Table of Contents

PREPARING FOR THE EXAM AND EXAM TAKING STRATEGIES -------------------------------------------------2

FORMAT OF THE UNIFORM EXAM-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------4

MATERIAL WORLD (27 QUESTIONS)-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------5

TECHNOLOGICAL WORLD(14 QUESTIONS)-------------------------------------------------------------------------15

EARTH AND SPACE (17 QUESTIONS)---------------------------------------------------------------------------------22

~ 2 ~

PREPARING FOR THE EXAM AND EXAM TAKING STRATEGIES

Preparing for the Exam Preparation is key!

Pay attention to hints your teacher gives you and take notes.

Pay regular attention in class and ask for help when needed.

Go to the tutorial sessions (review)

. Do not leave a topic misunderstood hoping it will not be on the exam. It will very likely be on the exam.

Budget your time, schedule time to study so that you are well prepared for the test (weeks in advance). Do not wait until the day before

Practice with questions from previous MELS Uniform Exams.

Complete this booklet.

Have a good night sleep the night before the exam. Go to bed earlier.

Have a good breakfast. A healthy meal will give you the mental energy you will need to get through it.

The Day of the Exam

You will need to bring:

at least two HB pencils and a good eraser

a calculator (with or without graphic display) but make sure all data and programs are deleted

a ruler

a watch to better pace yourself

~ 3 ~

Exam Taking Strategies

Keep a positive attitude and try to stay relaxed.

When you first receive your test, do a quick read of the entire test in order to appropriately

Pace yourself. Look for what is easy and what will require more effort. Do the easiest problems first.

Don’t stay on a problem you are stuck on. Come back to it later

. Read the entire question at least TWICE.

Ask for clarifications, if needed.

Write legibly and show all your work when required.

Look over your test (review). Make sure you’ve answered everything.

Do not leave any blanks.

~ 4 ~

FORMAT OF THE UNIFORM EXAM

The exam will consist of 3 parts:

A. Multiple Choice Questions (15 questions; 4 marks each)

B. Short Answer Questions (5 questions; 4 marks each)

C. Analysis of a Technical Object Questions (5 questions; 4 marks each)

Part A. Multiple Choice Questions

You will read the questions from a Question Booklet and will choose a statement (A, B, C or D) that best represents your answer. You will answer on a machine-scored answer sheet by filling in a circle using an HB pencil. Make sure you fill it in completely. In this section, you do not need to show work for marks. Always work out the problem entirely and check all the distractors. Do not stop reading when you think you found the right answer. Read everything. You will be given 4 marks or 0 for each question. Do not leave a blank! Make a choice even if you don’t know the answer! You have a 25% probability of getting it right.

Part B. Short Answer Questions

You will read the questions from the Answer Booklet and will write a statement in the space provided in your Answer Booklet. In this section, every question you encounter MAY have multiple portions. You may be given part marks. Do not leave a blank! Make an educated guess even if you don’t know the answer!

C. Analysis of a Technical Object Questions

You will read and answer the questions in the Answer Booklet. You will use the Exploded View diagrams in the Student Booklet as well as the provided video of the technical object to answer the questions. Remember, every part of the object is numbered and labelled with its name. Please use ALL resources provided to answer questions. You may be given part marks. Do not leave a blank! Make an educated guess even if you don't know the answer!

~ 5 ~

MATERIAL WORLD

(52 % of EXAM)

~ 6 ~

1. The chlorine ion (Cl-) concentration in a swimming pool is recommended to be between 1.5 ppm and 2.4 ppm. Which of the following pools fall in the recommended range for chlorine concentration?

A) Pool A: Concentration of chlorine is 0.0021 g/L

B) Pool B: Concentration of chlorine is 0.0021 % (m/V)

C) Pool C: Concentration of chlorine is 0.021 g/L

D) Pool D: Concentration of chlorine is 0.021 % (m/V)

Solution: 0.0021 g/L*1000 = 2.1 mg / L = 2.1 ppm. This value falls between 1.5 ppm and 2.4 ppm.

2. A 20 L sample of water taken from a lake surrounded by farms is found to contain 1 g of phosphate (PO4 3+) ions. What is the concentration of the phosphate ions in the lake water sample in ppm?

