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INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN UPSC Prelims 2020
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KEY & EXPLANATIONS
Insta 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services
Prelims – 2020
This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of InsightsIAS
famous INSTA REVISION initiative for UPSC civil services Preliminary examination
– 2020 (which has become most anticipated annual affair by lakhs of IAS aspirants
across the country). These questions are carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough
challenge to test their knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as
intelligent guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed
to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by UPSC.
These questions are based on this INSTA Revision Plan which is posted on our
website (www.insightsonindia.com). Every year thousands of candidates follow our
revision timetable – which is made for SERIOUS aspirants who would like to intensively
revise everything that’s important before the exam.
Those who would like to take up more tests for even better preparation, can
enroll to Insights IAS Prelims Mock Test Series – 2020
(https://prelims.insightsonindia.com). Every year toppers solve our tests and sail
through UPSC civil services exam. Your support through purchase of our tests will help
us provide FREE content on our website seamlessly.
Wish you all the best!
Team InsightsIAS
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DAY – 21 (InstaTest-21)
1. Bureau of Energy Efficiency star labeling is applied to which of the following
appliances?
1. Ballast
2. Domestic Gas Stove
3. Distribution Transformer
4. Agricultural Pumpset
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
The Standards & Labeling Programme is one of the major thrust areas of BEE. A key
objective of this scheme is to provide the consumer an informed choice about the energy
saving and thereby the cost saving potential of the relevant marketed product. The scheme
targets display of energy performance labels on high energy end use equipment &
appliances and lays down minimum energy performance standards.
BEE star labelling is currently invoked for equipments/appliances Room Air Conditioner
(Fixed Speed), Ceiling Fan, Colour Television, Computer, Direct Cool Refrigerator,
Distribution Transformer, Domestic Gas Stove, Frost Free Refrigerator, General
Purpose Industrial Motor, Monoset Pump, Openwell Submersible Pump Set, Stationary
Type Water Heater, Submersible Pump Set, Tfl, Washing Machine, Ballast, Solid State
Inverter, Office Automation Products, Diesel Engine Driven Monosetpumps For
Agricultural Purposes, Diesel Generator Set, Led Lamps, Room Air Conditioner
(Variable Speed), Chillers, Agricultural Pumpset.
https://beeindia.gov.in/content/standards-labeling
https://beestarlabel.com/
2. Consider the following statements regarding Mission Innovation (MI)
1. Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative of 24 countries and the
European Commission.
2. MI was announced at COP21, 2015 and India is a member to this initiative.
3. Its aim is to reinvigorate and accelerate global clean energy innovation with
the objective to make clean energy widely affordable.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative of 24 countries and the European
Commission (on behalf of the European Union) working to reinvigorate and accelerate
global clean energy innovation with the objective to make clean energy widely affordable.
• MI was announced at COP21 on November 30, 2015, as world leaders came
together in Paris to commit to ambitious efforts to combat climate change.
• India is a member to this initiative.
As part of the launch statement, members committed to:
• Seek to double their governmental and/or state-directed clean energy clean energy
research, development and demonstration (RD&D) investments over five years.
• Work closely with the private sector as it increases its investment in the earlier-
stage clean energy companies that emerge from government programs.
• Build and improve technology innovation roadmaps and other tools to help in our
innovation efforts, to understand where RD&D is already happening, and to
identify gaps and opportunities for new kinds of innovation.
• Provide, on an annual basis, transparent, easily-accessible information on their
respective clean energy RD&D efforts
Extra Learning:
The Clean Energy Ministerial (CEM) is a high-level global forum to share lessons learnt
and best practices, and to encourage the transition to a global clean energy economy.
Initiatives are based on areas of common interest among participating Governments and
other stakeholders. The CEM is the initiative of the USA. Presently, 23 countries are
members of CEM. There are 13 initiatives under CEM covering energy efficiency, clean
energy supply and cross cutting areas.
Since its launch in 2010, the Clean Energy Ministerial (CEM) has come a long way. Its
various initiatives were instrumental in leading significant collaborative work amongst
members in context of clean energy supply, demand side management and relevant cross
cutting issues.
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3. Consider the following statements regarding World Travel and Tourism Council
(WTTC)
1. WTTC works to raise awareness of Travel and Tourism as one of the
world’s largest economic sectors
2. It is an intergovernmental organization representing the Travel and Tourism
sector globally.
3. Its members include CEOs, Chairpersons and Presidents of the world’s
leading Travel and Tourism companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
The World Travel & Tourism Council (WTTC) represents the Travel & Tourism private
sector globally. Our Members include over 200 CEOs, Chairpersons and Presidents of the
world’s leading Travel & Tourism companies from all geographies covering all industries.
WTTC works to raise awareness of Travel & Tourism as one of the world’s largest
economic sectors, supporting one in 10 jobs (319 million) worldwide, and generating
10.4% of global GDP.
For the past 30 years, WTTC has conducted research on the economic impact of Travel
& Tourism in 185 countries. In 2018, the Travel & Tourism sector experienced 3.9%
growth, outpacing that of the global economy (3.2%) for the eighth consecutive year. Over
the past five years, one in five jobs were created by the sector, making Travel & Tourism
the best partner for governments to generate employment.
4. Which of the following methods is/are used to effectively manage solid waste
management?
1. Incineration
2. Gasification
3. Pyrolysis
4. Biomethanation
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
Incineration is a waste treatment process that involves the combustion of organic
substances contained in waste materials. Incineration and other high-temperature waste
treatment systems are described as “thermal treatment”. Incineration of waste materials
converts the waste into ash, flue gas and heat.
Gasification is a process that converts organic or fossil fuel based carbonaceous
materials into carbon monoxide, hydrogen and carbon dioxide. This is achieved by
reacting the material at high temperatures (>700’C), without combustion, with a
controlled amount of oxygen and/or steam(The syngas produced by gasification can be
turned into higher value commercial products)
Pyrolysis involves application of heat with no added oxygen in order to generate oils
and/or syngas (as well as solid waste outputs) and requires more homogenous waste
streams.
Biomethanation is a process by which organic material is microbiologically converted
under anaerobic conditions to biogas. It involves fermenting bacteria, organic acid
oxidizing bacteria, and methanogenic archaea
5. Consider the following statements regarding The Australia Group (AG)
1. It is a legally binding forum of countries which, through the harmonization
of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the
development of chemical or biological weapons.
2. All states participating in the Australia Group are parties to the Chemical
Weapons Convention (CWC) and the Biological Weapons Convention
(BWC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
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The Australia Group (AG) is an informal forum of countries which, through the
harmonisation of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the
development of chemical or biological weapons.
Participants in the Australia Group do not undertake any legally binding obligations: the
effectiveness of their cooperation depends solely on a shared commitment to CBW non-
proliferation goals and the strength of their respective national measures.
All states participating in the Australia Group are parties to the Chemical Weapons
Convention (CWC) and the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), and strongly
support efforts under those Conventions to rid the world of CBW.
Extra Learning:
Missile Technology Control Regime:
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Established in 1987, MTCR is an “informal political understanding among states that seek
to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology”. It has 35 members. India was
admitted in June 2016.
China is not a member. MTCR’s initial aim of controlling proliferation of nuclear missiles
was expanded in 1992 to include delivery systems for chemical and biological weapons as
well. It encourages members not to export missiles delivering any weapon of mass
destruction, with special focus on missiles capable of carrying a 500-kg payload over at
least 300 km, and on equipment, software, technology for such systems.
Wassenaar Arrangement
• Named after a suburb in The Hague where it was first agreed upon in 1995, the
Wassenaar Arrangement came into existence a year later. It aims to promote
“transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-
use goods and technologies”, so there are no “destabilising accumulations”, and
terrorists do not acquire them. It has 42 members; India was admitted as a
“participating state” on December 8, 2017. Members must be
producers/exporters of arms/sensitive industrial equipment; have national polices
for non-proliferation and an effective export control regime; must adhere to global
non-proliferation compacts including the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty,
Biological Weapons Convention, Chemical Weapons Convention.
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6. Global Social Mobility Report is released by
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) World Tourism Organization
(c) World Bank
(d) International Organization for Migration (IOM)
Solution: A
Global Social Mobility Report
• World Economic Forum has come out with its first-ever Global Social Mobility
Report.
• The report has ranked India a lowly 76 out of the 82 countries profiled.
What is social mobility?
• It can be understood as the movement in personal circumstances either “upwards”
or “downwards” of an individual in relation to those of their parents.
• In absolute terms, it is the ability of a child to experience a better life than their
parents.
• On the other hand, relative social mobility is an assessment of the impact of socio-
economic background on an individual’s outcomes in life.
• It can be measured against a number of outcomes ranging from health to
educational achievement and income.
7. Consider the following statements regarding National Agricultural Higher
Education Project (NAHEP)
1. It is launched by NITI Ayog to attract talent and strengthen higher
agricultural education in the country
2. It aims to support participating agricultural universities and ICAR in
providing more relevant and higher quality education to Agricultural
University students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Solution: B
National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP).
• Aim: To attract talent and strengthen higher agricultural education in the
country.
• Funded by the World Bank and the Indian Government on a 50:50 basis.
• The objective of the NAHEP for India is to support participating agricultural
universities and ICAR in providing more relevant and higher quality education to
Agricultural University students. In addition, a four year degree in Agriculture,
Horticulture, Fisheries and Forestry has been declared a professional degree.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/01/30/national-agricultural-higher-education-
project-nahep/
8. Disinvestment in a public sector undertaking’s is approved by which of the
following organisation/body?
(a) Parliament
(b) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(c) NITI Ayog
(d) None of the above
Solution: B
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approves disinvestment in public sector.
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved five PSUs – BPCL, Shipping
Corporation of India, Container Corporation, Tehri Hydro Development Corporation
and North Eastern Electric Power Corporation – for strategic sales.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/quick-take/psu-disinvestment-
strategically-right/article30046722.ece#
Extra Reading:
What is Disinvestment
• Disinvestment in India meaning: Disinvestment means sale or liquidation of
assets by the government, usually Central and state public sector enterprises,
projects, or other fixed assets.
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9. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan
Yojana (PM-KMY)
1. It is an old age pension scheme for all land holding Small and Marginal
Farmers (SMFs) in the country.
2. It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for the entry age group of
18 to 40 years.
3. The spouse is also eligible to get a separate pension of Rs.3000/- without
making separate contributions to the Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-KMY)
• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-KMY) is an old age pension
scheme for all land holding Small and Marginal Farmers (SMFs) in the country.
It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for the entry age group of 18 to
40 years. The Scheme is effective from the 9thAugust, 2019.
Salient features
• It is voluntary and contributory for farmers in the entry age group of 18 to 40 years
and a monthly pension of Rs. 3000/- will be provided to them on attaining the age
of 60 years.
• The farmers will have to make a monthly contribution of Rs.55 to Rs.200,
depending on their age of entry, in the Pension Fund till they reach the retirement
date i.e. the age of 60 years. The farmers will have to make a monthly contribution
of Rs.55 to Rs.200, depending on their age of entry, in the Pension Fund till they
reach the retirement date i.e. the age of 60 years.
• The monthly contributions will fall due on the same day every month as enrolment
date. The beneficiaries may also chose an option to pay their contributions on
quarterly, 4-monthly or half-yearly basis. Such contributions will fall due on the
same day of such period as the date of enrollment
• The spouse is also eligible to get a separate pension of Rs.3000/- upon making
separate contributions to the Fund.
• The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) shall be the Pension Fund
Manager and responsible for Pension pay out.
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10. Consider the following statements regarding National Bench of the Goods and
Services Tax Appellate Tribunal
1. It is a quasi-judicial body
2. It is the forum of second appeal in GST lawsand the first common forum of
dispute resolution between Centre and States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
National Bench of the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal
• It is a quasi-judicial body
• It shall be situated at New Delhi.
• Composition: Presided over by its President and shall consist of one Technical
Member (Centre) and one Technical Member (State).
• It is the forum of second appeal in GST laws and the first common forum of dispute
resolution between Centre and States.
• The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities
under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal,
which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts.
Legal provisions:
• CGST Act provides for the Appeal and Review Mechanism for dispute resolution
under the GST Regime.
• The Act empowers the Central Government to constitute, on the recommendation
of Council, by notification, with effect from such date as may be specified therein,
an Appellate Tribunal known as the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal
for hearing appeals against the orders passed by the Appellate Authority or the
Revisional Authority.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/01/24/national-bench-of-the-goods-and-
services-tax-appellate-tribunal-gstat/
11. Consider the following statements regarding SANKALP
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1. It is an outcome-oriented central sector scheme of Ministry of Skill
Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
2. It focuses on the overall skilling ecosystem covering both Central & State
agencies and implements the mandate of the National Skill Development
Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
SANKALP is an outcome-oriented centrally sponsored programme of Ministry of Skill
Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) with a special focus on decentralised
planning and quality improvement. It focuses on the overall skilling ecosystem covering
both Central & State agencies. SANKALP aims to implement the mandate of the
National Skill Development Mission (NSDM).Under SANKALP four key result areas
have been identified viz: (i) Institutional Strengthening (at National, State & District level);
(ii) Quality Assurance Quality Assurance of skill development programs; (iii) Inclusion of
marginalised population in skill development; and (iv) Expanding Skills through Public
Private Partnerships (PPPs).
12. NetSCoFAN is an initiative for
(a) Reduce post-harvest loss.
