water upwards. This excess water gets exudated through the tip of veins in the leaves.

(v) The green parts of a variegated leaf contain _______ molecules that produce starch.

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A. water B. chlorophyll C. carbon dioxide D. sunlight

Answer: B. chlorophyll Solution: A variegated leaf contains non-green parts along with green parts. Green parts of the leaf possess chlorophyll. Therefore, they carry out photosynthesis and produce starch. This can be confirmed with the help of the iodine test. In the iodine test, when iodine solution is poured on the leaf after removing the chlorophyll molecules of the leaf, the part of the leaf that is green in colour turns blue-black. The non-green parts do not change their colour. The bluish colour confirms the presence of starch because it turns blue-black when it reacts with iodine.

Question 3 Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below: [5]

(i) What is the state of a cell wall when it is rigid and stretched due to an increase in volume?

A. Turgidity B. Diffusion C. Plasmolysis D. Flaccidity

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Answer: A. Turgidity Solution: Turgidity is a state of a cell in which the cell wall is rigid and stretched by an increase in the volume of vacuoles due to the absorption of water. The cell is then said to be turgid. It provides rigidity to plants such as stretching shoots and keeping leaves erect and fully expanded.

(ii) During anaphase, which of the following pulls the chromosomes to the opposing poles?

A. Nucleolus B. Spindle fibres C. Cell membrane D. Centromere

Answer: B. Spindle fibres Solution: Anaphase is a stage of mitosis. During this stage, centromeres of the chromosomes split and are pulled to the poles with the help of proteins known as spindle fibres.

(iii) What other material, besides parchment paper, can be used as a semipermeable membrane during osmosis?

A. Animal bladder B. Woollen cloth C. Cotton cloth D. Net mesh

Answer: A. Animal bladder

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Solution: Parchment paper is used as a semipermeable membrane during osmosis. A semipermeable membrane is a layer that only certain molecules can pass through. Semi permeable membranes can be both biological and artificial. As an alternative to parchment paper, an animal bladder can be used.

(iv) What happens during the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

A. Photolysis of water into oxygen and hydrogen B. Formation of starch from the polymerisation of glucose C. Reduction of water to make ATP D. Oxidation of carbon dioxide to produce glucose

Answer: B. Formation of starch from the polymerisation of glucose Solution: Dark reaction involves the fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide, resulting in the formation of glucose. Most plants convert this glucose into starch through a process called polymerisation. In this process, several glucose molecules combine to form one molecule of starch.

(v) Which of the following is an alternative form of a specific gene?

A. Cell B. Nucleus C. Allele D. DNA

Answer: C. Allele Solution: Alleles are a pair of genes that occupy a specific location on a particular chromosome and control the same trait. Alleles may appear in pairs or in multiple forms, which affect a specific trait of the offspring.

SECTION II (15 Marks)

Question 4 Explain the following terms: [5]

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(i) Osmosis:

A. Transfer of solvent molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration through a semipermeable membrane

B. Transfer of solvent molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration without a semipermeable membrane

C. Movement of substances from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration

D. Diffusion of substances through a semipermeable membrane against the concentration gradient by the utilisation of energy

Answer: A. Transfer of solvent molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration through a semipermeable membrane Solution: Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecules through a selectively permeable membrane from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration in the direction that tends to equalise the solute concentrations on the two sides.

(ii) Photolysis of water:

A. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen in the absence of light B. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and ozone in the absence of light C. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen in the presence of light D. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and ozone in the presence of light

Answer: C. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen in the presence of light Solution: Photolysis is defined as the decomposition of substances on exposure to light. Photolysis of water is the breakdown of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen in the presence of sunlight. During the first step of photosynthesis, the chlorophyll gets activated by absorbing light energy. This energy helps in the splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.

(iii) Law of segregation:

A. The dominant trait is visible in the phenotype of the organism in a cross between pure contrasting characteristics, whereas the recessive trait is hidden.

B. A group of genes (or more) is sorted into gametes in a completely unrelated manner. C. Only a single gene copy is allocated in a gamete cell, and this is carried out in a random

manner. D. None of the above

Answer: C. Only a single gene copy is allocated in a gamete cell, and this is carried out in a random manner. Solution: The law of segregation states that during the production of gametes, two copies of each hereditary factor segregate so that an offspring acquires one factor from each parent. In

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other words, allele (alternative form of gene) pairs segregate during the formation of gamete and re-unite randomly during fertilisation.

(iv) Guttation:

A. Movement of solvent molecules through a selectively permeable membrane from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration

B. Loss of water in the form of water droplets by plants from the margins of their leaves through special pores known as hydathodes

C. Same concentration of water molecules and solute on either side of the cell membrane D. Movement of molecules of a substance from a region of higher concentration to a region

of lower concentration

Answer: B. Loss of water in the form of water droplets by plants from the margins of their leaves through special pores known as hydathodes Solution: Guttation is the loss of water from hydathodes (small pores) on the leaf edge of a tiny herbaceous plant in the form of water droplets. At the end of the veins, plants develop hydathodes that allow excess water to escape in the form of droplets.

(v) Active transport: A. Forceful and inward movement of solvent molecules from the region of lower

concentration to the region of higher concentration through a living cell membrane using ATP

B. Spontaneous movement of solvent molecules from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration through a living cell membrane without using ATP

C. Spontaneous movement of solute molecules like ions from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration through a living cell membrane without using ATP

D. Forceful and inward movement of solute molecules like ions from the region of lower concentration to the region of higher concentration through a living cell membrane using ATP

Answer: D. Forceful and inward movement of solute molecules like ions from the region of their lower concentration to the region of higher concentration through a living cell membrane using ATP Solution: Active transport is defined as a process that involves the movement of molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration against a gradient with

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the use of external energy. Certain nutrients like ions of sulphates, potassium, zinc, and more enter the membrane of root cells from soil by active transportation.

