th Test Type : Unit Test # 02

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022
NEET(UG) TEST # 02
( ) : Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
: Form Number : in figures
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: 1. = -1 , -2 /;
10 , 10 ;
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contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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ALLEN SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : Work, Energy & Power, Circular Motion, Collisions and Centre of Mass, Rotational Motion.
SECTION-A Attempt All 35 questions
-A 35
1. 1. (1, 4)m (3, 8) m 44 J :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
2. 2. 50 . 0.1 2 ./. k= 100 N/m
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 4 m
3. 3. r
,
-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The work done by a force on a body moving from (1, 4)m to (3, 8) m is 44 J. The force can be :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(6 + 8 )Ni j
(8 − 6 )Ni j
(6 − 8 )Ni j
(8 + 6 )Ni j
(6 + 8 )Ni j
(8 − 6 )Ni j
(6 − 8 )Ni j
(8 + 6 )Ni j
A block of mass 50 kg is projected horizontally on a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between the block and the floor is 0.1. The block strikes a light spring of stiffness k=100 N/m with a velocity 2m/s. The maximum compression of the spring is :
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 4 m
If the potential energy between electron and proton
at a distance r is given by . the
law of force is
ke2
r
ATS / Page 1/52NEET(UG) - 2022 / 31102021 Space for Rough Work / ACHIEVER TEST SERIES - JOINT PACKAGE COURSE 0999DMD316121002
ALLEN 4. 4. M

(1) L (2) (3) (4)
5. 5. F x :
x = 0 x = 8 m :-
(1) 0 J (2) 80 J (3) –40 J (4) 40 J
6. 6. , 'pk d v 6.0 ms ,
h 1.1 μ μ 0.60 d :-
(1) 1.17 m (2) 3 m (3) 2.34 m (4) 6 m

kL2
2M ML2
k A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown in the figure :
The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 8 m is :-
(1) 0 J (2) 80 J (3) –40 J (4) 40 J
A block slides along a track from one level to a higher level by moving through an intermediate valley as shown in figure. The track is friction less until the block reaches the higher level. Then there is friction force which stops the block at a distance d. The block's initial speed v is 6.0 ms ; the height difference h is 1.1 μ, and the coefficient of kinetic friction μ is 0.60. The value of d is :-
(1) 1.17 m (2) 3 m (3) 2.34 m (4) 6 m
0 –1 0
–1
NEET(UG) - 2022 / 31102021ATS / Page 2/52 Space for Rough Work / ACHIEVER TEST SERIES - JOINT PACKAGE COURSE 0999DMD316121002
ALLEN 7. 7. θ u

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
8. 8. m l v , :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
9. 9.

θ
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
10. 10. 1000 kg 90 m ( ) () 45°, , :
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 30 m/s
A particle is projected with a velocity u making an angle θ above horizontal. The instantaneous power of the gravitational force.
(1) is constant throughout.
(3) varies linearly with time
(4) none of these
A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length l and rotated in a circle with a constant speed v. If the string is released, the stone flies :-
(1) Radially outward
(2) Radially inward
(3) Tangentially outward
l mv2
l
A heavy small-sized sphere is suspended by a string of length . The sphere rotates uniformly in a horizontal circle with the string making an angle θ with the vertical. Then, the time period of this period of this conical pendulum is :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
− −−−−−
√
− −−−−−
− −−−−−
√
− −−−−−
√
− −−−−−
− −−−−−
√
A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is :-
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 30 m/s
ALLEN 11. 11.
, :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
12. 12.
θ = 2t – 12t θ t , 24rad/s :-
(1) – 8 rad/s (2) 12 rad/s
(3) 24 rad/s (4) 36 rad/s
13. 13. , 10% , 20 m .. :-
(1) 16 m (2) 18 m (3) 30.5 m (4) 24.20m
14. 14. : ‘‘ ’’ 5m 0.5 (ms ) -
(1) 10 (2) 100 (3) 5 (4) 25
A simple pendulum is oscillating without damping. When the displacement of the bob is less than maximum, its acceleration vector is correctly shown in :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
If the displacement equation of a particle moving
in circular path is given by θ = 2t – 12t where θ is in radian and t is in second then. Angular velocity when angular acceleration is 24rad/s is:-
(1) – 8 rad/s (2) 12 rad/s
(3) 24 rad/s (4) 36 rad/s
3
2
3
2
Keeping the banking angle of the road constant. The maximum safe speed of passing vehicles is to be increased by 10%. The radius of curvature on the road will have to be changed from 20 m to :-
(1) 16 m (2) 18 m (3) 30.5 m (4) 24.20m
A person wants to drive motorcycle on the vertical surface of a large cylindrical wooden well commonly known as death well in a circus. The radius of well is 5m and the coefficient of friction between the tyres of the motorcycle and the wall of the well is 0.5 . The minimum speed, the motorcyclist must have in order to prevent slipping should be (in ms ) :
(1) 10 (2) 100 (3) 5 (4) 25
–1 –1
ALLEN 15. 15. 1kg, 2 kg, 3 kg 4 kg 1m
A, B, C D :-
(1) (0.3 m, 0.5 m) (2) (0.5 m, 0.3 m)
(3) (0.2 m, 0.2 m) (4) (0.3 m, 0.2 m)
16. 16. T O :-
(1) 7 m (2) 2.7 m (3) 4 m (4) 1 m
17. 17. 5 kg 3 : 1 : 1 m 60 m/s
(1) ms (2) ms
(3) ms (4) ms
18. 18. : , :-
(1)
(2)
(3) 'pk
(4)
Four particles of masses 1kg, 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg are placed at the four vertices A, B, C and D of a square of side 1 m. The coordinates of centre of mass of the particles are :-
(1) (0.3 m, 0.5 m) (2) (0.5 m, 0.3 m)
(3) (0.2 m, 0.2 m) (4) (0.3 m, 0.2 m)
The distance of the centre of mass of the T-shaped uniform plate from O is :-
(1) 7 m (2) 2.7 m (3) 4 m (4) 1 m
A particle of mass 5 kg initially at rest explodes into three fragments with mass ratio 3 : 1 : 1. Two of the fragments each of mass m are found to move with a speed 60 m/s in mutually perpendicular directions. The velocity of third fragment is :
(1) ms (2) ms
(3) ms (4) ms
60 2–√ –1 20 3–√ –1
10 2–√ –1 20 2–√ –1
60 2–√ –1 20 3–√ –1
10 2–√ –1 20 2–√ –1
In perfectly inelastic headon collision, the relative velocity of the bodies :-
(1) Before impact is zero
(2) Before impact is equal to that after impact
(3) After impact is zero
(4) None of the above
ALLEN 19. 19.
, t = 1 -
(1) x=5m (2) x=6m
(3) x=3m (4) x=2m
20. 20. : 55 kg 65 kg 3.0 m 100 kg 55kg 65 kg :
(1) (2) 0.75 m
(3) 3.0 m (4) 4 m
21. 21. 4r r :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
22. 22. : 4 rad/s 1 'pk 1 m
(1) 4.5 m/s
(2) 8.3 m/s
(3) 16.5 m/s
(4) 20 m/s
The figure shows the positions and velocities of two particles. If the particles move under the mutual attraction of each other, then the position of centre of mass at t =1 s is
(1) x=5m (2) x=6m
(3) x=3m (4) x=2m
Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the boat is 3.0 m and weighs 100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg man and sits with him. If the boat is in still water then boat will shifts by :
(1) zero (2) 0.75 m
(3) 3.0 m (4) 4 m
A disc of radius r is cut from a larger disc of radius 4r in such a way that the edge of the hole touches the edge of the disc. The centre of mass of the residual disc will be a distance from centre of larger disc :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
r 5
r 4
r 2
r 3
r 5
r 4
r 2
r 3
A disc rotates about its axis with a constant angular acceleration of 4 rad/s . The acceleration of particle at a distance of 1 m from the axis at the end of the first second after the disc starts rotating.
(1) 4.5 m/s
(2) 8.3 m/s
(3) 16.5 m/s
(4) 20 m/s
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
ALLEN 23. 23. L
: ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
24. 24. M R :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
25. 25. 20 g
:

