SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala) 2010- 2017

SET Botany (Kerala)

Previous Question Papers

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Previous Question Papers

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10036 120 MINUTES 1. In Wheat and rice

A) Pericarp is fused with seed coat B) Fruits are multi seeded

C) Perisperm is fused with seed coat D) Seed coat and pericarp are separate

2. In gymnosperms, the endosperm is

A) Polyploid B) Haploid C) Triploid D) Diploid

3. ‘Gamma garden’ is used for A) Growing plantlets produced by tissue culture B) Eradicating pathogen from infected plants C) Growing genetically engineered plants on trial basis D) Mutation breeding for crop improvement. 4. Which one of the following is the botanical name of oil palm? A) Olea europea B) Carthamus tinctorius C) Elaeis guineensis D) Cocos nucifera 5. The solute most abundant in phloem sap is A) Amino Acids B) Sugar

C) Hormones D) Minerals 6. The metal component of Nitrogenase enzyme is A) Manganese B) Molybdenum

C) Copper D) Zinc 7. The random changes in gene frequency occurring by chance and the effect of

which is large in small populations is called A) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium B) Pasteur effect C) Genetic drift D) Haldane effect 8. In mosses, primary protonema is A) Haploid and gametophytic B) Diploid and sporophytic C) Haploid and sporophytic D) Diploid and gametophytic 9. “Red rot” of sugarcane is caused by A) Fusarium B) Alternaria

C) Ustilago D) Colletorichum 10. RNA molecules that possess catalytic activity are known as A) Ribozymes B) Ribosomes C) Polyribosomes D) Polysomes


11. Glycolysis and TCA Cycle operate in A) Photorespiration B) β-oxidation

C) α-oxidation D) Dark respiration

12. ‘Senna’ is obtained from the plant A) Cassia fistula B) Cassia alata

C) Cassia angustifolia D) Cassia tora 13. `Iris moss' is

A) Chondrus B) Hydrodictyon C) Funaria D) Sphagnum

14. One of the following trees is endemic to India A) Tectona grandis B) Artocarpus integrifolia

C) Ficus religiosa D) Azadirachta indica 15. Late blight of potato is caused by A) Alternaria solani B) Phytophthora infestans C) Pseudomonas solanacearum D) Albugo bliti 16. The only plant hormone that is not translocated from the cells producing it A) Auxin B) Ethylene C) Cytokinin D) Gibberellic acid 17. Nepenthes thaliana, a rare endangered pitcher plant occurs in India in A) Madhya Pradesh B) Meghalaya C) Himachal Pradesh D) Andhra Pradesh 18. One chambered dry dehiscent fruit that dehisces along both the sutures is A) Siliqua B) Follicle

C) Capsule D) Legume 19. The roots of plant yielding Aswagandha which are used in the treatment of rheumatism, inflammation and skin lesion is A) Curcuma amada B) Rauwolfia serpentina

C) Cinchona officinalis D) Withania somnifera 20. The seven volumes of the “Flora of British India “was compiled by

A) William Hooker B) J. D. Hooker C) Bentham D) Gamble

21. The use of gamma rays from a cobalt source for control of microorganisms in food A) Radiation B) Radappertization

C) Radurzation D) Ionization 22. Botanical name of finger millet is

A) Poinsettum americanum B) Paspalum scorbiculatum C) Setaria italica D) Eleucine coracana

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23. The production of fruits without fertilization is A) Parthenogenesis B) Apomixis C) Parthenocarpy D) Pseudocarpy 24. The family Lamiaceae is characterized by the inflorescence

A) Scorpiod cyme B) Helicoid cyme C) Verticellaster D) Cyathium 25. Which of the following trait shows mendelian inheritance as a dominant gene in

man A) Presence of dimples B) Colour blindness

C) Both D) None 26. Elators and pseudoelators in the capsules of bryophyte are meant for A) Nutrient absorption B) Water conduction

C) Spore dispersal D) Mechanical support 27. In Smilax tendrils are A) Modified stipules B) Modified leaf C) Modified petiole D) Modified leaflet 28. Genes with intervening sequences

A) Introns B) Split genes C) Exons D) Pseudo genes

29. A research technique to modify a gene in a predetermined way

A) Site directed mutagensis B) Cloning C) rDNA technique D) Western blotting

30. In eukaryotes the ribosomal RNA genes are transcribed by

A) Reverse transcriptase B) RNA dependent RNA polymerase C) RNA polymerase 1 D) RNA polymerase 2 31. Floral formula of Hibicus rosasinensis is