Question 5 [5] State the exact location of the following:

(i) Chromosomes during metaphase:

A. Move towards the poles B. Disappear during metaphase C. Lie along the equatorial plane D. Scattered throughout the cell

Answer : C. Lie along the equatorial plane Solution: Metaphase is a stage of mitosis in the eukaryotic cell cycle in which chromosomes are at their second-most condensed and coiled stage. These chromosomes, carrying genetic information, align in the equator of the cell before being separated into each of the two daughter cells.

Metaphase

(ii) Root hair:

A. Outgrowths of epidermal cells B. Under the surface of leaves C. Outgrowths of stem

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D. None of the above

Answer : A. Outgrowths of epidermal cells Solution: Root hair or absorbent hair are tubular outgrowths of an epidermal cell of a root, which is a hair-forming cell on the epidermis of a plant root. These structures are lateral extensions of a single cell and are rarely branched.

(iii) Grana:

A. In the inner membrane of the chloroplast B. Wall of the chloroplast C. In the chlorophyll D. In the stroma of the chloroplast

Answer: D. In the stroma of the chloroplast Solution: Grana are found within the stroma of the chloroplast. Grana are made of stacks of thylakoids, which are pancake-shaped sacs of membrane within the chloroplast.

(iv) Guard cells:

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A. More the upper surface of dorsiventral leaves B. More on the lower surface of dorsiventral leaves C. On upper and lower surfaces of dorsiventral leaves D. None of the above

Answer: B. More on the lower surface of dorsiventral leaves Solution: Stomata are the tiny openings present on the epidermis of leaves. They help in the exchange of gases and photosynthesis. They are surrounded by a pair of guard cells. The abundance of stomata is on the lower surface of dorsiventral leaves. Therefore, guard cells can be found more on the lower surface of dorsiventral leaves.

Structure of stomata

(v) Spongy parenchyma:

A. Between the upper and lower epidermis of dicot leaves B. Between the upper epidermis and palisade parenchyma of dicot leaves C. Between the lower epidermis and palisade parenchyma of dicot leaves D. Between the upper and lower epidermis of monocot leaves

Answer: C. Between the lower epidermis and palisade parenchyma of dicot leaves Solution: Spongy parenchyma can be found in between the lower epidermis and palisade parenchyma of dicot leaves. They aid in the exchange of gases in plants.

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T.S of dicot leaf

Question 6 [5] State the function of the following:

(i) Dark reaction:

A. Fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide to make glucose B. Conversion of water into oxygen to generate ATP C. Reduction of water to make light energy D. Fixation of carbon dioxide to make chemical energy

Answer: A. Fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide to make glucose Solution: Fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide result in the creation of glucose in the dark reaction. This reaction does not require the use of light. The fixation requires energy that comes from the energy currency ATP, which is formed during the light reaction.

(ii) Stomata:

A. Absorption of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere B. Absorption of sunlight C. Absorption of water from the soil through the roots D. Exudation of water droplets

Answer: A. Absorption of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere Solution: Stomata allow the exchange of gases (CO 2 and O 2 ) with the atmosphere. The evaporation of water from the leaf surface occurs through the stomata. Thus, they help in the process of transpiration. Based on the climatic conditions, they close or open their pores to maintain the moisture balance.

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(iii) Xylem:

A. Translocation of food from the leaves to the other parts of the plant B. Helps in opening and closing of stomata C. Conduction of water from the other parts of the plant to the roots D. Conduction of water from the roots to the other parts of the plant

Answer: D. Conduction of water from the roots to the other parts of the plant Solution: Xylem tissue transports water and nutrients from the roots to different parts of the plant and also provides structural support to the stem.

(iv) Chromosomes:

A. Involve in the synthesis of protein directly B. Carry the genetic material C. Serve as a food reservoir of the cell D. Provide the site for cellular respiration

Answer: B. Carry the genetic material Solution: The main function of chromosomes is to carry the genetic material from one generation to another. Chromosomes play an important role and act as a guiding force in the growth, reproduction, repair, and regeneration which are important for survival.

(v) Hydathodes:

A. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the margins of leaves of all plants on humid mornings

B. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the stems of all plants on humid mornings

C. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the stems of some plants on humid mornings

D. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the margins of leaves of some plants on humid mornings

Answer: D. Help in the removal of water in the form of droplets along the margins of leaves of some plants on humid mornings Solution: Hydathodes are structures that discharge water in the form of droplets from the interior of the leaf to its surface in a process known as guttation. This process occurs in some plants on humid mornings. This happens because the rate of transpiration is lower than the rate

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of absorption of water in humid conditions. This creates a big hydrostatic pressure in the plant, which forces the extra water to be released as droplets along the margins of leaves.

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Question 7 [5] The given diagram represents a stage during meiotic cell division. Answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the stage.

A. Telophase I B. Prophase I C. Metaphase I D. Anaphase I

Answer: B. Prophase I Solution: In this image, we can see the crossing of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. The chromosomes remain linked at the sites where they cross. This is the characteristic of the pachytene stage of prophase I.

(ii) Label the part marked ‘X’.

A. Centriole B. Centrosome C. Centromere D. Chiasma

Answer: D. Chiasma Solution: During the pachytene stage of prophase I, the crossing of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes occurs. The chromosomes remain linked at the sites where they cross. This site is known as chiasma.

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(iii) Name the stage that follows the one shown here.