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
26. 26. : 20 rad/s 10 rad/s I
(1) 2I (2) 3I (3) I/2 (4) I/3
The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length L about an axis passing through its centre of mass is:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
L 12−−
L 3–√
L 2–√
Two equal and opposite forces are applied tangentially to a uniform disc of mass M and radius R as shown in the figure. If the disc is pivoted at its centre and free to rotate in its plane, the angular acceleration of the disc is :-
(1) (2)
F MR
2F 3MR
4F MR
F MR
2F 3MR
4F MR
A particle of mass 20 g is moving with linear velocity and having position vector
. The angular momentum of particle
about origin is :-
(3 + 4 )mi j
4 Jsk −4 Jsk
−0.4 Jsk 0.4 Jsk
A ballet dancer, dancing on a smooth floor is spinning about a vertical axis with her arms folded with angular velocity of 20 rad/s. When she stretches her arms fully. the spinning speed decrease in 10 rad/s. If I is the initial moment of inertia of the dancer, the new moment of inertia is :-
(1) 2I (2) 3I (3) I/2 (4) I/3
ALLEN 27. 27.

(1) 7 : 10 (2) 2 : 5 (3) 10 : 5 (4) 2 : 7
28. 28. : : :-
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) ,
(4) ,
29. 29.
, t a b ω . :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30. 30. , b m , y -
(1) (2) (3) (4)
If a solid sphere is rolling, the ratio of its rotational energy to the total kinetic energy is given by
(1) 7 : 10 (2) 2 : 5 (3) 10 : 5 (4) 2 : 7
A solid sphere is thrown up a rough incline. The sphere rolls up without slipping and eventually comes down rolling without slipping. The direction of rolling friction in upward and downward motion respectively is :-
(1) Downward, upward
(2) Upward, downward
(3) Downward, downward
(4) Upward, upward
A wheel rotates with an angular acceleration given by , where t is the time and a and
b are constants. If wheel has initial angular speed ω , then the equation for the angular speed will be :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
ω = + a − bω0 t4 t3
ω = 12a − 6bt+t2 ω0
α = 4a − 3bt3 t2
ω = + a − bω0 t4 t3
ω = 12a − 6bt+t2 ω0
Five uniform circular plates, each of diameter b and mass m are laid out in a pattern shown the y-coordinate of centre of mass of the five-plate system will be :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)b 5
2b 5
4b 5
3b 5
b 5
2b 5
4b 5
3b 5
ALLEN 31. 31. (2, 0, –3)
(2, –2, –2) :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
32. 32. m r L ( ), :–
(1) (2) mr L (3) (4)
33. 33. M R : , ω ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
34. 34. m r 45°
–
(1) (2) (3) (4)
35. 35. , , , ( ) :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The moment of the force,
at (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
−8 − 4 − 7i j k −4 − − 8i j k
−7 − 8 − 4i j k −7 − 4 − 8i j k
= 4 + 5 − 6F i j k
−8 − 4 − 7i j k −4 − − 8i j k
−7 − 8 − 4i j k −7 − 4 − 8i j k
A particle of mass m is describing a circular path of radius r with uniform speed. If L is the angular momentum of the particle (about the axis of the circle), then the kinetic energy of the particle is :-
(1) (2) mr L (3) (4)L2
mr 2 2 L2
m L2
m
A thin uniform circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the plane
with angular velocity ω. Another disc of same mass but half the radius is gently placed over it coaxially. The angular speed of the composite disc will be :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)ω 5 4
ω 4 5
5 2
A uniform solid sphere of mass m and radius r rolls without slipping down a inclined plane, inclined at an angle 45° to the horizontal. Find the magnitude of frictional coefficient at which slipping is absent–
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 3
2 7
1 5
1 7
1 3
2 7
1 5
1 7
A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a ring are released from top of an inclined plane (frictionless) so that they slide down the plane. The maximum acceleration down the plane is for (no rolling) :-
(1) Solid sphere (2) Hollow sphere
(3) Ring (4) All same
ALLEN
SECTION-B This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
-B 15 15 10 10 10
36. 36. 16 kg 100 N/m 1.6 m :-
(1) 6 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 8 m/s (4) 2 m/s
37. 37. 3.0 m/s 500 N , :-
(1) 150 kW (2) 15 kW
(3) 1.5 kW (4) 150 W
38. 38. ‘S’
10 ‘S’
( )
(1) 30 (2) 40 (3) 10 (4) 20
39. 39. X X (extreme) Y Y (extreme upper) :
(1) X X
(2) Y Y
(3) Y Y
(4) Y ,Y ,Y ,X
A block of mass 16 kg is moving on a frictionless horizontal surface and comes to rest after compressing the spring of constant 100 N/m by 1.6 m then its velocity will be :-
(1) 6 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 8 m/s (4) 2 m/s
A motor boat is travelling with a speed of 3.0 m/sec. If the force on it due to water flow is 500 N, the power of the boat is:-
(1) 150 kW (2) 15 kW
(3) 1.5 kW (4) 150 W
The potential energy of a certain spring when stretched through a distance ‘S’ is 10 joule. The amount of work (in joule) that must be done on this spring to stretch it through an additional distance ‘S’ will be
(1) 30 (2) 40 (3) 10 (4) 20
A particle tied with a string moves in a vertical circular path. If X and X are the extreme left and right positions of the particle on the path, whereas Y and Y the extreme upper and lower positions, then the tension(s) in the string at the position(s)
(1) X is greater than that at X
(2) Y is greater than that at Y
(3) Y and Y are the same
(4) Y , Y , X and X are equal
1 2
1 2
1 2
2 1
1 2
1 2 1 2
ALLEN 40. 40. 1 kg
, ?
(1) 2 π sec (2) π sec
(3) sec (4) 1 sec
41. 41. , R - , :–
(1)
(2)
(4) -
42. 42. 6 / m , 4 / M m << M , 'pk ( ) :-
(1) 2 /,
(2) 2 /,
(3) 4 /,
(4) 4 /,
A particle of mass 1 kg is suspended from a ceiling through a string of length
. The particle moves in a horizontal
circle.Find its time period.
(3) sec (4) 1 sec
10 m2–√
π 2
10 m2–√
π 2
A motorcycle is going on an overbridge of radius R. The driver maintanis a constant speed. As the motorcycle is ascending on the overbridge, the normal force on it :
(1) increases
(2) decreases
(4) fluctuates erratically
A particle of mass m moving with horizontal speed 6 m/s as shown in figure collides with heavy mass M moving with speed 4 m/s is same direction. If m << M then for one dimensional elastic collision, the speed of lighter particle after collision will be :-
(1) 2 m/sec in original direction
(2) 2 m/sec opposite to the original direction
(3) 4 m/sec opposite to the original direction
(4) 4 m/sec in original direction
ALLEN 43. 43. 8 kg 2 kg

E 'pk :-
(1) 0.80 E
(2) 0.64 E
(3) 0.36 E
(4) 0.08 E
44. 44. m
A B K L ,
A B
ν m
(Identical) A :
:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
45. 45.

