WOLLONGONG HOSPITAL ED PRIMARY EXAM PROGRAMME

TWH WEEK 2 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM

WOLLONGONG HOSPITAL ED – PRIMARY EXAM PROGRAMME

VERSION 1 – Jan 2019

Week 2 - Topics & Textbook Readings

Wee

k

ANATOMY

Moore 7th Ed McMinn’s 7th Ed

PHYSIOLOLOGY

Ganong 25th Ed Wests 10th Ed

PHARMACOLOGY

Katzung 13th Ed

PATHOLOGY

Robbins 9th Ed

VIVA TOPICS

(WEDNESDAYS 1700 - 1800)

www.edvivas.com

2 11

/02/

19

Back Moore Ch 4 (pp 439-501)

McMinn Ch 2

Nerves & Muscle, Synapses Ganong Ch 4-6 (pp 85-136)

Anaesthetics - Local & General / Muscle Relaxants Katzung Ch 25-27

Cell Injury, Death, Apoptosis Robbins Ch 2

PHYSIOLOGY Principles & Cell Function (16 QUESTIONS) PHARMACOLOGY Principles (73 QUESTIONS)


Week 2 - Learning Objectives ANATOMY

- Describe the Structure & Curvatures of the Vertebral Column - Describe the parts of a ‘typical’ vertebrae - What are the features and movements of Cervical vertebrae inc. Atlas and

axis? (C1/C2?) - What are the features and movements of Thoracic vertebrae? - What are the features and movements of Lumbar vertebrae? - What are the features of the Sacrum & Coccyx? - What are the layers traversed and landmarks for an LP? - Describe the Joints & Movements (inc. Zygopophyseal joints, Atlanto-occipital

joints) of the vertebral column - Describe the structure & function of an Intervertebral disc (Annulus, Nucleus) - Describe the Ligaments of the vertebral column (inc. alar, transverse ligaments) - Describe the Blood Supply of the vertebral column - Imaging - Label XR features - Odontoid Peg view, Lateral C-spine view - What are the origins, attachments, nerve supply, blood supply of the Intrinsic &

Extrinsic back muscles? (not too much detail re: minor muscles / sub-occipital muscles)

PHYSIOLOGY

- What are the Glial cell types, their structure and function? - Draw and describe a normal Motor Neuron (inc. myelin, nodes of Ranvier) - Describe the process of Axonal transport - Draw and label a normal neuronal Action potential (Fig 4.6) - What ions contribute to the Resting Membrane Potential? - Definitions - Refractory period, absolute refractory period, Relative refractory

period - What are the different Nerve Fibre types, fibre diameters? (must know table

4.1 & 4.2) - Which nerve fibres are susceptible to Hypoxia, Pressure, Local Anaesthetics?

(must know table 4.3) - Describe the Structure of a skeletal muscle fibre - What are the contractile elements of a skeletal muscle fibre? - Which proteins are involved in Skeletal Muscle Contraction & Excitation-

Contraction Coupling? (contraction and relaxation) - Draw a normal Sarcomere - Definitions - Length-tension relationship, Active tension, Passive tension,

Tetanus


- How are skeletal muscle types classified? (must know table 5.2) - Definition - what is a ‘motor unit’? - Describe the structure and features of Cardiac muscle - Draw and label a Cardiac action potential (must know Fig 5.16) - Describe the Frank-Starling relationship of the heart (Fig. 5.17) - Describe the structure and features of Smooth muscle - Describe the process of Smooth Muscle contraction and relaxation - Draw a Neuromuscular Junction and describe the process of NT release to

skeletal muscle contraction (Fig. 6.13) - What are EPSP and IPSPs? - How do the Botulinum and Tetanus toxins work? - Describe the stretch (e.g knee-jerk) and withdrawal reflexes - What is temporal and Spatial Summation? - Describe the process of Wallerian degeneration

PHARMACOLOGY

- Describe the pharmacokinetics of Volatile Anaesthetics - Describe the pharmacodynamics of Volatile Anaesthetics - What is the mechanism of action of Nitrous Oxide? - Draw & explain the anaesthetic tension vs. time graph for volatile anaesthetics - What are the Guedel’s stages of Anaesthesia? - Describe the pathophysiology and treatment of Malignant Hyperthermia - Describe the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of ;

o Propofol o Ketamine o Thiopental o Benzodiazepines (incl. Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam) o Local Anaesthetics (incl. Lignocaine, Ropivicaine, Bupivicaine, Cocaine)