A. Interphase B. Anaphase I C. Telophase I D. Metaphase I

Answer: D. Metaphase I Solution: This image depicts a stage during prophase I of meiosis. Hence, the next stage is metaphase I. During metaphase I, the chromosomes align at the equatorial plate and microtubules from the opposite poles attach to the pairs of homologous chromosomes.

(iv) What is the diploid number of chromosomes shown in the diagram?

A. 6 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

Answer: C. 4 Solution: The diploid number of chromosomes is the total number of chromosomes present inside the nucleus of a cell. This number is depicted as 2n, whose value is different for different diploid organisms. Clearly, the diploid number of chromosomes shown in this image is 4.

(v) What is the significance of this stage?

A. Gene duplication B. Gene isolation C. Gene recombination D. Gene repair

Answer: C. Gene recombination Solution: During the pachytene stage of prophase I, the crossing of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes occurs. Thus, the recombination of genetic materials between non-sister chromatids takes place. This is a very important process that results in genetic variation.

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Question 8 [5] Observe the given diagram and answer the questions:

(i) Name the physiological process that takes place in the given organelle. [1]

A. Photosynthesis B. Imbibition C. Diffusion D. Transpiration

Answer: A. Photosynthesis Solution: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants prepare their own food with the help of sunlight, minerals, and water. Plants release oxygen as a by-product during photosynthesis. The balanced equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O + Sunlight → C 6 H 12 O 6 + 6O 2 Photosynthesis is the only biological process that releases oxygen in the atmosphere which supports all life forms on Earth.

(ii) Label the parts marked a, b, c, and d. [3]

A. a. Thylakoid b. Inner membrane c. Grana d. Stroma B. a. Grana b. Stroma c. Inner membrane d. Thylakoid C. a. Grana b. Inner membrane c. Thylakoid d. Stroma D. a. Thylakoid b. Grana c. Inner membrane d. Stroma

Answer: C. a. Grana b. Inner membrane c. Thylakoid d. Stroma Solution: A chloroplast is an organelle within the cells of plants and certain algae which is the site of photosynthesis. These are minute oval bodies bounded by a double membrane. Their interior contains closely packed flattened sacs known as thylakoids that are arranged in piles (grana) lying in a colourless ground substance known as the stroma.

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(iii) Which phase of the mentioned physiological process takes place in the part labelled c? [1]

A. Dark reaction B. Light reaction C. Active transport D. Osmosis

Answer: B. Light reaction Solution: Light reaction occurs in the thylakoids of chloroplast. Light reaction is the process of photosynthesis that converts energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of NADPH and ATP.

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HISTORY & CIVICS

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Q1 Identify the system in which the legislature has two chambers.

A. Unicameralism B. Bicameralism C. Tricameralism D. Quadricameralism

Answer: (B) Bicameralism

Solution: The system of having two chambers in the legislature is called bicameralism. India follows bicameralism as its Union legislature, i.e., the Parliament comprises two chambers: the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Q2 What is the current maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha?


Answer: (A) 245 members

Solution: The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250 members. However, the current strength of the Rajya Sabha is 245 members.

Q3 Elections to the Lok Sabha are conducted in territorial constituencies, wherein the candidate with the highest number of votes in a constituency wins the election. What is this system known as?

A. Proportional representation B. Referendum C. First past the post system D. None of the above

Answer: (C) First past the post system

Solution: Elections to the Lok Sabha are conducted in territorial constituencies, wherein the candidate with the highest number of votes in a constituency wins the election. This system is called first past the post system. In this system, the proportion of votes gained by a party does not matter. The candidate who secures the majority of votes in his constituency wins the election.

Q4 The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to different States and Union Territories is mentioned in which schedule of the Indian Constitution?

A. First Schedule

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B. Second Schedule C. Third Schedule D. Fourth Schedule

Answer: (D) Fourth Schedule

Solution: The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions in relation to the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.

Q5 Both the Union and State Governments have the power to make laws on subjects mentioned in which of the following lists?

A. Union List B. State List C. Concurrent List D. Residuary List

Answer: (C) Concurrent List

Solution: The Indian Constitution provides for the distribution of legislative and executive powers between the Centre and the States in the form of three lists: Union List, State List, and the Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects over which only the Parliament has the power to make laws. The State List contains subjects over which the State Government has the power to make laws. However, both the Union and the State Governments have the power to make laws on subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List.

Q6 Which chamber of the Parliament can be dissolved by the President through a no-confidence motion?

A. Lok Sabha B. Rajya Sabha C. Both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha D. Neither the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

Answer: (A) Lok Sabha

Solution: The Lok Sabha functions as a temporary body that serves for a term of five years. However, the Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President even before it completes its term if a no-confidence motion is successfully passed in the House. A no-confidence motion can be passed only in the Lok Sabha.

Q7 Who has the power to impeach the President of India?

A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court B. Chief Election Commissioner C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

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D. Parliament

Answer: (D) Parliament

Solution: The Parliament has a gamut of judicial powers vested with it. These include the power to impeach the President, the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, the Chief Election Commissioner, judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court, etc.

Q8 If I am the Defence Minister and I introduce a Bill in the Parliament, what will it be called?

A. Public Bill B. Private Member’s Bill C. Service Bill D. Legal Bill

Answer: (A) Public Bill

Solution: Based on the parliamentarian who introduces the Bill to the House, a Bill may be broadly classified as Government or Public Bill and Private Member’s Bill. If you introduce a Bill in the House and are also a part of the political executive, the Bill will be called a Government Bill or a Public Bill.

Q9 Identify the first session of the Parliament in a calendar year.

A. Winter Session B. Budget Session C. Monsoon Session D. None of the above

Answer: (B) Budget Session

Solution: The Parliament convenes for three sessions in a calendar year. The first session of the Parliament is the Budget Session and it runs from February to May. The Union Budget is presented in this session. Then comes the Monsoon Session. It runs from July to August. The last session of the Parliament is the Winter Session. It runs from November to December.