:-
A moving mass of 8 kg collides elastically with
a stationary mass of 2 kg. If E be the initial
kinetic energy of the moving mass, the kinetic
energy left with it after the collision will be :-
(1) 0.80 E
(2) 0.64 E
(3) 0.36 E
(4) 0.08 E
Two identical blocks A and B, each of mass m
resting on smooth floor are connected by a light
spring of natural length L and spring constant K,
with the spring in its natural length. A third identical
block of mass m moving with a speed ν along the
line joining A and B collides elastically with A. The
maximum compression in the spring is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
mν 2K
A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same mass have the same moments of inertia about their respective diameters. The ratio of their radii is :-
(1) (5) : (3)
(2) (3) : (5)
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3
1/2 1/2
1/2 1/2
1/2 1/2
1/2 1/2
ALLEN 46. 46.
20 cm 4N, 8N, 6N 9N : A, B, C D : :
(1) 5.4 N–m
(2) 1.8 N–m
(3) 2.0 N–m
(4) 5.4 N–m
47. 47. ?
(1)
(4)
48. 48. M r ω m, ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A wheel of radius 20 cm is shown in figure. Forces 4N, 8N, 6N and 9N are applied at points A, B, C and D respectively at angles indicated in figure. Then torque produced by the forces about centre is :
(1) 5.4 N–m anticlockwise
(2) 1.8 N–m clockwise
A particle moves in circular path with decreasing speed. Which of the following is correct
(1) is constant
(4) None of these
L
L
a
L
L
a
A ring of mass M and radius r is rotating with angular velocity ω. Two particles of mass m are gently placed on the ends of a diameter. Final angular velocity will be :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
M
ALLEN 49. 49.

(a) ABC , ADC (b) BC , CD (c) BC , DA (d)
(1) a,b
(2) a,c
(3) b,c
(4) d
50. 50. R