A) O ♀ Epi K6-8 K(5)C5A(∞)G5 B) O ♀ Epi(5) K(5)C5A(∞)G(5-∞) C) O ♀ Epi 3 K(5)C5A(∞)G5 D) O ♀ Epi K3 K(5)C3A(∞)G∞ 32. Vegetative propagating part of Sugarcane is called

A) Suckers B) Setts C) Scion D) All of the above 33. Antibody diversity is generated by A) Protein splicing B) Somatic recombination

C) Mutation D) Allelic exclusion 34. Example of an aggregate fruit A) Pine apple B) Custard apple C) Apple D) Orange


35. FASTA program was first described by A) Adach & Hasegawa B) Lipman & Pearson C) Kyte and Dolittle D) Fitch & Margoliash 36. An important feature of the genetic code which allows the expression of a protein

in any host is its A) Degeneracy B) Universality C) Redundancy D) Triplet nature. 37. Muller’s CIB method was used to detect A) Sex linked mutation

B) Sex linked lethal mutations C) Autosomal dominant mutation

D) Autosomal recessive mutation 38. Gynostegium relates to

A) Fusion of stamens with gynoecium B) Fusion of stamens with stigmatic disc C) Fusion of gynoecium with anther D) Fusion of gynoecium with filaments 39. Venketraman Ramakrishnan has got Nobel Prize for the detailed mapping of

A) Small subunit of ribosome from Thermos thermophilus. B) Large ribosomal subunit of the ribosome of Geobacillus tearothermophilus.

C) Large ribosomal subunit of Pyrococcus abyssi. D) Small subunit of ribosome of Pyrodictium occultum. 40. The transgenic plant which is developed by anit-sense RNA technology. A) Golden rice B) Bt cotton C) Flavr Savr tomato D) Both A and C 41. The non motile male spermatia are carried to the female by means of water

currents in A) Fucus B) Polysiphonia C) Chara D) Vaucheria 42. X-ray scattering from an atom depends on the number of A) Electrons B) Protons C) Neutrons D) All of these 43. The most famous X-helix polypeptide secondary structure is A) Left handed B) Circular C) Right handed D) Branched 44. RNA – DNA hybrid always adopt A form because of A) Steric hindrance of – OH group in RNA B) Steric hindrance of – OH group in DNA C) Coiling of the molecule D) Presence of Uracil base in RNA


45. Chlorella will fulfill the need of all vitamins except A) Ascorbic acid B) Biotin C) Plamitic acid D) Pathonic acid 46. Which of the experiment is suitable to detect linkage? A) aaBB x aaBB B) AaBb x aabb C) AABB x aabb D) AAbb x AaBB 47. According to Rodley & Sasi Sekharan model, DNA is A) Right handed B) Left handed C) Alternating right and left handed helix

D) None of these. 48. Which plant is efficient converter of solar energy? A) Wheat B) Sugarcane C) Rice D) Banana 49. The plant hormone used to induce parthenocarpy A) Gibberellins B) Cytokinins

C) Auxins D) Ethylene 50. Quaternary structure of protein describes. A) Conformational organization B) Functional organization C) Amino acid sequence D) None of these. 51. Who among the following is known as father of biostatistics A) Francis Galton B) Adolphe Queste C) Neyman D) William Gosset 52. Which one is used for comparison between two or more variables A) Pie chart B) Bar diagram C) Line diagram D) All of these 53. The feeding of avidin may result in a deficiency of

A) Riboflavin B) Vitamin B12 C) Vitamin A D) Biotin

54. A fatty acid not synthesized in man is A) Oleic acid B) Stearic acid C) Linoleic acid D) Palmitic acid 55. Genomic imprinting is A) Expression of genes depend on its paternal or maternal inheritance B) Expression of genes linked with X chromosomes C) Expression of genes linked with Y chromosomes

D) Expression of extrachromosomal genes


56. Calyptrogen is needed in monocots to A) Produce root cap B) Protect root tip C) Abosorb water D) None of the above 57. Riboswitches are

A) Short RNA sequences that change their conformation on binding with small molecules

B) Short RNA sequences that interact with DNA C) Short RNA molecules that bind with proteins D) Short RNA sequences degrade from mRNA 58. The O2 dissociation course of hemoglobin is shifted to right by A) Decreased CO2 tension B) Increased pH C) Increased CO2 tension D) Increased N2 tension 59. How many genetically different gametes can be made from an individual of

genotype of AaBbccDDEe A) 8 B) 32 C) 10 D) 5 60. What component of the bacterial cell wall are attacked by pencillins? A) Peptidoglycan B) Teichoic acid C) Teichuronic acid D) Lipopolysaccharide 61. Daughter of a colour blind father and normal mother marries a colour blind person.