C = m/V C= 1 g/ 20L C = 1000 mg / 20 L 50 mg / L = 50 ppm

3. A lab technician needs a solution that is 1000 times more acidic than solution with a pH of 6. Determine the pH of the solution that the lab technician needs.

pH increases and decreases by a factor of 10 with every step. Therefore, a solution that is 1000 times more acidic than a pH of 6 results in a solution that moves towards a lower pH, exactly 3 pH values away. Therefore, the solution that the lab technician requires has a pH of 3.

4. Place the substances listed below in increasing order of pH.

Solution A : Distilled water

Solution B : Soap

Solution C : Lemon Juice

Solution D : Drain Cleaner

Solution: C, A, B, D

~ 7 ~

5. Nitrogen forms an N3- ion. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) The nitrogen atom loses 3 protons to form its ion.

B) The nitrogen atom loses 3 electrons to form its ion.

C) The nitrogen atom gains 3 electrons to form its ion.

D) Nitrogen neither gains nor loses electrons when forming its ion.

Solution: C. Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons. It therefore needs to GAIN 3 electrons to become a stable 8 valence electron shell.

6. Which of the following substances will conduct electricity?

A) Aqueous KF

B) Propanol

C) Maple syrup solution

D) NaCl in its solid form

Solution: A. Electrolytes only conduct electricity when dissolved in water. Acid bases and salts are all electrolyes. Therefore aqueous KF will conduct electricity.

7. Which of the following is NOT an example of rapid combustion?

A) A candle burning

B) A camp fire

C) Browning of an apple

D) A gas stove element burning

Solution: C. Rapid combustion involves a large release of energy, in the form of heat and light. Only the browning apple does release huge amounts of energy.

~ 8 ~

8. Firefighters use the following methods to extinguish a forest fire.

A. Smothering a fire by shovelling dirt on it

B. Spraying the fire with water

C. Cutting down trees on the outside perimeter of the fire.

Explain each of these methods by using the fire triangle.

Solution: A. Removing the oxidizing agent. B. Lowering the ignition temperature. C. Removing the fuel required to burn.

9. Which of the following combinations correctly represents the process of photosynthesis?

A. Carbon Dioxide + Water + solar energy Glucose + Oxygen

B. Carbon Dioxide + Water Glucose + Oxygen + solar energy

C. Glucose + Oxygen Carbon Dioxide + Water + energy

D. Glucose + Oxygen + energy Carbon Dioxide + Water

Solution: A. Plants take carbon dioxide, water and energy from the sun and make sugar and oxygen.

10. Consider the equation below. a. Classify each of the products and reactants as an acid, base, salt or other

H2CO3 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + 2 H2O

Substance Type of Substance

Justification

H2CO3 ACID Starts with H

Ca(OH)2 BASE Metal + OH

CaCO3 SALT Metal and Non Metal

H2O OTHER

b. What type of reaction would we consider the above equation?

Solution: ACID BASE NEUTRALIZATION. Acid and base react to make salt and water

~ 9 ~

11. When fossil fuels such as coal and oil are burned, sulfur is released into the atmosphere, and, as a result acid rain is formed. The following reactions take place:

sulphur dioxide + oxygen sulfur trioxide sulphur trioxide + water sulfuric acid (acid rain) 256 g of sulfur dioxide react with 64 g of oxygen and the sulfur trioxide produced is further reacted with 72 g of water.

Determine the amount of sulfuric acid that is produced based the above amounts.

sulphur dioxide + oxygen sulfur trioxide 256 g + 64 g = 320 g

sulphur trioxide + water sulfuric acid (acid rain) 320 g + 72 g = 392 g

This solution is due to the law of conservation of mass.

12. Balance the following equations:

I. __2__ SO2 + _____ O2 __2__ SO3

II. _____ P4 + __5__ O2 __2__ P2O5

13. Which of the following correctly matches the element with the number of valence electrons it

possesses?

A) Helium (2), Carbon (4), Magnesium (2), Sodium (1)

B) Helium (2), Carbon (2), Magnesium (3), Sodium(4)

C) Helium (1), Carbon (2), Magnesium (3), Sodium (4)

D) Helium (8), Carbon (4), Magnesium (2), Sodium (1)

Solution: A. Helium has only 2 valence electrons, despite being in the 8th column. The valence

electron corresponds to the group number located at the top of the column.

~ 10 ~

14. The periodic table is organized according to the properties of elements. The atomic structure of

elements helps organize the elements in rows. Explain what Mg, Si, Cl have in common.

