UPSC Tutorials Test 1

7/23/2019 UPSC Tutorials Test 1

1/34

PAPER-I

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR

MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I

Booklet in the Box provided alongside.DO NOTwrite anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item

comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer

Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider

the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the

Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission

Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away

with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a

wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-thirdof the marks assigned to that

question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answereven if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty

for that question.

UPSC TUTORIALS TEST SERIES PAPER # 1

GENERAL STUDIES

Brush up basic concepts from study material before attempting this test paper. A Score of 100/200 should be

considered good score. Answer Key will be provided along with next test paper.

Try to solve all questions on your own referring to study material if necessary.If you

require any assistance regarding any particular question then feel free to mail us at :


2/34

1) The Chairman of which of the following parliamentary committees is invariably from themembers of ruling party?

a) Committee on Public Undertakings

b) Public Accounts Committee

c) Estimates Committee

d) Committee on Delegated Legislation.

2) The correct statements about calling attention notice are:

1. It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.

2. Its main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.

3. It does not involve any censure against government.

4. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.

5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business and Procedure.

a) 1,2,3 and 4

b) 4 and 5

c) 1,2,3,and 5

d) 1,2,and 3.

3) Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India?

1. The Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of FundamentalRights but also for any other purpose, whereas high courts can issue writs only for the purposeof enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

2. High courts can issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue thewrit of Injunction.

3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas high courts canissue writs only when the party directly approaches it.

4. High courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rightsbut also for any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for thepurpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

a) 1 and 2

b) 1,2 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 4 only.

www.upsctutorials.com Page


3/34

4) Assertion: India has imposed severe restrictions on the political activities of civil servants.Reason: The civil servants in India enjoy the right to vote.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true..

5) Consider the Following Statements

1. Unlike parallels of latitude, all meridians are of equal length.

2. The equator represents the zero degrees latitude.

3. 90 degrees north latitude marks the North Pole and 90 degrees south latitude marks theSouth Pole.

4. Arctic Circle is located at 66U north of the equator.

5. The Prime Meridian divides the earth into two equal halves, the Eastern Hemisphere andthe Western Hemisphere and its value is 180 longitude.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1,2,3 and 4 Only

b) 1,2,3,and 5 Only

c) 2,3,4 and 5 Onlyd) 1,2,3,4 and 5

.

6) Arrange the following stages in the enactment of budget in proper order:

1. General discussion2. Appropriation Bill3. Finance Bill4. Voting of the demands for grant5. Presentation to legislature

a) 1,2,3,4,5

b) 5,1,4,2,3

c) 5,1,4,3,2

d) 5,1,3,4,2.



4/34

7) Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along with the budget?

1. An explanatory memorandum on the budget2. A summary of demands for grants3. An Appropriation Bill4. A Finance Bill5. The economic survey

a) 1,3, and 5

b) 1,2, and 3

c) 2,3, and 5

d) 1,2,3,and 4.

8) Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on a Money Bill.

3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill.4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.5. Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill.

a) 2,3 and 4

b) 1,2,and 5

c) 1 and 5

d) only 1.

9) Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?

1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.

2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.

3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.

4. He can be removed by the President on his own.

5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state governments.

a) 1,4,and 5

b) 2,3 and 4

c) 1,2,3,4 and 5

d) 3,4,5.



5/34

10) Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.

2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under theGovernment of India or of a stateatleast for five years.

3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until theyattain the age of 60 years.

4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by theParliament.

5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

a) 2,4 and 5

b) 1 and 5

c) 2,3 and 4

d) 1,4 and 5.

11) With reference to the Supreme Court judgment on Novartis case and its drug, Gleevec,consider the following statements:

1. Gleevec is based on the chemical compound Imatinib Mesylate

2. SC ruled that what was sold as Gleevec was Imatinib Mesylate and not the 'newly invented'product, the beta crystalline form of Imatinib Mesylate

3. Section 3(d) of the Patents Act disallows patenting of new forms of known substances

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3.

12) Which of the following statements is incorrect

a) Depressions are formed when the wind blows away the sands. In the depressions whereunderground water reaches the surface, an oasis is formed.

b) Oases are never larger than few square kilometers.

c) Political or military control of an oasis has in many cases meant control of trade on aparticular route

d) The most important plant in an oasis is the date palm.