How the trait will express among their children? A) 50 % sons and 50 % daughters B) All sons only C) All daughters only D) All sons and Daughters 62. How many triplet codons can be made from four nucleotides A, U, G and C

containing no uracils? A) 27 B) 64 C) 37 D) 6 63. Which of the following is not a method of genetic recombination in bacteria? A) Translocation B) Transformation C) Conjugation D) Transduction 64. Albinism is due to lack of A) Tyrosinase B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase C) Kynureninase D) Homogentisicase 65. Which of these is a pentasaccharide sugar? A) Verbascose B) Raffinose C) Stachyose D) Threose 66. In men, the lipoprotein fraction with highest cholesterol contents is A) α- lipopreotein B) β- lipoprotein

C) Chylomicrons D) Prealbumin


67. Which of the following is the important reactive group of glutathione in its role as

antioxidant A) Serine B) Sulf hydryl C) Acetyl CoA D) Carboxyl 68. Bell-shaped normal distribution curve inheritance is an example of A) Complementary genes B) Qualitative inheritance C) Polygenic traits D) Pleiotropy 69. The distance between bacterial genes, as determined from interrupted conjugation

experiments are measured in units of A) Recombination B) Micrometer C) Minutes D) Percentage of genophgore 70. The first attempt to show linkage in plants was carried out in A) Oenothera lamarckiana B) Pisum sativum C) Lathyrus odoratus D) Zea mays 71. In prenatal diagnosis, the polymorphism used to determine genetic disorders is A) SNPs B) RFLPs C) RAPDs D) SCARs 72. A Drug resistance marker used for selection of recombinants is A) NPT II B) SSP C) SSR D) AFLP 73. Colchicine induces polyploidy by A) Inhibiting cell division B) Promoting cell division

C) Inhibiting spindle formation D) Doubling the Chromosome size 74. Which type DNA is found in M13 phages? A) Single stranded and circular

B) Single stranded and linear C) Double stranded and linear

D) Double stranded and circular 75. The regions of gene which do not form part of functional mRNA are called A) Transposons B) Cistrons

C) Introns D) Exons 76. Overlapping genes A) Are characteristics to eukaryotes B) Code for over lapping amino acid sequences in Protein C) Are split genes D) Means that a gene can code for more than one polypeptide 77. Which one of the following carries dwarf gene with high protein and lysine percentage in wheat. A) Lerma safed B) Kalyan

C) Sharbati sonara D) Sonalika


78. Which is the most short -lived RNA? A) sRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA 79. The DNA sequence cut by Eco RI is A) GCAT /GCAT B) GAATTC/GAATTC C) GAATTC/CTTAAG D) GAATTG/CTTTAAC 80. In Z-DNA, helix pitch is A) 60 A0 B) 34 A0 C) 20 A0 D) 45A0 81. Triticale has been evolved by hybridization between A) Rice and Maize B) Wheat and rice C) Wheat and rye D) Ragi and Maize 82. During translation phase of protein synthesis, process of initiation, elongation and termination involve A) Protein factors and AMP B) Protein factors and CAMP C) Protein factors and GTP D) Glycoxylation. 83. Shuffling of gene from one location to another is possible. Such genes are called A) Mutons B) Recons

C) Exons D) Transposons 84. Andrew Fire and Craig Mello got Nobel Prize in Medicine for A) PCR B) Protein Sequencing

C) RNA interference D) GFP 85. The holandric genes are located on A) Polytene B) Y- chromosome

C) X- Chromosome D) Mitochondria 86. Mutagenic agents causing frame shift mutation are A) 2-Amino purine B) EMS

C) Bromouracil D) Acridine dye 87. Kornberg with Ochoa received Nobel Price for the work of A) Mechanism of biological synthesis of DNA and RNA B) Co linearity hypothesis C) Central Dogma D) Artificial Synthesis of protein 88. The Hybrid variety cotton obtained by crossing two different strains of Gossypium hirsutum is A) Godhavari B) Varalaxmi