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Q10 If the strength of the Lok Sabha is 550 seats, what is the minimum number of seats my party should win for me to be the Leader of the Opposition?

A. 40 B. 45 C. 50 D. 55

Answer : (D) 55

Solution: The leader of the largest opposition party is called the Leader of the Opposition. In order to get the formal recognition in either the Upper or the Lower House, the concerned party must have at least 10% of the total strength of the House. A single party has to meet the 10% seat criterion, not an alliance. So, if I want to be the Leader of the Opposition and the strength of the Lok Sabha is 550 seats, my party must secure at least 55 seats in the Lok Sabha.

Q11 Who introduced an annexation policy called the Doctrine of Lapse?

A. Lord Canning B. Lord Dalhousie C. Lord Linlithgow D. Lord Mountbatten

Answer: (B) Lord Dalhousie

Solution: Lord Dalhousie introduced an annexation policy called the Doctrine of Lapse. The policy specified that the East India Company would take over any province that was in a subsidiary alliance if the ruler of the province did not leave behind a natural heir.

Q12 The Lex Loci Act of 1850 allowed a ____, who had converted to a different faith, to inherit his ancestral property.

A. Christian B. Hindu C. Muslim D. Adivasi

Answer: (B) Hindu

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Solution: The Lex Loci Act of 1850 allowed a Hindu, who had converted to a different faith, to inherit his ancestral property. Many felt that it went against the Hindu religious law of property.

Q13

Which among the following is not a land revenue system introduced by the British?

A. Permanent Settlement B. Mahalwari Settlement C. Ryotwari Settlement D. General Service Enlistment Act

Answer: (D) General Service Enlistment Act

Solution: Permanent Settlement, Mahalwari Settlement, and Ryotwari Settlement were land revenue systems introduced by the British to extract revenue from Indians.

Q14 Who among the following passed the General Service Enlistment Act?

A.Lord Mountbatten B. Lord Linlithgow C. Lord Canning D. Lord Dalhousie

Answer: (C) Lord Canning

Solution: Lord Canning passed the General Service Enlistment Act. It created a great deal of resentment, since the Act mandated the sepoys to be ready to serve on foreign soil. This went against the religious sentiments of the natives, who believed it was forbidden for them to pursue sea voyages.

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Q15 The 34th Regiment of Bengal Native Infantry of the British Army was stationed at a garrison in ____.

A. Mohanpur B. Chak Kanthalia C. Barrackpore D. Patuliya

Answer: (C) Barrackpore

Solution: The 34th Regiment Bengal Native Infantry of the British Army was stationed at a garrison in Barrackpore located in West Bengal, India. Mangal Pandey, who was one of the first soldiers to rise against the British, belonged to this regiment.

Q16 Who among the following was reinstated as the emperor after the sepoys reached the Red Fort in Delhi?

A. Bahadur Shah II B. Bakht Khan C. Nana Saheb D. Birjis Qadr

Answer: (A) Bahadur Shah II

Solution: In 1857, Bahadur Shah II was reinstated as the emperor after the sepoys crossed the river Yamuna and reached Red Fort in Delhi.

Q17 Which among the following transferred all powers of the English East India Company to the British Crown?

A. Government of India Act, 1830 B. Government of India Act, 1833 C. Government of India Act, 1853 D. Government of India Act, 1858

Answer: (D) Government of India Act, 1858

Solution: The British Parliament passed the Government of India Act in 1858 and transferred all powers of the Company to the British Crown. Queen Victoria, the then monarch of Britain, became the administrative head of India.

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Q18 Which among the following wars shattered the image that the British were invincible?

A. First Afghan War B. Crimean War C. Opium War D. Anglo–Persian War

Answer : (A) First Afghan War

Solution: The First Afghan War shattered the image that the British were invincible after they faced defeat from the Afghans. It was one of the incidents that encouraged the Indian sepoys to rise against the British.

Q19 Why did the British realise the urgent need of the support of Indians during the Second World War?

A. The British did not want to involve themselves in the war. B. The British wanted to divert the attention of Indians. C. Japan was aggressively winning Asian countries, and the British anticipated an

attack on India. D. The British wanted to divide the Indians.

Answer: (C) Japan was aggressively winning Asian countries, and the British anticipated an attack on India

Solution: Japan joined the Second World War in 1941 and captured the Philippines, Malaya and Burma immediately. It was standing at the gates of India, and rapidly advancing towards Assam. In such circumstances, the British realised that they needed urgent support from the Indians.

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Q20 Which of the following was not a part of the Proclamation of Queen Victoria in 1858?

A. Policy of non-intervention B. Imperial Civil Services C. Policy of intervention D. Moral and material advancement of people

Answer: (C) Policy of intervention

Solution : Before the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857, the East India Company had introduced several reformatory laws, such as the prohibition of Sati and female infanticide, and the recognition of widow remarriage. Liberal Indians welcomed such measures against social evils. However, the majority of the population felt that these reformatory laws endangered their customs and traditions. Hence, the ‘Policy of non-intervention’ recognised the need to stop interference in such matters.

Q21 If I am a Member of Parliament, I can be disqualified under the anti-defection law:

A. If I abstain from voting contrary to the order of my political party B. If I vote in the House against my party’s orders C. If I vote in the House as per my party’s orders D. If I am an independent member and join a political party within six months

Answer:(A) If I abstain from voting contrary to the order of my political party (B) If I vote in the House against my party’s orders

Solution: To prevent legislators from joining another political party, the Anti-Defection Law was passed in 1985 and added to the 10th Schedule of the Constitution. Under this law, the legislators can be disqualified under the following grounds:

● If a member abstains from voting contrary to the order of his political party. ● If a member votes in the House against his party’s orders. ● If an independent member joins a political party after six months of filing his

nomination.