6/34

13) Consider The following statements

1.The mainland of India extends from about 8 4' S to 37 6'S latitudes and from about 68 7' Eto 97 25' E longitudes.

2.The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India, dividing it into two parts.

3. Rajasthan is the largest and Sikkim is the smallest state with respect to area.

4. Uttar Pradesh is the largest and Goa is the smallest state with respect to population (as percensus of 2011).

5. The India-Bangladesh boundary, about 3900 km (longest international border with anycountry)

Which of the Statements are incorrect

a) 1,2 and 5

b) 1,3 and 4c) 1,2 and 3

d) 3,4 and 5.

14) Consider the following statements about solstices

1. During summer solstice the North Pole is inclined towards the sun and the places beyondthe Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for about six months

2. During winter Solstice, it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere with shorter days and longer

nights.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2 are correct

d) Both 1& 2 are incorrect.



7/34

15) Arrange the following peaks in order of increasing Elevation.

1.Lhotse2.Makalu3.Cho Oyu4.Kangchenjunga

a) 1,2,3 and 4

b) 2,3,1 and 4c) 3,4,2 and 1

d) 3,2,1 and 4.

16) Which of the following statements are true.

1.The peninsular plateau extends from north to south for a distance of about 1600 km andfrom east to west for about 1400 km.

2. The general slope is from west to east, while in the Narmada-Tapi region it is from east to

west.

3. The Marwar Upland lies to the east of the Aravali range and is made up of sandstone andlimestone.

4. The Baghelkhand lies to the east of Maikala range and is made up of sandstone andlimestone in the west and granite in the east.

a) 1,2,3

b) 2,3,4

c) 1,3,4

d) 1,2,3,4.



8/34

17) Which of the following statements are true

A.The Thai Ghat, Bhor Ghat and Pal Ghat are three important passes in the Eastern Ghats,which provide passage for roads and railways, between the Konkan plains in the west and theDeccan plateau in the east.

B.The Eastern Ghats join the Western Ghats at the Nilgiri hills and the highest point is DodaBeta.

C.The southern part of the Western Ghats is separated from the main Sahyadri range by PalGhat gap. It is used by roads and railways to connect the coastal plain of Kerala with theplains of Tamil Nadu.

D.The highest peak of South India is Anai Mudi, which is the nodal point from which hillranges, like Anaimalai in the north, Paini in the northeast and Cardamom in the south radiatein different directions.

E.Kodaikanal, a hill station, is located on the northern edge of the Palni Hills.

a) A and B only

b) B,C,D

c) A,C,D

d) A,B,C,D,E.

18) Consider the following statements:

1. Water draining from a bathtub, sink, or toilet bowl in the Northern Hemisphere swirlscounterclockwise while in the Southern Hemisphere the water drains clockwise due to the

Coriolis effect.

2. Coriolis Effect is the apparent deflection of air masses and fluids caused by Earth'srevolution.

Which of the statements is/are correct.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2.



9/34

19) Consider the following statements

1. Harsha's father, Prabhkara was from Thaneshwar, his brother followed HinayanaBuddhism while, Harsha himself was a Mahayana Buddhist.2.The great Indian mathematician Brahmagupta also lived in the Empire of Harshavardhana.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.

20) JITAL was a bullion coin introduced by Iltutmish in the Delhi sultanate.Which of the following statements are correct about JITAL.1. It contained 3.6 grains of silver.2. A jital carried a lower level of silver content than that of the dihliwal that it replaced.3. 12 jitals were equal to 1 silver tanka.

a) 3 only

b) 1 and 2c) 2 and 3

d) 1,2,3.

21) The "Nehru Report" (August 1928) was a memorandum outlining a proposed new Dominionconstitution for India. It was prepared by a committee of the All Parties Conference chaired byMotilal Nehru with his son Jawaharlal acting as secretary.

Which of the following statements about Nehru Report are Correct

1. Unlike the eventual Government of India Act 1935 it contained a Bill of Rights.

2. All power of government and all authority - legislative, executive and judicial - are derivedfrom the people and the same shall be exercised through organizations established by, orunder, and in accord with, this Constitution.