C) Savitri D) Jayalaxmi 89. BSI is located at A) Lucknow B) Mysore C) Kolkatta D) Kerala


90. Quanta required for assimilation of one molecule of CO2/O2 liberation in

photosynthesis are A) 2 B) 8 C) 6 D) 4 91. Continuous variations are attributed to meiosis through A) Polyploidy B) Crossing over C) Mutation D) All of these 92. Oligogenes are A) Quantitative genes B) Qualitative genes C) Holandrinc genes D) Epistatic genes 93. The common bread wheat is A) Allotetraploid B) Allohexaploid C) Auto teraploid D) Diploid 94. RNA Polymerase enzyme is A) Monocistronic only B) Polycistronic only C) Monocistronic & Polycistronic D) Not a protein 95. Which sub unit of ribosome is attached to ER? A) 50S B) 60S C) 30S D) 40S 96. Unidirectional replication takes place in A) Coliphage P2 B) Escherichia

C) Pneumococcus D) Salmonella 97. Which phrase is not true about backcross breeding?

A) It is a practice that has been used by plant breeders for decades B) Backcross breeding is repeated until the offspring has 99+% elite genes and

the transgene C) Backcross breeding is a new technique developed for genetically

engineered plants D) Backcross breeding is often used to reduce yield drag 98. Which of the following occurs in the sporangia of mosses?

A) Spores germinate into protonemata B) Sperm cells are produced in rows just beneath the surface of the

antheridiophore C) Sporocytes undergo meiosis to produce spores D) The zygote develops into a multicellular embryo

99. Conservation hotspots are best described as

A) Areas with large numbers of endemic species that are disappearing rapidly

B) Areas where people are particularly active supporters of biological diversity C) Islands that are experiencing high rates of extinction D) Areas where native species are being replaced with introduced species


100. Which bacteria causes food poisoning A) Escherichia B) Penicillium

C) Salmonella D) Candida 101. Which of the following statements about Marchantia sporophytes is true?

A) The capsule is attached directly to the foot without the development of a seta.

B) An operculum forms on the apex of the mature capsule C) The sporophyte hangs down from the underside of the archegonium. D) None of the above

102. When a specific epithet exactly repeats the generic name it is known as

A) Neotype B) Priority C) Taxa D) Tautonym

103. The seed known by the name ‘Chilgoza’, that is used as a dry fruit A) Zamia B) Pinus gerardiana

C) Cedrus deodara D) Cycas racemosa 104. Quantitative PCR is A) Real time PCR B) RT PCR

C) Inverse PCR D) Multiplex PCR 105. Percentage frequency distribution is represented by

A) Frequency polygon B) Ogive representation C) Pie diagram D) Frequency table

106. Mode can be located graphically with the help of A) Line diagram B) Bar C) Histogram D) Pie diagram 107. The first artificial plant hybrid was made by

A) Thomas Fairchild B) De Viries C) Borlaug D) M.S.Swaminathan 108. Somatic embryogenesis is: A) Germ line cells developing into embryos B) Non-germ line cells developing into embryos C) Embryos developing from zygotes D) Embryonic tissue becoming somatic 109. A CsCl gradient will separate DNA molecules by A) Absorption B) Resorption

C) Density D) Adhesion 110. Klenow fragment without free nucleotides exhibits A) Exonuclease activity B) Endonuclease activity C) Nickase activity D) No activity


111. The unwinding of the double helix of DNA prior to replication is carried out by

A) Topoisomerase B) Helicase C) Restriction endoclease D) All of A, B and C

112. The non sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other in A) Leptotene B) Pachytene

C) Zygotene D) Diplotene 113. Line Weaver – Burk plot helps to find out

A) Rate of enzyme action B) Competitive inhibitor C) Substrate composition D) Group specificity

114. Amyloplastids are plastids which store

A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Starch D) Ergastic substances

115. When lactose is present

A) The regulator protein is unable to bind the operator and transcription turned on

B) The regulator protein binds the operator and transcription turned off C) The regulator protein is unable to bind the operator and transcription turned

off D) The regulator protein binds the operator and transcription turned on

116. Which one of the following trees yield gum A) Pinus B) Acacia C) Eucalyptus D) Phyllanthus

117. Which amino acid is precursor of ethylene production

A) Alanine B) Threonine C) Methionine D) Serine

118. Jute is

A) Corchorus capsularis B) Crotalaria juncea C) Ceiba pentadra D) Calamus rotundus