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Q22 If I am a Member of Parliament in the 17th Lok Sabha, what parliamentary privileges am I likely to enjoy?

A. Freedom of speech inside the Parliament B. Freedom from arrest in civil cases C. Freedom from jury service D. Power to make rules of procedure

Answer : (A) Freedom of speech inside the Parliament (B) Freedom from arrest in civil cases (D) Power to make rules of procedure

Solution: To make sure that the parliamentarians are able to perform their duties without any hindrance, they enjoy certain privileges as follows:

● Freedom of speech inside the Parliament To ensure that free debate and discussion takes place in the Parliament, the Members of Parliament enjoy Freedom of Speech inside the Parliament. So, no action can be taken by a court for anything said by the MP during a session.

● Freedom from arrest in civil cases To ensure the safe arrival and regular attendance of the MPs, they enjoy freedom from arrest in civil cases for 40 days before and after a session of the Parliament.

● Power to make rules of procedure The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have the power to control the rules of procedure of the House. Each House is the guardian of its own proceedings.

The Parliamentarians also used to enjoy the freedom from jury service. However, the abolition of jury trials in 1959 has rendered this privilege redundant.

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Q23 Which of the following option(s) is true about Rajya Sabha?

A. It is a permanent body. B. One-third of its members retire every two years. C. Elections to the Rajya Sabha are conducted on the basis of proportional

representation. D. A member of Rajya Sabha serves for a term of five years.

Answer: (A) It is a permanent body. (B) One-third of its members retire every two years. (C) Elections to the Rajya Sabha are conducted on the basis of proportional representation.

Solution: The Rajya Sabha is a deliberative body and acts as the second chamber of the Indian Parliament. It is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every two years. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by an electoral college that comprises the elected members of a state legislature. Thus, Rajya Sabha MPs are elected by a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

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Q24 Which of the following developments can be attributed to the Swadeshi Movement?

A. Development of large-scale chemical and pharmaceutical industries in India B. Competition against the monopoly of the British Indian Steam Navigation

Company C. Permanent erosion of British textile and spices in the Indian market D. Rise of local banking and insurance companies

Answer: (A) Development of large-scale chemical and pharmaceutical industries in India (B) Competition against the monopoly of the British Indian Steam Navigation Company

Solution: The Swadeshi and British boycott movements gave rise to many national institutions. The National Soap Factory and TISCO were established during the Swadeshi movement to encourage national institutions. The Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company gave stiff competition to the British monopoly on navigation. Local banking and insurance companies were set up by merchants and zamindars. However, the decline of British goods was for a short period of time. There was a dip in imports during the movement, but it was limited to products generally consumed by the middle class, and was regionally limited to Bengal.

GEOGRAPHY

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Q1

Give the six figure grid reference of the hill with a spot height of 280 metres as shown in the map.

A. 879589 B. 872591 C. 872582 D. 882582

Answer: (C) 872582

Solution:

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Q2

Name the feature represented in the grid reference number: 6131.

A. A delta with an area of 1080 square metres. B. A town with a population of 1080 persons. C. A hill with a triangulated height of 1080 metres. D. A hill with a spot height of 1080 metres.

Answer: (C) A hill with a triangulated height of 1080 metres.

Solution: It is a symbol that shows the triangulated height of a feature.

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Q3

Ramnadi is a ________ bank tributary of Kalinadi.

A. Central B. Right C. Left D. None of the above

Answer: (B) Right

Solution: As we can see that the spot height is decreasing as we are moving from northwest to southeast (280, 264, 181, 100). This shows that the elevation is decreasing, and we know that a river flows from higher to lower elevation. Now, if the flow of the river is from northwest to southeast, then it makes Ramnadi its right bank tributary.

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Q4

Identify the contour feature represented here.

A. A conical hill B. A plateau C. A waterfall D. A ridge

Answer: (B) A plateau

Solution :

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Q5

What is the area enclosed by Eastings 81 and 82 and Northings 31 and 33?

A. 18 km² B. 19 km² C. 10 km² D. 2 km²

Answer: (A) 18 km²

Solution: Area of grid 1= 1*1 = 1 cm 2 , Scale given, 1 cm = 3 km Actual area of grid 1 on ground =1*3*3 = 9 km 2

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Area of grid 1+2 = 9+9 = 18 km 2

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Q6

What would be the distance between A and B when measured along the route?

A. 3.65 km B. 3.65 m C. 5.65 km D. 5.65 m

Answer: (C) 5.65 km

Solution: AC = 2+2 = 4 cm BC = 2+2 = 4 cm In ABC, AB2 = AC2 + BC2 (Pythagoras Theorem) AB= √42+42 = √32 = 5.65 cm

Scale given, 1:1000000,

Therefore, Actual distance = 5.65 * 1000000 = 5.65 km

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Q7

Identify the feature represented in the grid reference number 8030.

A. Metalled road B. Unmetalled road C. Cart track D. Broad-gauge railway line

Answer: (D) Broad-gauge railway line

Solution: It is a symbol of a broad-gauge railway line.

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Q8

Identify the drainage pattern shown in the grid reference number: 7212.

A. Dendritic B. Radial C. Trellis D. None of the above

Answer: (A) Dendritic

Solution: It is a symbol of dendritic drainage pattern. The tributaries resemble the branches of a tree.

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Q9

The highlighted region indicated by B represents:

A. Cultivable land B. Forest area C. Uncultivable land D. River

Answer: (C) Uncultivable land

Solution: On a topographical sheet, uncultivable areas are shown in white colour.