v

5v/4
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A ring rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface. At any instant, its position is as shown in the figure.
(a) Section ABC has greater kinetic energy than section ADC (b) Section BC has greater kinetic energy than section CD. (c) Section BC has the same kinetic energy section DA. (d) All of the above
(1) a,b
(2) a,c
(3) b,c
(4) d
A thick walled hollow sphere has outer radius R. It rolls down an inclined plane without slipping and its speed at the bottom is v. If the inclined plane is frictionless and the sphere slides down without rolling, its speed at the bottom will be 5v/4. What is the radius of gyration of the sphere ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
R3–√
4
ALLEN SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
-A 35
51. 51. HCP ?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12
52. 52.
–
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12
53. 53. 4 × 10 m :-
(1) 3.46 × 10 m (2) 2 × 10 m
(3) 1 × 10 m (4) 1.732 × 10 m
54. 54. fcc 12 × 10 fcc ?
(1) 3 × 10 (2) 3 × 10
(3) 6 × 10 (4) 12 × 10
55. 55. Y, CCP , X 1/3 :-
(1) XY (2) X Y
(3) X Y (4) X Y
56. 56. 400 pm 120 6.25 g/cm - (N = 6 × 10 )
(1) () (2)
(3) (4)
The coordination number of a metal crystallizing in HCP structure is :-
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12
The co–ordination number in a crystal of sodium element is –
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12
In a body centred cubic unit cell of a metal, edge length is 4 × 10 m. The diameter of the atom will be :-
(1) 3.46 × 10 m (2) 2 × 10 m
(3) 1 × 10 m (4) 1.732 × 10 m
–10
–10 –10
–10 –10
There are 12 × 10 atoms are present in fcc lattice then how many number of fcc unit cells will be?
(1) 3 × 10 (2) 3 × 10
(3) 6 × 10 (4) 12 × 10
23
4 23
23 23
Formula of the compound in which the element Y forms CCP lattice and atoms of X occupy 1/3rd of THV :-
(1) XY (2) X Y
(3) X Y (4) X Y
3 3
2 3 3 2
Each edge of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm long. If atomic weight of the element is 120 and it's density is 6.25 g/cm . The crystal lattice is : (use N = 6 × 10 )
(1) Primitive (2) Body centered
(3) Face centered (4) End centered
3
A 23
ALLEN 57. 57.
, ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
58. 58. CsBr BCC 4.3Å Cs Br -
(1) 3.72 Å (2) 1.86 Å
(3) 7.44 Å (4) 4.3 Å
59. 59. NaCl -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
60. 60. :-
(1) ΔH +ve
(2) ΔG +ve
(3) TΔS –ve
(4)
61. 61. "" :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The smallest repeating pattern which when repeated in three dimensions results in the crystal of the substance is called?
(1) Space lattice
(2) Crystal lattice
(3) Unit cell
(4) Coordination number
CsBr has bcc structure with edge length 4.3Å. The shortest interionic distance in between Cs and Br is :-
(1) 3.72 Å (2) 1.86 Å
(3) 7.44 Å (4) 4.3 Å
+
– + –
By increasing the pressure on NaCl crystal, its co-ordination number will :-
(1) Decrease
(2) Increase
(1) ΔH is always +ve
(2) ΔG is always +ve
(3) TΔS is always –ve
(4) All are correct
(1) Shape of cavities
(3) Size of cavities
(4) All of these
ALLEN 62. 62.
, :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
63. 63. - ?
(1) KCl (2) KNO
(3) K SO (4) K [Fe(CN) ]
64. 64. -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
65. 65. N + 3H → 2NH
= 2 × 10 ,
– :-
(1) 1 × 10 mol L s
(2) 3 × 10 mol L s
(3) 4 × 10 mol L s
(4) 6 × 10 mol L s
66. 66. , OCl + I OI + Cl
r = k[OCl ] [I ] [OH ] OH :-
(1) –1 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 2
The minimum concentration of an electrolyte required to cause coagulation of a sol is called:-
(1) Gold number (2) Flocculation value
(3) Protective value (4) None of these
Which of the following is most effective in coagulating a ferric hydroxide sol ?
(1) KCl (2) KNO
3
2 4 3 6
The potential difference between fixed charged layer and the diffused layer having opposite charge is called-
(1) Zeta potential
(2) Beta potential
(3) Alpha potential
(4) Gamma potential
if = 2 × 10 mol L s , the value
of – would be :-
2 2 3
OCl + I OI + Cl rate law was found
to be r = k[OCl ] [I ] [OH ] . Thus order with respect to OH ion is :-
(1) –1 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 2
– – – –1 –
ALLEN 67. 67. :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
68. 68.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
69. 69. log t log a
a, A
A → , :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
For a zero order reaction, unit of rate of reaction and rate constant are respectively :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) Zero order reaction
(2) Second order reaction
(3) First order reaction
(4) None
A graph between log t and log a, a being the
initial concentration of A in the reaction. For
reaction A → Product, the rate law is:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
1/2
dt ]3
ALLEN 70. 70. 'k' T
logk
( A ) :-
(1) (2) A
71. 71. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
72. 72. , .
BrO x mol L s Br ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3x
73. 73. 2.3 , 300 K 310 K 300 K Q 310 K -
(1) 2Q (2) Q
(3) 2.3 Q (4) 3Q
74. 74. A + B 2AB : 180 kJ mol 200 kJ mol 100 kJ mol ( ) (A + B 2AB) (kJ mol ) :-
(1) 300 (2) 120 (3) 280 (4) –20
Given that k is the rate constant for some order of any reaction at temperature T, then the value of
logk (where, A is the Arrhenius constant) is :-
(1) (2) A
lim T→∞
A 2.303
lim T→∞
A 2.303
(1) First order reactions
(2) Zero order reactions
(3) Bimolecular gaseous reactions
(4) Any order reactions
For a reaction, .
If rate of consumption of BrO is x mol L s . Then calculate rate of formation of Br :-
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3x
6 + 5B +Br 3B + 3 OH + r− O− 3 → r 2 H 2
3 – –1 –1
x 3
2x 3
x 4
6 + 5B +Br 3B + 3 OH + r− O− 3 → r 2 H 2
3 – –1 –1
x 3
2x 3
x 4
The rate of reaction increases to 2.3 times when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. If Q is the rate constant at 300 K then the rate constant at 310 K will be equal to –
(1) 2Q (2) Q
(3) 2.3 Q (4) 3Q2 2
The energies of activation for forward and reverse reaction for A + B 2AB are 180 kJ mol and 200 kJ mol respectively. The presence of catalyst lowers the activation energy of both (forward and reverse) reactions by 100 kJ mol . The enthalpy change of the reaction (A + B 2AB) in the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol ) :-
(1) 300 (2) 120 (3) 280 (4) –20
2 2 –1
2 2 –1
ALLEN 75. 75.
(p) - (x)
(1) K ,
(2) K ,
(3) K
(4) K
76. 76. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
77. 77. 9.9 6 P° : -
(1) 0.1 P° (2) 1.10 P°
(3) 0.90 P° (4) 0.99 P°
78. 78. , A B : P P A X :-
(1) P + X (P –P ) (2) P + X (P –P )
(3) P + X (P –P ) (4) P + X (P –P )
According to Henry's law the partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase (p) is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas (x) in the solution. For different gases the correct statement about Henry's constant is
(1) higher the value of K at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas
(2) higher the value of K at a given pressure, lower is the solubility of the gas
(3) K is not a function of nature of gas
(4) K value for all gases is same at a given pressure
H
H
H
H
H
H
H
H
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
6 g urea dissolved in 9.9 moles of water. The vapour pressure of pure water is P°, then vapour pressure of solution is :-
(1) 0.1 P° (2) 1.10 P°
(3) 0.90 P° (4) 0.99 P°
P and P are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B respectively of an ideal binary solution. If X represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be :-
(1) P + X (P –P ) (2) P + X (P –P )
(3) P + X (P –P ) (4) P + X (P –P )
A B
A B
B A B A B A A B
A A B A A A A B
ALLEN 79. 79. :
, :-
(1) 1% CsCl w/w
(2) 1% RbCl w/w
(3) 1% KCl w/w
(4) 1% NaCl w/w
80. 80. 25°C A ( = 40) 100 B ( = 80) 40 25°C (A B) 20 :-
(1) 80 torr (2) 59.8 torr
(3) 68 torr (4) 48 torr
81. 81. 171g (C H O ) 1
(1) 2.0 M (2) 1.0 M
(3) 0.5 M (4) 0.25 M
82. 82. X Y, CCP X Y X Z ( ) , ?
(1) X Y Z (2) X Y Z
(3) X Y Z (4) XY Z
83. 83. SCC :-
(1) = 6
(2) = 68%
(3) 2r = a
(4) = 1
Assuming the salts to be completely ionized in solution, which of the following has highest osmotic pressure.
(1) 1% CsCl w/w
(2) 1% RbCl w/w
(3) 1% KCl w/w
(4) 1% NaCl w/w
At 25°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A (mol. wt. = 40) is 100 torr, while that of pure liquid B (mol. wt. = 80) is 40 torr. The vapour pressure at 25°C of a solution containing 20 g of each A and B is :-
(1) 80 torr (2) 59.8 torr
(3) 68 torr (4) 48 torr
171g of cane sugar (C H O ) is present in 1 litre of aqueous solution. The molarity of the solution is:
(1) 2.0 M (2) 1.0 M
(3) 0.5 M (4) 0.25 M
12 22 11 12 22 11
In a CCP lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the corners while Y atoms are at face centers. Then the formula of the compound would be if one of the X atoms from a corner is replaced by Z atoms (Also monovalent) ?
(1) X Y Z (2) X Y Z
(3) X Y Z (4) XY Z
7 24 2 7 24
24 7 24
24 7 24
(4) Number of atom per unit cell = 1
ALLEN 84. 84. :-
(1)
(2) NaCl ()
(3) CCP 4
(4) 8
85. 85.
(CH ) N —→ C H + N 40 'pk 200 Hg 350 Hg :
(1) 2.88 × 10
(2) 1.25 × 10
(3) 5.77 × 10
(4) 2.5 × 10
-B 15 15 10 10 10
86. 86. NaCl Na :-
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
87. 87. FCC , ?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 1 (4) 6
(2) NaCl(s) is insulator
(3) The number of octahedral voids per atom in CCP structure is 4.
(4) The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond is 8
The decomposition of azo methane, at certain temperature according to the equation (CH ) N —→ C H + N is a first order reaction. After 40 minutes from the start, the total pressure developed is found to be 350 mm Hg in place of initial pressure 200 mm Hg of azo methane. The value of rate constant k is:
(1) 2.88 × 10 s
(2) 1.25 × 10 s
(3) 5.77 × 10 s
(4) 2.5 × 10 s
–3 –1
–5 –1
–4 –1
–8 –1
–3 –1
–5 –1
–4 –1
–8 –1
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
+ +
In FCC lattice, a unit cell is shared equally in how many unit cell?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 1 (4) 6
ALLEN 88. 88. (BCC)
288 pm
7.2 g/cm 208

(1) 6 × 10
(2) 2.4 × 10
(3) 24 × 10
(4) 12 × 10
89. 89. :-
(1) x 'm' P

(2)