119. Rose wood belongs to the family

A) Leguminosae B) Verbenaceae C) Liliaceae D) Cruciferae

120. Marginal placentation and monocarpellary pistil are found in

A) Poaceae B) Asteraceae C) Fabaceae D) Liliaceae

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91103 120 MINUTES 1. Antimicrobial proteins that inhibit the synthesis of outer membrane proteins of

gram negative bacteria A) Dystrophin B) Attacins C) Phytoanticipins D) Fungistatic

2. Which alga is known as sea lettuce?

A) Fucus B) Caulerpa C) Ulva D) Padina

3. The peat moss belongs to the order

A) Sphagnales B) Andreaeales C) Bryales D) Anthocerotales

4. Pyrenolichens fall under

A) Discolichens B) Ascolichens C) Basidiolichens D) Deuterolichens

5. The most advanced parallel-banded stele in the Pterdophyta

A) Haplostele B) Plectostele C) Actinostele D) Mixed protostele

6. Which among the following is a tree fern?

A) Pteris B) Cyathea C) Adiantum D) Dryopteris

7. Resting spores are called

A) Siderophore B) Statospore C) Planospore D) Phialospore

8. Planktons smaller than 20µm but larger than 2µm are called

A) Nanoplanktons B) Picoplanktons C) Periphyton D) Macroplankton

9. The genus Rhizopus belongs to the family

A) Mucoraceae B) Saccharomycetaceae C) Pilobolaceae D) Rhodomycetaceae

10. Amanita toxins are

A) Ergotoxins B) Aflatoxins C) Mushroom toxins D) Esterogonic toxins

11. A substance that increases the potency of an immunogen

A) Axoneme B) Adjuvant C) Aptamer D) Agameon


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12. Small non-antigenic molecules in an immunogen A) Zymogens B) Haptens C) Co-factors D) Aptamer

13. Bacterial cells that lack chromosomes are called

A) Microcells B) Minicells C) Maxicells D) Midicells

14. Mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus

A) Phytoalexin B) Amphylotoxin C) Aflatoxin D) Dystrophin

15. ‘Boll rot’ of cotton is caused by

A) Agaricus B) Penicillium C) Puccinia D) Rhizopus

16. Puccinia graminis tritici occurring on the wheat crop is also named as

A) Orange rust B) Black rust C) Yellow rust D) Green rust

17. Blast disease of rice is caused by

A) Piricularia oryzae B) Pseudomonas oryzae C) Scleroticum oryzae D) Helminthosporium oryzae

18. The antibiotic streptomycin was isolated from

A) Streptomyces griseus B) Streptomyces venezuele C) Streptomyces aureofaciens D) Streptomyces rimosus

19. The ’tumour inducing’ plasmids are present in

A) Agrobacterium rhizogenes B) Agrobacterium tumifaciens C) Acetobacter aceti D) Azotobacter sp.

20. The infectious agent of ‘scrapie’ is

A) Parvovirus B) Reovirus C) Prion D) Retrovirus

21. A dead area in the bark or cortex of the stem especially of woody plants is called

A) Spot B) Canker C) Scorch D) Die-back

22. Ratoon stunting disease of sugarcane is

A) Insect transmitted B) Soil transmitted C) Sap transmitted D) Root transmitted


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23. Red rot of Sugarcane is caused by A) Piricularia oryzae B) Colletotrichum falcatum C) Xanthomaonas Oryzae D) Phytophthora infestans

24. Level of taxonomic study concerned with the biological aspects of taxa, including

intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary rates and trends A) Alpha taxonomy B) Beta taxonomy C) Gamma taxonomy D) Theta taxonomy

25. The term ‘Unitegmic’ refers to

A) An ovule having a single integument B) A filament with a single anther C) A fruit with a single seed D) A style with a single stigma

26. Labellum in Orchidaceae comes to anterior side by the twisting of the ovary

through 1800. This process is called A) Adnation B) Articulation C) Resupination D) Attenuation