A) They are all in the same period and will all have 3 valence electrons

B) They are all in the same period and will all have 3 electron shells.

C) They are all in the same group and will all have 3 electron shells.

D) They are all in the same group and will all have 3 valence electrons.

Solution: B. Any elements that are in the same row are in the same period. They all have 3 electrons shells. 15. Draw the Bohr Rutherford model for each of the following models.

Potassium Phosphorus

USE THE TABLE BELOW TO ANSWER QUESTION 16 thru 18

ELECTROSTATIC SERIES CHART

Acetate tends to lose electrons Glass Wool Cotton Ebonite Plastic Rubber tends to gain electrons

19p+ 15p+

~ 11 ~

16. In the laboratory, a student rubs a cotton cloth with EACH of the following substances: ebonite, plastic, acetate and glass.

1) ebonite and plastic

2) plastic and acetate

3) acetate and glass

4) glass and ebonite

Using the table above, determine which of the above charged objects would attract one another.

A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4 17. The method the student uses to charge each object with the cotton cloth is known as:

A. Conduction B. Induction C. Friction D. Potential Difference 18. Based on the method of charging used by the student in the above situation, which of the following statements would be true?

A. Two objects that have opposite charges

B. Two objects that have the same charge

C. A temporary charge in one object

D. It depends on the nature of the materials

19. Four spheres are each given a static charge. Spheres A and B attract, spheres B and C repel, and

spheres B and D attract. Determine the FALSE statement.

A. Spheres A and C will repel

B. Spheres A and D will repel

C. Spheres C and D will attract

D. Not enough information to tell

~ 12 ~

Solution:

Since A and C have different charges, they would attact each other.

20.The diagram below shows a circuit made of two light bulbs, two switches and a power source.

Which of the following statements regarding this circuit is TRUE?

21. How much energy (in Joules) is used by a 200 Ω resistor operating at 12 V for three minutes?

V= R* I 12 V = 200 Ω* I I = 0.06 A P=V*I P = 12 V * 0.06 A = 0.72 W E= P* t 0.72 W * 180 s = 129.6 J

22. According to Hydro- Quebec, how much energy (in kWh) would be consumed by a 700 W guitar amplifier during a two and a half hour concert? Conversion = 700 W / 1000 = 0.700 kW E = P*t E= 0.700 kW * 2.5 h = 1.75 kWh

S1 S2 L1 L2

A) Opened Closed Off On

B) Closed Opened On Off

C) Opened Closed On Off

D) Closed Opened Off On

A B B C B D

+ - - - - +

~ 13 ~

23. In the circuit diagram below, the voltmeter measures 12 V and the ammeter measures 0.6 A.

What is the resistance of element R? V = R*I 12V = R* 0.6A 20 Ω A) 0.05 Ω B) 7 Ω C) 10 Ω D) 20 Ω

24. Draw the magnetic field of the following magnets and complete the arrows of the compasses

a)

b)

S N N S

25. An electrical engineer is trying to figure out how to maximize the intensity of a magnetic field generated from a live wire. Which scenario should she choose?

A) A copper wire with 5 A.

B) An aluminum wire with 5 A.

C) A copper wire with 10 A.

D) An aluminum wire with 10 A.

Solution: Aluminum is a poor conductor of electricity, despite being a metal when compared to copper. The maximum field generated is the wire containing the highest current intensity.

S N

~ 14 ~

26. 60 Joules of energy enter a light bulb. 40 joules of energy are transformed into light, how much energy is dissipated as heat?

A) 6.7 joules

B) 10 joules

C) 20 joules

D) 100 joules

27. A wind turbine generates a total of 400,000J of energy every hour. If 300,000 J of energy is

wasted in the form of friction and heat from the turning of the turbine, what its the energy

efficiency?

a. 25 %

b. 75 %

c. 100%

d. 133 %

Useful energy = Energy consumed - energy wasted = 400, 000 J - 300,000J = 100,000 J EE = Useful energy = 100,000 J x 100 % = 25 % Energy consumed 400, 000 J

~ 15 ~

TECHNOLOGICAL WORLD

(28 % of Exam)

~ 16 ~

Shelf and side panel

Note: the shelves are

glued in place

a) Bookshelf

Two prongs

c) Clothespin

Light bulb and

socket

b)

1. Select the four characteristics of the link between the components identified for each technical

object shown below.