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Q10

Identify the type of settlement.

A. Scattered B. Nucleated C. Linear D. None of the above

Answer: (C) Linear

Solution: As we can see, the red-coloured symbol of permanent huts arranged along the line of a stream, and hence, they represent a linear settlement pattern.

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Q11 Arrange the following layer of evergreen forest in an order from top to bottom.

1. Emergent layer 2. Canopy 3. Understorey 4. Shrub layer 5. Forest floor

A. 1-->3-->2-->4-->5 B. 1-->2-->3-->4-->5 C. 1-->2-->4-->3-->5 D. 5-->2-->3-->1-->5

Answer: (B) 1-->2-->3-->4-->5

Solution: Evergreen forest has a wide variety of vegetation. Creepers, shrubs and giant trees that seem to reach the sky ! This variety results in a multilayered structure. At the bottom, you have the forest floor. This layer is dark and damp and receives less than 2% of the sunlight. Above this layer is the shrub layer. This layer receives about 5% of the sunlight and extends from 1.5 m to 5 m from the forest floor. After this layer, comes the understory. The understory extends upto a height of 20 m from the forest floor. Above this layer is the canopy layer. The canopy layer forms a thick layer above the rest of the trees and eats up about 95% of the sunlight. Finally, you have the emergent layer. These trees tower over the rest of the forest and extend to heights of up to 60 m.

Q12 With respect to tropical deciduous forest, which of the following statements is/are right?

1. This type of forest is widespread in montane regions. 2. They spread over regions which receive very low rainfall.

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: Tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called monsoon forests. They spread over regions which receive sufficiently high rainfall in the range of 70-200 cm. This type of forest is widespread in peninsular India.

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Q13 Photoperiod is an important aspect that affects the type of vegetation found in a place. Which of the following statements describes photoperiod.

A. It is the duration of time when plants pause their photosynthesis process B. It is duration of time when plants shed their leaves C. It is the duration of time when plants receive sunlight during the day. D. None of above

Answer: (C) It is the duration of time when plants receive sunlight during the day.

Solution: The photoperiod affects the vegetation of a place. Photoperiod is the duration of time when an organism receives sunlight during a day.

We all know that sunlight is essential for the growth of plants. So, in places that receive sunlight for a longer duration, trees grow faster. In places that receive sunlight for a lesser duration of time, we often see stunted growth in plants.

Q14 Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity of flora and fauna in India:

A. India has a huge biodiversity of flora, but it lacks diversity in terms of fauna. B. India's biodiversity increased rapidly during colonial times. C. India has a huge biodiversity in terms of both flora and fauna. D. All above are true

Identify the correct statement.

Answer: (C) India has a huge biodiversity in terms of both flora and fauna.

Solution: Our country houses around 49,000 plant species. It is the eighth most diverse country in the world. There are about 18,500 flowering plants in India. This accounts for 6% of the world’s flowering plants. We also have many non-flowering plants such as ferns, algae and fungi. In addition to all this, we have a wide variety of wildlife within our borders as well. India is home to nearly 91,000 species of animals, and a rich variety of fish in its fresh and marine waters. Indian forests were exploited by Britishers during colonial times hence India’s biodiversity suffered negatively in that time period.

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Q15 Why are tank irrigation systems considered non-perennial?

A. It is fed by non-perennial rivers B. Not suitable for perennial crops C. Rain-fed nature D. None of the above

Answer: (C) Rain-fed nature

Solution: Perennial systems are those in which flowing or non-flowing surface water is present continuously throughout the year. We do not receive rainwater throughout the year. Hence, tank systems are non-perennial because they are dependent on rainwater.

Q16 Which qualitative aspects are responsible for water scarcity?

A. Overexploitation of water B. Unequal distribution of water C. Water pollution D. Unequal access to water

Answer: (C) Water pollution

Solution: Water pollution affects the quality of water available. That is the qualitative aspect of water scarcity. Overexploitation of water resources, reduces the quality of available water and causes unequal access to water among different social groups.

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Q17 1. El Nino is characterised by warm ocean surface waters near the coast of Peru.

2. El Nino causes lower than normal monsoon rainfall in India.

Read the above given statements carefully and select the option that is true.

A. Statement 1 is correct. B. Statement 2 is correct. C. Both statements are correct. D. Both statements are false. Answer: (C) Both Statement A and B are correct.

Solution: El Nino is the name given to the periodical development of warm ocean currents along the coast of Peru. It occurs as a temporary replacement of the cold Peruvian Current. It is associated with lower than normal monsoon rainfall in India. This is because it affects the flow of moisture-bearing winds from the cooler ocean towards India. Thus, it negatively impacts the summer monsoon.

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Q18 Which of the following given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 2 only

Answer: (C) 3 only

Solution: The onset of monsoon in India occurs in May. The ITCZ (Intertropical Convergence Zone) is related to the withdrawal of the Westerly Jet Stream from its position over the Northern Plains of India. During the southwest monsoon, if rain fails to occur for one or more weeks, it is known as break in the monsoon, whereas October heat is related to retreating monsoon. By the end of September, the southwest monsoon becomes weak and is marked by clear skies and warm temperature.

Phases of monsoon Characteristics

1. Onset of monsoon. Withdrawal of Easterly Jet Stream from the Northern Plains of India.

2. Break of monsoon. October heat phenomenon.

3. Retreat of monsoon.

Clear skies and rise in temperature.

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Q19 Consider the following statements:

1. Delhi generally receives monsoon showers from the Bay of Bengal branch of monsoon. 2. Monsoon winds come from the North-west direction in India. 3. Withdrawal of monsoon is a rapid process all over India. 4. During winter, some amount of rainfall occurs in the coastal regions of Tamil Nadu due to northeast trade winds.