27. The Commelinaceae family is commonly known as the

A) Spiderwort family B) Aster family C) Grass family D) Lilli family

28. Foeniculum vulgare belongs to the family

A) Rutaceae B) Meliaceae C) Apiaceae D) Brassicaceae

29. When two or more authors publish a new species or propose a new name, their

names are linked using the epithet? A) In B) ex C) et D) emend

30. Binomials with identical genus name and specific epithet are called

A) Homonym B) Tautonym C) Basionym D) Synonym 31. A document containing a comprehensive account of a specific taxonomic group,

generally a genus or family is A) Manual B) Flora C) Monograph D) Revision

32. Which among the following is considered a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’

system of classification? A) Gymnosperms are placed between Monocotyledons and Dicotyledons B) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons C) Dicotyledons are placed before Monocotyledons D) Dicotyledons are placed after Monocotyledons


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33. The principles of Numerical taxonomy were developed by A) Bentham and Hooker B) Engler and Prantl C) Sneath and Sokal D) Takhtajan and Cronquist

34. The botanical name for ‘All spice’ is

A) Pimenta dioica B) Amaranthus cruentus C) Aloe vera D) Brassica campestris

35. What is the botanical name of ‘Jute’?

A) Dalbergia sissoo B) Lagerstroemia speciosa C) Cedrus deodara D) Corchorus capsularis

36. The rubber obtained from Manihot glaziovii is called

A) Para rubber B) Panama rubber C) Ceara rubber D) India rubber

37. Endosperm formation is suppressed in

A) Orchidaceae B) Compositae C) Aristolochiaceae D) Boraginaceae

38. The major alkaloid in Hemlock, which was used for the execution of Socrates, is

A) Sinigrin B) Strychnin C) Coniine D) Quinine

39. The term ‘ethnobotany’ was introduced by

A) Powers B) Harshberger C) Gilmour D) Martin

40. Ethnobotanical records are stored in --------database

A) PLANIMAL B) SEPASAL C) NAPRALERT D) EMBL

41. The total botanical knowledge held by any non-industrial community and which

incorporates all utilitarian, ecological and cognitive aspects of both plant use and vegetation management is called A) ITK , Indigenous Technical Knowledge B) IAK, Indigenous Agricultural Knowledge C) TBK, Traditional Botanical Knowledge D) TEK, Traditional Ecological Knowledge

42. Which of the following scientists is credited with the invention of the electron

microscope and awarded the Nobel Prize for the same? A) J.J. Thompson B) Louise de Broglie C) Otto van Borris D) Ernst Ruska


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43. Why are thin sections of specimens necessary in Transmission Electron

Microscope? A) Electrons are negatively charged B) Electrons have a wave nature C) Electrons have no mass D) Electrons have a poor penetrating power

44. A linear monomer of D-galactose and 3,6 anhydro-L-galactopyranose is called

A) Dextran B) Agarose C) Acrylamide D) Silica

45. Chromatography that involves the separation of isomers

A) Counter current chromatography B) Chiral chromatography C) Paper chromatography D) Thin layer chromatography

46. The total volume of material, both solid and liquid in the column is known as

A) Void volume B) Bed volume C) Elution volume D) Retension volume

47. Silica gel-G is used in

A) Thin layer chromatography B) Column chromatography C) HPLC D) GLC

48. Labyrinthine cell wall enveloped by plasma membrane is characteristic of

A) Sieve tubes B) Lenticels C) Transfer cells D) Guard cells

49. Ridged and furrowed xylem cylinder with phloem wedges is characteristic of

secondary growth in the stem of A) Bignonia B) Serjania C) Dracaena D) Boerhaavia

50. Nanometer is 1/1000th of a

A) Millimeter B) Centimeter C) Micrometer D) Picometer

51. Heavily cutinized leaves that show resistance to dessication under conditions of

extreme drought A) Microsporophylls B) Megasporophylls C) Sclerophylls D) Podophylls


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52. ------is an azodye

A) Safranin B) Haematoxylin C) Aniline blue D) Orange G

53. Carnoy’s solution is a mixture of

A) Aqueous chromic acid, Aqueous acetic acid and distilled water B) Ethyl alcohol, Glacial acetic acid and commercial formalin C) Ethanol, Glacial acetic acid and Chloroform D) Aqueous alcohol, Aqueous acetic acid and distilled water

54. Inactive precursors of certain proteolytic enzymes

A) Abzymes B) Allozymes C) Isozymes D) Zymogens

55. Vincristine and vinblastine are

A) Phenolics B) Terpenoids C) Alkaloids D) Saponins

56. In aqueous solution glucose exists as a

A) Furanose B) Pyranose C) Pentose D) None of the above

57. In a normal metabolic pathway substance Z is produced from X through the

intermediate Y and involvement of two enzymes, A and B respectively. If both enzymes are functional, what would be the most possible consequence? A) Substance Z accumulates B) Substance X accumulates C) Enzyme A accumulates D) Enzyme B accumulates

58. A group of red or yellow compounds found only in the plants of order

Caryophyllales A) Anthocyanins B) Xanthophylls C) Betacyanins D) Betalains

59. Amino acid which accumulates as a result of stress

A) Proline B) Cysteine C) Methionine D) Histidine

60. The biochemical pathway from phosphenol pyruvic acid to tyrosine is commonly

called A) Hatch and Slack pathway B) Glycolate pathway C) Shikimic acid pathway D) EMP pathway

61. A plant capable of utilizing saline ground water

A) Hylophyte B) Hylodad C) Halophreatophyte D) Hemerophyte


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62. Organelles involved in photorespiration are

A) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and ribosomes B) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes C) Mitochondria, nucleus and ribosomes D) Mitochondria, peroxisomes and glyoxisomes

63. A system of growing plants with their roots supplied with moisture in the air

A) Hydroponics B) Aeroponics C) Bionomics D) Geonomics

64. Deficiency of which of these leads to interveinal chlorosis

A) Magnesium B) Calcium C) Cobalt D) Nitrogen

65. Little leaf disease is due to the deficiency of

A) Nitrogen B) Sodium C) Zinc D) Manganese

66. Phytochrome is a ------chromoprotein

A) Red/Orange B) Blue/Yellow-green C) Purple/Black D) Brown/Yellow

67. Small particles present on the inner mitochondrial membrane are called

A) Ergosomes B) Peroxisomes C) Elementary particles D) Core particles

68. Branch of soil science which deals with the survey, genesis and classification of

soils for land use-planning A) Serology B) Rheology C) Pedology D) Kymatology

69. Forests that occur in eastern and western Himalayas and in the Nilgiri hills at an

altitude of 1,600 – 3,500m are A) Tropical evergreen or rain forests B) Temperate evergreen or Coniferous forests C) Tropical deciduous or monsoon forests D) Tropical Thorn forests

70. An interspecific interaction in which one species population is inhibited typically

by toxins produced by the other which remains unaffected A) Amensalism B) Mutualism C) Altruism D) Tropism

71. The physical space occupied by an organism in an eco system is called

A) Niche B) Sere C) Deme D) Cline


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72. The study of an organism in relation to its environment A) Autecology B) Palynology C) Pedology D) Gerantology

73. One of the following steps is not involved in cryopreservation

A) Air-drying B) Slow freezing C) Encapsulation D) Shadow casting

74. Which of the following biomes has the highest biodiversity?

A) Savannas B) Tundra C) Tropical rain forest D) Temperate grasslands

75. ‘Harmful Algal bloom’ is the result of accumulation of species of

A) Lemna B) Pistia C) Alexandrium D) Volvox

76. Pick out the mangrove plant from the following list

A) Solanum surattense B) Excoecaria agallocha C) Saccharam spontaneum D) Euphorbia tirucalli

77. Ozone (O3) is formed mainly in which layer of the atmosphere

A) Troposhere B) Ozone layer C) Stratosphere D) Ionosphere

78. The ‘mutation theory’ of organic evolution was put forward by

A) Hugo deVries B) Weismann C) Darwin D) Lamarck

79. Changing climate may isolate populations on mountain peaks or in remnant lakes

or islands. This is called ------- speciation A) Allopatric B) Sympatric C) Parapatric D) None of the above

80. The term ‘muton’ was coined by

A) Barbara McClintock B) Muller C) Seymour Benzer D) Jacob and Monad

81. The genetic codes for ochre, amber and opal are-----,---- and---- respectively

A) UGA, UAG, UAA B) UAG, UAA, UGA C) UAG, UGA, UAA D) UAA, UAG, UGA

82. Intron sequences in DNA always begin and end with

A) AG, GT B) GT, AG C) TG, GA D) GA, TG


9

83. Any one of a group of restriction enzymes that recognizes the same nucleotide sequences A) Isozyme B) Ribozyme C) Isoschizomer D) Isomer

84. The length of the DNA associated with a protein is determined using the technique

A) DNA replication B) DNA fingerprinting C) DNA footprinting D) DNA priming

85. A cell or tissue culture in which single cells or small clumps are grown in an

agitated liquid medium A) Slop culture B) Suspension culture C) Retroculture D) Sericulture