Direct or Indirect

Complete or Partial

Removable or Non Removable

Rigid or Flexible

Direct or Indirect

Complete or Partial

Removable or Non Removable

Rigid or Flexible

Direct or Indirect

Complete or Partial

Removable or Non Removable

Rigid or Flexible

~ 17 ~

a) Peanut Butter Jar (HELICAL) b) Window

(TRANSLATIONAL)

c) File Cabinet Drawer (TRANSLATIONAL)

d) Door Handle (ROTATIONAL)

e) C-clamp (HELICAL)

f) Laptop (ROTATIONAL)

2. State the main type of guiding control for each item below.

3. Which of the following diagrams of a motion transmission system correctly illustrates the motion of the components?

A) I and II only

B) II and III only

C) III and IV only

D) II, III and IV

~ 18 ~

4. Which of the following diagrams of a motion transmission system correctly illustrates the motion

of the components?

A) I and II only

B) II and III only

C) II and IV only

D) I and III only

5. A cam and follower system transforms the rotational motion of a cam into the reciprocating

translational motion of a follower. Which cam below would not allow for both clockwise and

counter-clockwise motion?

SOLUTION : D

~ 19 ~

6. Examine the cam and follower system illustrated below.

Describe two ways the rise of the follower could be increased. 1. INCREASE THE SIZE OF THE CAM 2. PLACE THE ROTATIONAL AXIS OF THE CAM CLOSER TO THE EDGE

7. A gear system is shown below.

1 2

Gear 1 is the driver gear and has a diameter of 8 cm. Gear 2 has a diameter of 10.5 cm.

Which gear turns faster and what is the speed ratio for the system?

GEAR 1 TURNS FASTER AND HAS A SPEED RATIO OF 10.5 / 8 = 1.3 : 1

~ 20 ~

8. Insulators are used in electronic toys. What material could a manufacturer use to insulate a

part of a toy?

1. Plastic

2. Ceramic

3. Metal

4. Cardboard

5. Glass

A) 1, 2, and 4 B) 1, 2, and 5 C) 1, 2, 4, and 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

9. The properties of four copper wires are described in the table below.

Which of the copper wires has the best conductivity? Explain your answer. The SHORTEST, WIDEST and COLDEST WIRE MAKES THE BEST CONDUCTOR

10.Which of the following circuit components is a control?

SOLUTION: D, THE SWITCH

Properties of Copper Wires

Wire Length Diameter Temperature

A 10 m 2 mm 25 °C

B 10 m 3 mm 20 °C

C 20 m 2 mm 20 °C

D 20 m 3 mm 25 °C

~ 21 ~

11.Which of the following components of a circuit transforms energy?

1. Light

2. Switch

3. Battery

4. Wires

12. The following image is an example of what type of constraint?

A) Compression

B) Torsion

C) Deflection

D) Tension

What type of deformation is the bar undergoing? _______________________________

~ 22 ~

13.The following image is an example of what type of constraint?

A) Compression

B) Torsion

C) Deflection

D) Tension

What type of deformation is the cap undergoing? _______________________________

14. What mechanical properties should materials for a hard-hat have? Explain your answer.

HARDNESS AND STIFFNESS

~ 23 ~

EARTH AND SPACE (22 % of Exam)

~ 24 ~

1. Which of the following statements correctly describes permafrost?

A) All the frozen water on the Earth’s surface.

B) A layer of soil frozen for more than two years.

C) The snow which accumulates on the surface of glaciers.

D) The upper layer of water which freezes when in contact with cold air.

2. Which of the following is a consequence of melting permafrost?

A) Increased primary productivity

B) Decreased erosion

C) Decreased levels of greenhouse gases

D) Decreased decomposition of organic matter in soil

3. How does the melting of permafrost lead to higher average global temperatures?

A) Increased movement of the active layer

B) Increased amount of carbon dioxide and methane released from underground

C) Decreased amount of carbon dioxide and methane released from underground

D) Decreased movement of the thermohaline circulation

4. Name two processes by which carbon dioxide is captured and used to produce other substances. PHOTOSYNTHESIS : Carbon dioxide is taken in by plants and transformed into glucose as a food source CALCIUM CARBONATE: Carbon dioxide is dissolved in water and then reacts with calcium deposits to make calcium carbonate 5. How have human activities contributed to disrupting the carbon cycle?

When burning fossil fuels, we increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the carbon cycle, leading

to plants not being able to use it up fast enough. This leads to increases in global temperatures

called global warming.