- Definition - Context dependent half-time - What are the major classes of Local Anaesthetics and examples of each class - How do Local Anaesthetics permeate tissues? Explain how pKa of LAs influence

their action (e.g why LAs are less effective in infected tissue?) - Describe the pharmacodynamics of Local anaesthetics - Which nerve fibre types are most susceptible to LAs? - What is the maximum dose of various LAs drugs? - What are the signs and symptoms of LA toxicity? What is the treatment? - What is EMLA? - What are the classes of Neuromuscular Blockers? - Describe the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of Suxamethonium

o What is a Phase 1 / Phase 2 block?


- Describe the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of Non-Depolarising NMJ blockers (inc. Rocuronium, Vecuronium, Pancuronium, Atacurium….)

- Discuss the available reversal agents for NMJ blockade PATHOLOGY

- Describe the cellular response to Cell Injury - What are the causes of Cell Injury? - Definitions - Hypertrophy, Hyperplasia (Physiological & Pathological), Atrophy,

Metaplasia (provide an example of each process) - What are the mechanisms & causes of Atrophy? - What are the mechanisms & causes of Metaplasia? - What are the pathological differences in Reversible vs. Irreversible cell injury? - What are the two main types of Cell Death? (Necrosis & Apoptosis) What are

the pathological differences? (Must know Table 2.2, Fig. 2.8, Fig 2.23) - What are the 7 main causes of Cell Death? - What are the main classes of Necrosis? (e.g Coagulative, Liquefactive,

Casseous….) and provide an example of each - What are the biochemical mechanisms that cause Cell Damage? (Fig 2.16)

o Know in detail; ▪ Mitochondrial damage -> Loss of ATP / Inc. ROS (Fig 2.17, 2.18) ▪ Ca2+ entry (Fig. 2.19) ▪ Membrane damage (Fig 2.21) ▪ Misfolded proteins / DNA damage

- Describe the differences between Ischemic & Hypoxic injury

- What is the pathophysiology of Ischemia-Reperfusion Injury? - What are the different types of Intracellular Accumulations? - Describe the differences between Dystrophic vs. Metastatic Calcification?


Week 2 Anatomy MCQs 1. Primary curvature of the spine is retained 8. Where does localised back pain originate from?

throughout life in the following parts EXCEPT; a. Posterior Rami

A. Cervical spine b. Meningeal braches of spinal nerves

B. Thoracic spine c. Mixed spinal nerves

C. Sacral spine d. Mixed nerve roots

D. Coccygeal spine

E. All of the above 9. The 2nd cervical vertebra;

A. Has a very small spinous process

2. Left postero-lateral L5 disc prolapse will B. Articulates with the occiput

result in; C. Has a bifid spinous process

A. Left L5 nerve root compression D. Is referred to as the atlas

B. Left S1 nerve root compression E. Has a dens that occupies the posterior 1/3

C. Left L5 & S1 nerve root compression of the canal

D. None of the above

10. The atlas;

3. Lumbar vertebra is characterized by; A. Articulates with the dens at the posterior arch

A. presence of foramen in the transverse process B. Allows rotation of the head at the atlanto-occipital

joints C. Has a single vertebral body

B. presence of costal facets at the transverse process D. Provides attachment for the cruciform ligament

C. both of the above E. Has a bifid spinous process

D. none of the above

11. Regarding the vertebral column, all are correct

4. Regarding vertebral column; except;

A. Posterio-lateral herniation of nucleus propulsus A. the facet joints in the lumbar spine lie in an

is more common than midline posterior herniation anteroposterior plane

B. Anterior longitudinal ligament is attached to B. The vertebral arteries ascend through the foramen

vertebral bodies in the transverse processes of the upper six cervical

C. Posterior longitudinal ligament is attached to vertebrae

the intervertebral discs C. The spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae

D. Ligamentum flavum is attached to the are usually bifid

borders of adjacent laminae D. Thoracic vertebrae I, II and XII have single

E. All of the above costal facets on their pedicles

E. The sacrum has 5 sets of anterior and posterior

5. Which of the following is a synovial joint? sacral foramina, one corresponding to each of the

A. intervertebral joints: sacral segments

B. costochondral joint

C. zygopophyseal joint

D. uncovertebral jojnt

E. all of the above

6. Regarding the vertebral column;

A. Rotation may occur in the lumbar region

B. T12 & L1 zygopophyseal joint behaves more

like thoracic than lumbar vertebral joints

C. Upper articular facets in the cervical region faces

posterior laterally, centering on the vertebral body.

D. Lateral flexion can occur in the cervical, thoracic

& lumbar regions

E. All of the above

7. Rotation may occur at;

A. Atlanto-occipital joint

B. Cervical region

C. Thoracic region

D. Lumbar region

E. All of the above


Week 2 Anatomy MCQ ANSWERS

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. E

5. C

6. D

7. C

8. A

9. C

10. D

11. E


Week 2 Physiology MCQs

1. Regarding nerve fibre muscle types, which of the

following are most susceptible to hypoxia?

A. B

B. C

C. A

2. Resting membrane potential of neuron is about:

A. -50mV

B. -60mV

C. -70mV

D. -80mV

E. -90mV

3. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A. There are more anions inside cell membrane than

outside the cell membrane

B. The interior wall of cell membrane is more

negatively charged than the exterior wall.

C. Membrane potential is partly maintained by the

intracellular protein.

D. Membrane potential is closer to the EK than ENa

because K is more permeable

E. Chloride is the predominant diffusible anion

across cell membrane.

4. Which of the following statement regarding axon

is FALSE?

A. Progesterone promotes myelin synthesis

B. Wallerian degeneration refers to distal axonal

degeneration after transection of axon.

C. Action potential is initiated at the axon hillock

D. Fast anterograde axonal transport is mediated by

kinesin

E. Slow anterograde & retrograde axonal transport is

mediated by dynesin

5. Depolarizing threshold (threshold potential) of

neuron is about:

A. -35mV

B. -40mV

C. -45mV

D. -50mV

E. -55mV

6. Which of the following statement regarding nerve

conduction is FALSE?

A. Propagation of action potential is unidirectional as

the membrane behind the propagation front is in

refractory period

B. Saltatory conduction occurs in all types of neurons

C. Strength of stimuli has no correlation with the

amplitude of action potential

D. Synapse potentials are not all necessary

propagated down the post-synaptic axon

E. All of the above

7. Which of the following statement regarding action

potential is TRUE?

A. Generation of action potential is an ATP

dependent process

B. Depolarization in the neuron is due to the opening

of voltage independent Na channels.

C. Na channels are of high concentration in the

regions of nodes of Ranvier.

D. Repolarization of neuron is due to the opening of

voltage dependent Ca channels

E. Threshold potential of individual nerve fibre in the

peripheral nerve is constant.

8. Which of the following pairing of nerve fibre type

& its function is FALSE?

A. Aa fibre - somatic motor

B. Ad fibre- Pain , cold & touch sensation

C. Ab fibre- touch & pressure sensation

D. C fibre - motor to m spindle

E. None of the above

9. Which of the following is TRUE regarding nerve

fibre sensitivity to the following situations?

A. Speed of conduction increases with the diameter

of nerve fibre

B. Local anaesthetics suppresses smaller diameter

nerve fibre before larger diameter ones.

C. Pressure on a mixed nerve causes conduction

defects in the larger nerve fibres first

D. Type B nerve fibre is most susceptible to hypoxia

E. All of the above

10. Which of the following statements regarding

sarcomere is TRUE?

A. Thick filament is twice the diameter of thin

filament

B. Thick filaments is made up of myosin

C. Thin filaments is made up of actin, tropomyosin &

troponin

D. There are no syncytial bridges between individual

skeletal muscle cells.

E. All of the above

11. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is in direct continuum

with the extracellular space.

B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum allows rapid transmission

of action potential from cell membrane to all

myofibril in them

C. Dystrophin is important for structure support &

strength of myofibril

D. T tubule system in the skeletal muscle is located

at the Z line

E. Calcium is stored in the lateral sacs of

sarcoplasmic reticulum


12. Resting membrane potential of skeletal muscle is

about:

A. +90 mV

B. +30 mV

C. 0 mV

D. -30 mV

E. -90 mV

13. During skeletal muscle fibre contraction:

A. Z lines are brought closer to each other

B. A band remain constant

C. I zone shortens

D. Length of filament remains unchanged

E. All of the above

14. Which of the following statement regarding

skeletal muscle contraction is FALSE?

A. Actin contains ATPase which produce s energy

for sliding filament mechanisms

B. Troponin has binding sites for calcium, actin &

tropomyosin

C. Myosin head is covered by tropomyosin in the

resting state, so to prevent actin binding

D. Calcium is a crucial ion in triggering the power

stroke mechanism.

E. All of the above

15. Which of the following pairing regarding

myocardial conduction is INCORRECT?

A. Initial rapid depolarization - opening of voltage

gated Na channels

B. Initial rapid repolarization - opening of fast K

channels

C. Plateau phase - opening of slow Ca channel

D. Repolarization phase - closure of slow Ca channel

& opening K channel


16. Which of the following statement regarding

Starling's law of the heart is TRUE?

A. Diastolic filling of the heart determines the initial

length of myocardial fibre

B. Systolic intraventricular pressure is an expression

of myocardial fibre tension

C. Systolic intraventricular pressure increases as

diastolic filling of the heart increases to a critical

point.

D. Overfilling of LV leads to reduction in systolic

intraventricular pressure as there is disruption of

myocardial fibres.

E. All of the above

17. The resting membrane potential of visceral

smooth muscle is:

A. -50mV

B. -70mV

C. -90mV

D. -110mV

E. none of the above


Week 2 Physiology MCQ ANSWERS

1. A

2. C

3. A

4. B

5. E

6. B

7. C

8. D

9. E

10. E

11. D

12. E

13. C

14. A

15. B

16. E

17. E


Week 2 Pharmacology MCQs

1. Regarding local anaesthetics

a. Bupivicaine is metabolised faster than prilocaine

b. pKa of most local anaesthetics is 5 – 6

c. Local anaesthetic uptake is increased in an acidic

environment

d. The charged form crosses the cell membrane more

readily than the uncharged form

e. The charged form is more active at the receptor

site

2. Regarding the relative size and susceptibility to

block of types of nerve fibres

a. Pain fibres are affected after proprioception fibres

b. Large fibres are blocked before small

c. Myelinated nerves are blocked before

unmyelinated of the same diameter

d. Slower firing fibres block before faster firing

fibres

e. Central fibres are blocked before peripheral fibres

3. Regarding skeletal muscle relaxants

a. Suxemethonium is contraindicated in eye

operations

b. Depolarising blockade increases intragastric

pressure

c. Non depolarising blockade relaxes muscles equally

d. Suxemethonium may cause hypokalaemia

e. Depolarising blockade is usually reversed by

administration of cholinesterase inhibitors

4. Regarding local anaesthetics, which of the

following is true?

a. Local anaesthetics are weak acids

b. In the body they exist as either the uncharged base

or as an anion

c. The charged form rapidly penetrates biologic

membranes, whereas the unionised form is thought to

be the most active at the receptor site

d. The local anaesthetic receptor is only accessible

from the external side of the cell membrane – hence

local anaesthetics can be less effective in infected

tissues

e. The pKa of most local anaesthetics is 8.0 – 9.0, as

infected tissues have a low extracellular pH, a very

low fraction of nonionised local anaesthetic is

available for diffusion into the cell.

5. For regional anaesthesia involving block of large

nerves, maximal blood levels (and hence increased

risk of toxic effects) occur in which of the following

sites?

a. Intercostal

b. Caudal

c. Epidural

d. Brachial plexus

e. Sciatic nerve

6. How many ml of 2% lignocaine could be given to

a 70kg patient before reaching the maximum

allowable single dose of 4mg/kg?

a. 7ml

b. 10ml

c. 14ml

d. 20ml

e. 28ml

7. Select the incorrect statement regarding the two

major classes of local anaesthetic agents

a. Ester type local anaesthetics are metabolised by

plasma cholinesterases and tend to have a shorter half

life

b. Amides are hydrolysed in the liver by the

Cytochrome P450 system and tend to have a longer

half life

c. Local anaesthetics are usually weak acids.

d. Most local anaesthetics consist of a hydrophilic

group and a lipophilic group connected by an amide

or ester intermediate chain

e. Liver dysfunction may increase the half life of

amide local anaesthetics more than esters

8. From the list below, the local anaesthetic with the

longest duration of action is:

a. Lignocaine

b. Bupivicaine

c. Mepivacine

d. Prilocaine

e. Procaine

9. The following skeletal muscle relaxants undergo

either spontaneous or hepatic metabolism, EXCEPT

a. Vecuronium

b. Atracurium

c. Rocuronium

d. Pancuronium

e. None of the above


10. The following local anaesthetic agents and their

side effects are correctly paired, EXCEPT:

a. Procaine – methaemoglobinaemia

b. Bupivicaine – idioventricular rhythm

c. Tetracaine – allergic reaction

d. Lignocaine – circumoral numbness

e. Prilocaine – hypotension

11. Succinylcholine

a. Produces a strong block of cardiac muscarinic

receptors

b. At a dose of 1mg/kg can be expected to produce a

neuromuscular blockade lasting 60 – 90 minutes

c. May cause a tachycardia if a second dose is given

shortly after the first dose

d. May be associated with profound hypokalaemia,

leading to cardiac arrest

e. Is contraindicated in eye surgery where the

anterior chamber is to be opened

12. The following statement regarding local

anaesthetics is true;

A. Amide local anaesthetics are metabolized by

butyrylcholinesterase

B. Hyperkalaemia tend to inhibit local anaesthetics

effects

C. Proximal sensory fibres in the limb tend to be

blocked before distal sensory fibres during regional

blockade

D. Lignocaine is more cardiotoxic than Bupivicaine

E. Local aesthetics bind to extracellular portion of

Na channel in axons

13. The following statement regarding induction

agents is incorrect:

A. Offset of action of induction agent is determined

by redistribution.

B. Dose-dependent cardiovascular depression occurs

with propofol

C. Thiopentone decreases medulla sensitivity to

CO2

D. Propofol can precipitate acute porphyria crises

E. All of the above

14. Which of the following neuromuscular blocker is

associated with initial excitatory effect?

A. Vecuronium

B. Suxamethonium

C. Rocuronium

D. Tubocurare

E. Pancuronium

15. The following are characteristics of depolarizing

blockade:

A. Surmountable blockade

B. Post-tetanic potentiation

C. Facial muscle paralyzed before limb muscle

D. Additive effect with Tubocurare administration


16. The following muscle relaxant also causes

hypotension:

A. Atracurium

B. Pancuronium

C. Vecuronium

D. Rocuronium

E. Doxacuronium

17. The following statements regarding

suxamethonium is TRUE:

A. Hyperkalaemia may occur in burns patient

receiving suxamethonium

B. Suxamethonium use may worsen glaucoma

C. Suxamethonium do not cross blood brain barrier

D. Suxamethonium stimulates all autonomic

cholinoceptors

E. All of the above

18. The following inhalant anaesthetic precipitates

bradycardia:

A. Isoflurane

B. Halothane

C. Methoxyflurane

D. Enflurane

E. Nitrous Oxide

19. The following is the action of inhalant

anaesthetic;

A. Increased renal vascular resistance

B. Bronchodilation

C. Decreased Hepatic blood flow

D. Hypotension

E. All of the above

20. A patient undergoes a Bier’s block to reduce a

fracture. Soon after he becomes cyanosed and his

blood becomes a ‘chocolate’ colour. Which LA is

responsible?

A. Lignocaine

B. Bupivacaine

C. Ropivacaine

D. Prilocaine

21. Which drug does NOT have antiemetic

properties?

A. Dexamethasone

B. Ketamine

C. Midazolam

D. Ondansetron


Week 2 Pharmacology MCQ ANSWERS

1. E

2. C

3. B

4. E

5. A

6. C

7. C

8. B

9. D

10. A

11. E

12. C

13. D

14. B

15. E

16. A

17. E

18. B

19. E

20. D

21. B


Week 2 Pathology MCQs 1. Irreversible hypoxic myocardial cell injury occur

after:

a. 3-5 min

b. 10-20 min

c. 30-40 min

d. 1-2 hours

e. 3-4 hours

2. Reperfusion of irreversibly ischemic tissue can

lead to:

a. Increase oxygen free radicals influx into the cell

b. Activation of intracellular acid hydrolase

c. Further ATP depletion

d. All of the above


3. Which of the following is NOT the morphological

feature of reversible hypoxic cell injury?

a. Blebs

b. Endoplasmic reticulum swelling

c. Dispersion of ribosomes

d. Cell membrane defects

e. Myelin figures

4. Free radicals can be initiated within cells by:

a. Absorption of ionizing radiation

b. Endogenous oxidative reactions

c. Metabolism of exogenous chemical such as CCl4

d. All of the above


5. Free radical damages cells by the following

method EXCEPT:

a. Lipid peroxidation of cell & organelle

membrane.

b. Activation of intracellular lysozyme

c. Oxidative modification of protein

d. Breakage of nuclear & mitochondrial DNA

e. All of the above.

6. Which of the following enzyme is NOT

responsible for the termination of free radial

reaction?

a. Oxidase

b. Superoxide dimutase

c. Catalase

d. Glutathione peroxidase

e. All of the above


chemical injury to cells is TRUE?

a. Water soluble chemicals act directly by

combining to critical molecule component or

cellular organelle

b. Water soluble chemical does most damage to

cells that metabolize them

c. Lipid soluble chemicals are converted to reactive

toxic metabolites which bind to membrane

protein or lipids by covalent bond or form free

radicals

d. P450 mixed function oxidase in liver & other

organs metabolize most exogenous &

endogenous toxins

e. All of the above

8. Which of the following statement regarding cell

necrosis is TRUE?

a. Autolytic digestion of dead cells tend to result in

liquefactive necrosis

b. Heterolytic digestion of dead cells tend to result

in coagulative necrosis

c. Karylosis of nucleus means increase basophilia

& shrinkage of nucleus.

d. Karyorrhexus means fragmentation of shrunken

nucleus



apoptosis is FALSE?

a. Apoptosis may occur in viral hepatitis.

b. Graft versus host disease (GVHD) is an example

of apoptosis induced by cytotoxic T cells.

c. Apoptotic cells are shrunkened & has chromatic

condensation

d. Apoptotic cells are phagocytosed by leukocytes

e. Apoptotic bodies are nuclear fragments &

organelles tightly packed together by

cytoplasmic membrane


subcellular alteration in cell injuries is FALSE?

a. Autophagy is pronounced in cells undergoing

atrophy

b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum hypertrophy

occurs as an adaptive response to allow for better

drug detoxification in chronic barbiturate use

c. Mitochondrial number remain constant during

cell hypertrophy

d. Megamitochondria is found in alcoholic liver

disease



11. Causes of steatosis includes:

a. Diabetes mellitus

b. Alcohol abuse

c. Protein malnutrition

d. Hypoxia

e. All of the above

12. Foamy macrophages can be found in:

a. Atherosclerotic plaque.

b. Sites of inflammation & necrosis

c. Xanthomas

d. Cholesterolosis

e. All of the above

13. In diabetes mellitus, glycogen vacuoles can be

seen in:

a. Hepatocytes

b. Pancreatic islet cells

c. Myocardial cells

d. Proximal convoluted tubular epithelial cells

e. All of the above

14. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Carbon & coal dusts accumulates in the alveolar

macrophages, resulting in anthracosis.

b. Lipofuscin is a tell-tale sign of free radical injury

to cells

c. Hemochromatosis represents systemic iron

overload without liver or pancreatic damage

d. Large accumulation of bilirubin occurs in liver in

obstructive jaundice, forming bile lakes


15. Causes of metastatic calcification includes:

a. Hyperparathyroidism

b. Hyperthyroidism

c. Addison’s disease

d. Leukaemia

e. All of the above

16. Metaplasia:

a. is irreversible

b. is commonly a change from squamous to columnar

epithelium

c. an example is the transformation of epithelial cells

into chondroblasts to produce cartilage

d. retinoids may play a role

e. even if the stimuli is persistent, it is a benign lesion

17. Hyperplasia:

a. occurs after partial hepatectomy

b. refers to an increase in the size of cells

c. is always a pathologic process

d. often occurs in cardiac and skeletal muscle

e. usually progresses to cancerous proliferation

18. In apoptosis:

a. it involves physiologic and pathologic stimuli

b. histologically it involves ATP depletion

c. its DNA breakdown is random and diffuse

d. its mechanism involves ATP depletion

e. it involves an inflammatory tissue reaction

19. Apoptosis is characterised by which one of the

following?

a. cell swelling

b. chromatin activation

c. formation of cytoplasmic blebs and apoptotic

bodies

d. exocytosis of apoptotic cells or bodies

e. mild inflammation


Week 2 Pathology MCQ ANSWERS 1. C 6. A 11. E 16. B 2. A 7. E 12. E 17. A 3. D 8. D 13. E 18. A 4. D 9. D 14. C 19. C 5. B 10. C 15. E

Documents

WOLLONGONG HOSPITAL ED PRIMARY EXAM PROGRAMME