(4)
(1) -
(2) -
(3) -
(4) -
91. 91. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
An element has a body centered cubic (BCC)
structure with edge length of 288 pm. The
density of the element is 7.2 g/cm . How many
atoms are present in 208g of the element :-
(1) 6 × 10
(2) 2.4 × 10
(3) 24 × 10
(4) 12 × 10
(1) where x is amount of gas
adsorbed on mass 'm' at pressure P
(2)
high pressure
1 n
1 n
(3) product catalyses
(4) solvent catalyses
(4) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
ALLEN 92. 92. ,
: R = K[A] [B] , A 1.5 B ?
(1) 20.25 (2) 2.25
(3) 6.75 (4)
93. 93. 99% 32 99.9% :-
(1) 50
(2) 46
(3) 48
(4) 49
94. 94. 100 75% 87.5% ?
(1) 125 min (2) 150 min
(3) 175 min (4) 200 min
95. 95. K = Ae RT :
(1)
(2) , A 37%
(3) , A 73%
(4)
96. 96. H O : -
(1) 0.56V (2) 5.6 V (3) 56V (4) 0.056V
For a reaction, the initial rate is given as : R = K[A] [B] , by what factor, the initial rate of reaction will increase if initial concentration of A is taken 1.5 times and of B is tripled?
(1) 20.25 (2) 2.25
(3) 6.75 (4) None
0 2
99% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 minutes when 99.9% of the reaction will complete:-
(1) 50 min
(2) 46 min
(3) 48 min
(4) 49 min
A first order reaction is 75% completed in 100 min. How long will it take for it's 87.5% completion?
(1) 125 min (2) 150 min
(3) 175 min (4) 200 min
Arrhenius equation K = Ae . If the activation energy of the reaction is found to be equal to RT, then :
(1) The rate of reaction does not depend upon initial concentration
(2) The rate constant becomes about 37% of the Arrhenius constant A.
(3) The rate constant becomes equal to 73% of the Arrhenius constant A.
(4) The rate of the reaction becomes infinite or zero
–Ea/RT –Ea/RT
2 2 2 2
ALLEN 97. 97. 30 mm Hg

0.9 :-
(1) 30 mm of Hg
(2) 24 mm of Hg
(3) 21 mm of Hg
(4) 27 mm of Hg
98. 98. 0.5 M Fe [Fe(CN) ] 27°C ( )
(1) 861 atm
(2) 86.1 atm
(3) 13.6 atm
(4) 24.6 atm
99. 99. 10 mL 10 mL :-
(1) > 20 ml
(2) < 20 ml
(3) = 20 ml
(4)
100. 100. 2N HCl 500 mL 5N HCl 500 mL 3 M HCl ?
(1) 250 mL
(2) 750 mL
(3) 500 mL
(4) 1000 mL
The vapour pressure of pure water at room temperature is 30 mm of Hg. If the mole fraction of water in a solution of non volatile solute is 0.9, the vapour pressure of the solution will be :-
(1) 30 mm of Hg
(2) 24 mm of Hg
(3) 21 mm of Hg
(4) 27 mm of Hg
What will be the osmotic pressure of 0.5 M ferriferrocyanide Fe [Fe(CN) ] solution at 27°C (Assume complete ionization)
(1) 861 atm
(2) 86.1 atm
(3) 13.6 atm
(4) 24.6 atm
4 6 3
4 6 3
On mixing 10 mL of carbon tetrachloride with 10mL of benzene, the total volume of solution is:-
(1) > 20 ml
(2) < 20 ml
(3) = 20 ml
(4) Can't say
You are given 500 mL of 2N HCl and 500 mL of 5N HCl. What will be the maximum volume of 3 M HCl that you can make from these two solutions ?
(1) 250 mL
(2) 750 mL
(3) 500 mL
(4) 1000 mL
ALLEN SUBJECT : BOTANY
Topic : Genetics : (i) Principles Of Inheritance And Variation (ii) Molecular Basis Of Inheritance, Biotechnology : (i) Biotechnology : Principles And Processes (ii) Biotechnology And Its Applications (iii) Microbes In Human Welfare, Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production (Plant Breeding)
-A 35
101. 101. ?
(1) TtRG (2) TRrG
(3) TRRG (4) TRG
102. 102. ?
(1)
(2)
(4)
103. 103. :- (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) c, d e (2) b, c e
(3) a e (4) c e
104. 104.
(1)
(2)
(3) 50% 50%
(4) 50% 50%
Which of the following represent gamete ?
(1) TtRG (2) TRrG
(3) TRRG (4) TRG
Genetic maps of chromosomes are based on the frequency of :-
(1) Non-disjunction
(2) Translocation
(3) Linkage
(4) Genetic recombination
In his classic experiment on pea plant, Mendel did not use :- (a) Seed shape (b) Flower position (c) Arrangement of flower (d) Pod colour (e) Pod length
(1) c, d and e (2) b, c and e
(3) a and e (4) c and e
If red flower plant of Antirrhinum crossed with pink flower then expected progeny is :
(1) All with red flower
(2) All with pink flower
(3) 50% red flower and 50% white flower
(4) 50% red flower and 50% pink flower
ALLEN 105. 105. F
:-
(1)
(4)
106. 106. , 'A' :-
(1) 'O'
(2) 'A' 'O'
(3) 'A'
(4) 'O' 'AB'
107. 107. : -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
108. 108. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
109. 109. 'ys ?
(1) =
(2) =
(4) =
In a cross F had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents. It represents the case of :-
(1) Dominance
(2) Co-dominance
1 1
In a hospital, accidental interchange of two babies was happened. The baby of 'A' blood group could not be rightly given to a couple with :-
(1) Both husband and wife of 'O' blood group
(2) Husband of 'A' and wife of 'O' blood group
(3) Both husband and wife of 'A' blood group
(4) Husband of 'O' and wife of 'AB' blood group
The number of linkage groups in Pisum sativum is:-
(1) Five (2) Seven
(3) Nine (4) Ten
Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by :-
(1) Morgan (2) Mendel
(3) Hugo de Vries (4) Watson
Which of the following symbol and its representation used in human pedigree analysis is correct ?
(1) = consanguieneous mating
(2) = Carrier male
(4) = Normal male
ALLEN 110. 110.

?
(2)
(3) X-
(4) X-
111. 111. 1000 360
AA, 480 Aa 160
aa
A :-
(1) 0.4
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.7
112. 112. :-
(1)
(2)
inheritance
to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining
160 to aa Based on this data, the frequency of
allele A in the population is :-
(1) 0.4
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.7
(1) Terminal deletion
(2) Substitution
(3) Inversion
(4) Duplication
ALLEN 113. 113. - I - II -
-I -II
(I) (A) ABO
(II) (B)
(III) (C)
(IV)
(D)
(1) I - (D); II - (A); III - (C); IV - (B)
(2) I - (D); II - (B); III - (C); IV - (A)
(3) I - (C); II - (A); III - (D); IV - (B)
(4) I - (A); II - (C); III - (B); IV - (D)
114. 114.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
115. 115. DNA RNA primer
(1) DNA I
(2) DNA II
(3) DNA III
(4) RNA I
116. 116. ... :-
(1) × 174 bacteriophage
(III) Incomplete dominance
(IV) Polygenic inheritance
(1) I - (D); II - (A); III - (C); IV - (B)
(2) I - (D); II - (B); III - (C); IV - (A)
(3) I - (C); II - (A); III - (D); IV - (B)
(4) I - (A); II - (C); III - (B); IV - (D)
Histone proteins are rich in:-
(1) Glutamic acid and aspartic acid
(2) Lysine and arginine
(3) Glutamic and valine
(4) Lysine and valine
At the time of DNA Replication which enzyme removes the RNA primer:-
(1) DNA polymerase I
(2) DNA polymerase II
(3) DNA polymerase III
(4) RNA polymerase I
(1) × 174 bacteriophage
(2) λ Bacteriophage
(3) E. coli
(4) QB bacteriophage
ALLEN 117. 117. , DNA
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
118. 118. hnRNA , - :-
(1) , 5'-
(2) (split) :
(3) RNA polymerase II hnRNA
(4) RNA
119. 119. (a-d)
:-
(a)
(b)
(c)