The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere keeping the heat from the sun is called the greenhouse

effect.

~ 25 ~

6. Which location is in the same catchment area?

SOLUTION: Catchment area ( also known as a watershed) is an area of land where all bodies of

water pool into a larger area. Therefore, due to the topography of the land seen in the diagram,

areas 2 and 3 will flow into the same area.

7. An inspector for a town of has noticed that the wastewater for the A2A carwash has been flowing

into a nearby stream. The inspector informed the A2A carwash owners that they would be fined

since they were polluting the town’s water source.

Use the map of the town’s watershed below to explain whether the inspector was correct in fining

the carwash. Explain your answer.

The town will NOT be affected by the car wash, even if the town is in the same watershed. Due to topography, the water will not flow up towards the town therefore not polluting its drinking water.

Water Filtration Plant

Town

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 2 and 4 only

~ 26 ~

8. Different factors can affect the circulation of surface currents and deep currents in the ocean.

1. Temperature differences in the water

2. Air pressure differences in the atmosphere

3. Differences in the waters’ salinity

4. The rotation of the Earth

5. The depth of the water

Which of the factors above only effect surface currents?

A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 4 only C) 1, 3 and 5 D) 2, 4 and 5

9. What are the characteristics of ocean water which has a tendency to sink?

A) Low temperature and low density

B) Low temperature and high density

C) High temperature and low density

D) High temperature and high density

10. Which of the following statements concerning thermohaline circulation is true?

A) Thermohaline circulation allows for the heat accumulated in ocean water at the Polar

Regions to circulate to the Equatorial Region.

B) Thermohaline circulation allows for the heat accumulated in ocean water at the

Equatorial Region to circulate to the Polar Regions.

C) Thermohaline circulation can be compared to a conveyor belt which moves warm and

cold air masses around the Earth.

D) Thermohaline circulation can be compared to a conveyor belt which moves warm and

cold freshwater systems around the Earth.

11. Which of the following is true about glaciers and pack ice?

A) Both glaciers and pack ice are formed on land.

B) Both glaciers and pack ice are formed on the ocean’s surface.

C) Both glaciers and pack ice contain freshwater.

D) Both glaciers and pack ice form icebergs.

~ 27 ~

12. Which of the following statements about the Greenhouse effect is true?

1.An increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere leads to an increase in the amount

of heat that escapes into space.

2.A decrease in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere leads to an increase in the amount

of heat that escapes into space.

3.An increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere leads to an increase in the amount

of solar radiation that will enter the atmosphere.

4. A decrease in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere leads to an increase in the amount

of solar radiation that will enter the atmosphere.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4

13. Five human activities are listed below.

1. Raising cattle

2. Driving a gasoline powered car

3. Using a natural gas fireplace

4. Walking

5. Swimming in a lake

Which of the above activities could contribute to the greenhouse effect?

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1,2 and 3 C) 2 and 3 only D) 4 and 5 only

14. Which of the following technologies uses an energy source derived from the lithosphere?

A) Tidal barrage

B) Wind turbine

C) Photovoltaic cell

D) Coal-fired plant

~ 28 ~

15. The lithosphere and the hydrosphere provide us with many different resources that we can

use to produce energy. Each resource has its advantages and disadvantages.

Complete the following table regarding the advantages and disadvantages of

uranium and tidal energy:

16. A community in Gaspé is researching the environmental impacts of different energy sources.

Below is a list of possible environmental impacts

1. Tidal barrages can disrupt marine life.

2. Tidal power plants and coal power plants release greenhouse

gases.

3. Nuclear power plants create no harmful waste products.

4. Flooding is a concern in the building of hydroelectric dams.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1,2 and 3 B) 1, 3 and 4 C) 1 and 4 D) 2 and 3

17. A community in Gaspé is researching the environmental impact of two different energy technologies: a tidal power plant and a coal power plant For each of the energy resources the community is considering, state:

• the energy source as renewable or non-renewable.

• the main environmental impact for each type of environment.

TIDAL: RENEWABLE. Uses large area to setup

COAL: NONRENEWABLE. Large source of greenhouse gases.

Resource Advantages Disadvantages

Uranium 1. No greenhouse gases 1. Nuclear waste

2. Produces a lot of power 2. Harmful for environment

Tidal Energy 1. No greenhouse gases 1.Expensive setup

2. Uses ocean tides 2. Not a lot of power produced