A. Only 1 and 4 B. Only 2 C. Only 1, 2, and 4 D. Only 2 and 4

Answer: (A) Only 1 and 4

Solution: Delhi receives rainfall generally from the Bay of Bengal branch of monsoon. Monsoon winds, unlike trade winds, are not steady winds and are pulsating in nature. Monsoon withdrawal is a gradual process in the northern part of the country while it is a rapid process in southern India. During winter, some amount of rainfall occurs in the coastal regions of Tamil Nadu due to northeastern trade winds.

Q20 Consider the following statements about the Indian monsoon:

1. India receives most of its rainfall during the advancing monsoon season. 2. Kerala is the first state on the Indian mainland to receive rainfall during the

advancing monsoon season.


A. Statement 1 is correct. B. Statement 2 is correct. C. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct. D. Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Answer: (C) Both Statements A and B are correct.

Solution : India receives more than 75% of its rainfall during the advancing southwest monsoon season. The onset of monsoon is characterised by a sudden spurt of rainfall activity. It progresses inland in stages and covers the entire country by the middle of July. Kerala is the first state to receive rainfall during this season.

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Q21 Which of the following is not a characteristic associated with climatic controls?

A. Temperature B. Humidity C. Precipitation D. Landform

Answer: (D) Landform

Solution : Factors such as temperature, pressure and wind system, precipitation, and humidity are associated with climatic controls. Although the landform of a place is characterised by climate, it is not a characteristic of climate.

Q22 What do you understand by the term retreating monsoon?

A. The monsoon winds entering the country at the start of winter. B. The monsoon winds leaving the country at the end of monsoon season. C. The monsoon winds entering the country at the end of summer. D. The monsoon winds leaving the country at the start of summer.

Answer: (B) The monsoon winds leaving the country at the end of monsoon season.

Solution: From June all the way till October, there is rainfall seen throughout the country. Around mid-October, these monsoon winds retreat from the country. This is what we call ‘retreating monsoon’.

Q23 Choose the correct statement.

For a normal monsoon season in India, which among the following conditions facilitates the movement of monsoon winds from the ocean to the Indian land?

1. Presence of high pressure conditions around the island of Madagascar. 2. Intense heating of the Tibetan plateau, resulting in low pressure conditions

over the Indian mainland.

A. Statement 1 is correct. B. Statement 2 is correct. C. Both statements are correct. D. Both statements are incorrect. Answer: (C) Both statements are correct.

Solution: Heating of the Tibetan plateau and the subsequent formation of a low pressure zone over the Indian subcontinent and the presence of a high pressure zone on the coast of Madagascar, facilitate the movement of air from high pressure to low

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pressure region. These winds enter from the south-west direction and bring monsoon in India.

Q24 Choose the correct statements with reference to monsoon trough.

1. It is a zone of low-pressure located just below the ITCZ in summer in India. 2. ITCZ helps in attracting the southwest monsoon to the Indian subcontinent.

A. Only statement 1 is true. B. Only statement 2 is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements are false.

Answer: (B) Only statement 2 is true.

Solution: The ITCZ (Intertropical Convergence Zone) located at the equator is a low-pressure zone where trade winds converge. In summers (July), the ITCZ is located around 20° N – 25° N latitudes (over the Gangetic plain), sometimes called the monsoon trough. Monsoon trough is not located below ITCZ, but as part of ITCZ. It helps in attracting the southwest monsoon towards the Indian subcontinent.

Q25 Which is the most widely used type of irrigation system in India?

A. Drip irrigation system B. Sprinkler irrigation system C. Tube well irrigation system D. Canal irrigation system

Answer: (C) Tube well irrigation system

Solution: Wells are of two types- open well and tube wells. Out of these two, tube well irrigation has become widespread in India. It is largely practised in the Ganga plains including Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.

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Q26 Choose the correct statements regarding monsoon in India.

1. Every region in India receives rainfall from June to September. 2. Monsoon is the climate associated with a seasonal reversal in direction of

winds.

A. Only 1 is true. B. Both 1 and 2 are false. C. Both 1 and 2 are true. D. 1 is false and 2 is true.

Answer: (D) 1 is false and 2 is true.

Solution: Most parts of the country get rainfall during June and September, but in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, it rains in the beginning of winter season. Monsoon is associated with a seasonal reversal in the direction of winds. India has a hot monsoon climate, which is prevalent in South and Southeast Asia.

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Q27 Match the following.

A. a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4 B. a - 2, b - 1, c - 3, d - 4 C. a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3 D. a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 1

Answer: (C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 ,

Solution: The average rates of rainfall in the places mentioned above are as follows:

Location Annual rainfall (in cm)

a) Bengaluru 1) 225.3 cm (Very high rainfall)

b) Shillong 2) 88.9 cm (Low rainfall)

c) Mumbai 3) 8.5 cm (Very low rainfall)

d) Leh 4) 183.4 cm (High rainfall)

Stations Annual rainfall

a) Bengaluru 1) 88.9

b) Shillong 2) 225.3

c) Mumbai 3) 183.4

d) Leh 4) 8.5

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Note: Even without knowing the exact numbers one can make an estimated guess about the amount of rainfall a place receives: Shillong is in North-East of India which receives very high rainfall Leh is cold desert which lies in rain shadow area of the Himalayas thus receives very low rainfall Mumbai lies on west side of the western ghat thus receives high rainfall.

Q28 Match the following.

A. 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d B. 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a C. 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c D. 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - a, 4 - c

Answer: (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c

Solution: The Earth is divided into different regions on the basis of their latitudinal positions. Areas near the equator experience hot climate and those near the poles experience cold climate. India has a monsoon type of climate. The advancing monsoon season lasts from early June to mid-September, and the retreating monsoon lasts from October to November.