(b) Improve productivity in fisheries sector
(c) Export of processed foods
(d) Food safety
Solution: D
Dr Harsh Vardhan launched NetSCoFAN (Network for Scientific Co-operation for
Food Safety and Applied Nutrition), a network of research & academic institutions
working in the area of food & nutrition along with the NetSCoFAN directory, covering
detailed information of various heads/Directors and lead scientists of lead and associated
partnering institutions. The NetSCoFAN would comprise of eight groups of institutions
working in different areas viz. biological, chemical, nutrition & labelling, food of animal
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origin, food of plant origin, water & beverages, food testing, and safer & sustainable
packaging. FSSAI has identified eight Nodal Institutions who would develop a ‘Ready
Reckoner’ that will have inventory of all research work, experts and institutions and would
carry out and facilitate research, survey and related activities. It would identify research
gaps in respective areas and collect, collate and develop database on food safety issues for
risk assessment activities. “The need for identify research gaps in respective areas and
collect, collate and develop database on food safety issues for risk assessment activities,
will be addressed by NetSCoFAN (Network for Scientific Co-operation for Food Safety
and Applied Nutrition)”, Dr Harsh Vardhan said.
13. Consider the following statements regarding Outer Space Treaty
1. It bars states party to the treaty from placing weapons of mass destruction
in orbit of Earth, installing them on the Moon or any other celestial body.
2. The treaty prohibits the placement of conventional weapons in orbit.
3. India is party to the convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Solution: A
Outer Space Treaty is a legal entity and came in 1966 as a legal document towards the
General Assembly. The Treaty was opened for signature by the three depository
Governments (the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom and the United States of
America) in January 1967, and it entered into force in October 1967.
The Outer Space Treaty represents the basic legal framework of international space
law. Among its principles, it bars states party to the treaty from placing weapons of mass
destruction in orbit of Earth, installing them on the Moon or any other celestial body, or
otherwise stationing them in outer space.
It exclusively limits the use of the Moon and other celestial bodies to peaceful purposes
and expressly prohibits their use for testing weapons of any kind, conducting military man
oeuvres, or establishing military bases, installations, and fortifications (Article IV).
However, the Treaty does not prohibit the placement of conventional weapons in orbit.
The treaty also states that the exploration of outer space shall be done to benefit all
countries and shall be free for exploration and use by all the States.
India is party to Outer Space Treaty.
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14. Consider the following statements regarding TechSagar
1. It is a national repository of India’s cyber tech capabilities.
2. It was launched by National Informatics Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
TechSagar
• TechSagar, national repository of India’s cyber tech capabilities launched.
• Launched by: National Cyber Security Coordinator’s office in partnership with
Data Security Council (DSCI) of India.
What is TechSagar?
• It is a platform to discover India’s technological capability through a portal.
• It is a consolidated and comprehensive repository of India’s cyber tech
capabilities which provides actionable insights about capabilities of the Indian
Industry, academia and research across 25 technology areas like internet of things
(IoT), Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning (ML), blockchain, cloud
& virtualisation, robotics & automation, ar/vr, wireless & networking, and
more.
• The portal will list business and research entities from the IT industry, startups,
academia, and individual researchers.
Extra Learning:
About DSCI:
• Data Security Council of India (DSCI), is a not-for-profit, industry body on data
protection in India, setup by NASSCOM.
• It is committed to making the cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing
best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy.
• To further its objectives, DSCI engages with governments and their agencies,
regulators, industry sectors, industry associations and think tanks for policy
advocacy, thought leadership, capacity building and outreach activities.
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15. ‘SWISS Challenge Model’, often in news, is
(a) One of the method of awarding government contracts to private players.
(b) Operation to uncover black money from Switzerland.
(c) Challenge to clean corrupt practices in taxation system in India
(d) None of the above
Solution: A
Swiss Challenge method is one of the ways of awarding government contracts to
private players. Without an invitation from government, a private player can submit a
proposal to government for development of an infrastructure project with exclusive
intellectual property rights.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/slate/all-you-wanted-to-
know-about-swiss-challenge/article24194034.ece
16. Consider the following statements regarding Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)
1. These are listed and traded in the stock exchange like shares.
2. It contains different types of investments including stocks, commodities, or
bonds.
3. ETF is managed by the investor himself unless deputed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
• The centre is planning to launch India’s first fixed income Exchange Traded Fund
(ETF) comprising debt securities of large central public sector enterprises (PSUs).
What are ETFs?
• Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are mutual funds listed and traded on stock
exchanges like shares.
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• Typically, an ETF mirrors a particular index, which means the group of stocks in
the ETF would be similar to those in the index that it is benchmarked to.
• Usually, ETFs are passive funds where the fund manager doesn’t select stocks on
your behalf. Instead, the ETF simply copies an index and endeavours to accurately
reflect its performance.
• In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at prevailing market price on a real time basis
during market hours.
• ETFs can contain all types of investments including stocks, commodities, or bonds;
some offer domestic holdings only, while others are international.
Benefits and significance of ETFs:
• ETFs are cost efficient. Given that they don’t make any stock (or security choices),
they don’t use services of star fund managers.
• They allow investors to avoid the risk of poor security selection by the fund
manager, while offering a diversified investment portfolio.
• The stocks in the indices are carefully selected by index providers and are
rebalanced periodically.
• They offer anytime liquidity through the exchanges.
• Mutual fund is like an ETF as it is a unit that comprised of equities of different
companies. But ETF and mutual funds differ with respect to tradability. Mutual
Fund selling price will be the price of shares at the close of the day. On the other
hand, shares of ETF are traded throughout the day. And at any moment, ETF can
be bought and sold. In this respect, ETFs have more liquidity and marketability.
Another difference is that Mutual Fund is managed by a financial company and its
fund managers; whereas the ETF is managed by the investor himself (unless
deputed).
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/11/25/exchange-traded-funds-2/
17. Consider the following statements regarding National Service Scheme (NSS)
1. NSS is an extension dimension to the higher education system to orient the
student youth to community service while they are studying in educational
institutions.
2. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
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National Service Scheme (NSS) was launched during 1969, the birth centenary year of
Mahatma Gandhi, in 37 universities involving 40000 students. NSS is an extension
dimension to the higher education system to orient the student youth to community service
while they are studying in educational institutions. It is being implemented by the Ministry
of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• NSS is a voluntary scheme. NSS scheme starts from 11th Standard onwards. At
college level the NSS volunteers will be enrolled from the first- and second-year
degree-class students. The students from foreign countries studying in Indian
universities can also join NSS so that they may share the experiences of national
reconstruction and community work. NCC cadets will not be allowed to join NSS.
Similarly NSS volunteers will not participate in NCC or any other youth
organisation as long as they are in NSS.
• An NSS volunteer needs to devote a total of 240 hours social service in two years
duration. Every year, a NSS volunteer has to devote 20 hrs. of orientation and 100
hrs. of community service.
• To enrol as NSS volunteer, contact the NSS Programme Officer of your school /
college. Enrollment in NSS is free.
• The NSS volunteers on successful completion of the required hours of service are
issued a certificate. NSS volunteers can get some weightage during admissions in
higher studies and other benefits as decided by the institutions/university.
18. Project SU.RE is a commitment in
(a) Solar energy
(b) Apparel industry
(c) Electronic products
(d) Unorganized sector
Solution: B
The Union Minister for Textiles, Smt. Smriti Zubin Irani launched Project SU.RE, a
move towards sustainable fashion, at Lakmé Fashion Winter/Festive 2019, in Mumbai
on 22nd August, 2019. The SU.RE project is a commitment by India’s apparel industry to
set a sustainable pathway for the Indian fashion industry. SU.RE stands for ‘Sustainable
Resolution’ – a firm commitment from the industry to move towards fashion that
contributes to a clean environment.
• The project has been launched by the Minister, along with Clothing
Manufacturers Association of India (CMAI); United Nations in India; and IMG
Reliance, the organizers of Lakmé Fashion Week.
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About Project SU.RE
The five-point Sustainable Resolution is as follows:
1. Develop a complete understanding of the environmental impact of the garments
being currently produced by our brand.
2. Develop a sustainable sourcing policy for consistently prioritizing and utilizing
certified raw materials that have a positive impact on the environment.
3. Make the right decisions about how, where, and what we source across the value
chain by selecting sustainable and renewable materials and processes and ensuring
their traceability.
4. Communicate our sustainability initiatives effectively to consumers and media
through our online and physical stores, product tags/labeling, social media,
advertising campaigns and events.
5. Through these actions, shift a significant percentage of our supply chain to a
sustainable chain by the year 2025, addressing critical global issues such as climate
change, contributing to the UN Sustainable Development Goals, and building a
world that is safe for the future generations, as an acceptance of a responsibility we
all share.
Project SU.RE, driven by the leading industry association CMAI, along with a leader in
sustainable fashion IMG Reliance, will be the first holistic effort by the apparel industry
towards gradually introducing a broader framework for establishing critical sustainability
goals for the industry. This framework would help the industry reduce its carbon
emissions, increase resource efficiency, tackle waste and water management, and create
positive social impact to achieve long-term sustainability targets.
19. Consider the following statements regarding Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan
1. It aims to provide dignified and quality health care at no cost to every
woman and newborn visiting a public health facility.
2. Under the scheme, all pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6
months of delivery will be able to avail free health care services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
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The Union Government has launched Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) to
provide quality healthcare at zero cost to pregnant women, new mothers and
newborns.
About the scheme:
• It aims to provide dignified and quality health care at no cost to every woman and
newborn visiting a public health facility.
• Under the scheme, the beneficiaries visiting public health facilities are entitled to
several free services.
• These include at least four ante natal check-ups that also includes one checkup
during the 1st trimester, at least one checkup under Pradhan Mantri Surakshit
Matritva Abhiyan, Iron Folic Acid supplementation, Tetanus diptheria
injection.
• Eligibility: All pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of
delivery will be able to avail several free health care services
Features and benefits:
• The scheme will enable zero expense access to the identification and management
of complications during and after the pregnancy.
• The government will also provide free transport to pregnant women from home to
the health facility and drop back after discharge (minimum 48 hrs).
• The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero expense delivery and C-section
facility in case of complications at public health facilities.
• The scheme will ensure that there is zero-tolerance for denial of services to such
patients.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/11/surakshit-matritva-aashwasan-suman/
20. Consider the following statements regarding National e-Vidhan Application
(NeVA) Project
1. It is a Mission Mode Project (MMP) under the Digital India Programme.
2. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (MoPA) is the Nodal Ministry for its
implementation in all the States/UTs with Legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
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National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) Project
• The Kerala Legislative Assembly recently announced an initiative to digitize all
its records and proceedings under its ambitious project called E-Vidhan.
What is e-Vidhan?
• It is a Mission Mode Project (MMP) comes under the Digital India Programme.
• Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (MoPA) is the ‘Nodal Ministry’ for its
implementation in all the States/UTs with Legislatures.
• The funding for e-Vidhan is provided by the MoPA and technical support by
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MietY).
• The funding of NeVA is through Central Sponsored Scheme. 60:40; and 90:10 for
North East & hilly States and 100% for UTs.
• Aim of the project: To bring all the legislatures of the country together, in one
platform thereby creating a massive data depository without having the complexity
of multiple applications.
21. Consider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
1. The Commission was set up on the recommendation of the K.Santhanam
Committee
2. Term of the central vigilance commissioner is 5 years or 60 years, whichever
is earlier.
3. It submits its report to the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Vigilance Awareness Week to be observed from 28th October to 2nd November. Theme
of the Vigilance Awareness Week: “Integrity- A way of life”
Background:
• The Central Vigilance Commission aims to promote integrity, transparency and
accountability in public life.
• As part of its efforts to promote probity in public life and to achieve a corruption
free society, CVC observes Vigilance Awareness Week every year.
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• The observation of Vigilance Awareness Week creates greater awareness among
public and encourages all the stakeholders to collectively participate in prevention
of and fight against Corruption.
About CVC:
• It is the apex vigilance institution created via executive resolution (based on the
recommendations of Santhanam committee) in 1964 but was conferred with
statutory status in 2003.
• It submits its report to the President of India.
• Composition: Consists of central vigilance commissioner along with 2 vigilance
commissioners.
• Appointment: They are appointed by the President of India on the
recommendations of a committee consisting of Prime Minister, Union Home
Minister and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (if there is no LoP then the
leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha).
• Term: Their term is 4 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• Removal: The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner
can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of
proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to
it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance
Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be
removed.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/26/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-26-
october-2019/
22. Consider the following statements regarding Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav
1. It was organized by Ministry of Human Resource Development under the
Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat initiative.
2. It was organized to showcase the rich cultural heritage of the Country in all
its rich and varied dimensions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
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Ministry of Culture, Government of India is organising the 10th edition of Rashtriya
Sanskriti Mahotsav under the Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat initiative in Madhya Pradesh
from 14th to 21st October 2019.
Being the flagship and premier festival of Ministry of Culture, Rashtriya Sanskriti
Mahotsav was conceived in the year 2015 and after the grand success of the First Rashtriya
Sanskriti Mahotsav in November-2015, the Ministry of Culture decided to organize it with
an intent to showcase the rich cultural heritage of the Country in all its rich and varied
dimensions, viz Handicrafts, Cuisine, Painting, Sculpture and Performing Arts-Folk,
Tribal, Classical and Contemporary- all in one place. So far, this Ministry has organised 9
RSM’s i.e. 2 each in Delhi and 2 in Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, RSM North East , Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh and Uttarakahnd.The people of Madhya Pradesh will witness the
grandeur of Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav once again in its 10th edition from 14th
October, 2019 to 21st October, 2019.
This time the Mahotsav will be organised in the city of Jabalpur during 14 – 15 October,
2019,Sagar from 16 – 17th October, 19 and Rewa from 20 – 21st October, 2019.
The Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat programme was launched by the Prime Minister on 31st
October, 2016 to promote engagement amongst the people of different States/UTs so as
to enhance mutual understanding and bonding between people of diverse cultures, thereby
securing stronger unity and integrity of India.
23. Consider the following statements regarding District Mineral Foundation
1. These are non-statutory bodies set by the executive resolution.
2. Each District Mineral Foundation is established by the Central government
by notification.
3. The Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana uses the funds
generated by the District Mineral Foundations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Rajasthan to create pneumoconiosis fund with DMF money. The fund will be used to
execute a comprehensive policy on the disease, which is widely prevalent in the mining
state.
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Background:
• Pneumoconiosis, a lung disease, mostly affects workers who work in the mining
and construction sectors and deal with soil, silica, coal dust and asbestos. The
disease includes asbestosis, silicosis and coal workers’ pneumoconiosis.
About DMFs:
• District Mineral Foundations are statutory bodies set up as non-profit
organizations in districts which are affected by the mining works.
• Each District Mineral Foundation is established by the State Governments by
notification as a trust or non-profit body in the mining operation affected districts.
• DMFs were instituted under the Mines and Minerals (Development and
Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Act 2015.
• They are non-profit trusts to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas
affected by mining-related operations.
• Objective: to work for the interest of the benefit of the persons and areas affected
mining related operations in such manner as may be prescribed by the State
Government.
• Jurisdiction: Its manner of operation comes under the jurisdiction of the relevant
State Government.
The various state DMF rules and the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Khestra Kalyan Yojana
(PMKKKY) guidelines stipulate some “high priority” issues for DMFs, including:
1. Drinking water.
2. Health
3. Women and child welfare.
4. Education
5. Livelihood and skill development.
6. Welfare of aged and disabled.
7. Sanitation.
Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY):
• The programme is meant to provide for the welfare of areas and people affected by
mining related operations, using the funds generated by District Mineral
Foundations (DMFs).
Objectives of the scheme:
• To implement various developmental and welfare projects/programs in mining
affected areas that complement the existing ongoing schemes/projects of State and
Central Government.
• To minimize/mitigate the adverse impacts, during and after mining, on the
environment, health and socio-economics of people in mining districts.
• To ensure long-term sustainable livelihoods for the affected people in mining areas.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/04/district-mineral-foundations-4/
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24. Consider the following statements regarding Samudrayaan project
1. It is a pilot project of the Ministry of Earth Sciences for deep ocean mining
for rare minerals.
2. The project has been undertaken by the National Institute of Ocean
Technology (NIOT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
‘Samudrayaan’ project
• India to undertake deep ocean mining with ‘Samudrayaan’ project.
About Samudrayaan:
• It is a pilot project of the Ministry of Earth Sciences for deep ocean mining for rare
minerals.
• It proposes to send men into the deep sea in a submersible vehicle for ocean studies.
• The project is expected to become a reality by 2021-22.
• The project has been undertaken by the National Institute of Ocean Technology
(NIOT).
What are PMN?
• Polymetallic nodules (also known as manganese nodules) are potato- shaped,
largely porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans
in deep sea.
• Composition: Besides manganese and iron, they contain nickel, copper, cobalt,
lead, molybdenum, cadmium, vanadium, titanium, of which nickel, cobalt and
copper are considered to be of economic and strategic importance.
• Potential: It is envisaged that 10% of recovery of that large reserve can meet the
energy requirement of India for the next 100 years. It has been estimated that 380
million metric tonnes of polymetallic nodules are available at the bottom of the seas
in the Central Indian Ocean.
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25. Consider the following statements regarding National Health Systems Resource
Centre (NHSRC)
1. It is a five member governing body.
2. It has been set up under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
3. It aims to assist in policy and strategy development in the provision and
mobilization of technical assistance to the states and centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Designation of National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHSRC) as a WHO
Collaborating Centre for Priority Medical Devices and Health Technology Policy.
Why do we need such collaborations?
• Such global collaborations in the area of health technology will ensure that
scientific and technological advances, research and development as well as
innovative technologies play a substantial supportive role in healthcare and enable
us to reach the public health goals and achieve universal health coverage.
About NHSRC:
• Set up under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) to serve as an apex
body for technical assistance.
• Established in 2006.
• Mandate is to assist in policy and strategy development in the provision and
mobilization of technical assistance to the states and in capacity building for the
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) at the centre and in the states.
Composition:
• It has a 23 member Governing Body, chaired by the Secretary, MoHFW,
Government of India with the Mission Director, NRHM as the Vice Chairperson
of the GB and the Chairperson of its Executive Committee.
• Of the 23 members, 14 are ex-officio senior health administrators, including four
from the states. Nine are public health experts, from academics and Management
Experts.
• The Executive Director, NHSRC is the Member Secretary of both the Governing
body and the Executive Committee.
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• The NHSRC currently consists of seven divisions – Community Processes,
Healthcare Financing, Healthcare Technology, Human Resources for Health,
Public Health Administration, Public Health Planning, Quality Improvement in
Healthcare.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/04/national-health-systems-resource-
centre-nhsrc/
DAY – 22 (InstaTest-22)
26. Sepahijala wildlife sanctuary, sometime seen in the news, is located in which of the
following state?
(a) Assam
(b) Tripura
(c) West Bengal
(d) Sikkim
Solution: B
Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in Tripura, India of some 18.53
square kilometres, about 25 kilometres from the city centre, located in Bishalgarh. It is a
woodland with an artificial lake and natural botanical and zoological gardens. It is
famous for its clouded leopard enclosures.
https://indianexpress.com/article/north-east-india/tripura/tripuras-best-kept-secret-
three-lion-cubs-born-in-june-5517621/
27. Oslo accords, often seen in the news, is related to
(a) Reduction of Ozone depleting gases
(b) Refugee crisis
(c) Israeli-Palestinian Peace plan
(d) Syrian civil war
Solution: C
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Oslo Accords
• Palestinians had threatened to quit Oslo Accords, if U.S. President Donald Trump
announces his West Asia peace plan.
Why?
Palestinians’ concerns:
• The main worry is that this initiative will turn Israel’s “temporary occupation (of
Palestinian territory) into a permanent occupation”.
• The Palestinians see east Jerusalem as the capital of their future state and believe
Mr. Trump’s plan buries the two-state solution that has been for decades the
cornerstone of international West Asia diplomacy.
What’s the issue?
• Under the Oslo Accords of the 1993, both Israel and the Palestinians agreed that
the status of settlements would be decided by negotiations. But the negotiations
process has been all but dead for several years now.
• Israel walked into East Jerusalem in 1967, and subsequently annexed it. For Israel,
Jerusalem is non-negotiable.
• The Palestinians want East Jerusalem as the capital of their future state.
• Most of the world’s nations look at it as occupied territory.
About the Oslo Accords:
• Formally known as the Declaration of Principles (DOP), the pact established a
timetable for the Middle East peace process. It planned for an interim Palestinian
government in Gaza and Jericho in the West Bank.
• Oslo II, officially called the Israeli-Palestinian Interim Agreement on the West
Bank and Gaza, expanded on Oslo I. It included provisions for the complete
withdrawal of Israeli troops from six West Bank cities and about 450 towns.
Additionally, the pact set a timetable for elections for the Palestinian Legislative
Council.
28. Consider the following statements regarding East Asia Summit
1. It is an initiative of ASEAN and is based on the premise of the centrality of
ASEAN.
2. It is a forum for strategic dialogue and cooperation on political, security and
economic issues.
3. India has been participating in the EAS since its very inception in 2005.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
East Asia Summit:
• India hosted an East Asia Summit conference in Chennai with a focus on maritime
security cooperation and tackling challenges in the maritime domain.
• It was organized by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), in partnership with
the governments of Australia and Indonesia.
• This conference is the fourth in a series of EAS Maritime Security Conferences
organized by the Indian government.
About East Asia Summit:
• EAS is an initiative of ASEAN and is based on the premise of the centrality of
ASEAN.
• It is a forum held annually by leaders of 18 countries in the East Asian, Southeast
Asian and South Asian regions.
• EAS meetings are held after annual ASEAN leaders’ meetings.
• The first summit was held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia on 14 December 2005.
• India has been participating in the EAS since its very inception in 2005.
• 14th summit was held in November 2019 in Thailand.
• EAS has evolved as a forum for strategic dialogue and cooperation on political,
security and economic issues of common regional concern and plays an important
role in the regional architecture.
• There are six priority areas of regional cooperation within the framework of the
EAS. These are – Environment and Energy, Education, Finance, Global Health
Issues and Pandemic Diseases, Natural Disaster Management, and ASEAN
Connectivity. India endorses regional collaboration in all six priority areas.
• EAS is a region of strong and fast-growing economies. It is considered the third
pole of world economy after the US and Europe.
29. Consider the following statements regarding Web- Wonder Women Campaign
1. It is a campaign launched by CARE India
2. It aims to provide assistance to underprivileged women & girls in rural
areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India, has launched
an online campaign, ‘#www : Web- Wonder Women’.
The Campaign aims to discover and celebrate the exceptional achievements of women,
who have been driving positive agenda of social change via social media.
Through the campaign, the Ministry and the Campaign’s Partners aim to recognize the
fortitude of Indian women stalwarts from across the globe who have used the power of
social media to run positive & niche campaigns to steer a change in society. This
Campaign will recognize and acknowledge the efforts of these meritorious Women.
https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1559269
30. Consider the following statements regarding European Union
1. The EU and European citizenship were established when the Maastricht
Treaty came into force.
2. The United Kingdom became the first member state ever to leave the EU.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
European Union
• United Kingdom has officially left the European Union (EU) and has become the
first country to leave the 28-member bloc. The UK joined in 1973 (when it was
known as the European Economic Community) and it will be the first member
state to withdraw.
What is the European Union?
• The EU is an economic and political union involving 27 European countries. It
allows free trade, which means goods can move between member countries without
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any checks or extra charges. The EU also allows free movement of people, to live
and work in whichever country they choose.
• The EU and European citizenship were established when the Maastricht Treaty
came into force in 1993.
• The EU traces its origins to the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) and
the European Economic Community (EEC), established, respectively, by the 1951
Treaty of Paris and 1957 Treaty of Rome.
• The latest major amendment to the constitutional basis of the EU, the Treaty of
Lisbon, came into force in 2009.
• In January 2020, the United Kingdom became the first member state ever to leave
the EU.
• The union represents itself at the United Nations, the World Trade Organization,
the G7 and the G20.
31. Consider the following statements regarding International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA)
1. The Agency works to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear
technologies.
2. It is an organ of the United Nations and reports to both the United Nations
General Assembly and Security Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Widely known as the world’s “Atoms for Peace and Development” organization within
the United Nations family, the IAEA is the international centre for cooperation in the
nuclear field. The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide
to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
• The IAEA was created in 1957 in response to the deep fears and expectations
generated by the discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology. The Agency’s
genesis was U.S. President Eisenhower’s “Atoms for Peace” address to the
General Assembly of the United Nations on 8 December 1953.
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International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
• The IAEA is the world’s centre for cooperation in the nuclear field.
• It was set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957.
• It was established as an autonomous organization in 1957 through its own
international treaty, the IAEA Statute.
• The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to
promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
• It seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any
military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
• IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security
Council.
• The IAEA has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria.
• The IAEA serves as an intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical
cooperation in the peaceful use of nuclear technology and nuclear power
worldwide.
• The IAEA and its former Director General, Mohamed ElBaradei, were jointly
awarded the Nobel Peace Prize on 7 October 2005.
• The IAEA was established as an autonomous organisation on 29 July 1957.
Though established independently of the United Nations through its own
international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United
Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
32. Consider the following statements regarding Mycobacterium Indicus Pranii (MIP)
1. It is an indigenous vaccine for multi-drug resistance Tuberculosis
2. It was developed by the National Institute of Immunology, New Delhi
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
It is an indigenous vaccine for leprosy developed by National Institute of Immunology
(New Delhi).
• It is now being introduced into the National Leprosy Elimination Programme
(NLEP). It will boost the immune system against the bacterial disease
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About Leprosy:
• The disease, caused by the bacteria, Mycobacterium leprae, affects around 1.25
lakh people every year in India. Sixty per cent of the world’s leprosy patients live
in India.
• The vaccine, called Mycobacterium indicus pranii (MIP), will be administered as
a preventive measure to people living in close contact with those infected. It was
developed by the National Institute of Immunology, New Delhi, and has been by
approved by the Drug Controller General of India and the FDA in the U.S.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/medicine-and-research/Made-in-India-
leprosy-vaccine-to-be-launched/article14581750.ece
33. Consider the following statements regarding Stockholm International Peace
Research Institute (SIPRI)
1. It is an intergovernmental organization based in Stockholm.
2. The institute is dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control
and disarmament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)
• SIPRI is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict,
armaments, arms control and disarmament. Established in 1966, SIPRI provides
data, analysis and recommendations, based on open sources, to policymakers,
researchers, media and the interested public. Based in Stockholm, SIPRI is
regularly ranked among the most respected think tanks worldwide.
Vision and mission:
• SIPRI’s vision is a world in which sources of insecurity are identified and
understood, conflicts are prevented or resolved, and peace is sustained.
SIPRI’s mission is to:
• undertake research and activities on security, conflict and peace;
• provide policy analysis and recommendations;
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• facilitate dialogue and build capacities;
• promote transparency and accountability; and
• deliver authoritative information to global audiences.
Statutes:
• The Statutes are the guiding principles of SIPRI’s work. They were adopted by the
Swedish Government.
History and funding
• SIPRI was established on the basis of a decision by the Swedish Parliament and
receives a substantial part of its funding in the form of an annual grant from the
Swedish Government. The Institute also seeks financial support from other
organizations in order to carry out its research.
34. Consider the following statements regarding Asian Development Bank (ADB)
1. The bank was proposed by China and based in Beijing.
2. It has more than hundred (100) approved members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) was proposed by China in 2013 and it
is seen as a potential rival to the World Bank and IMF.
• The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development
bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia.
Headquartered in Beijing, we began operations in January 2016 and have now
grown to 102 approved members worldwide. By investing in sustainable
infrastructure and other productive sectors in Asia and beyond, we will better
connect people, services and markets that over time will impact the lives of billions
and build a better future.
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) envisions a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and
sustainable Asia and the Pacific, while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty
in the region. Despite the region’s many successes, it remains home to a large share of the
world’s poor: 264 million living on less than $1.90 a day and 1.1 billion on less than $3.20
a day.
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• ADB assists its members, and partners, by providing loans, technical assistance,
grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
• ADB maximizes the development impact of its assistance by facilitating policy
dialogues, providing advisory services, and mobilizing financial resources through
co-financing operations that tap official, commercial, and export credit sources.
• ADB was conceived in the early 1960s as a financial institution that would be Asian
in character and foster economic growth and cooperation in one of the poorest
regions in the world.
A resolution passed at the first Ministerial Conference on Asian Economic Cooperation
held by the United Nations Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East in 1963 set
that vision on the way to becoming reality.
• The Philippines capital of Manila was chosen to host the new institution, which
opened on 19 December 1966, with 31 members that came together to serve a
predominantly agricultural region. Takeshi Watanabe was ADB’s first President.
• From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 68
members—of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
https://www.adb.org/about/members
35. Consider the following statements regarding the Land for Life Programme
1. The Land for Life Programme was launched at the tenth United Nations
Convention to Combat Desertification Conference of the Parties (CoP 10)
2. It is involved in a variety of awareness-raising and knowledge support
activities to provide information and sensitize the public about the
importance of land for their life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The Land for Life Programme was launched at the tenth UNCCD Conference of the
Parties (COP10) in 2011 in the Republic of Korea as part of the Changwon Initiative.
The Programme seeks to address the challenges of land degradation, desertification and
mitigation of drought.
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• The Land for Life Programme is involved in a variety of awareness-raising and
knowledge support activities to provide information and sensitize the public about
the importance of land for their life and for achieving the SDGs by 2030.
These activities include:
• Promoting LDN
• Highlighting SLM success stories and the achievements of Land for Life Award
winners
• Promoting public outreach activities such as:
• Producing educational videos
• Holding photo contests
• Sharing and disseminating knowledge
• Conducting media trainings
• Organizing campaigns and e-Forums
https://www.unccd.int/actions/land-life
36. Consider the following statements regarding SUTRA PIC initiative
1. The programme was launched by Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry
and Dairying.
2. It is a programme to research on indigenous cows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
SUTRA PIC
• The government has unveiled a programme to research on ‘indigenous’ cows-
SUTRA PIC.
About SUTRA PIC- Scientific Utilisation Through Research Augmentation-Prime
Products from Indigenous Cows:
• It is led by the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
• It is supported by the Department of Biotechnology, the Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research, the Ministry for AYUSH (Ayurveda, Unani, Siddha,
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Homoeopathy) among others and the Indian Council of Medical Research as
partners.
It has five themes:
1. Uniqueness of Indigenous Cows.
2. Prime-products from Indigenous Cows for Medicine and Health.
3. Prime-products from Indigenous Cows for Agricultural Applications.
4. Prime-products from Indigenous Cows for Food and Nutrition.
5. Prime-products from indigenous cows-based utility items.
Aims and objectives:
• Scientific research on the complete characterization of milk and milk products
derived from Indian indigenous cows.
• Scientific research on nutritional and therapeutic properties of curd and ghee
prepared from indigenous breeds of cows by traditional methods.
• Development of standards for traditionally processed dairy products of Indian-
origin cows, etc.
37. Consider the following statements regarding Common Services Centres (CSCs)
1. The CSC was initiated under Digital India Initiative in 2016.
2. The Scheme creates a conducive environment for the private sector and
NGOs to play an active role in implementation of the CSC Scheme.
3. CSC e-Governance Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle, has
been set up to oversee implementation of the CSC scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Common Services Centres
The CSC is a strategic cornerstone of the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP), approved
by the Government in May 2006, as part of its commitment in the National Common
Minimum Programme to introduce e-governance on a massive scale.
The CSCs would provide high quality and cost-effective video, voice and data content and
services, in the areas of e-governance, education, health, telemedicine, entertainment as
well as other private services. A highlight of the CSCs is that it will offer web-enabled e-
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governance services in rural areas, including application forms, certificates, and utility
payments such as electricity, telephone and water bills. In addition to the universe of G2C
services, the CSC Guidelines envisage a wide variety of content and services that could be
offered as listed below:
1. Agriculture Services (Agriculture, Horticulture, Sericulture, Animal Husbandry,
Fisheries, Veterinary)
2. Education & Training Services (School, College, Vocational Education,
Employment, etc.)
3. Health Services (Telemedicine, Health Check-ups, Medicines)
4. Rural Banking & Insurance Services (Micro-credit, Loans, Insurance)
5. Entertainment Services (Movies, Television)
6. Utility Services (Bill Payments, Online bookings)
7. Commercial Services (DTP, Printing, Internet Browsing, Village level BPO).
The Scheme creates a conducive environment for the private sector and NGOs to play an
active role in implementation of the CSC Scheme, thereby becoming a partner of the
government in development of rural India. The PPP model of the CSC scheme envisages
a 3-tier structure consisting of the CSC operator (called Village Level Entrepreneur or
VLE); the Service Centre Agency (SCA), that will be responsible for a division of 500-1000
CSCs; and a State Designated Agency (SDA) identified by the State Government
responsible for managing the implementation in the entire State.
CSC e-Governance Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle, has been set up by
the Ministry of Electronics & IT under the Companies Act, 1956 to oversee
implementation of the CSC scheme. CSC SPV provides a centralized collaborative
framework for delivery of services to citizens through CSCs, besides ensuring systemic
viability and sustainability of the Scheme.
38. Which of the following species is/are naturally found in India?
1. Nilgai
2. Spider Monkey
3. Spectacled Monkey
4. Striped Hyenas
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: C
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The Nilgai (Boselaphus tragocamelus) is an antelope found in Asia. It commonly seen in
India, Nepal and eastern Pakistan. The mature males appear ox-like and are also known
as Blue bulls. The nilgai is the biggest Asian antelope.
• Spider monkeys are New World monkeys belonging to the genus Ateles, part of
the subfamily Atelinae, family Atelidae. Like other atelines, they are found in
tropical forests of Central and South America, from southern Mexico to Brazil.
• The Phayre’s leaf monkey (Trachypithecus phayrei), also known as Spectacled
Monkey, is a species of lutung native to Southeast Asia including India,
Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Vietnam and China. It is listed as
Endangered on the IUCN Red List and is threatened by hunting and loss of habitat
• Striped Hyenas are naturally found in India.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/an-initiative-to-save-the-
striped-hyenas-of-india/article26446129.ece
39. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya
Janaushadhi Pariyojana
1. It was initiated by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementing agency of
Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
“Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana” is a noble initiative by Department
of Pharmaceuticals, Government of India which is now making an impact on masses in
its endeavor to provide quality medicines at an affordable price. The number of Kendras
has grown to more than 6200 and 700 districts are covered under the scheme at present.
Further, total sales in the financial year 2019-20 (up to February 2020) have crossed Rs
383 crore which led to total savings of approximately Rs 2200 crore of common citizens
as these medicines are cheaper by 50 to 90% of the average market price. The scheme is
also providing a good source of self-employment with sustainable and regular earnings.
Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri
Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). BPPI was established in December, 2008 under the
Department of Pharmaceuticals, Government of India. The Bureau has been registered as
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an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 as a separate
independent legal entity in April, 2010.
40. Consider the following statements regarding Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana
1. The scheme was initiated by ESI Corporation.
2. Under the scheme, the Insured Person (IP) (who is rendered unemployed)
will be provided relief to the extent of 25% of the average per day earning,
up to maximum 90 days of unemployment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The ESI Corporation has launched a scheme named ‘Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana’
(ABVKY) which, in case the Insured Person (IP) is rendered unemployed, provides relief
to the extent of 25% of the average per day earning during the previous four contribution
periods (total earning during the four contribution period/730) to be paid up to maximum
90 days of unemployment once in lifetime of the IP on submission of claim in form of an
Affidavit.
Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana’ (ABVKY)
• The Employee’s State Insurance (ESI) has approved this scheme for Insured
Persons (IP) covered under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.
• It aims to financially support those who lost their jobs or rendered jobless for
whatsoever reasons due to changing employment pattern.
• Its beneficiaries will be insured persons covered under Employees’ State Insurance
Act, 1948 for period of two years continuously.
Key features:
• Cash assistance: Under the scheme, relief will be payable in cash directly to bank
account of insured persons in case of unemployment. This financial assistance will
be given to insured persons even while they search for new engagement.
Beneficiary insured workers will be paid money, from their own contribution
towards ESI scheme, in cash through bank account transfer.
• Under this scheme, workers will be able to draw 47% of their total contributions
towards ESIC after remaining unemployed for at least three months from date of
leaving their previous jobs. They can choose to receive the cash at one go or in
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instalments. It will be applicable to all factories and establishments employing at
least 10 workers.
41. Consider the following statements regarding Drake Passage
1. It is located between Cape Horn at the tip of South America and the
Antarctic Peninsula.
2. It connects the south-western part of the Atlantic Ocean with the south-
eastern part of the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Drake Passage:
• It is located between Cape Horn at the tip of South America and the Antarctic
Peninsula.
• It is the shortest crossing from Antarctica to any other landmass. There is no
significant land anywhere around the world at the latitudes of Drake Passage,
which is important to the unimpeded flow of the Antarctic Circumpolar Current
which carries a huge volume of water through the Passage and around Antarctica.
• The passage is named after Sir Francis Drake, who was the first Englishman to
circumnavigate the globe.
• It connects the south-western part of the Atlantic Ocean (Scotia Sea) with the
south-eastern part of the Pacific Ocean and extends into the Southern Ocean.
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https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/30/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-
summary-30-december-2019/
42. Consider the following statements regarding Youth Co:Lab
1. It was co-created by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
and the Citi Foundation.
2. Youth Co:Lab positions young people to solve the region’s most pressing
challenges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Youth Co:Lab positions young people front and center in order to solve the region’s most
pressing challenges. Co-created in 2017 by the United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP) and the Citi Foundation, Youth Co:Lab aims to establish a common agenda for
countries in the Asia-Pacific region to empower and invest in youth, so that they can
accelerate the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through
leadership, social innovation and entrepreneurship. Youth Co:Lab has been implemented
in 25 countries and territories across Asia Pacific: Australia, Bangladesh, Bhutan,
Cambodia, China, Fiji, Hong Kong (SAR), Indonesia, India, Japan, Malaysia, the
Maldives, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Samoa, Singapore, Solomon Islands,
South Korea, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Timor Leste, Vanuatu and Viet Nam.
• In a latest initiative to recognize young people as critical drivers of sustainable
development, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog and United Nations
Development Programme (UNDP) India on Friday launched Youth Co:Lab which
aims at accelerating social entrepreneurship and innovation in young India.
• To mark the launch, a Letter of Intent (LOI) was signed between AIM, NITI
Aayog and UNDP India.
• Through Youth Co:Lab, young entrepreneurs and innovators will get a chance to
connect with governments, mentors, incubators and investors, who will help equip
them with entrepreneurial skills.
• The initiative will also convene a series of youth dialogues across several cities such
as New Delhi, Hyderabad, Bangalore and Mumbai to promote entrepreneurship
across India.
• AIM and UNDP, as part of UNSDF signed between NITI Aayog and UN India,
are collaborating to spread awareness about different issues pertaining to youth, the
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future of work and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) through Youth
Co:Lab.
• The first phase of Youth Co:Lab will focus on six SDGs: SDG 5 (Gender Equality),
SDG 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation), SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), SDG
8 (Decent Work and Economic Growth), SDG 12 (Sustainable Consumption and
Production) and SDG 13 (Climate Action).
43. FutureSkills is an initiative of
(a) NASSCOM
(b) National Skill Development Corporation
(c) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)
Solution: A
Future Skills:
• As a host of emerging technologies change the future of work, a massive disruption
is facing the IT-ITES industry today. Of the 4.5 m people employed in the industry
today, 1.5 -2 m are expected to require reskilling in the next 4-5 years. A decoupling
of revenue and headcount growth is visible even today and employers and
employees need to adapt themselves to the changing job environment of
technological shifts and changing stakeholder expectations. The problem is too
large to be handled alone. It needs a collaborative industry level response. With
NASSCOM as the enabler, IT-ITeS Industry has stepped up to the challenge with
the FutureSkills Initiative – a truly industry driven learning ecosystem.
• NASSCOM FutureSkills was launched on 19th February 2018 in the presence of
senior industry leaders and government officials. The programme aims to reskill 2
million professionals and potential employees & students in the industry over a
period of 5 years. To do this, FutureSkills portal uses the technology of the future,
to create a space where a learner can access content on all the skills of the future.
A learner can seamlessly access free and paid content, assessments, virtual labs and
get certified on the skills of their choice.
• The platform is fueled by a curation engine that has the ability to trawl the massive
amount of high-quality learning content available on the web and funnel it in an
easy to consume format that’s meaningful and effective for the learners. It also has
a curation feature that allows Subject Matter Experts from Industry and academia
to contribute by curating content and learning pathways on these technologies.
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44. Consider the following statements regarding RISAT-2BR1
1. It is a radar imaging earth observation satellite
2. The life of the mission is 5 years.
3. It will be placed in the Geosynchronous orbit
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
• India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its fiftieth flight (PSLV-C48), has
successfully launched RISAT-2BR1 along with nine commercial satellites from the
Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota. This is PSLV’s 50th
successful mission and the 75th launch vehicle mission from SDSC SHAR,
Sriharikota.
What is RISAT-2BR1?
• It is a radar imaging earth observation satellite.
• It provides services in the field of agriculture, forestry and disaster management.
• Its mission life is 5 years.
• It will be placed in the low-earth orbit of 576 km at an inclination of 37 degrees.
Other satellites on board:
• The nine customer satellites were from Israel, Italy, Japan and the USA.
• These satellites were launched under a commercial arrangement with New Space
India Limited (NSIL).
Background:
• The RISAT, which was first deployed in orbit on April 20, 2009 as the RISAT-2,
uses synthetic aperture radars (SAR) to provide Indian forces with all-weather
surveillance and observation, which are crucial to notice any potential threat or
malicious activity around the nation’s borders.
• Following the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks, the launch of RISAT-2 was prioritised
over RISAT- 1, as its C-band SAR radar was not yet ready and RISAT -2 carried
an Israeli-built X-band radar.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/12/risat-2br1-2/
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45. Consider the following statements regarding Central Water Commission
1. It functions as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
2. It is a statutory body set up under the Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Central Water Commission is a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of
Water Resources and is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal
Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation,
Government of India.
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• The Commission is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating,
coordinating and furthering in consultation of the State Governments concerned,
schemes for control, conservation and utilization of water resources throughout the
country, for purpose of Flood Control, Irrigation, Navigation, Drinking Water
Supply and Water Power Development. It also undertakes the investigations,
construction and execution of any such schemes as required.
History:
• CWC (erstwhile Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commission) was
established in 1945 by the Government on the advice of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar,
Member (Labour) in Viceroy’s Executive Council. The credit for the establishment
of CWINC is attributed to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, under whose able guidance the
then Labour Department constituted the Commission. He not only raised the
concept and argued for the necessity of having such a technical body at the Centre
but also laid down its objectives, organisational structure and programme. The final
proposal for establishment of CWINC was prepared by the Department with the
help of Rai Bahadur A.N. Khosla, the Consulting Engineer for Irrigation. Dr.
Khosla was subsequently appointed as founder Chairman of the CWINC.
• Since then CWC has evolved as a premier technical organisation in the country in
the field of Water Resources and now has entered into 75thand to celebrate the
same several seminars, workshops & other activities have been planned throughout
the year. (Thus, important for this year)
• Central Water Commission CWC Central Water Commission CWC is headed by
a Chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India.
• The work of the Commission is divided among 3 wings namely, Designs and
Research (D&R) Wing, River Management (RM) Wing and Water Planning and
Projects (WP&P) Wing.
46. Consider the following statements regarding National Green Corps
1. It was launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development
2. It aims to provide opportunities for children to understand the environment
and environmental problems through school eco-clubs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
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Launched under the Environment Education Awareness and Training (EEAT), the
National Green Corps (NGC) popularly known as “a programme of Ecoclubs” is a
nationwide initiative of the Ministry of Environment & Forests, Government of India
(now Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change).
Objectives:
• To impart knowledge to school children, through hands-on experience, about their
immediate environment, interactions within it and the problems therein.
• To develop requisite skills of observation, experimentation, survey, recording,
analysis and reasoning for conserving the environment through various activities.
• To inculcate the proper attitude towards the environment and its conservation
through community interactions.
• To sensitize children to issues related to environment and development through
field visits and demonstrations.
• To promote logical and independent thinking among children so that they are able
to make the right choices in a spirit of scientific inquiry.
• To motivate and stimulate young minds by involving them in action projects
related to environmental conservation.
• To provide opportunities for children to understand the environment and
environmental problems through school eco-clubs.
Methodology:
• The scheme is being operated through Eco-clubs of 50-60 students having interest
in environment related issues, formed in member schools.
• Eco clubs are supervised by a Teacher In-charge, who is selected from among the
teachers of the member school.
• There is District Implementation and Monitoring Committee to supervise, organise
training for In-charge teachers, and monitor periodically the implementation of
scheme at the District level.
• There is a State Steering Committee for guidance, direction and to oversee the
implementation of the scheme.
• The State Nodal Agency coordinates the implementation of the scheme in the State
and organize related activities like training to Master Trainers.
• The National Steering Committee will give overall direction to the programme and
ensure linkages at all levels.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/24/national-green-corps-ecoclub/
47. Consider the following statements regarding Chief Commissioner for Persons with
Disabilities
1. It was established as non-statutory authority through the executive
resolution.
2. The Chief Commissioner can take suo-moto notice of non-implementation
of any rule, law, etc., meant for persons with disabilities.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities:
• The Chief Commissioner is an important statutory functionary, appointed under
Section 57 of the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of
Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995. The functions and duties of the Chief
Commissioner include: coordinating the work of state commissioners for persons
with disabilities, monitoring of utilisation of funds disbursed by the central
government, taking steps to safeguard rights and facilities made available to
persons with disabilities and also to look into complaints with respect to
deprivation of rights of persons with disabilities.
• The Chief Commissioner can also take suo moto notice of non-implementation of
any rule, law, etc., meant for persons with disabilities and is vested with the powers
of a civil court relating to summoning of witness, discovery, requistioning and
production of any document, etc.
48. Consider the following statements regarding eBkry portal
1. It has been launched by Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
2. It aims to enable online auction by banks of attached assets transparently
and cleanly for the improved realization of value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
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eBkry portal:
Union Finance Ministry has recently launched the eBkry e-auction portal.
Objective: To enable online auction by banks of attached assets transparently and
cleanly for the improved realization of value.
Key features:
• It is framework for promoting online auction of assets attached by the banks.
• It is equipped with the property search features and contains navigational links to
all PSBs e-auction sites.
• The framework aims to provide single-window access to information on properties.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/30/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-
summary-30-december-2019/
49. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva
Abhiyan
1. The program aims to provide assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal
care, free of cost, universally to all pregnant women on the 9th of every
month.
2. It has been launched by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
(MoHFW).
3. PMSMA guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to
women in their 1st / 2nd trimesters of pregnancy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan has been launched by the Ministry of
Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India. The program aims to
provide assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care, free of cost, universally to all
pregnant women on the 9th of every month.
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Hon’ble Prime Minister of India highlighted the aim and purpose of introduction of the
Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan in the 31st July 2016 episode of Mann Ki
Baat.
PMSMA guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their 2nd
/ 3rd trimesters of pregnancy at designated government health facilities.
The programme follows a systematic approach for engagement with private sector which
includes motivating private practitioners to volunteer for the campaign; developing
strategies for generating awareness and appealing to the private sector to participate in the
Abhiyan at government health facilities.
50. Consider the following statements regarding Satavahanas
1. The last ruler of this dynasty was Gautamiputra Satakarni.
2. They patronized both Buddhism and Brahmanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has discovered the earliest Sanskrit
inscription in South India. This is also an earliest epigraphic evidence (Epigraphy
is the study of ancient inscriptions) for the Saptamatrika cult.
• The discovery was made in Chebrolu village in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.
About the inscriptions found:
• It is in Sanskrit and in Brahmi characters.
• It was issued by Satavahana king Vijaya in 207 A.D.
• The inscription records construction of a prasada (temple), a mandapa (a pavilion
for public rituals) and consecration of images on southern side of temple by a
person named Kartika for merit of king at temple of Bhagavathi (Goddess)
Saktimatruka (Saptamatrika) at Tambrape (which is the ancient name of
Chebrolou).
• Chebrolu inscription of Satavahana king Vijaya issued in his 5th regnal year (207
A.D.) is also the earliest datable Sanskrit inscription from South India so far. Until
now the Nagarjunakonda inscription of Ikshavaku king Ehavala Chantamula
issued in his 11th regnal year (4th century A.D.) was considered the earliest
Sanskrit inscription in South India.
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Satavahanas:
• They are an ancient Indian dynasty based In the Deccan.
• They established their independent rule after the decline of the Mauryas.
• Their rule lasted for about 450 years.
• They were also known as the Andhras.
• The Puranas and the Nasik and Nanaghad inscriptions remain important sources
for the history of Satavahanas.
• The Satavahana kingdom mainly comprised the present-day Telangana, Andhra
Pradesh and Maharashtra. At different times, their rule extended to parts of
modern Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Karnataka. The dynasty had different
capital cities at different times, including Pratishthana (Paithan) and Amaravati
(Dharanikota).
• The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka.
• The greatest ruler of the Satavahana dynasty was Gautamiputra Satakarni.
• Last great ruler of this dynasty was Yajna sri Satkarni, who recovered Malwa &
northern coast of konkan from Shaka rulers (which was captured by Rudradaman
before)
• They patronized Buddhism and Brahmanism.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/28/south-indias-earliest-sanskrit-
inscription-found-in-ap/
DAY – 23 (InstaTest-23)
51. Consider the following statements regarding Eat Right Movement
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
2. It also aims to engage and enable citizens to improve their health and well-
being by making the right food choices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Western Railway’s Mumbai Central Terminus has become India’s first Eat Right
Station. Food Safety & Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has rated the station with
four stars.
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Background:
• The station was graded on the basis of food safety and hygiene, availability of
healthy diet, food handling at preparation and food waste management among
others.
• The food was certified and rated after a thorough inspection. ‘Eat Right Station’
is a part of the ‘Eat Right India’ initiative that was launched by FSSAI in 2018 to
help passengers make a healthy choice.
About Eat Right Movement:
• It was launched by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
• The movement aims to cut down salt/sugar and oil consumption by 30% in three
years.
• It also aims to engage and enable citizens to improve their health and well-being
by making the right food choices.
Measures in place:
• FSSAI has put in place robust regulatory measures under three major pillars: Eat
Safe, Eat Health and Eat Sustainably for the programme.
• FSSAI has prescribed a limit for Total Polar Compounds (TPC) at 25% in cooking
oil to avoid the harmful effects of reused cooking oil.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/05/eat-right-movement-campaign-2/
52. Consider the following statements regarding the features of Charter Act of 1813
1. It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India and China.
2. It authorized the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Charter Act of 1813
The features of this Act were as follows:
• It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was
thrown open to all British merchants. However, it continued the monopoly of the
company over trade in tea and trade with China.
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• It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in
India.
• It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of
enlightening the people.
• It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British
territories in India.
• It authorized the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons. They
could also punish the persons for not paying taxes.
53. Which of the following schedule deals with the provisions relating to the
administration of tribal areas?
(a) Fourth Schedule
(b) Eighth Schedule
(c) Sixth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule
Solution: C
Fourth Schedule
• Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
Fifth Schedule
• Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and
scheduled tribes.
Sixth Schedule
• Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Seventh Schedule
• Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union
List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Presently, the Union List
contains 98 subjects (originally 97), the State List contains 59 subjects (originally
66) and the Concurrent List contains 52 subjects (originally 47).
Eighth Schedule
• Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but
presently there are 22 languages.
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Ninth Schedule
• Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) of the state legislatures
dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the
Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st
Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the
ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court
ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to
judicial review.
54. Consider the following statements regarding National Company Law Appellate
Tribunal (NCLAT)
1. It was constituted under the Companies Act, 2013
2. It is the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against any
direction issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition
Commission of India (CCI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Government to set up National Company Law Appellate Tribunal Bench in Chennai.
About NCLAT:
• National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) was constituted under
Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Functions:
• It hears appeals against the orders of National Company Law Tribunal(s) (NCLT),
with effect from 1st June, 2016.
• It is the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by
NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).
• It is the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India under Section 202 and Section 211 of
IBC.
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• It is the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction
issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition Commission of India
(CCI).
Composition:
• The President of the Tribunal and the chairperson and Judicial Members of the
Appellate Tribunal shall be appointed after consultation with the Chief Justice of
India.
The Members of the Tribunal and the Technical Members of the Appellate Tribunal shall
be appointed on the recommendation of a Selection Committee consisting of:
1. Chief Justice of India or his nominee—Chairperson.
2. A senior Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of High Court— Member.
3. Secretary in the Ministry of Corporate Affairs—Member.
4. Secretary in the Ministry of Law and Justice—Member.
5. Secretary in the Department of Financial Services in the Ministry of Finance—
Member.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/03/national-company-law-appellate-
tribunal-nclat/
55. The phrase “assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the
Nation” is a part of
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Duties
Solution: A
The Preamble in its present form reads:
“We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute
India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and
to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all;
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FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the
Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do
HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS
CONSTITUTION”.
56. Consider the following statements regarding Loss of Citizenship by Renunciation
1. It has been prescribed under Article 11 of the Constitution.
2. Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration
renouncing his Indian citizenship.
3. If such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its
registration shall be withheld by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Loss of Citizenship
• The Citizenship Act (1955) prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether
acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation,
termination and deprivation:
By Renunciation
• Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his
Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to
be a citizen of India. However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which
India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government.
• Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that
person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of
eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship.
By Termination
• When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress,
undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his
Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not
apply during a war in which India is engaged.
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By Deprivation
It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if:
(a) the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud:
(b) the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India:
(c) the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during
a war;
(d) the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been
imprisoned in any country for two years; and
(e) the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years
Continuously.
57. Consider the following statements regarding Banking ombudsman scheme
1. It is an expeditious and inexpensive forum for bank customers for resolution
of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks.
2. All Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled
Primary Co-operative Banks are covered under the scheme.
3. The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by the Central
government to redress customer complaints against deficiency in certain
banking services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Solution: D
The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is an expeditious and inexpensive forum for bank
customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks. The
Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995. Presently the Banking Ombudsman
Scheme 2006 (As amended upto July 1, 2017) is in operation.
Who is a Banking Ombudsman?
• The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by the Reserve Bank of
India to redress customer complaints against deficiency in certain banking services
covered under the grounds of complaint specified under Clause 8 of the Banking
Ombudsman Scheme 2006 (As amended upto July 1, 2017).
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How many Banking Ombudsmen have been appointed and where are they located?
• As on date, twenty Banking Ombudsmen have been appointed with their offices
located mostly in state capitals. The addresses and contact details of the Banking
Ombudsman offices have been provided under Annex I of the Scheme.
Which are the banks covered under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006?
• All Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Primary
Co-operative Banks are covered under the Scheme.
What are the grounds of complaints?
• The Banking Ombudsman can receive and consider any complaint relating to the
following deficiency in banking services:
https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=24
58. Consider the following statements regarding the Article 20 of the Indian
constitution:
1. It is available for only Indian citizen.
2. It grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to legal
person like a company or a corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Protection in Respect of Conviction for Offences
Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused
person, whether citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or a corporation. It
contains three provisions in that direction:
(a) No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be (i) convicted of any offence except
for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act, nor
(ii) subjected to a penalty greater than that prescribed by the law in force at
the time of the commission of the act.
(b) No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the
same offence more than once.
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(c) No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be
compelled to be a witness against himself.
An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively (retroactively), that is,
upon acts already done or which increases the penalties for such acts. The enactment of
such a law is prohibited by the first provision of Article 20. However, this limitation is
imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws. In other words, a civil
liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively. Further, this provision prohibits only
conviction or sentence under an ex-post-facto criminal law and not the trial thereof.
Finally, the protection (immunity) under this provision cannot be claimed in case of
preventive detention or demanding security from a person.
The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of
law or a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before
departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.
The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and documentary
evidence. However, it does not extend to (i) compulsory production of material objects,
(ii) compulsion to give thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, and (iii)
compulsory exhibition of the body. Further, it extends only to criminal proceedings and
not to civil proceedings or proceedings which are not of criminal nature.
59. Consider the following statements regarding Indian federation
1. The term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
2. The Indian federal system is based on the ‘American model’ of federation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
The term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 of
the Constitution describes India as ‘Union of States’. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar,
the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ to indicate two
things:
(i) the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the
American federation; and
(ii) the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is union
because it is indestructible.
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The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American
model’. The ‘Canadian model’ differs fundamentally from the ‘American model’ in so far
as it establishes a very strong centre. The Indian federation resembles the Canadian
federation
(i) in its formation (i.e., by way of disintegration);
(ii) in its preference to the term ‘Union’ (the Canadian federation is also called a
‘Union’); and
(iii) in its centralizing tendency (i.e., vesting more powers in the centre vis-a-vis the
states).
60. Consider the following statements regarding Payment Banks
1. They cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services
activities
2. They are not bounded by the reserve requirement rules of RBI
3. Non-Banking Finance Companies and corporate Banking Correspondents
can setup Payment Banks
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Solution: D
Payments Banks are a new set of banks licensed by the Reserve Bank of India to further
financial inclusion by enabling them to provide
(i) small savings/ current accounts below Rs. 1 lakh
(ii), distribution of mutual funds, insurance products on a non risk sharing basis and
(iii) payments / remittance services to migrant labour workforce, low income households,
small businesses, other unorganised sector entities and other users through high volume-
low value transactions in deposits and payments / remittance services using a secured
technology-driven environment including issuance of prepaid cards etc.
Payments Banks are differentiated or restricted banks. The Payments Bank cannot set up
subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities (hire purchase,
leasing etc.) nor can it undertake lending business.
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It may choose to become a banking correspondent (BC) of another bank for credit and
other services which it cannot offer. Since liquidity is the most important aspect required
for such banks they will be bound by the reserve requirement rules of RBI (CRR, SLR
etc.).
Thus, apart from amounts maintained as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with the Reserve
Bank on its outside demand and time liabilities, the payments banks will be required to
invest minimum 75 per cent of its “demand deposit balances” in Statutory Liquidity
Ratio (SLR) eligible Government securities/treasury bills with maturity up to one year
and hold maximum 25 per cent in current and time/fixed deposits with other scheduled
commercial banks for operational purposes and liquidity management.
The existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment Instruments Issuers (PPI issuers) authorised
under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 (PSS Act) and other entities such
as Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), corporate Banking Correspondents (BCs),
mobile telephone companies, super-market chains, companies, real sector cooperatives
and public sector entities may apply to set up a Payments Bank.
Even banks can take equity stake in a Payments Bank to the extent permitted under
Section 19 (2) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
http://arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Payment_Banks
61. On which of the following grounds can President declare a national emergency?
1. Grounds of war
2. Armed rebellion
3. External aggression
4. Internal disturbance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: A
Grounds of Declaration
• Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the
security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed
rebellion. It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency
even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed
rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
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• The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external
aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a
proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation is in operation. This
provision was added by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975. When a national
emergency is declared on the ground of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression’, it is known
as ‘External Emergency’. On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of
‘armed rebellion’, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency’.
• A proclamation of national emergency may be applicable to the entire country or
only a part of it. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the president to limit
the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of India.
• Originally, the Constitution mentioned ‘internal disturbance’ as the third ground
for the proclamation of a National Emergency, but the expression was too vague
and had a wider connotation.
• Hence, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the words ‘armed rebellion’
for ‘internal disturbance’. Thus, it is no longer possible to declare a National
Emergency on the ground of ‘internal disturbance’ as was done in 1975 by the
Congress government headed by Indira Gandhi.
62. Consider the following statements regarding Committee of Privileges
1. The functions of this committee are semi-judicial in nature.
2. The committee has 25 members, 15 members from Lok Sabha and 10
members from Rajya Sabha committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Committee of Privileges
• The functions of this committee are semi-judicial in nature. It examines the cases
of breach of privileges of the House and its members and recommends
appropriate action.
• There are separate committees for Lok sabha and Rajya Sabha
• The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha committee
has 10 members.
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63. Consider the following statements regarding PM-Kisan Scheme
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme with 50% contribution from centre.
2. All Institutional Land holders are excluded from the scheme
3. The Common Service Centres (CSCs) have been authorized to do
registration of the farmers for the scheme upon payment of fees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
PM- KISAN Scheme
• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) is a Central Sector scheme
with 100% funding from Government of India.
• The Scheme is effective from 1.12.2018.
• Under the Scheme an income support of Rs.6000/- per year is provided to all
farmer families across the country in three equal installments of Rs.2000/- each
every four months.
• Definition of family for the Scheme is husband, wife and minor children.
• The entire responsibility of identification of beneficiary farmer families rests with
the State / UT Governments.
• The fund is directly transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.
• Farmers covered under the Exclusion Criteria of the Operational Guidelines are
not eligible for the benefit of the Scheme.
• For enrollment, the farmer is required to approach the local patwari / revenue
officer / Nodal Officer (PM-Kisan) nominated by the State Government.
• The Common Service Centres (CSCs) have also been authorized to do registration
of the farmers for the Scheme upon payment of fees.
• All Institutional Land holders are excluded from the scheme
https://pmkisan.gov.in/
64. Consider the following statements regarding composition of judges
1. The President determines the strength of a supreme court from time to time
depending upon its workload.
2. At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-four judges (one chief
justice and thirty-three other judges).
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Article 124: Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court
(1) There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until
Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.
COMPOSITION AND APPOINTMENT
• At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-four judges (one chief justice and
thirty-three other judges). In 2019, the centre notified an increase in the number
of Supreme Court judges from thirty-one to thirty-four, including the Chief
Justice of India. This followed the enactment of the Supreme Court (Number of
Judges) Amendment Act, 2019. Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was
fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). The Parliament has
increased this number of other judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in
1960, to seventeen in 1977, to twenty-five in 1986, to thirty in 2008 and to thirty-
three in 2019.
Article 216 in The Constitution Of India 1949
• 216 Constitution of High Courts Every High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice
and such other Judges as the President may from time to time deem it necessary to
appoint
• Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice and such
other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary to appoint.
Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to
the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength
of a high court from time to time depending upon its workload.
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65. Consider the following statements regarding District Planning Committee
1. Every state shall constitute at the district level, a district planning committee
2. The representation of these members in the committee should be in
proportion to the ratio between the rural and urban populations in the
district.
3. Four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee should be
elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities
in the district from amongst themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
District Planning Committee
Every state shall constitute at the district level, a district planning committee to consolidate
the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district, and to prepare a draft
development plan for the district as a whole. The state legislature may make provisions
with respect to the following:
The composition of such committees;
• The manner of election of members of such committees;
• The functions of such committees in relation to district planning; and
• The manner of the election of the chairpersons of such committees.
• The act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee
should be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and
municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. The representation of these
members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between the rural
and urban populations in the district.
• The chairperson of such committee shall forward the development plan to the state
government.
In preparing the draft development plan, a district planning committee shall
(a) Have regard to–
(i) matters of common interest between the Panchayats and Municipalities
including spatial planning, sharing of water other physical and natural
resources, the integrated development of infrastructure and
environmental conservation;
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(ii) the extent and type of available resources whether financial otherwise;
and
(b) Consult such institutions and organizations as the Governor may specify.
66. International Intellectual Property (IP) Index, sometime seen in the news, is
published by
(a) World intellectual property organisation
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) US Chambers of Commerce
Solution: D
India’s slipped to 40th position on the International Intellectual Property (IP) Index, which
analyses the IP climate in 53 global economies, this year, according to a report of US
Chamber of Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy Center. Last year India was ranked
at 36th position out of 50 countries.
The US, the UK, Sweden, France and Germany remained the top five economies on the
intellectual property index in 2019 retaining their spots from the last year.
“Since the release of the 2016 National IPR Policy, the Government of India has made a
focused effort to support investments in innovation and creativity through increasingly
robust IP protection and enforcement,” said Patrick Kilbride, Senior Vice President for the
Global Innovation Policy Center.
67. Consider the following statements regarding State Human Rights Commission
1. It can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects
mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III).
2. The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice or a Judge of a Supreme
Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Solution: A
The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of not only the
National Human Rights Commission but also a State Human Rights Commission at the
state level. Accordingly, twenty-six states have constituted the State Human Rights
Commissions through Official Gazette Notifications.
• A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights
only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the
Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. However,
if any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights
Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights
Commission does not inquire into that case.
• The State Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a
chairperson and two members. The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice
or a Judge of a High Court and members should be a serving or retired judge of a
High Court or a District Judge in the state with a minimum of seven years’
experience as District Judge and a person having knowledge or practical experience
with respect to human rights.
68. Consider the following statements regarding GOBAR-DHAN scheme
1. Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation has launched the GOBAR
(Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources) – DHAN scheme.
2. The scheme aims to positively impact village cleanliness and generate
wealth and energy from cattle and organic waste.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
GOBAR-DHAN scheme
• Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation has launched the GOBAR
(Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources) – DHAN scheme. The scheme is
being implemented as part of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin).
• The Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) comprises two main components for
creating clean villages – creating open defecation free (ODF) villages and
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managing solid and liquid waste in villages. With over 3.5 lakh villages, 374
districts and 16 States/UTsof the country being declared ODF, the stage is set for
ODF-plus activities, including measures to enhance Solid and Liquid Waste
Management (SLWM). The GOBAR-DHAN scheme, with its focus on keeping
villages clean, increasing the income of rural households, and generation of energy
from cattle waste, is an important element of this ODF-plus strategy.
Aim
• The scheme aims to positively impact village cleanliness and generate wealth and
energy from cattle and organic waste. The scheme also aims at creating new rural
livelihood opportunities and enhancing income for farmers and other rural people.
69. Consider the following statements regarding Nilavembu kudineer
1. It is a Siddha medicine
2. It provides protection against chikungunya virus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 no 2
Solution: C
Nilavembu kudineer is a siddha medicine which kills dengue virus, protects from
Chikungunya. The siddha drug showed significant antiviral activity,
immunomodulation.
(Tamil Nadu government had distributed nilavembu kudineer concoction to treat people
infected with dengue during the outbreak in late 2017)
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nilavembu-kudineer-kills-dengue-virus-
protects-from-chikungunya/article26161732.ece
70. Which of the following countries is/are members of OPEC?
1. Iran
2. Saudi Arabia
3. Russia
4. USA
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: B
Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC):
• The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in
Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five
countries namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and
Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.
• It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization.
• Currently, the Organization has a total of 13 Member Countries.
• The current OPEC members are the following: Algeria, Angola, Equatorial
Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, the Republic of the Congo,
Saudi Arabia (the de facto leader), the United Arab Emirates and Venezuela.
Ecuador, Indonesia and Qatar are members.
• OPEC’s objective is to co-ordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member
Countries, in order to secure fair and stable prices for petroleum producers; an
efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consuming nations; and a
fair return on capital to those investing in the industry.
• It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
• OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and
which shares the ideals of the organization.
What is the Opec+?
• Opec+ refers to the alliance of crude producers, who have been undertaking
corrections in supply in the oil markets since 2017.
• OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan,
Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.
What are their goals?
• The Opec and non-Opec producers first formed the alliance at a historic meeting
in Algiers in 2016.
• The aim was to undertake production restrictions to help resuscitate a flailing
market.
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71. The 6x6x6 strategy, sometimes seen in news is related to the tackling of:
(a) Anemia
(b) Malaria
(c) Covid -19
(d) Leprosy
Solution: A
The anemia control programme review indicated challenges in IFA supply chain
management, demand generation and monitoring. Considering, the slow progress i.e. less
than 1% per annum in reduction of anaemia from 2005 to 2015, the Government of India
has launched the Anemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) strategy under the Prime Minister’s
Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment (POSHAN) Abhiyaan and the targets
has been set to reduce anaemia by 3% per year.
The 6x6x6 strategy under AMB implies six age groups, six interventions and six
institutional mechanisms. The strategy focuses on ensuring supply chain, demand
generation and strong monitoring using the dashboard for addressing anemia, both due to
nutritional and non-nutritional causes.
(A) The six population groups under AMB strategy are:
1) Children (6-59 months)
2) Children (5-9 years)
3) Adolescents girls and boys (10-19 years)
4) Pregnant women
5) Lactating women
6) Women of Reproductive Age (WRA) group (15-49 years)
(B) The six interventions are:
1) Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation
2) Deworming
3) Intensified year-round Behaviour Change Communication (BCC) Campaign and
delayed cord clamping
4) Testing of anaemia using digital methods and point of care treatment,
5) Mandatory provision of Iron and Folic Acid fortified foods in Government funded
health programmes
6) Addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special
focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis and the six institutional
mechanisms.
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(C) The six institutional mechanisms are:
1) Inter-ministerial coordination
2) National AnemiaMukt Bharat Unit
3) National Centre of Excellence and Advanced research on Anemia Control
4) Convergence with other ministries
5) Strengthening supply chain and logistics
6) Anemia Mukt Bharat Dashboard and Digital Portal- one-stop shop for Anemia.
This comprehensive strategy is expected to yield positive results in Anemia control.
72. Consider the following statements regarding ‘UMMID’ initiative
1. It is an initiative of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. It is an initiative to tackle inherited genetic diseases of new born babies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
‘UMMID’ initiative
• Ministry of Science & Technology launches ‘UMMID’ initiative to tackle
inherited genetic diseases of new born babies.
UMMID (Unique Methods of Management and treatment of Inherited Disorders)
initiative:
• Department of Biotechnology has started the UMMID Initiative which is
designed on the concept of ‘Prevention is better than Cure’.
• UMMID aims to create awareness about genetic disorders amongst clinicians
and establish molecular diagnostics in hospitals so that the fruits of developments
in medical genetics reach the patients in India.
UMMID initiative aims to:
• Establish NIDAN (National Inherited Diseases Administration) Kendras to
provide counselling, prenatal testing and diagnosis, management, and
multidisciplinary care in Government Hospitals wherein the influx of patients is
more.
• Produce skilled clinicians in Human Genetics.
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• Undertake screening of pregnant women and new born babies for inherited genetic
diseases in hospitals at aspirational districts.
73. Aureofungin, Kasugamycin and Validamycin, sometimes seen in news, are:
(a) Pesticides
(b) New butterfly species found in Western Ghats
(c) Bacterial diseases prevalent in wild animals
(d) New elements added to periodic table.
Solution: A
Aureofungin, Kasugamycin, Validamycin and Streptomycin+ Tetracycline
combination are antibiotics that are registered under the Insecticide Act 1968 for use as
pesticides to combat certain fungal and bacterial diseases in plants.
Pesticides are toxic substances but they do not pose any adverse effect on human beings,
animals and the environment if they are used as per the label and leaflet approved by the
Central Insecticide Board and Registration Committee.
Extra Learning:
Central Insecticide Board and Registration Committee:
• The CIBRC is the country’s apex body that approves the use of pesticides.
The use of pesticides and insecticides in India are regulated by the Following two:
1) Insecticides Act, 1968
2) Insecticides Rules, 1971
In the Act and the Rules framed thereunder, there is compulsory registration of the
pesticides at the Central level and licence for their manufacture, formulation and sale are
dealt with at the State level.
The CIBRC functions under the Department of Agriculture, Ministry of Agriculture and
Farmers’ Welfare.
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74. Consider the following statements regarding The United Nations Conference on
Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
1. UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the
United Nations General Assembly and forms a part of the United Nations
Development Group.
2. It reports to the UN General Assembly and the Economic and Social
Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
UNCTAD in the UN system
• UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United
Nations General Assembly in 1964. Our headquarters are located in Geneva,
Switzerland, and have offices in New York and Addis Ababa.
• UNCTAD is part of the UN Secretariat. We report to the UN General Assembly
and the Economic and Social Council but have our own membership, leadership,
and budget. We are also part of the United Nations Development Group.
• Globalization, including a phenomenal expansion of trade, has helped lift millions
out of poverty. But not nearly enough people have benefited. And tremendous
challenges remain.
• We support developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy
more fairly and effectively. And we help equip them to deal with the potential
drawbacks of greater economic integration. To do this, we provide analysis,
facilitate consensus-building, and offer technical assistance. This helps them to use
trade, investment, finance, and technology as vehicles for inclusive and sustainable
development.
75. Consider the following statements regarding the Purana Qila:
1. The massive gateway and walls of the Qila were built by Mughal ruler
Jahangir.
2. The PGW (Painted Gray Ware Pottery) was recovered from the site.
3. It is located on the banks of river Betwa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
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(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Solution: A
The Government/Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) will set up a museum at Purana
Quila to house objects excavated from across India which have been lying in the Central
Antiquities Collection (CAC).
• Built on the site of the most ancient of the numerous cities of Delhi, Indraprastha,
Purana Quila is roughly rectangular in shape having a circuit of nearly two
kilometers.
• The thick ramparts crowned by merlons have three gateways provided with
bastions on either side. It was surrounded by a wide moat, connected to river
Yamuna, which used to flow on the east of the fort. The northern gate way, called
the Talaqui darwaza or the forbidden gateway, combines the typically Islamic
pointed arch with Hindu Chhatris and brackets; whereas the southern gateway
called the Humayun Darwaza also had a similar plan.
• The massive gateway and walls of Purana Quila were built by Humayun and the
foundation laid for the new capital, Dinpanah.
• The work was carried forward by Sher Shah Suri,who displaced Humayun, Purana
Quila is the venue for the spectacular sound and light show held every evening.
• Excavations have revealed that the Purana Quila stands at the site of Indraprastha,
the capital of the Pandavas. Excavations near one of the walls of the fort show that
the site had been occupied since 1000 B.C.
• The PGW (Painted Gray Ware Pottery) recovered from the site date back to
around 1000 B.C.
http://delhitourism.gov.in/delhitourism/tourist_place/purana_quila.jsp
• The Central Antiquity Collection Section is a centre for housing the collection of
antiquities explored and excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• The CAC is under the ASI and the artefacts stored here are accessible only to
researchers.
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DAY – 24 (InstaTest-24)
76. Consider the following statements regarding Gangetic river dolphins
1. The Gangetic river dolphins can only live in freshwater
2. They are found in parts of the Ganges-Meghna-Brahmaputra and
Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems
3. They have been included in Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection)
Act 1972
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
The government is planning to launch a programme called “Project Dolphin”, along the
lines of “Project Tiger” to enhance the population of these dolphins.
Protection status:
• Dolphins have been included in Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection)
Act 1972, in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species (CITES), in Appendix II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
and categorised as ‘Endangered’ on the International Union for the Conservation
of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.
Gangetic river dolphins:
• The Gangetic river dolphins can only live in freshwater, are blind and catch their
prey in a unique manner, using ultrasonic sound waves.
• They are distributed across seven states in India: Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• The Ganges river dolphin is found in parts of the Ganges-Meghna-Brahmaputra
and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems in India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/17/project-dolphin/
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77. Consider the following statements regarding taxation during mahajanapadas
1. Taxes on crops were the most important and it was fixed at 1/6th of the
produce.
2. There were taxes on crafts persons and it was in the form of labour.
3. Hunters and gatherers were not taxed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Solution: A
The Mahajanapadas were sixteen kingdoms or oligarchic republics that existed in ancient
India from the sixth to fourth centuries BCE.
Taxes
As the rulers of the mahajanapadas were
(a) building huge forts
(b) maintaining big armies, they needed more resources.
• And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional
gifts brought by people, as in the case of the raja of the janapadas, they started
collecting regular taxes.
• Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were
farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known
as bhaga or a share.
• There were taxes on crafts persons as well. These could have been in the form of
labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every
month for the king.
• Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce.
• There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade.
• And hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja.
78. Consider the following statements regarding the Upanishads
1. These were part of the later Vedic texts
2. There were no women Upanishadic thinkers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Aaranyak and Upanishad are last part of Brahman Granth which ponders over
philosophical questions. These throw light on religious and culture life of early Hindus.
Many of their ideas were recorded in the Upanishads. These were part of the later Vedic
texts. Upanishad literally means ‘approaching and sitting near’ and the texts contain
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conversations between teachers and students. Often, ideas were presented through simple
dialogues.
Most Upanishadic thinkers were men, especially brahmins and rajas. Occasionally, there
is mention of women thinkers, such as Gargi, who was famous for her learning, and
participated in debates held in royal courts. Poor people rarely took part in these
discussions. One famous exception was Satyakama Jabala, who was named after his
mother, the slave woman Jabali. He had a deep desire to learn about reality, was accepted
as a student by a brahmin teacher named Gautama, and became one of the best-known
thinkers of the time.
79. Consider the following statements regarding National Ganga Council (NGC)
1. It was formed under Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairperson for the NGC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Review meeting of the National Ganga Council was recently held.
About Namami Gange Programme:
• It is an umbrella programme which integrates previous and currently ongoing
initiatives by enhancing efficiency, extracting synergies and supplementing them
with more comprehensive & better coordinated interventions.
• Implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state
counterparts—State Programme Management Groups.
National Ganga Council (NGC):
• Created in October 2016 under the River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and
Management) Authorities Order, 2016, dissolving the National Ganga River Basin
Authority.
• Headed by the Prime Minister.
• It replaced the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).
• The National Ganga Council is formed under the Environment (Protection) Act
(EPA),1986.
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• NGC would have on board the chief ministers of five Ganga basin states—
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh (UP), Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal—besides
several Union ministers and it was supposed to meet once every year.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/16/namami-gange-2/
80. Consider the following statements regarding Arthasastra
1. This book was written in Sanskrit language by Kautilya.
2. The manuscript of Arthasastra was first discovered by R. Shama Sastri.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Kautilya’s Arthasastra
• This book in Sanskrit was written by Kautilya, a contemporary of Chandragupta
Maurya. Kautilya was also called ‘Indian Machiavelli’. The manuscript of
Arthasastra was first discovered by R. Shama Sastri in 1904.
• The Arthasastra contains 15 books and 180 chapters but it can be divided into three
parts: the first deals with the king and his council and the departments of
government; the second with civil and criminal law; and the third with diplomacy
and war. It is the most important literary source for the history of the Mauryas.
81. Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural technologies during
Harappan periods
1. Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in Cholistan and
at Banawali.
2. Evidence of a ploughed field was found at Kalibangan.
3. Traces of canals have been found at Shortughai in Afghanistan
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Agricultural technologies
• While the prevalence of agriculture is indicated by finds of grain, it is more difficult
to reconstruct actual agricultural practices. Were seeds broadcast (scattered) on
ploughed lands? Representations on seals and terracotta sculpture indicate that the
bull was known, and archaeologists extrapolate from this that oxen were used for
ploughing. Moreover, terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in
Cholistan and at Banawali (Haryana).
• Archaeologists have also found evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan
(Rajasthan), associated with Early Harappan levels. The field had two sets of
furrows at right angles to each other, suggesting that two different crops were grown
together.
• Archaeologists have also tried to identify the tools used for harvesting. Did the
Harappans use stone blades set in wooden handles or did they use metal tools?
• Most Harappan sites are located in semi-arid lands, where irrigation was probably
required for agriculture. Traces of canals have been found at the Harappan site of
Shortughai in Afghanistan, but not in Punjab or Sind.
82. Consider the following statements regarding Adaptation fund
1. It was set up under the Kyoto Protocol
2. It finances projects and programmes that help vulnerable communities in
developing countries adapt to climate change.
3. The Fund is supervised and managed by United Nations Environment
Program (UNEP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
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The latest data show that since 2010, the Adaptation Fund has directed $532 million to 80
concrete adaptation projects in the most vulnerable communities of developing countries,
serving 5.8 million direct beneficiaries.
What is Adaptation fund?
• Established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UN Framework Convention on
Climate Change.
• It finances projects and programmes that help vulnerable communities in
developing countries adapt to climate change.
• Initiatives are based on country needs, views and priorities.
Financing:
• The Fund is financed in part by government and private donors, and also from a
two percent share of proceeds of Certified Emission Reductions (CERs) issued
under the Protocol’s Clean Development Mechanism projects.
Governance:
• The Fund is supervised and managed by the Adaptation Fund Board (AFB). The
AFB is composed of 16 members and 16 alternates and meets at least twice a year.
• The World Bank serves as trustee of the Adaptation Fund on an interim basis.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/07/adaptation-fund/
83. Who among the following is known as Father of Indian archaeology?
(a) James Princep
(b) Max Mueller
(c) Sir William Jones
(d) Alexander Cunningham
Solution: D
The plight of Harappa
• Although Harappa was the first site to be discovered, it was badly destroyed by
brick robbers. As early as 1875, Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General
of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), often called the father of Indian
archaeology, noted that the amount of brick taken from the ancient site was enough
to lay bricks for “about 100 miles” of the railway line between Lahore and Multan.
Thus, many of the ancient structures at the site were damaged. In contrast,
Mohenjodaro was far better preserved.
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84. Consider the following statements regarding inscriptions
1. Asoka was the first ruler who inscribed his messages to his subjects and
officials on stone surfaces.
2. He used the inscriptions to proclaim what he understood to be Dhamma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
• Asoka was the first ruler who inscribed his messages to his subjects and officials on
stone surfaces – natural rocks as well as polished pillars. He used the inscriptions
to proclaim what he understood to be dhamma. This included respect towards
elders, generosity towards Brahmanas and those who renounced worldly life,
treating slaves and servants kindly, and respect for religions and traditions other
than one’s own.
85. Consider the following pairs
Sea Shares border with
1. Aral Sea : Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan
2. Red Sea : Saudi Arabia and Oman
3. Black Sea : Turkey and Russia
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Solution: D
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86. Consider the following statements regarding Prayaga Prashasti
1. It was composed in Sanskrit by Harishena, the court poet of Samudragupta.
2. It describes the circumstances of Samudragupta’s accession, his military
campaigns in north India and the Deccan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The Prayaga Prashasti (also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription) composed in
Sanskrit by Harishena, the court poet of Samudragupta, arguably the most powerful of the
Gupta rulers (c. fourth century CE), is a case in point.
The most important source for the reign of Samudragupta is the Allahabad Pillar
inscription. It describes his personality and achievements. This inscription is engraved on
an Asokan pillar. It is written in classical Sanskrit, using the Nagari script. It consists of
33 lines composed by Harisena. It describes the circumstances of Samudragupta’s
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accession, his military campaigns in north India and the Deccan, his relationship with
other contemporary rulers, and his accomplishments as a poet and scholar.
87. Consider the following statements regarding Coins
1. The first gold coins were issued by the Guptas.
2. The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the
Indo-Greeks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Coins and kings
• To some extent, exchanges were facilitated by the introduction of coinage. Punch-
marked coins made of silver and copper (c. sixth century BCE onwards) were
amongst the earliest to be minted and used.
• These have been recovered from excavations at a number of sites throughout the
subcontinent. Numismatists have studied these and other coins to reconstruct
possible commercial networks. Attempts made to identify the symbols on
punchmarked coins with specific ruling dynasties, including the Mauryas, suggest
that these were issued by kings. It is also likely that merchants, bankers and
townspeople issued some of these coins.
• The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-
Greeks, who established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent c.
second century BCE.
• The first gold coins were issued c. first century CE by the Kushanas. These were
virtually identical in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman emperors
and the Parthian rulers of Iran, and have been found from several sites in north
India and Central Asia.
88. Consider the following statements
1. Indus Water Treaty was brokered by the World Bank
2. As per the treaty, control over three eastern rivers Ravi, Beas and Sutlej was
given to Pakistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
The Indus Waters Treaty is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan,
brokered by the World Bank to use the water available in the Indus System of Rivers
located in India.
• The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) was signed in Karachi on September 19, 1960 by
the first Prime Minister of India Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and then President of
Pakistan Ayub Khan.
• According to this agreement, control over the water flowing in three “eastern
rivers” of India — the Beas, the Ravi and the Sutlej with the mean annual flow of
33 million acre-feet (MAF) — was given to India, while control over the water
flowing in three “western rivers” of India — the Indus, the Chenab and the Jhelum
with the mean annual flow of 80 MAF — was given to Pakistan.
89. Consider the following statements regarding Middle Stone Age
1. Stone tools often more than five centimeters in size, called microliths were
found.
2. There seems to have been a shift from small animal hunting to big animal
hunting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Mesolithic or Middle Stone Age
• The next stage of human life is called Mesolithic or Middle Stone Age which falls
roughly from 10000 B.C. to 6000 B.C. It was the transitional phase between the
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Paleolithic Age and Neolithic Age. Mesolithic remains are found in Langhanj in
Gujarat, Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh and also in some places of Rajasthan,
Utter Pradesh and Bihar. The paintings and engravings found at the rock shelters
give an idea about the social life and economic activities of Mesolithic people. In
the sites of Mesolithic Age, a different type of stone tools is found. These are tiny
stone artifacts, often not more than five centimeters in size, and therefore called
microliths. The hunting-gathering pattern of life continued during this period.
• However, there seems to have been a shift from big animal hunting to small animal
hunting and fishing. The use of bow and arrow also began during this period. Also,
there began a tendency to settle for longer periods in an area. Therefore,
domestication of animals, horticulture and primitive cultivation started. Animal
bones are found in these sites and these include dog, deer, boar and ostrich.
Occasionally, burials of the dead along with some microliths and shells seem to
have been practiced.
90. Consider the following statements regarding economic conditions during Rig Vedic
periods
1. The Rig Vedic Aryans were pastoral people.
2. Their wealth was estimated in terms of their cattle.
3. Workers in metal made a variety of articles with copper, bronze and iron.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Economic Condition
• The Rig Vedic Aryans were pastoral people and their main occupation was cattle
rearing. Their wealth was estimated in terms of their cattle. When they
permanently settled in North India they began to practice agriculture. With the
knowledge and use of iron they were able to clean forests and bring more lands
under cultivation. Carpentry was another important profession and the availability
of wood from the forests cleared made the profession profitable. Carpenters
produced chariots and ploughs. Workers in metal made a variety of articles with
copper, bronze and iron.
• Spinning was another important occupation and cotton and woolen fabrics were
made. Goldsmiths were active in making ornaments. The potters made various
kinds of vessels for domestic use. Trade was another important economic activity
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and rivers served as important means of transport. Trade was conducted on barter
system. In the later times, gold coins called nishka were used as media of exchange
in large transactions.
91. Xaxa committee, sometime seen in the news, is related to
(a) Scheduled Caste
(b) Scheduled Tribes
(c) Minorities
(d) None of the above
Solution: B
The Government has set up a high level Committee (Xaxa Committee) to look into the
current socio-economic, health and educational status of tribals in the country.
• The objective of Committee was to prepare a position paper on the present socio-
economic, health and educational status of Scheduled Tribes and suggest a way
forward.
• The Committee’s objective was also to suggest policy initiative as well as effective
outcome-oriented measures to improve development indicators and strengthen
public service delivery to STs and other tribal population.
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=112080
92. Consider the following statements regarding Bimbisara
1. Bimbisara was a contemporary of Vardhamana Mahavira and Gautama
Buddha.
2. Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
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Bimbisara (546 – 494 B.C.)
• Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty. He consolidated his position by
matrimonial alliances. His first matrimonial alliance was with the ruling family of
Kosala. He married Kosaladevi, sister of Prasenajit. He was given the Kasi region
as dowry which yielded large revenue. Bimbisara married Chellana, a princess of
the Licchavi family of Vaisali. This matrimonial alliance secured for him the safety
of the northern frontier. Moreover, it facilitated the expansion of Magadha
northwards to the borders of Nepal. He also married Khema of the royal house of
Madra in central Punjab. Bimbisara also undertook many expeditions and added
more territories to his empire. He defeated Brahmadatta of Anga and annexed that
kingdom. He maintained friendly relations with Avanti. He had also efficiently
reorganized the administration of his kingdom.
• Bimbisara was a contemporary of both Vardhamana Mahavira and Gautama
Buddha. However, both religions claim him as their supporter and devotee. He
seems to have made numerous gifts to the Buddhist Sangha.
93. Consider the following statements regarding book Gathasaptasati
1. It was written by Simuka, founder of the Satavahana dynasty.
2. It contains around 700 verses in Prakrit language.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. He was succeeded by Krishna, who
extended the kingdom up to Nasik in the west. The third king was Sri Satakarni. He
conquered western Malwa and Berar. He also performed asvamedha sacrifices. The
seventeenth king of the Satavahana dynasty was Hala. He reigned for a period of five
years. Hala became famous for his book Gathasaptasati, also called Sattasai. It contains
700 verses in Prakrit language.
94. Consider the following statements regarding Most Favoured Nation Status
1. It refers to the phenomenon where any country grants one country a special
favour such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products the same
would need to be extended to all other WTO members.
2. It applies only to trading of goods between the countries.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 no 2
Solution: A
• Under the World Trade Organisation (WTO) agreements, countries cannot
normally discriminate between their trading partners.
• If any country grants one country a special favour such as a lower customs duty
rate for one of their products the same would need to be extended to all other WTO
members. This principle is known as most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment.
• MFN is so important a principle that it is the first article of the General Agreement
on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which governs trade in goods. MFN is also a
priority in the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS) (Article 2) and
the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPS) (Article 4). Together, those three agreements cover all three main areas of
trade handled by the WTO.
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Most-favoured-nation_(MFN)
95. During the period of Guptas, the designation ‘Sandivigraha’ was used for
(a) Minister for foreign affairs
(b) Chief minister
(c) Commander-in-chief
(d) Minister for taxes
Solution: A
According inscriptions, the Gupta kings assumed titles like Paramabhattaraka,
Maharajadhiraja, Parameswara, Samrat and Chakravartin. The king was assisted in his
administration by a council consisting of a chief minister, a Senapati or commander-in-
chief of the army and other important officials. A high official called Sandivigraha was
mentioned in the Gupta inscriptions, most probably minister for foreign affairs.
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96. Consider the following statements regarding Human Space Flight Programme
(HSP)
1. It is a proposal by ISRO to develop and launch the ISRO Orbital Vehicle,
which would carry crew members to geosynchronous orbit.
2. The spaceship would be launched by the GSLV Mk-III launcher.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
The Indian Human Spaceflight Programme (HSP) is a proposal by ISRO to develop and
launch the ISRO Orbital Vehicle, which would carry a two-member crew to the Low
Earth Orbit.
• The programme envisages the development of a fully autonomous orbital vehicle
carrying two crew members to about 300 km low earth orbit and their safe return.
• The spaceship would be launched by the GSLV MkIII launcher. Pre-project
activities have been initiated to study and develop critical technologies for this
mission
https://www.vssc.gov.in/VSSC/index.php/advanced-technologies/human-space-flight
97. Consider the following statements regarding book Ashtangasamgraha
1. Susruta was the author of Ashtangasamgraha.
2. It contains summary of the eight branches of medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
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In the field of medicine, Vagbhata lived during this period. He was the last of the great
medical trio of ancient India. The other two scholars Charaka and Susruta lived before
the Gupta age. Vagbhata was the author Ashtangasamgraha (Summary of the eight
branches of medicine).
98. Which of the following organizations has launched World Vision Report?
(a) World Health Organization
(b) Doctors without borders
(c) World Vision International
(d) International Agency for the Prevention of Blindness (IAPB)
Solution: A
The first-ever World Vision Report was recently released by WHO.
Highlights of Report:
• More than a quarter of the world’s population — some 2.2 billion people — suffer
from vision impairment.
• Presbyopia, a condition in which it is difficult to see nearby objects, affects 1.8
billion people. This condition occurs with advancing age.
• Trachoma is caused due to bacterial infection in the eye. Many countries have
eliminated it, including India.
• The prevalence of vision impairment in low- and middle-income regions was
estimated by the report to be four times higher than in high-income regions
• Myopia is the highest in high-income countries of the Asia-Pacific region (53.4 per
cent), closely followed by East Asia (51.6 per cent).
99. Consider the following statements regarding Megalithic Burials
1. The Iron Age of the southern peninsula is often related to Megalithic
Burials.
2. Black and red pottery, iron artifacts such as hoes and sickles and small
weapons were found in the burial pits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Solution: C
The Iron Age of the southern peninsula is often related to Megalithic Burials. Megalith
means Large Stone. The burial pits were covered with these stones. Such graves are
extensively found in South India. Some of the important megalithic sites are Hallur and
Maski in Karnataka, Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh and Adichchanallur in Tamil
Nadu. Black and red pottery, iron artifacts such as hoes and sickles and small weapons
were found in the burial pits.
100. Consider the following the statements regarding Rangdum monastery:
1. It is located in the state of Sikkim
2. It is a Tibetan Buddhist monastery belonging to the Gelugpa sect
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Rangdum Monastery is a Tibetan Buddhist monastery belonging to the Gelugpa sect,
situated on top of a small but steep sugarloaf hill at an altitude of 4,031 m at the head of
the Suru Valley, in Ladakh. It is next to the tiny village of Julidok, and about 25 km from
the 4,400 m Pensi La, which leads into Zanskar
Extra Learning:
The Gelugpa (Gelug) Sect was founded by Tsongkhapa, a reformist monk and a great
Tibetan scholar, and headed by the Dalai Lama. Tsongkhapa (1357-1419) began studying
with a local Sakya lama at a very young age. He travelled to central Tibet and studied in
all the major monasteries acquiring knowledge about philosophy, Tibetan medicine,
Mahamurda practices, and Atisha’s tantric yoga.
Tsongkhapa was particularly inspired by Madhyamika teachings of Nagarjuna. He
preached monastic discipline and encouraged return to the conservative doctrines of
Buddhism. Regarded as the manifestation of Bodhisattva of Wisdom, Jampelyan
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(Manjushri), Tsongkhapa’s followers built him the Ganden Monastery in Netang near
Lhasa in 1409. After his death, Tsongkhapa’s students built a new school of Tibetan
Buddhism based on his teachings and named it ‘Gelug’ which means virtuous tradition.
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