(d)

(1) a, b d (2) a, b c
(3) a, c d (4) b, c d
All given statements fulfill the criteria by which DNA act as genetic material ; except :-
(1) It should be able to generate its replica.
(2) It should be chemically and structurally be unstable.
(3) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution.
(4) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian characters.
During processing of hnRNA in eukaryotes after transcription, the following event is true:-
(1) In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 5'-end in template dependent manner
(2) Split gene arrangements represents probably an advanced feature of genome
(3) In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA
(4) Process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA world
Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all the correct ones only:- (a) Transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria. (b) The process of translation occur in nucleus of eukaryotic cell. (c) The process of splicing take place in nucleus of eukaryotic cell. (d) The presence of introns in split gene is reminiscent of antiquity.
(1) a, b, and d (2) a, b and c
(3) a, c, and d (4) b, c, and d
ALLEN 120. 120.
?
(1) UAA (2) AUG
(3) UAG (4) UUU
121. 121. - ? (i) (ii) mRNA (iii) (iv) (v)
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, ii, iv
(3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) i, ii, iii, v
122. 122. , tRNA :-
(1) P E (2) P A
(3) E P (4) A P
123. 123. () ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) β -
124. 124. DNA :-
(1)
(3)
(4)
Which of the following codon perform dual function at the time of translation ?
(1) UAA (2) AUG
(3) UAG (4) UUU
Which of the following statements are correct about genetic codes ? (i) These are unambiguous (ii) Codon are read in mRNA in continuous manner (iii) If a nucleotide is deleted or added, whole genetic codes read differently. (iv) All amino acids are coded by only one codon. (v) One anticodon can pair with more than one codons.
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, ii, iv
(3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) i, ii, iii, v
During translocation in translation process, tRNA attached with growing polypeptide chain shifts from :-
(1) P to E site (2) P to A site
(3) E to P site (4) A to P site
Which one of the following is a real inducer of lac operon ?
(1) Lactose (2) Repressor protein
(3) Allolactose (4) β - galactosidase
Which step does not involve in DNA finger printing :-
(1) Southern blotting
(2) Gel electrophoresis
(4) Northen blotting
ALLEN 125. 125.
-A -B
(a) (p) 1.4
(b)
(q) 3
(c) 2% (r) RNA
(d) (s)
(1) (a)-(r), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(q)
(2) (a)-(s), (b)-(p), (c)-(r), (d)-(q)
(3) (a)-(r), (b)-(s), (c)-(q), (d)-(p)
(4) (a)-(q), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(r)

-I -II
(i) (a)

(iii)
(c)

Match of the following columns.
Column-A Column-B
(1) (a)-(r), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(q)
(2) (a)-(s), (b)-(p), (c)-(r), (d)-(q)
(3) (a)-(r), (b)-(s), (c)-(q), (d)-(p)
(4) (a)-(q), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(r)
Match the Column I with Column II.
Column-I Column-II
Proved that
(1) i → b, ii → c, iii → a, iv → d
(2) i → d, ii → c, iii → a, iv → b
(3) i → d, ii → c, iii → b, iv → a
(4) i → d, ii → b, iii → a, iv → c
ALLEN 127. 127. -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
128. 128. :-
(1) KVIC ICAR
(2) KVIC IARI
(3) KVIC PUSA
(4) KVIC IR-21
129. 129. : ?
(1)
(2)
(4)
130. 130. :- -I -II
a i
b -A ii
c iii
d iv
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
131. 131. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Statins used as a -
(4) Bioinsecticide
(1) KVIC and ICAR
(2) KVIC and IARI
(3) KVIC and PUSA
(4) KVIC and IR-21
Which biocontrol agent is very common in root ecosystem and is effective against several plant pathogens?
(1) Baculoviruses
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
b Cyclosporin-A ii Streptococcus
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
The entire collection having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called :-
(1) Genome (2) Germplasm collection
(3) Biofortification (4) Mutation breeding
ALLEN 132. 132.
?
(1) (2) ()
(3) (4)
133. 133. -I -II :-
-I -II
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) - 3 (iv)
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
134. 134. :-
(1) 1960 2000 , 11
75
(2) 62%

(3)

(4)
135. 135. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which part would be most suitable for raising virus free plants for micropropagation?
(1) Meristem (2) Node
Column-I Column-II
(b) Pusa gaurav (ii) Flat bean
(c) Pusa sawani (iii) Wheat
(d) Pusa sem 3 (iv) Bhindi
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
Mark the incorrect statement :-
(1) From 1960 to 2000, wheat production was increased from 11 million tonnes to 75 million tonnes
(2) Agriculture gives employment of about 62% of the population of India
(3) Red rot of sugarcane and black rot of crucifers are viral diseases.
(4) Saccharum officinarum has higher sugar content and thicker stems.
The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi has released iron and calcium enriched vegetable crop, that is :-
(1) Spinach (2) Pumpkin
(3) Carrot (4) Bitter gourd
ALLEN
-B 15 15 10 10 10
136. 136. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
137. 137. ABO
(1)
(2) :
(3) , I I
(4)
138. 138. ,
:

(1)
Dominant character appear in :-
(3) Both in homozygous and heterozygous conditions
(4) Alleles
Select incorrect statement for ABO blood group.
(1) It is determined by three alleles present in a population of human
(2) It has four phenotype and six genotype
(3) It shows codominance, if genotype is I I
(4) Each individual has three alleles but its
gamete contain only one allele.
A B A B
following member does not have father and
thus cannot have sons, but have a grand father
and can have grand sons.
(1) Queen
(2) Worker
(3) Drone
(4) Sterile female
ALLEN 139. 139. :-
(1) y-

(2) 8% 0.4%
(3)
50%
(4)
140. 140. 70% ?
(1) 49% (2) 9% (3) 51% (4) 58%
141. 141. I II
I II
(A)

(B)

Which of the following statement is true for colourblindness :-
(1) It is due to mutation in certain genes present in y-chromosome
(2) It occurs in about 8% of female and about 0.4 % of male
(3) The son of a woman who is carrier of colourblind has 50% chance of being colourblind
(4) It is an autosomal linked disorder
In random mating population, frequency of recessive allele is 70%, then find out of the percentage of homozygous organisms :-
(1) 49% (2) 9% (3) 51% (4) 58%
Match the column I with column II
Column I Column II
three or more than three allele
(i) Pleiotropy
(ii) Multiple
phenotypic expression
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i
(2) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
(3) A – i, B – ii, C – iii
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii
ALLEN 142. 142. N-
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
143. 143. -
(1) 100
(2) 400
(3) 200
(4) 800
144. 144. :-
(1)
(3) F.
(4)
145. 145. rRNA :-
(1) RNA I
(2) RNA II
(3) RNA III
(4) RNA IV
A cytidine is formed through a N-glycosidic linkage by joining :-
(1) Phosphate group with adenine
(2) Cytosine with cytosine
(4) Deoxyribose sugar with phosphate group
How many base pair are found in one nucleosome :-
(1) 100
(2) 400
(3) 200
(4) 800
(1) Francis Crick
(2) James Watson
(3) F. Miescher
(4) Erwin Chargaff
rRNA that catalyse the formation of peptide bond in eukaryotes is synthesised by
(1) RNA Polymerase I
(2) RNA Polymerase II
(3) RNA Polymerase III
(4) RNA Polymerase IV
ALLEN 146. 146. , : -
(1) i ,

(2) - (z, y and a)

(3)

(4) y β-
a-

147. 147. DNA
:
(C)
(D)
Choose the incorrect option with respect to given diagram.
(1) Here the term i does not refer to inducer, rather than it is derived from the word inhibitor.
(2) In lac operon, all three gene (z, y and a) products are required for metabolism of lactose
(3) Repressor binds to the operator region in absence of inducer.
(4) The product of y gene, increases
permeability of cell to β-galactosides while the product of a-gene is primarily responsible for hydrolysis of the monosaccharide.
Find out the correct sequence of various steps
of DNA finger printing technique :
(A) Digestion of DNA by RE
(B) Hybridisation by labelled VNTR probe
(C) Autoradiography
(D) Blotting
(1) A → B → C → D
(2) A → D → B → C
(3) B → C → A → D
(4) B → D → A → C
ALLEN 148. 148. - ?
(1) LAB
(2) O
(3) CO
(4)
149. 149. () :-
(1)
(2)
(4)
150. 150. ?
(1)

(3)

(4)

(1) Growth of LAB
(3) Production of CO
2
2
2
2
In mung bean, resistant to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew is brought about by :-
(1) Mutation breeding
described ?
yellow mosaic virus
ALLEN SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
Topic : Genetics : (i) Principles Of Inheritance And Variation (ii) Molecular Basis Of Inheritance, Biotechnology : (i) Biotechnology : Principles And Processes (ii) Biotechnology And Its Applications (iii) Microbes In Human Welfare, Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production (Plant Breeding)
-A 35
151. 151. :-
(1) Bam HI (Blunt)
(2)
(3) DNA
(4)
152. 152. DNA ?
(1) DNA
(2) DNA
(3)
(4)
153. 153. EcoRI DNA ?
(1) G T (2) G C
(3) A T (4) G A
154. 154. ‘‘ ’’ :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to restriction endonuclease :-
(1) Bam HI produce blunt end.
(2) Restriction endonuclease never synthesized in prokaryotes.
(3) Restriction endonuclease cut the DNA at palindromic sequence.
(4) In the naming of restriction endonuclease roman number indicate the order of discovery.
The stickiness of DNA ends facilitates the action of which enzyme?
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) DNA ligase
(3) Restriction endonuclease
(4) Alkaline phosphatase
(1) G and T only (2) G and C only
(3) A and T only (4) G and A only
"Factors do not show any blending" this statement is based on :-
(1) Law of dominance
(3) Linkage
(4) Law of Segregation
ALLEN 155. 155. pBR322 -
(1) (2) (3) (4)
156. 156. pBR322 Pst I r-DNA ?
(1) amp (2) tet
(3) gal (4) (1) (2)
157. 157. E.coli pBR322 () ?
(1) Hind III, ECoRI - (2) amp , tet - (3) ori - (4) rop -
158. 158. I. 'Ori' DNA II. DNA pBR322 Bam HI , plasmid DNA
(1) I , II (2) II , I
(3) (4)
pBR322 which is frequently used as a vector is :
(1) An original bacterial plasmid (2) A modified bacterial plasmid (3) A viral genome (4) A transposon If pBR322 cloning vector is cut by Pst I enzyme for formation of r-DNA then which of its marker gene helps in selection of recombinants ?
(1) amp gene (2) tet gene
(3) gal gene (4) both (1) and (2)
R R R R
The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s) ?
(1) Hind III, ECoRI-selectable markers (2) amp , tet -antibiotic resistance genes (3) ori-original restriction enzyme (4) rop-reduced osmotic pressure
R R R R
I. Ori also controls the copy numbers of the linked DNA. II.If a foreign DNA ligates at the Bam HI site of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322, the recombinant plasmid loses the tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA. Choose regarding the above statements.
(1) I is true, II is false (2) II is true, I is false
(3) Both are true (4) Both are false
ALLEN 159. 159.
?
(1) DNA
(2) DNA
(3) DNA
(4)
160. 160. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) Ti-
161. 161. DNA :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
162. 162.

:-
(1) (2)
(3) () (4)
163. 163. 'ys

-
(1)
(4)
Which of the following step in PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is enzyme catalysed ?
(1) Denaturation of DNA
(3) Extension of primer end on the template DNA
(4) All the above
Which of the following is used as a vector for plant cells ?
(1) Biolistic (2) Microinjection
DNA is stained by :-
This step is known as :-
(1) Spooling (2) Transformation
(3) Elution (4) Digestion
After the formation of product in the bioreactors it undergoes through some processes, before a finished product to be ready for marketing is called :-
(1) Elution
(4) Transformation
ALLEN 164. 164. ...
(a) ... (b) (c) ... (d) (e) ... (f) ... (g) ...
(1) f → a → e → b → c → g → d
(2) e → a → f → g → c → b → d
(3) e → a → f → c → g → b → d
(4) a → e → c → f → g → d → b
165. 165. ?
(1) –
(2) –
(3) – T-DNA
(4) EcoRI –
166. 166. pH :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
167. 167. cryIAc cryIIAb Bt toxin -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence. Find out the correct sequence. (a) Fragmentation of DNA (b) Culturing the host cell in a medium at large scale (c) Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector (d) Extraction of the desired product (e) Isolation of DNA (f) Isolation of desired DNA fragment (g) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host
(1) f → a → e → b → c → g → d
(2) e → a → f → g → c → b → d
(3) e → a → f → c → g → b → d
(4) a → e → c → f → g → d → b
Which of the following is a wrong match?
(1) Taq polymerase – Thermostable enzyme
(2) Gene gun – Gold or tungston microparticles
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens – T-DNA
(4) EcoRI – Exonuclease
The insecticidal protein in Bt-cotton on activation at alkaline pH binds with :-
(1) Foregut epithelial cells
(2) Midgut mesothelial cells
(3) Hindgut mesothelial cells
(4) Midgut epithelial cells
The protein products of the following Bt toxin genes cryIAc and cryIIAb are responsible for controlling:-
(1) Bollworm (2) Roundworm
(3) Moth (4) Fruit fly
ALLEN 168. 168. :
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
169. 169. ' ' ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
170. 170. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
171. 171. ... : ?
(1) (2)
(3) .. (4)
172. 172. mRNA :-
(1) 'os (2)
(3) (4)
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the genetically modified crops ?
(1) It makes crop more tolerant to abiotic stresses
(2) It results in decreased efficiency of mineral usage by the plants.
(3) It helps to reduced the post harvest losses
(4) It enhances the nutritional value of food.
'Superbug' is a genetically modified bacterium useful for its ability of decomposing a variety of organic chemicals present in oil, which belongs to the strain :-
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Bacillus polymyxa
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Salmonella typhi
(2) Inability of immune system to function normally
(3) Chromosomal abberations
(4) Decreased yield of crop plants
The technique which is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patient is :-
(1) Serum analysis (2) Urine analysis
(3) PCR (4) Widal test
Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plant resistant to :-
(1) White rust (2) Nematode
(3) Boll worms (4) Bacterial blight
ALLEN 173. 173. –I –II -
–I –II
(i) (A)
(ii) (B) HGH
(iii) (C) A
(iv) (D)
(1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D
(2) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D
(4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C
174. 174. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) -1-
175. 175. ?
(1) ‘’
(2) ,
(3) ,

(4)

Match the column–I with column–II :
Column–I Column–II
(ii) Flavr savr tomato (B) HGH
(iii) Mouse (C) Vitamin A
(iv) Tranasgenic pig (D) Organ
transplantation
(1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D
(2) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D
(4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C
The milk of Roise cow contained human specific protein known as :-
(1) Alpha lactalbumin
(2) Beta lactalbumin
(1) transgenic Cow-Roise which produces
high fat milk for making ghee
(2) animals like bulls for farm work as they
have super power
vaccine before use in humans
(4) transgenic models for studying new
treatments for certain cardiac diseases
ALLEN 176. 176.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
177. 177. ______
(1) - (2)
(3) - (4) -
178. 178. - : (GM) / ?
(1)
(2) -
(3) (1) (2)
(4)
179. 179. ?
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
180. 180. β-chain ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 5
Which governing body in India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services ?
(1) Indian patenting agency
(3) Research committee of genetic manipulation
(4) Biosafety committee
The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment is known as :-
(1) Bio-war (2) Biopiracy
(3) Bio-cloning (4) Bio-processing
The main objective of production /use of herbicide resistant GM crops is to :
(1) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides
(2) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour
What is the dihybrid test cross ratio ?
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
The Part of β chain of haemoglobin of a person suffering from sickle cell anaemia is given. The blank circle represents amino acid :-
(1) same as 1 (2) same as 2
(3) same as 3 (4) same as 5
ALLEN 181. 181. x-body ?
(1) . (2)
(3) .. (4) ..
182. 182. A, B C :-
(1) A = , B = , C =
(2) A = RNA , B = , C =
(3) A = , B = RNA , C =
(4) A = RNA , B = , C =
183. 183. DNA RNA , :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
184. 184. 2 N N : N N : N N DNA
(1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 0 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 1
The term "x-body" was coined by :-
(1) M. barr (2) Henking
(3) C.B. McClung (4) E.B. willson
In the given picture correctly identify A, B and C :-
(1) A = Sigma factor, B = Rho factor, C = Terminator
(2) A = RNA polymerase, B = Sigma factor, C = Promoter
(3) A = Rho factor, B = RNA polymerase, C = Terminator
(4) A = RNA polymerase, B = Sigma factor, C = Rho factor
The region of DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase is :-
(1) Terminator (2) Structural gene
(3) Origin sequence (4) Promoter site
Meselson and Stahl experiment is continued to 2 generation, than ratio of DNA band in centrifugation tube which has density N N : N N : N N
(1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 0 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 1
nd
nd
15 15
ALLEN 185. 185.
A, B C -
A
B
1 UUU CUU
GGG GGU
UGA UAG
-B 15 15 10 10 10
186. 186. (sticky) :-
(1) Sam I (2) EcoR I
(3) EcoR V (4) Hae III
187. 187. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
(1) DNA PCR
(2) HIV
(3) RNA
(4) Taq
Which one of the following options given the correct categorisation of codon according to given A, B and C
A
(1) Sam I (2) EcoR I
(3) EcoR V (4) Hae III
Which is not true about PCR (Polymerase
Chain Reaction) ?
DNA
(2) It can be used to detect HIV in suspects
(3) Only RNA can be used as primer
(4) Use taq polymerase enzyme during
extension step
ALLEN 188. 188. ''
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
189. 189. - DNA ?
(1)
(4) PCR
190. 190. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
191. 191. Taq ?
(1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) DNA DNA
(4) DNA
The term 'competent' for a bacterial host cell denotes :-
(1) A transformed bacterium cell
(2) A bacterial cell ready to uptake foreign DNA
(3) A bacterium infected with bacteriophage
(4) A product of a desired gene inside a host bacterium
Which technique is employed to check the progression of restriction enzyme digestion of DNA ?
(1) Spooling
(2) Elution
(1) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(2) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
(3) purification of products
(4) addition of preservatives to the products
Which statement is true for Taq-polymerase enzyme ?
(1) It is a type of RNA polymerase which is isolated from a bacteria
(2) It is a DNA polymerase, which remain active during the high temperature
(3) DNA polymerase, which is used in DNA finger printing
(4) DNA polymerase which is used in gel electrophoresis
ALLEN 192. 192. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
193. 193. -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
194. 194. , (a) RNA (b) RNA (c) RNA (d) RNA tRNA tRNA
(1) a, b, c d
(2) a, b c
(3) a, b d
(4) a, c d
195. 195. - ?
(1) A-peptide
(2) B-peptide
(3) C-peptide
(4) D-peptide
(1) Natural genetic engineer of plant
(2) Natural genetic engineer of animal
(3) Symbiotic bacteria
(4) Symbiotic plant
(1) Bt cotton (2) Tobacco
(3) Golden Rice (4) Flaur savr
Read the following statements and choose the option which have all the correct statements only:- (a) RNA interference is used to prevent infectation of pest in plant (b) RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic organisms. (c) RNA interference is a method of cellular defense in eukaryotic organisms (d) RNA interference involves the silencing of a specific tRNA by preventing its formation from the corresponding gene. Options
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Which of the following peptide chain is not present in proinsulin ?
(1) A-peptide
(2) B-peptide
(3) C-peptide
(4) D-peptide
ALLEN 196. 196. /
- (A) (B) (C) C- (D)
(1) A C (2) A B
(3) A, B C (4) B, C D
197. 197. ?
(1) (2) (Mice)
(3) (4)
198. 198. AABbCc ?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 6
199. 199. F :-
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 12.5%
200. 200. 1865 , 1900 / :- (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) A B
(2) B C
(3) C D
(4)
Select the true statements from the following regarding insulin : (A) Insulin from animal source, may develop allergy in some patients (B) Recombinant insulin do not induce unwanted immunological response (C) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin (D) Insulin can be administered orally to diabetic patients
(1) A and C only (2) A and B only
(3) A, B and C only (4) B, C and D only
Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :-
(1) Fish (2) Mice
(3) Cow (4) Pig
AABbCc genotype forms how many types of gametes ?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 6
What will be the percentage of heterozygous plant in F generation of Mendel's monohybrid cross ?
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 12.5%
3
3
Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865, but it remained unrecognised till 1900 due to reason(s). (A) Communication was not easy in those days. (B) His contemporaries did not accept factors as discrete units of heredity. (C) Mathematical approach to explain inheritance was totally new. (D) Mendel could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors.
(1) Only A and B are correct
(2) Only B and C are correct
(3) Only C and D are correct
(4) All are correct
Space for Rough Work /
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