1) Equatorial regions a) Cold climate

2) Polar regions b) Hot climate

3) Retreating monsoon c) Early June to mid-September

4) Advancing monsoon d) October to November

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Q29 The following events can be noticed in which season?

1. The Northern Hemisphere is oriented away from the sun. 2. Origin of northeast trade winds. 3. A high-pressure zone develops over the Indian subcontinent.

A. Summer B. Winter C. Rainy D. Both (A) and (C)

Answer: (B) Winter

Solution: In India, the cold weather season starts in mid-November. December and January are the coldest months in northern India. During this season, the Northern Hemisphere is oriented away from the sun, and a high-pressure zone develops over the Indian subcontinent, and the northeast trade winds dominate the region. These winds are dry, as they move away from land towards the ocean, and they do not cause rainfall.

Q30 The climate of India has been described as :

A. Tundra type B. Desert type C. Mediterranean type D. Monsoon type

Answer: (D) Monsoon type

Solution: The climate of India has broadly been described as monsoon type. Due to India’s location in the tropical region, most of the rain is brought by the monsoon winds.

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Q31 Which of the following is NOT true with regard to laterite soil?

A. Laterite soil develops under tropical and subtropical climates with alternate wet and dry seasons.

B. Heavy rainfall causes leaching of silica and lime, while iron oxide and aluminium compounds are left behind.

C. It is very fertile and supports a wide variety of crops. D. It is deficient in humus content.

Answer: (C) It is very fertile and supports a wide variety of crops.

Solution: Laterite soil develops under tropical and subtropical climates with alternate wet and dry seasons. Heavy rainfall causes leaching of silica and lime, while iron oxide and aluminium compounds are left behind.

The soil is deficient in humus content and there is a specific reason for it. Bacteria which thrive well in warm tropical climates are responsible for removing humus from the soil.

Laterite soil is found on hill slopes, which makes it prone to erosion and degradation, and generally not suitable for cultivation.

Q32 There are certain methods to conserve soil in plain areas as we do on hill slopes, mulching is one of them. In this context, choose the correct statement which explains the process of ‘mulching’.

A. Carving broad flat steps along steep slopes to reduce the speed of running water. B. Digging trenches in front of man-made barriers to collect water and arrest soil erosion. C. Planting strips of grass in between crops to break the flow of wind. D. Covering soil with organic matter to aid moisture retention.

Answer: (D) Covering of soil with organic matter to aid moisture retention.

Solution: Mulching is a method of soil conservation wherein organic matter is used to cover the soil and help the soil to retain moisture. This forms a layer between the soil and atmosphere to reduce evaporation. Over time, the mulch decays and becomes a part of the soil, increasing its fertility and organic content.

Q33 Cotton is a crop that requires the following conditions to be grown:

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1. Ample sunshine with fairly dry conditions. 2. Nutrient-rich soil. 3. Soil which is well aerated. 4. Soil which can hold a lot of water.

Which soil is best suited for cultivating cotton?

A. Red soil B. Laterite soil C. Black soil D. Alluvial soil

Answer: (C) Black soil

Solution: Black soil is made up of clayey material, and hence, it has an extremely fine texture. It has a high-moisture holding capacity. It is rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime, but poor in phosphoric contents. It cracks when the weather gets hotter and this helps in proper aeration of the soil. Hence, this makes it ideal for cultivating cotton and is also known as black cotton soil.

Q34 Which of the following layers of soil is a mixture of sand, silt, and clay and consists mainly of minerals and leached materials such as iron and aluminium compounds?

A. Topsoil B. Bedrock C. Subsoil D. Weathered rocks

Answer: (C) Subsoil

Solution: The uppermost layer of soil is called the topsoil. Below the topsoil is the subsoil, which is a mixture of sand, silt, and clay and consists mainly of minerals and leached materials such as iron and aluminium compounds. Below the subsoil is the third layer made of weathered rock materials. The fourth and final layer of the soil is the bedrock or parent rock from which the soil is formed.

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Q35 Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Choose the correct answer from the following options

A. I - 1, II - 2, III - 3, IV - 4 B. I - 4, II - 2, III - 3, IV - 1 C. I - 4, II - 3, III - 2, IV - 1 D. I - 1, II - 3, III - 2, IV - 4

Answer: (A) I - 1, II - 2, III - 3, IV - 4

Solution:

● Black soil is made up of fine clayey material, and this facilitates its increased water retention capacity.

● Mountain soil is usually thin, because of the slope that the fine sediments were transported to down slope, leaving behind the coarser material.

● Bangar and khadar are two different types of alluvial soil. Bangar is relatively older. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars).

Column A Column B

I. Black soil 1. Fine clayey material with deep horizon

II. Khadar 2. New alluvium

III. Bangar 3. Old alluvium

IV. Mountain soil 4. Coarse material with thin soil profile

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Q36

Identify the region ‘B’ marked on the map of India.

A. Malwa Plateau B. Bari Doab C. Vidarbha D. Rann of Kutch

Answer: (D) Rann of Kutch

Solution: The Rann of Kachchh is a white salty & sandy desert. It is located in the Kutch peninsular of Gujarat .

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Q37

On the map of India. ‘A’ is marked as a mountain range. Identify A using the following options. A. Karakoram Range B. Baba Budan Hills C. Patkai Bum D. Lushai Hills

Answer: (A) Karakoram Range

Solution : Karakoram is the northernmost range in India. Baba Budan Hills is located in the western ghats. Patkai Bum and Lushai hills are located in North-East India

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TABLE OF CONTENTS BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams