21
WWW.PSCPREP.COM UPPSC 2016 PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I WWW.PSCPREP.COM 2016 Sr. No.________________ SERIES: CODE: TSR-I विषय: सामाय अययन I Sub: GENERAL STUDIES-I ल अंक: 200 Max. Marks: 200 अपना अनुमाक बॉस म ललख (अंक म / शद म) Write your Roll Number in the box in numbers / in words) अपने जवाब चि नत करने के लिए केिल िैक बॉि वाइंट पेन का उपयोग To Mark Answer use Black ball point pen only बुकलेट खुला नहं है जब तक ऐसा करने के लए कहा Till told, do not open the booklet. उमीदवार जवाब लिखने से पहिे सभी नदेश को Candidate must read all the instructions before writing the answers You are to mark your answer on Answer Sheet only. After the examination is over, handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 1. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks 2. The candidate should indicate the correct Roll Number, Subject, Paper Code and its Series on the Answer-Sheet. Otherwise the Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and the candidate will be solely responsible for it 3. This booklet contains 150 questions. Each question has 4 alternative answers. The candidate has to darken only one circle or bubble indicating the correct answer on the answer sheet using black ball point pen. If more than one answers are marked, it would be treated as wrong answer and it will not he examined. 4. Nothing to be written on the cover page or any other page of this booklet. If you need a working sheet to do your rough work, please ask the invigilator for it and mention required information on it 5. If you happen to find that the booklet issued to you does not have all the pages properly printed or it has any other deficiency, then you need to approach the invigilator to get another booklet of same series and code. महिपूण ननदेश 1. सभी न के ललए जिाब द . सभी न पर समान अंक ह 2. उमीदिार रोल नंबर, विषय, पेपर कोड और सीरज का संके त उतर पक पर दे । अयथा उतर-शीट मूलयांकन नहं कया जाएगा और इसके ललए उमीदिार पूर तरह से जमेदार हगे 3. इस पुजततका म 150 न ह। चार विकलप येक न के लए ददया गया है । उमीदिार केिल एक ि त या बुलबुला काले बॉल िाइंट पेन का उपयोग कर उतर पक पर सह जिाब का संकेत कर। एक से अधिक जिाब म धचजननत कर रहे ह , तो यह गलत जिाब के प म माना जाएगा और इसे िह जांच नहं होगी 4. कवर पेज या इस पुततका के कसी भी अय पेज पर क भी नहं लिखा जाना िहए। नरक से अयास प के ललए पूछ 5. अगर आप के ललए जार बुकलेट म सभी न ठीक से मुदित नहं है तो इसे नरक से बदल ले |

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WWW.PSCPREP.COM UPPSC 2016 PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I WWW.PSCPREP.COM

2016 Sr. No.________________

S E R I E S : C O D E : T S R - I

विषय: सामान्य अध्ययन – I Sub: GENERAL STUDIES-I

कुल अकं: 200 Max. Marks: 200

समय: 2 घंटे Time: 2 Hours

अपना अनकु्रमान्क बॉक्स में ललखें (अकं में/ शब्दों में) Write your Roll Number in the box in numbers / in words)

अपने जवाब चिह्ननत करने के लिए केिल ब्िैक बॉि प्वाइंट पेन का उपयोग To Mark Answer use Black ball point pen only

बकुलेट खुला नह ं है जब तक ऐसा करने के ललए कहा Till told, do not open the booklet.

उम्मीदवार जवाब लिखने से पहि ेसभी ननदेशों को पढ़

Candidate must read all the instructions before writing the answers

You are to mark your answer on Answer Sheet only. After the examination is over, handover the

Answer Sheet to the Invigilator

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks

2. The candidate should indicate the correct Roll

Number, Subject, Paper Code and its Series on the

Answer-Sheet. Otherwise the Answer-Sheet will not

be evaluated and the candidate will be solely

responsible for it

3. This booklet contains 150 questions. Each question has

4 alternative answers. The candidate has to darken

only one circle or bubble indicating the correct answer

on the answer sheet using black ball point pen. If more

than one answers are marked, it would be treated as

wrong answer and it will not he examined.

4. Nothing to be written on the cover page or any other

page of this booklet. If you need a working sheet to do

your rough work, please ask the invigilator for it and

mention required information on it

5. If you happen to find that the booklet issued to you

does not have all the pages properly printed or it has

any other deficiency, then you need to approach the

invigilator to get another booklet of same series and

code.

महत्िपरू्ण ननदेश

1. सभी प्रश्नों के ललए जिाब दें. सभी प्रश्नों पर समान अंक हैं

2. उम्मीदिार रोल नंबर, विषय, पेपर कोड और सीर ज का सकेंत उत्तर पत्रक पर दे । अन्यथा उत्तर-शीट मूलयांकन नह ं ककया जाएगा और इसके ललए उम्मीदिार पूर तरह से जजम्मेदार होंगे

3. इस पुजततका में 150 प्रश्न हैं। चार विकलप प्रत्येक प्रश्न के ललए ददया गया है । उम्मीदिार केिल एक ितृ्त या बुलबुला काले बॉल प्िाइंट पेन का उपयोग कर उत्तर पत्रक पर सह जिाब का संकेत कर। एक से अधिक जिाब में धचजननत कर रहे हैं, तो यह गलत जिाब के रूप में माना जाएगा और इसे िह जांच नह ं होगी

4. कवर पेज या इस पुह्ततका के ककसी भी अन्य पेज पर कुछ भी नह ं लिखा जाना िाहहए। ननर क्षक से अभ्यास पत्र के ललए पूछें ।

5. अगर आप के ललए जार बुकलेट में सभी प्रश्न ठीक से मुदित नह ं है तो इसे ननर क्षक से बदल ले |

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1. Which community has the lowest sex ratio in

India as disclosed in the additional data

pertaining to Census 2011 released recently?

(a) Buddhist

(b) Sikh

(c) Jain

(d) Muslim

2. The first woman recently elected to Local

Council of Mecca in Saudi is

(a) Mariam Bint

(b) Hanouf Bint

(c) Salma Pint

(d) Aasma Bint

3. Recently In news, WendeIstein 7χ is related

to

(a) Steam Energy

(b) Solar Energy

(c) Thermal Energy

(d) Nuclear Energy

4. How many countries of the world have

adopted compulsory voting system?

(a) 32

(b) 25

(c) 24

(d) 22

5. Which country recently rejected one child

norm policy and allowed parents to have

another child?

(a) Sweden

(b) Cuba

(c) China

(d) Finland

6. Who among the following has been chosen

‘Person of the Year 2015’ by Times Magazine?

(a) Barack Obama

(b) AB. Al. Bagdadi

(c) Francois Hollande

(d) Angela Merkel

7. ‘Seva Divas’ has been proposed by central

Government to celebrate the birthday of

(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(b) Deen Dayal Upadhyay

(c) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

(d) Veer Savarkar

8. In which of the following districts of U.P., a

112 year old woman (Nauroji Devi) has been

elected Pradhan of a village?

(a) Mau

(b) Ghazipur

(c) Azamgarh

(d) Jaunpur

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9. Raghuvir Chaudhury, who was recently

awarded Sahitya Academy Puraskar, enriched

the literature in

(a) Marathi

(b) Gujarati

(c) Kannada

(d) Hindi

10. Supposing all Indian States as different

countries of the world in terms of Human

Development Index ranking; match these states

to concerned country's ranking and select

correct option from codes given below:

List-I List—II

(States) (Ranking Countries)

A. Kerala 1. South Africa

B. Gujarat 2. Pakistan

C. Uttar Pradesh 3. Honduras

D. Maharashtra 4. Maldives

Codes-:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 2 3 1 4

(d) 1 2 3 4

11. The book ‘Kargil: Turning the Tide' is written

by

(a) Mohinder Puri

(b) Anita Nair

(c) Chetan Bhagat

(d) Durjoy Datta

12. In the International Tennis Premier League

(ITPL) 2015, matches held in India, Rafael Nadal

played from the team

(a) UAE Royals

(b) Japan Warriors

(c) India Aces

(d) Philippine Mavericks

13. A well planned racket has been unearthed in

Indian Railways recently. The scam is related to

(a) sale of spurious food items on platforms and

coaches.

(b) Railway brand water ‘Rail Neer’.

(c) Supply of substandard electric items.

(d) over/under invoicing of goods transported

by trains.

14. Barak-3 Missile (next generation) has been

developed by India in collaboration with which

of the following countries?

(a) Russia

(b) U.S.A.

(c) Israel

(d) France

15. In which state the Nelong Valley is located?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Sikkim

(c) Jammu and Kashmir

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(d) Uttarakhand

16. In which or the following countries women

have been given voting rights for the fins time

and they won 13 seats in the election (2015)

creating a history?

(a) Iraq

(b) Jordan

(c) Saudi Arabia

(d) Turkey

17. ‘Simply click’ credit card scheme is launched

by which of the following Banks?

(a) IDBI

(b) ICICI

(c) B.O.B.

(d) S.B.I.

18. In the 64th Miss universe Competition, the

winner Pia Alonzo Wurtzback belongs to

(a) Philippines

b) Columbia

(c) U.S.A.

(d) France

19. Arrange the following lakes in correct,

descending order of their area using the codes

given below:

1. Great Bear

2. Baikal

3. Victoria

4. Superior

Codes:

(a) 4, 3, 2, 1

(b) 3, 2, 1, 4

(c) 4, 2, 1, 3

(d) 3, 1, 4, 2

20. Which of the following is not correctly

matched?

Ports Country

(a) Rotterdam - Netherlands

(b) lgarka - China

(c) Montevideo - Uruguay

(d) Jakarta - Indonesia

21. Match the List-l and List-Il and select the

correct answer from the codes given below:

List- I List-II

(Mountain Pass) (State)

A. Mana 1. Sikkim

B. Nathula 2. Jammu & Kashmir

C. Zozila 3. Himachal Pradesh

D. Sipki La 4. Uttarakhand

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 4 1 2 3

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(d) 4 1 3 2

22. Which of the following rock systems in India

is the latest one?

(a) Vindhyan

(b) Cuddapah

(c) Dharwar

(d) Gondwana

23. Which one of the following pairs is correctly

matched?

(a) Fohn - Alps Mountain

(b) Bora - Poland

(c) Mistral - Rhine valley

(d) Khamsin - Egypt

24. Which of the following passes leads to Leh?

(a) Zozila

(b) Shipki La

(c) Chumbi valley

(d) Banihal

25. Match List - I with list - II and select the

correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(Grasslands) (Continent)

A. Lanos 1. North America

B. Steppe 2. Africa

C. Praries 3. Europe

D. Veld 4. South America

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 4 1 3 2

26. Which one of the following countries is the

largest exporter of tea in the world?

(a) India

(b) China

(c) Kenya

(d) Sri Lanka

27. Match list - l and List – II and select the

correct answer from the codes given below the

lists

List - I List - II

(Tribes) (Area)

A. Khirghiz 1. Japan

B. Bushman 2. Arab

C. Ainu 3. Central Asia

D. Badduin 4. Kalahari

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Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 1 2 3 4

28. Match List - I and List - II and select the

correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(Industrial Region) (Country)

A. Kinki 1. China

B. Canton 2. Japan

C. Lorraine 3. Brazil

D. Belohorizontle 4. France

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

29. Match List - l and List - II and select the

correct answer from the codes given below:

List - I List - II

(Centre) (Minerals)

A. Makum 1. Iron Ore

B. Dailirajhara 2. Coal

C. Koraput 3. Manganese

D. Chitradurg 4. Bauxite

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 1 2 3 4

30. The highest peak of Indian Peninsula is

(a) Ootakamund

(b) Anaimudi

(c) Dodabeta

(d) Mahabaleshwar

31. In which of the following States, the area

under Tube-well irrigation is the highest?

(a) Bihar

(b) Haryana

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Punjab

32. Which of the following States of India

produces more than 70 percent coffee of the

country alone?

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Karnataka

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33. The cities which are included in ‘Golden

Triangle’ of Indian Tourism are

(a) Agra, Delhi and Jaipur

(b) Mathura, Agra and Gwalior

(c) Agra, Kanpur and Lucknow

(d) None of the above

34. The northern part of the western Coastal

Plain of India is also known as

(a) Karnataka Coast

(b) Malabar

(c) Konkan

(d) Coromandal

35. Tatipaka Oil Refinery is located in the State

of

(a) Assam

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Karnataka

(d) Andhra Pradesh

36. Consider the following statements related

to Integrated Low cost Sanitation (ILCS) scheme:

I. The system is funded on sharing basis.

II. Central subsidy is 75 percent.

Ill. State subsidy is 25 percent.

Of these, the correct statements are-:

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I II and III

37. Which one of the following places has the

lowest rain fall during the South - West

Monsoon?

(a) Kolkata

(b) Mangalore

(c) Chennai

(d) Delhi

38. Which one of the following pairs is in

correctly matched?

(a) Sardar Sarovar Dam - Narmada River

(b) Tilaiya Dam - Konar River

(c) Gandhi Sagar Dam - Chambal River

(d) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam - Krishna River

39. As per 2011 Census, which of the following

States of India is most densely populated?

(a) West Bengal

(b) Kerala

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Bihar

40. Which one of the following is not a new

scheme announced for the development of

urban infrastructure?

(a) Swachcha Bharat Mission

(b) Heritage City Development and

Augmentation Yojana

(c) Smart City Scheme

(d) Digital lndia Scheme

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41. Who among the following was the Chairman

of 14th Finance Commission?

(a) Shanta Kumar

(b) C. Rangrajan

(c) Y.V. Reddy

(d) None of the above

42. In which of the following years, ‘National

Land Records Modernization Programme’ was

launched?

(a) 2008 A.D.

(b) 2009 A.D.

(c) 2010 A.D.

(d) 2011 A.D.

43. In India, “inclusive education for the

disabled at secondary stage” scheme launched

in the year 2009-10 is being provided under

(a) Saakshar Bharat

(b) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

(c) Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan

(d) Skill India Programme

44. Which one of the following is not the

objective of financial inclusion?

(a) To extend financial services to poor

population.

(b) To unlock the door of growth potential of

weaker section.

(c) Shrinking of banking infrastructure.

(d) To extend financial sector into rural areas.

45. Which one of the following pairs is not

correctly matched?

Decadal growth rate of population

(in percent)

(a) 1971-81 - 24.66

(b) 1981-91 - 23.87

(c) 1991-2001 - 21.54

(d) 2001- 2011 - 19.05

46. The Census Projection Report shows that

India is one of the youngest nation in the world.

In year 2020, the average age of Indians will be

of

(a) 27 years

(b) 28 years

(c) 29 years

(d) 30 years

47. Which one of the following segments of

population is not included in the scheme of

Inclusive development?

(a) Marginal farmers

(b) Landless agricultural labours

(c) Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes

(d) People living in semi-urban areas

48. Share of U.P. in the exports from India in

2014-15 is in the range

(a) 4 to 5 percent

(b) 5 to 6 percent

(c) 6 to 7 percent

(d) 7 to 8 percent

49. What is the effect of deficit financing on

economy?

(a) Reduction in taxes

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(b) Increase in wages

(c) Increase in money supply

(d) Decrease in money supply

50. Which among the following Panchayats are

included in the District Plan in U.P.?

I. Nagar Panchayat

II. Gram Panchayat

III. Kshetra Panchayat

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

Codes:

(a) I only

(b) I and III only

(c) II and III only

(d) I, II and III all

51. Which one of the following age groups is

eligible for enrolment under 'Sarva Shiksha

Abhiyan'?

(a) 4 - 12 years

(b) 16 - 14 years

(c) 5 - 15 years

(d) 5 - 16 years

52. In which one of the following years

‘Swavlamban Scheme’ was launched?

(a) 2010 A.D.

(b) 2011 A.D.

(c) 2012 A.D.

(d) 2014 A.D.

53. Which one of the following is not a

component of ‘Bharat Nirman’ scheme

launched in 2005-06?

(a) Rural housing

(b) Rural sanitation

(c) Drinking water

(d) Rural roads

54. The largest Sugar Mill of Asia is located at

which of the following places in Uttar Pradesh?

(a) Khatouli

(b) Balrampur

(c) Bulandshahar

(d) Najibabad

55. Consider the following events and arrange

these in chronological order:

I. Garibi Hatao

II. Bank Nationalization

III. Beginning of Green Revolution

Select correct answer from the codes given

below:

Codes:

(a) I, II and III

(b) III, II and I

(c) II, I and III

(d) III, I and II

56. Largest concentration of software and

business process outsourcing industry in U.P. is

at

(a) Meerut

(b) Kanpur

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(c) Noida

(d) Varanasi

57. ‘e-Biz’ refer to

(a) Electronic commerce

(b) Single window financial transactions

(c) Single window for business inquiries

(d) Single window for approach to government

services

58. The committee which has recommended

abolition of Tax Rebates under Section - 88 of

the Income Tax Act of India, is

(a) Chelliah Committee

(b) Kelkar Committee

(c) Shome Committee

(d) Rangrajan Committee

59. Time span of ‘Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana’

is

(a) 2014 - 2021

(b) 2014 - 2024

(c) 2015 - 2022

(d) 2015 - 2025

60. Which one of the following is in an objective

of National Food Security Mission (NFSM)?

(a) Distribution of high yielding variety seeds

(b) Demonstration of improved production

technology

(c) Strengthening credit facilities

(d) Popularising newly released varieties of

crops

61. India’s first National Action Plan on climate

change was released in

(a) 2008 A.D.

(b) 2012 A.D.

(c) 2014 A.D.

(d) 2015 A.D.

62. Which one of the following thermometers is

known as pyrometer?

(a) Thermo-electric thermometers

(b) Radiation thermometers

(c) Gas thermometers

(d) Liquid thermometers

63. ‘Dynamo’ is a device, which converts

(a) Chemical energy into electrical energy

(b) Electrical energy into mechanical energy

(c) Mechanical energy into electrical energy

(d) Electrical energy into chemical energy

64. The velocity of wind is measured by

(a) Barometer

(b) Anaemometer

(c) Hydrometer

(d) Wind Vane

65. Which one of the following gases is a

greenhouse gas?

(a) CO2

(b) CH4

(c) NO2

(d) O2

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66. Match the List - I with List - II and select the

correct answer from the codes given below the

lists

List - I List - II

A. Viticulture 1. Vegetable Farming

B. Vegeculture 2. Fish farming

C. Pisciculture 3. Tree farming

D. Olericulture 4. Grapes farming

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 1 2 3

67. The maximum biodiversity is found in

(a) Tundra

(b) Coniferous forests

(c) Tropical rain forests

(d) Temperate forests

68. The minimum distance of clear vision for a

normal healthy eye of human being is supposed

to be

(a) 50cm

(b) 10cm

(c) 15 cm

(d) 25 cm

69. Indiscriminate use of fertilizers have led to

(a) SoiI pollution

(b) Water pollution

(c) Air pollution

(d) All of the above

70. Which of the following is an artificial

ecosystem?

(a) Rice field

(b) Forest

(c) Grassland

(d) Lake

71. The substance used as moderator and

coolant both, in nuclear reactors is

(a) Ordinary water

(b) Heavy water

(c) Liquid Ammonia

(d) Liquid Hydrogen

72. Which of the following air pollutants gets

dissolved in haemoglobin of the blood more

rapidly than oxygen?

(a) PAN

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide

(d) Ozone

73. Consider the following statements about

haemoglobin:

1. It carries oxygen in the blood.

2. It is iron containing compound.

3. It provides immunity against certain diseases.

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4. It imparts red colour to the blood.

The correct statements out of these are:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

74. ‘Big-Bang theory’ explains the origin of

(a) Mammals

(b) Ice-age

(c) Universe

(d) Ocean

75. Photovoltaic cells are

(a) Solar cells

(b) Thermal cells

(c) Sulphur cells

(d) Molar cells

76. In wind power, which form of energy is

converted into electrical energy?

(a) Kinetic energy

(b) Potential energy

(c) Solar energy

(d) Radiant energy

77. In a food chain, man is

(a) Producer

(b) Only primary consumer

(c) Only secondary Consumer

(d) Primary as well as secondary consumer

78. The main reason for the decrease in

biodiversity is

(a) Habitat pollution

(b) Introduction of exotic species

(c) Over exploitation

(d) Natural habitat destruction

79. Which one of the following is an important

source of vitamin-E?

(a) Palm oil

(b) Coconut oil

(c) Wheat germ oil

(d) Mustard oil

80. The alkaloid caffeine is present in

(a) Tea only

(b) Coffee only

(c) Tea and coffee both

(d) Lemon water

81. Einstein was honored with Nobel Prize for

(a) Photoelectric Effect

(b) Theory of Specific Heats

(c) Special Theory of Relativity

(d) Bose-Einstein Statistics

82. National Dairy Research Institute is

established at

(a) Karnal

(b) Hisar

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(c) Anand

(d) Jaipur

83. Smallest man-like ape is

(a) Gibbon

(b) Chimpanzee

(c) Gorilla

(d) Orangutan

84. Quinine, the effective medicine in the

treatment of malaria, is extracted from

(a) Bark of Cinnamon

(b) Bark of Cinchona

(c) Leaves of Ocimum

(d) Bark of Acacia Catechu

85. Change in the base sequence within the

gene is called

(a) Breeding

(b) Cloning

(c) Mutation

(d) Fusion

86. Which of the following Acts provides for

protection to wild animals in India?

(a) Wild Animal Protection Act – 1972

(b) Forests Protection Act - 1982

(c) Environment Protection Act - 1996

(d) West Bengal wild Animal Protection Act-

1959

87. The plants receive Nitrogen in form of

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrate

(c) Ammonia

(d) Nitride

88. Which one of the following pairs is

incorrectly matched?

(a)Thiamine - Beriberi

(b) Ascorbic acid — Scurvy

(c) Vitamin A — Colour-blindness

(d) Vitamin K — Blood clotting

89. Leukemia is a type or cancer in which there

is abnormal increase in the number of

(a) Bone cells

(b) Platelets

(c) Red blood cells

(d) White blood cells

90. A man, who does not know when to stop

eating, is suffering from

(a) Bulimia

(b) Diabetes

(c) Anorexia nervosa

(d) Hyperacidity

91. For human blood transfusion, which blood

group is known as universal donor?

(a) B+ Group

(b) O Group

(c) AB Group

(d) A+ Group

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92. Which of the following is/are used as

disinfectant of water?

(a) Ozone

(b) Chlorine dioxide

(c) Chloramine

(d) All of the above

93. The brain is responsible for

(a) Thinking

(b) Regulating the heartbeat

(c) Balancing the body

(d) All of the above three

94. Indian veterinary Research Institute is

located at

(a) Bareilly

(b) Mathura

(c) Karnal

(d) Patna

95. Pungency in chilies is due to the presence of

(a) Lycopine

(b) Capsaicine

(c) Carotene

(d) Anthocyanin

96. Which one of the following food materials

contains all essential amino acids?

(a) Rice

(b) Milk

(c) Egg

(d) Soybean

97. The Earth’s axis of rotation (polar axis) is

always inclined at an angle of

(a) 23.0° from the elliptic axis

(b) 23.1° from the elliptic axis

(c) 24.5° from the elliptic axis

(d) 23.5° from the elliptic axis

98. The accounts of Kalinga war is known to us

by the

(a) Rock Edict-XIII

(b) Rummindei Pillar Inscription

(c) Accounts of Hiuen Tsang

(d) Minor Rock Edict-I

99. Three human skeletons in a single grave

were recovered at

(a) Saral Nahar Rai

(b) Damdama

(c) Mahadaha

(d) Langhnaj

100. Which yeast is used for commercial

production of ethanol?

(a) Candida albicans

(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(c) Candida sloofi

(d) Leucosporidium frigidum

101. Which one of the following gases, released

from bio-gas plant is used as a fuel gas?

(a) Butane

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(b) Propane

(c) Methane

(d) Ethane

102. Which one of the following is used in the

treatment of blood cancer?

(a) lodine-131

(b) Sodium-24

(c) Phosphorus-32

(d) Cobalt -60

103. Who was the founder of ‘Vikramshila

Vihar’?

(a) Gopal

(b) Devapal

(c) Dharmapal

(d) Mahipal

104. Which city was founded by Krishna Deva

Raya?

(a) Warangal

(b) Nagalapura

(c) Udayagiri

(d) Chandragiri

105. Jahangir mainly patronised which of the

following arts?

(a) Painting

(b) Architecture

(c) Sculpture

(d) Music

106. Who was called ‘a slave of a slave’?

(a) Mohd. Ghori

(b) Qutubuddin Aibak

(c) Balban

(d) Iltutmish

107. Which Mughal ruler out of the following

learnt Hindu Music from Lala Kalavant?

(a) Humayun

(b) Jahangir

(c) Akbar

(d) Shahjahan

108. During the Mughal period, the Madarsa

which was specialized in the teaching of

‘Muslim Jurisprudence’, was located in

(a) Lucknow

(b) Delhi

(c) Sialkot

(d) Hyderabad (India)

109. In which year, did Babar defeat Sultan

Ibrahim Lodi at the battle of Panipat?

(a) 1527 A.D.

(b) 1526 A.D.

(c) 1525 A.D.

(d) 1524 A.D.

110. Sir Thomas Munro was Governor of

Madras during years

(a) 1820 – 1827 A.D.

(b) 1819 — 1826 A.D.

(c) 1822 — 1829 A.D.

(d) 1818 — 1825 A.D.

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111. ‘The Roots of Ancient India’ was written by

(a) D. K. Chakravarti

(b) D. P. Agrawal

(c) W.A. Fairservis

(d) A. Ghosh

112. From which rock shelter of Vindhyas,

maximum number of human skeletons have

been found?

(a) Morahana Pahar

(b) Ghagharia

(c) Baghahi Khor

(d) Lekhahia

113. ‘Prithivyah Pratham Veer’ was the title of

(a) Samudragupta

(b) Rajendra-l

(c) Amoghavarsha

(d) Gautamiputra Shatkarni

114. ‘The last Sun of Indian glory’ has been used

for

(a) Shivaji

(b) Prithviraj

(c) Rana Pratap

(d) Hemu

115. Who among the following were prominent

leaders of the ‘Khilafat Movement’?

(a) Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

(b) Mohammad Al Jinnah and Shaukat Ali

(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and Rafi Ahmed

Kidwai

(d) Rafi Ahemed Kidwai and Shaukat Ali

116. The Deoband Movement in U.P. (United

Province) started in the year

(a) 1900 AD.

(b) 1888 A.D.

(c) 1885 A.D.

(d) 1866 AD.

117. What was the name of the party formed by

Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das in 1923 A.D?

(a) Independence Party

(b) Ghadar Party

(c) Swaraj Party

(d) Indian National Party

118. Which of the following was first victim of

Lord Dalhousie’s ‘policy of doctrine of lapse’?

(a) Jhansi

(b) Satara

(c) Karauli

(d) Sambalpur

119. Match List - I with List — Il and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the

lists:

List—I List—II

A. First Carnatic 1. Ended by war Treaty of

Paris

B. Third Carnatic War 2. Britishers Lost

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C. Second Carnatic War 3. Inconclusive War

D. First Mysore war 4. Ended by Treaty of Aix

La Chapelle

Codes-:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 4 1 3 2

(d) 3 1 4 2

120. The name of D.K. Karve of Western India

figures in the context of which of the following?

(a) Sati Pratha

(b) Infanticide

(c) Women Education

(d) widow Remarriage

121. A money bill passed by Lok Sabha is

deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha

also when no action is taken by the Rajya Sabha

within

(a) 10 days

(b) 14 days

(c) 15 days

(d) 16 days

122. The constitutional authority, vested with

the power of declaring castes and tribes as the

Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, is the

(a) President of India

(b) Prime Minister of India

(c) Minister of Social Welfare

(d) Chairman, SC/ST Commission

123. What was the name of the movement

started by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan against

British?

(a) Red Shirt

(b) Quit India

(c) Khilafat

(d) None of the above

124. Rabindra Nath Tagore gave up his

‘Knighthood’ in protest to which one of the

following?

(a) Rowlatt Act

(b) Massacre at Jallianwala Bagh

(c) Simon Commission

(d) Cripps Mission

125. Match List - I and List - II and select the

correct answer from the codes given below:

List—I List—II

A. Constitutional Amendments 1. Article

360

B. Finance Commission 2. Article 312

C. Financial Emergency 3. Article 280

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D. All India Services 4. Article 368

Codes-:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 4 1 3 2

(d) 3 1 4 2

126. The Sarkaria Commission was set-up for

the review of relation between

(a) The Prime Minister and President

(b) The Legislative and the Executive

(c) The Centre and the States

(d) The Executive and the Judiciary

127. Internal Security Academy is located at

(a) Mount Abu

(b) Nasik

(c) Hyderabad

(d) Pune

128. The State Finance Commission is a

(a) Legal body

(b) Non-statutory body

(c) Constitutional body

(d) None of the above

129. Under which Article of the Indian

Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on

State list subject for giving effect to

international agreements?