3. It did not provide for separate electorates for any community or weightage for minorities.Both of these were liberally provided in the eventual Government of India Act 1935. However,it did allow for the reservation of minority seats in provinces having a minorities of at least tenpercent, but this was to be in strict proportion to the size of the community.

4. The language of the Commonwealth shall be English, which will be written in roman scriptfor uniformity across India.

a) 2,3,4

b) 1,3,4

c) 1,2,3

d) 1,2,3,4.



10/34

22) Consider the following statements.

1. The Right to Information Act 2005 applies to whole of India except the state of Jammu andKashmir. Jammu and Kashmir has enacted the Jammu and Kashmir Right to Information Act2009.

2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authorityis satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information is

exempted from disclosure.

Which of them are correct

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Both are incorrect.

23) The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the national Standards Body of India working underthe aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India.

Which of the following statements are correct about BIS.

1. BIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization (ISO).2. The BIS hallmark is a hallmarking system for gold only and not for silver jewellery sold inIndia certifying to the purity of gold.3. BIS 916 hallmark would certify to a purity of 916 per 1000, that is 91.6%, translating to a 22carat purity of gold.4. It represents India in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC), The International

Telecommunication Union (ITU) and the World Standards Service Network (WSSN).a) 1 Only

b) 1,2 and 3

c) 1,3 and 4

d) 1,2,3 and 4.



11/34


1.Superconductivity is a condition in which many metals, alloys, organic compounds, andceramics conduct electricity without resistance, usually at High temperatures.

2. Heike Kamerlingh Onnes , a Dutch physicist, discovered superconductivity in 1911. He wasawarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1913 for his low-temperature studies.

Which of them is/are truea) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.


1. Water draining from a bathtub, sink, or toilet bowl in the Northern Hemisphere swirls

counterclockwise while in the Southern Hemisphere the water drains clockwise due to theCoriolis effect.

2. Coriolis Effect is the apparent deflection of air masses and fluids caused by Earth'srevolution.

Which of them is/are correct

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2.

26) Which of the following statements are incorrect

1. The eubacteria are the most abundant group of organisms on Earth.

2. More living eubacteria inhabit the human mouth than the total number of mammals living onEarth.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2.

www.upsctutorials.com Page 1


12/34

27) Lichens are organisms that grow on rocks, tree branches, and bare ground.

Which of the following is/are true about Lichens1. Lichens do not have roots, stems, flowers, or leaves.

2. They are composed of two different entities living together in a symbiotic relationship that isa population of either algal or cyanobacterial cells that are single or filamentous; and fungi.

3. Lichens are extremely sensitive to pollutants in the atmosphere and can be used as bio-indicators of air quality.

4. Lichens cannot be used to assess radioactive pollution levels in the vicinity of uraniummines, environments where nuclear-powered satellites have crashed, former nuclear bombtesting sites, and power stations that have incurred accidents.

a) 1,2, and 3

b) 2,3 and 4

c) 1,3 and 4

d) 1,2,3 and 4.

28) Consider the following statements about 'sunrise industries'

1. These are often characterized by a high degree of innovation2. Examples include social media and cloud computing in 2011 and 20123. These may pass from the sunrise phase to maturity and, finally, the sunset stage4. A sunrise industry is typically characterized by high growth rates, numerous start-ups andan abundance of venture capital funding.


a) 1,2,3 and 4

b) 1,2 and 3

c) 2,3 Only

d) 1 Only.



13/34

29) Consider the following statements about water conservation and United Nations.

1. The amount of water recommended by the United Nations for drinking, washing, cookingand maintaining proper hygiene is a minimum of 100 liters per person per day.

2. Year 2003 was observed as the International Year of Freshwater to make people aware ofthis dwindling natural resource.

3. UN has declared 2013 as the UN International Year of Water Cooperation

4. World Water Day is held annually on 22 March as a means of focusing attention on theimportance of freshwater and advocating for the sustainable management of freshwaterresources.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2,3 and 4 Only

b) 1,2 and 3 Only

c) 1,3 and 4 Only

d) 1,2,3 and 4.

30) With reference to methods of irrigation, consider the following statements

1. This system is more useful on the uneven land where sufficient water is not available. In thissystem water is sprinkled from rotating nozzles. This method is very useful for sandy soil.

2. In this system, the water falls drop by drop just at the position of the roots. It is the besttechnique for watering fruit plants, gardens and trees. The system provides water to plants

drop by drop. Water is not wasted at all. It is a boon in regions where availability of water ispoor.

In the above statements, which one refers to Drip Irrigation method?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) neither 1 nor 2.



14/34

31) Consider the following statements about Faience

1. Unlike stone or shell, that are found naturally, faience is a material that is artificiallyproduced.

2. Faience was used to make beads, bangles, earrings, and tiny vessels.

Which of the above statement is/ are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2.

32) Consider the following statements about Suharawardi Order

1. The credit for organizing this order on a sound basis goes to Sheikh Bahauddin Zakariya.2. The main centers of the Suhrawardi were Lahore and Amritsar.

3.They had large jagirs and had close contacts with the state, and some of them adopted arigid and uncompromising attitude on many matters of religious and social significance.

a) 1 Only

b) 1,3 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 1 and 2 Only.

33) Large scale factors that influence temperature across Earth, irrespective of location are :

1. Longitude2. Season and Length of day3. Time of day


a) 1,2 Only

b) 2,3 Only

c) 1,3 Only

d) 1,2 and 3.



15/34

34) A high-pressure system is a circulating body of air that exerts relatively high pressure on thesurface of Earth because air descends (toward the surface) in the center of the system.

Which of them is/are true about High Pressure Systems

1. High air pressure are referred to as anticyclones.

2. The horizontal airflow around the center of a high is counter clockwise in the Northern

Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere, just opposite to the direction of flowaround a low-pressure system.

3. High pressure centers are generally associated with cloudy or stormy weather, becausedescending air warms with altitude and thus squeezes water out of the atmosphere.

a) 1 Only

b) 1,3 Only

c) 2,3 Only

d) 1,2 and 3.

35) Weathering is the process by which rocks break down or decay into smaller fragments. Twoprimary kinds of weathering processes take place: mechanical (also called physical) andchemical.

Major kinds of Chemical Weathering are :

1. frost wedging2. oxidation

3. exfoliation4. hydrolysis5. carbonation6. salt-crystal growth

a) 2,4 and 5

b) 2,4,5 and 6

c) 1,4,5 and 6

d) 1,2,3,4 and 6.

36) Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygengas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas

a) 16g

b) 20g

c) 21g

d) 24g.



16/34

37) When we press the bulb of a dropper with its nozzle kept in water, air in the dropper is seen toescape in the form of bubbles. Once we release the pressure on the bulb, water gets filled inthe dropper. The rise of water in the dropper is due to

a) pressure of water

b) gravity of the earth

c) shape of rubber bulb

d) atmospheric pressure.

38) Consider the following statements regarding Map Projection

1. Mercator projection shows the true compass direction of any straight line on the map, it isused to show many types of straight-line features. That's why the Mercator projection ischosen for maps of temperatures, winds, and pressures.

2. Goode Projection has an important property-it indicates the true sizes of regions on theEarth's surface. This makes the Goode map ideal for showing the world's climate, soils, andvegetation.

3. In Mercator projection, the meridians form a rectangular grid of straight vertical lines, whilethe parallels form straight horizontal lines.

4. The Goode projection does not use straight lines to represent its meridians. Instead, themeridians follow sine curves between lat. 40 N and lat. 40 S, and ellipses between lat. 40and the poles. The entire globe can be shown because the ellipses converge to meet at thepole.


a) 1,2 and 4

b) 2,3 and 4

c) 1 and 4 Only

d) 1,2,3 and 4.

39) Distribution of a population is the pattern of people across Earth's surface.

Consider the following statements regarding Global Population Distribution

1. The largest concentration of people on Earth is found in South Asia

2. Currently, India's rate of natural increase is higher than China's, making it probable thatIndia will overtake China by 2030 as the world's most heavily populated country.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2.



17/34

40) Number of time zones in Russia are

a) 9

b) 10

c) 11

d) 12.

41) Which of them are correct

1. The seasons arise from the Earth's revolution around the Sun and the tilt of the Earth's axis.

2. At the summer (June) solstice, the northern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. At thewinter (December) solstice, the southern hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. At theequinoxes, day and night are of equal length.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2.

42) Electromagnetic waves differ in wavelength throughout their entire range, or spectrum.Arrange the Following in Descending order of Wavelength

1. Radio waves2. Gamma Rays3. UV rays4. Infra red rays5. Radar waves

6. Microwavesa) 2,1,4,5,3 and 6

b) 3,6,4,1,2 and 5

c) 1,5,6,4,3 and 2

d) 2,3,4,5,6 and 1.

43) If you double the absolute temperature of an object, it will emit x times more energy from itssurface.What is the value of x

a) 4

b) 8

c) 16

d) 32.



18/34

44) With Reference to Principles of radiation , consider the following statements

1. Hot objects radiate much more energy than cooler objects.2. Hotter the object, longer are the wavelengths of radiation that it emits.

Which of them is/are correct

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Onlyc) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2.

45) Subsistence farming is when a farmer can grow only enough food to feed his/her own family.In many less developed regions of the world, people are subsistence farmers.Which of them are correct

1. In shifting cultivation, subsistence farmers rotate the fields they cultivate (or farm) in order toallow the soil to replenish its nutrients, rather than farming the same plot of land over and over.

2. Shifting cultivation is often found in the tropical zones, especially rain forest regions inAfrica, the Amazon River basin in South America, and throughout Southeast Asia because thetopsoil is thin in these regions, making it necessary to change the plot of land frequently togrow healthy crops.

3.Shifting cultivation is synonymous to crop rotation technique in which the farmer changes thecrop-type,in order to keep the soil healthy.

4. In Slash and Burn type of subsistence farming .farmers prepare a new plot of land forfarming by cutting (or slashing) the existing plants on the land, then burning the rest to create

a cleared plot of new farmland (called swidden).

5. The slash-and-burn method is a form of extensive subsistence agriculture, using a largeamount of land to farm food for the farmer's family to eat.

6.Slash-and-burn (swidden) is not dependent on advanced technology, only on human laborand the presence of extensive acreage because plots are frequently abandoned once the soilquality becomes poor and new land must be made swidden for a new crop.

a) 1,2,4,5 and 6

b) 1,3,4,5 and 6

c) 1,2,3,4 and 6

d) 1,2,3,4,5 and 6.



19/34

46) The proportion of shortwave radiant energy scattered upward by a surface is called its albedoand is measured on a scale of 0 to 1.

Arrange the albedo of the following in ascending order

1. Deciduous Trees2. Ice3. Water

4. Green Grass5. Desert Sand6. Bare Soil7. Asphalt

a) 3,7,2,4,1,6,5

b) 3,7,1,6,4,5,2

c) 2,5,4,6,1,7,3

d) 2,3,1,7,5,4,6.

47) 1.Mediterranean agriculture is primarily associated with the region near the Mediterranean Seaand places with climates that have hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters.

2. California, Chile, southern South Africa, and South Australia are places whereMediterranean agriculture is found.Which of them are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2.



20/34

48) The Third Agricultural Revolution began in 19th-century North America and saw theglobalization of industrialized agriculture and new technologies that increased the foodsupply,whereas the First Agricultural Revolution ushered in the growth of stationary plant andanimal domestication and the second agricultural revolution saw new farming and storagecapabilities increase food supplies to meet and facilitate a growing, industrializing population.


1. The Green Revolution began in the 1940s and was a phase of the Third AgriculturalRevolution in which new strains of hybrid seeds and fertilizers were invented that dramaticallyincreased the crop output.

2. The Green Revolution began with agricultural experiments that were funded by U.S.charities to find ways to improve Brazil's wheat grain production capabilities to reduce hungerin that region.

3. Green Revolution scientist Norman Borlaug won a Nobel Peace Prize in 1970 for his workto increase world peace through spreading hunger-reducing technology to poorer regions ofthe world.

4.The "miracle" of the green revolution was in its global diffusion of higher-yielding varieties ofWheat , Rice and Maize.

a) 1,3 and 4

b) 2,3 and 4

c) 1,2 and 4

d) 1,2,3 and 4.

49) Quinary sector economy refers to

a) Activities revolving around getting raw materials from the Earth. Eg Fishing,Mining.

b)Activities dealing with processing raw materials into a finished product of greater value,such as taking raw corn and processing it into baby food.

c)Activities involving highest-level of decision making, such as decisions made by alegislature or a cabinet.

d)Activities involving information creation and transfer. Eg. University researchers andinvestment analysts

.

50) Maquiladora zones, a type special economic zones is between

a) Japan and Chinab) Singapore and Thailand

c) Mexico and U.S.A

d) China and Vietnam.



21/34

51) Which of the following characterises Tropical Rain Climate

1. Broad-leaved evergreen trees; ferns; large woody vines and climbing plants; orchids andbromeliads.

2. Herbivores such as sloths, tapirs, and capybaras; predators such as jaguars; anteaters;monkeys; birds such as toucans, parrots, and parakeets.

3. Hot and wet year-round; thin, nutrient-poor soils.

4. Parts of Africa, South and Central America, Mexico, India, Australia, and tropical islands.

5. Reptiles such as snakes and monitor lizards

a) 1,2,3

b) 2,3,4

c) 2,3,4,5

d) 1,2,4,5.

52) Which country has the longest coast line?

a) U.S.A

b) Brazil

c) Canada

d) Australia.

53) Which of them are landlocked

1. Afghanistan2. Bolivia3. Bhutan4. Switzerland5. Botswana

a) 1,2,3 and 4

b) 1,2,4 and 5

c) 1,2 and 3d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

.



22/34

54) St. George's Channel Divides

a) England and France

b) Ireland and Wales

c) North and South Islands of Newzealand

d) Alaska and Siberia.

55) Which of the following is not a member of ASEANa) Brunei

b) Malaysia

c) China

d) Singapore.

56) Which of the following is not a Navratna Company

a) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited

b) Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd

c) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited

d) National Buildings Construction Corporation Limited.

57) Which of the following is not a condition of admissibility of cut motions in the Parliament?

a) It should not make suggestions for the amendment of existing laws.

b) It should not relate to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

c) It should relate to more than one demand.

d) It should not raise a question of privilege.

58) The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the C & AG vests with:

a) President of India

b) Supreme Court of India

c) Parliament

d) National Development Council.

59) The word 'Budget' is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India:

a) Article 266b) Article 267

c) Article 268

d) None.



23/34

60) Which of the following statements are incorrect?1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on a Money Bill.3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill.4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.5. Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill.

a) 1 and 5

b) 2,3,4 and 5

c) 1,2 and 5

d) 1,4 and 5.

61) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern ( For the next 5 Questions )

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

For exampleAssertion: Budget is a secret document and should not be leaked out before being presentedto the Parliament.

Reason: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.

Correct Answer A - Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure 'charged' on theConsolidated Fund of India and the expenditure 'made' from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Reason: The expenditure 'charged' on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the voteof Parliament.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.



24/34

62) Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred without the approval of the Parliament.

Reason: Our democratic government, like that of Britain, is based on the concept ofsovereignty of the parliament.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

63) Assertion: The expenditure 'charged' on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to thevote of Parliament.Reason: It is in the nature of obligatory payment.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

64) Assertion: The Constitution of India has authorised the parliament to create a ContingencyFund of India.Reason: The Contingency Fund enables the government to meet any unforeseen expenditure.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

65) Assertion: Audit in India is equally concerned with the legal and technical as well as thepropriety aspects of expenditure.Reason: The provision under which the audit is performed by CAG says that he has "toascertain whether the moneys shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legallyavailable for and applicable to the purpose to which they had been applied and whether theexpenditure conforms to the authority which governs it."

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.



25/34

66) The features of Indian federal system are:

1. Division of powers2. Separation of powers3. Independent judiciary4. Leadership of the Prime Minister5. A written Constitution

a) 1,3 and 5

b) 1,2 and 4

c) 1,2 and 3

d) 2,4 and 5.

67) Which of the following is not a department under the Ministry of Home Affairs?

a) Department of Internal Security

b) Department of Home

c) Department of States

d) Department of Law and Order.

68) The CAG of India can be removed from the office only in like manner and on like grounds as:

a) Chairman of the UPSC

b) Supreme Court Judge

c) Attorney General of India

d) Speaker of Lok Sabha.

69) Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by:a) Indian Councils Act of 1892

b) Indian Councils Act of 1871

c) Indian Councils Act of 1861

d) Indian Councils Act of 1882.

70) Which of the following is not a feature of Government of India Act of 1935?

a) Dyarchy at the Centre

b) All-India Federation

c) Provincial autonomy

d) Dyarchy in the provinces.



26/34

71) Consider the following with repect to Indian Railways1.Indian Railways is Divided into 10 zones2. Secunderabad is the Headquarter of Southern Zone


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None.

72) A UNESCO World Heritage Site is a place (such as a forest, mountain, lake, island, desert,monument, building, complex, or city) that is listed by the United Nations Educational,Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical significance.

Which of the following is not a world heritage site

a) Agra Fort

b) Bada Imambara Lucknow

c) Queen's Stepwell at patan

d) Mountain Railways of India.

73) The Convention on Wetlands, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971, is an intergovernmental treatywhich provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for theconservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. There are presently 158Contracting Parties to the Convention, with 1758 wetland sites, totaling 161 million hectares,

designated for inclusion in the Ramsar List of Wetlands of International Importance. RamsarConvention is the only global environment treaty dealing with a particular ecosystem.


1. J& K has the highest number of Ramsar sites in India2. Kolleru Lake is the only Ramsar Site in Andhra Pradesh

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2d) None

.



27/34

74) EU 3 + 3 refers to

1. USA2. China3. Russia4. UK5. France6. Germany

7. Spain8. Japan

a) 1,2,3,4,5,6

b) 1,3,5,6,7,8

c) 3,4,5,6,7,8

d) 2,3,4,5,6,7.

75) Which of them are not correctly matched

a) UNESCO - Paris

b) WHO - Geneva

c) UNIDO- Rome

d) Universal Postal Union - Bern.

76) Consider the following facts about Suez Canal

1. It provides the shortest maritime route between Europe and the lands lying around the

Indian and western Pacific oceans.2. Connects the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.3. The Canal runs between Port Said harbor and the Gulf of Suez.4. The Suez Canal is a sea level Canal.

a) 1,2,3 only

b) 2,3,4 only

c) 1,3,4 only

d) 1,2,3,4.



28/34

77) 1. The Sangeet Natak Akademi - India's national academy for music, dance and drama - is thefirst National Academy of the arts set-up by the Republic of India.

2. The Akademi Awards are the highest national recognition conferred on eminent artists.


a) 1 only

b) 2 onlyc) Both 1 and 2

d) None.

78) Arrange the following events in Chronological order with reference to Mahatma Gandhi

1. Established Satyagraha Ashram at Kochrab near Ahmedabad2. Gave up his Kaiser-e-Hind medal3. Launched All India Village Industries Association4. Champaran Satyagraha for right of peasants on Indigo Plantation

5. Led strike of mill workers at Ahmedabad6. First all India Satyagraha conceived against the Rowlatt Bills denying all Civil Liberties toIndians

a) 1,2,6,5,4,3

b) 1,5,4,6,3,2

c) 1,4,5,6,2,3

d) 4,5,1,2,6,3.

79) Which of the following are not the departments of Finance Ministry?1. Department of Expenditure2. Department of Economic Affairs3. Department of Banking

4. Department of Revenue5. Department of Budget

a) 1,3 and 5

b) 3 and 5

c) 2,3 and 5

d) 1,2,3 and 5.



29/34

80) Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under theGovernment of India or of a stateatleast for five years.3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until theyattain the age of 60 years.

4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by theParliament.5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

a) 1,2, and 5

b) 1 and 5

c) 3 and 4

d) 1,2,3,4,5.

81) Which of the following is incorrectly matched

a) Panini- Ashtadhyaee

b) Patanjali - Mahabhashya

c) Vishakhadatta - Surya Sidhanta

d) Bhasa- Pritgya Yogandharayana.

82) Choose the incorrect option

a) Skylax - Account of sea journey to Indus

b) Herodotus - Political conditions of North-west India

c) Pliny - Geography, history and trade of ancient Indiad) Fa-Hien - Account of Harsha's Reign

.

83) Amravati Sculptures are attributed to

a) Satvahanas of Deccan

b) Maurya Dynasty

c) Gupta Dynasty

d) Harsha Vardhana.

84) Which of the following is not associated with Sher Shah Suri

a) Battle of Sammel

b) Battle of Chausa

c) Battle of Samugarh

d) Battle of Kalinjar.



30/34

85) Arrange the Following Sikh Gurus in Chronological Order

1. Guru Har Govind2. Guru Har Rai3. Guru Angad Dev4. Guru Amar Das

a) 4,3,2,1

b) 1,3,4,2c) 3,4,1,2

d) 4,3,1,2.

86) Consider the following Statements about Subsdiary Alliance

1. The doctrine of subsidiary alliance was introduced by Lord Wellesley

2. An Indian ruler entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British had to accept British forceswithin his territory and also agreed to pay for their maintenance.

'3. An Indian ruler who entered into a subsidiary alliance would not enter into any furtheralliance with any other power, nor would he declare war against any power without thepermission of the British.

4.The ruler would not employ any Europeans other than the British, and if he were alreadydoing so, he would dismiss them.

5. The ruler can refuse to accept a British Resident in his state.


a) 1,2,3,4,5

b) 2,3,4,5

c) 1,2,3,4

d) 1,3,4.



31/34

87) C. Rajagopalachari's formula (or C. R. formula or Rajaji formula) was a proposal formulated byChakravarthi Rajagopalachari to solve the political deadlock between the All India MuslimLeague and Indian National Congress on independence of India from the British.

Which of the following is/are correct

1. The League was to endorse the Indian demand for independence and to co-operate withthe Congress in formation of Provisional Interim Government for a transitional period.

2. At the end of the War, a commission would be appointed to demarcate the districts having aMuslim population in absolute majority and in those areas plebiscite to be conducted on allinhabitants (including the non-Muslims) on basis of adult suffrage.

3. Only Congress and Muslim league would be allowed to express their stance on the partitionand their views before the plebiscite.

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2,3.

88) Answer the following questions by using the codes given below(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.(c) A is true but R is false.(d) A is false but R is true.

Assertion: All-India Services are instruments of national integration.Reason: Its members are appointed by President of India.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

89) Assertion: Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.Reason: The UPSC is a constitutional body.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.



32/34

90) Assertion: The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of the IAS and IPS.Reason: The IAS and IPS violate the principles of federalism and ministerial responsibility atthe state level.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

91) Assertion: The UPSC makes recruitment to Group A and Group B services.Reason: The Staff Selection Commission makes recruitment to Group C services.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

92) Assertion: The members of All-India Services can give independent and impartial advise topolitical executives in the states.Reason: They enjoy constitutional safeguards with regard to security of service

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

93) Assertion: The salaries and allowances of members of the UPSC are charged on the

consolidated Fund of India.Reason: Under the provisions of the Constitution, additional functions may be conferred on theCommission by President.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

94) Assertion: The salaries of the members of the UPSC cannot be changed to their disadvantageduring their tenure.Reason: The independence of the Public Service Commission has to be maintained.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.



33/34

95) Assertion: The Constitution has not fixed the number of members of the UPSC.Reason: The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D.

96) A President's rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of:1. Article 3562. Article 3603. Article 3524. Article 365

a) 1 and 4 only

b) 1,2 and 4 only

c) 4 only

d) 2,3 and 4 only.

97) Consider the following statements about rubber plantation

1. Rubber is made from the latex of a tree called Hevea Brasiliensis.2. The British established the first rubber plantation in India in 1902 in Shimoga3. India is the second largest rubber producing country in the world, after Malaysia.


a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 1,2 and 3.

98) Arrange the following River basins in Descending order in terms of Area(sq.km)

1. Krishna2. Godavari3. Mahanadi4. Cauvery

a) 2,1,4,3b) 3,2,1,4

c) 1,2,4,3

d) 3,4,2,1.



34/34

99) Chembarambakkam Lake is located in

a) Kerala

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Tamil Nadu

d) Karnataka.

100) The quantum of harvested rainwater depends on:1. Frequency, duration and intensity of rainfall.2. Nature of catchment.3. Run-off characteristics.

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1,2 and 3

d) 3 only.

Documents

UPSC Tutorials Test 1