(a) Article 249

(b) Article 250

(c) Article 252

(d) Article 253

130. Under which Article of the Indian

Constitution, there is provision for the Election

Commission?

(a) Article 320

(b) Article 322

(c) Article 324

(d) Article 326

131. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the

doctrine of ‘Basic Structure of the Constitution'

in

(a) The Golaknath Case in 1967

(b) The Sajjan Singh Case in 1965

(c) The Shankari Prasad Case in 1951

(d) The Keshavanand Bharati case in 1973

132. A resolution passed under clause (1) of

Article 249 shall remain in force for a period not

exceeding

(a) one month

(b) three months

(c) six months

(d) one year

133. Which part of the Constitution, has-the

provisions for Panchayati Raj System?

(a) IX

(b) VI

(c) III

(d) IV (a)

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134. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to

(a) Make people aware of politics.

(b) Decentralize the power of democracy.

(c) Educate the peasants.

(d) None of the above

135. Who is considered as the “Architect of

Panchayati Raj” in India?

(a) Acharya Narendra Deo

(b) G.V.K. Rao

(c) B.R. Mehta

(d) L.M. Singhavi

136. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar had described

Article 32 of the Constitution as the very soul of

it.

Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective

remedy against the violation of Fundamental

Rights.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

Codes:

(a) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the

correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the

correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

137. Reservation of seats in Panchayat elections

for Scheduled Castes shall not apply to the State

of

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Assam

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Haryana

138. Who among the following is authorised to

make provisions with respect to the

composition of Panchayats?

(a) Governor of State

(b) Legislature of State

(c) Parliament of India

(d) President of India

139. A Bill for the purpose of creating a new

State in India must be passed by

(a) A simple majority in Parliament and

ratification by not less than two- third of the

States.

(b) A simple majority in Parliament.

(c) A two-third majority in Parliament and

ratification by not less than two-third of the

States.

(d) None of the above

140. In India, who is competent to amend

Fundamental Rights of the citizens?

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) Parliament

(d) Supreme Court

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141. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is

related to Indian Foreign Policy?

(a) Article 380

(b) Article 312

(c) Article 60

(d) Article 51

142. Match List - I with List – II and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the

lists

List—I list—II

(Institution) (Articles)

A. Comptroller and 1. Article

315

Auditor General of India

B. Finance Commission 2. Article

280

C. Administrative Tribunal 3. Article

148

D. Union Public Service Commission 4.

Article 323(A)

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 4 1

(b) 3 4 2 1

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 4 1 3 2

143. According to Article 243(ZJ) of Indian

Constitution the maximum number of directors

of a cooperative society may be

(a) 21

(b) 15

(c) 11

(d) 7

144. T. Kajita and A. Mc Donald, winner of year

2015 Nobel Prize for Physics belong to which of

the following countries respectively?

(a) U.S.A. and Japan

(b) Japan and U.S.A.

(c) Japan and Canada

(d) Canada and U.S.A.

145. After confidential meeting between

National Security Advisers of India and Pakistan

in Bangkok, foreign minister Sushma Swaraj

went to Pakistan to attend ‘Heart of Asia

Conference’ held in

2015 at

(a) Karachi

(b) Peshawar

(c) Lahore

(d) Islamabad

146. The refugees and migrants in Europe

reached which milestone mark recently as

disclosed by the UNHCR?

(a) 1.0 Million

(b) 1.5 Million

(c) 2.0 Million

(d) 3.0 Million

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147. Which country of the world is building an

alternate capital to save its citizens from natural

disaster?

(a) Armenia

(b) Philippines

(c) Vietnam

(d) Thailand

148. Who among the following holds his/her

office during pleasure of the President?

(a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(b) Chief Election Commissioner

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Attorney General of India

149. The costliest metal of the world discovered

recently, is

(a) Endohedral Fullerene

(b) Californium 252

(c) Tritium

(d) Rhodium

150. Who among the following actresses is the

brand ambassador of ‘Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan’?

(a) Madhuri Dixit

(b) Vidya Balan

(c) Priyanka Chopra

(d) Parineeti Chopra