86. About 75% of all white North Americans can taste the chemical

phenylthiocarbamide and the remainder cannot. The ability to taste is governed by dominant allele ‘T’ and inability to taste by the allele ‘t’. (The population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium). Then the genotypic frequencies are A) TT–0.5, Tt – 0.3, tt– 0.2 B) TT–0.25, Tt – 0.5, tt– 0.25 C) TT–0.5, Tt – 0.2, tt– 0.3 D) TT–0.3, Tt – 0.5, tt– 0.3

87. Avena abyssinica is a tetraploid with 28 chromosomes. The cultivated oats

(A. sativa) appears to be a hexaploid in the same series with the chromosome number: A) 168 B) 84 C) 42 D) 56

88. A normal chromosome with the gene sequence ABCD o EFGH (Small ‘o’

represents centromere).The chromosomal mutation represented by the gene sequence ABCFE o DGH is A) Pericentric inversion B) Paracentric inversion C) Reciprocal translocation D) Non-reciprocal translocation

89. Philadelphia chromosome seen in many leukemia patients is the result of reciprocal

translocation between chromosomes: A) 9 and 22 B) 2 and 9 C) 2 and 13 D) 9 and 13

90. Dietary restrictions can essentially eliminate the severe mental retardation that is

associated with this disorder A) Phenylketonuria B) Familial hypercholesterolemia C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Haemophilia

91. The genetic abnormality produced by XXY condition in humans is

A) Down’s syndrome B) Kline felter’s syndrome C) Turner’s syndrome D) Lesch-Nyhan disease


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92. The sry gene is located on the A) X-chromosome B) Y-chromosome C) Autosome D) Nucleosome

93. Chiasma is a greek word meaning

A) Cross B) Ring C) Chain D) Straight line

94. In sweet peas the genes for flower colour and pollen length were studied. The

double heterozygote showed a preponderance of the parental combinations. This could be due to A) Independant assortment B) Linkage C) Crossing over D) Incomplete Dominance

95. RNA polymerase binds to genes at the

A) Operator B) Enhancer C) Promoter D) Inducer

96. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is an

A) RNA directed DNA polymerase B) RNA directed RNA polymerase C) DNA directed DNA polymerase D) DNA directed RNA polymerase

97. Puffs or balbiani rings in salivary gland chromosomes are sites of

A) DNA replication B) RNA synthesis C) DNA duplication D) Protein synthesis

98. Chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed by

A) Watson and Crick B) Jacob and Monad C) Beadle and Tatum D) Sutton and Boveri

99. Deposition of material between the microfibrils of the cell wall is called

A) Intersusception B) Intussusception C) Interference D) Integration

100. The first man-made cereal ‘Triticale’ has been developed from a cross between

A) Wheat and Oat B) Wheat and Maize C) Maize and Rice D) Wheat and Rye

101. Which is the hexaploid species of Wheat?

A) Triticum monococcum B) Triticum durum C) Triticum aestivum D) Triticum turgidum

102. A ‘trisomic’ individual has

A) An extra chromosome B) One less chromosome C) Two extra chromosomes D) One pair of extra chromosome


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103. Kappa particles are present in A) Plastids B) Plasmids C) Mitochondria D) Cytoplasm

104. Phage ØX-174 has

A) Double stranded DNA B) Double stranded RNA C) Single stranded RNA D) Single stranded DNA

105. The first codon discovered by Nirenberg Mathaei was

A) GGG B) CCC C) UUU D) AAA

106. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codon of

A) Serine and isoleucine B) Cysteine and valine C) Tyrosine and tryptohan D) Phenylalanine and methionine

107. RNA polymerase III makes

A) rRNA B) hnRNA C) tRNA, 5SrRNA D) sn RNA

108. The headquarters of the National Horticulture Board is situated at

A) New Delhi B) Thiruvananthapuram C) Gurgaon D) Bhopal

109. An evolutionary event in which a significant percentage of a population or species

is killed or otherwise prevented from reproducing A) Bottle-neck B) Genetic load C) Founder effect D) Segregational load

110. The equilibrium attained between the electric potential and concentration gradient

in a closed system with two compartments separated by a semi-permeable membrane A) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium B) Donnan equilibrium C) Maxwell-Boltzmann equilibrium D) Michaelis-Menten equilibrium

111. Dispersion force or London force is a type of .................. force

A) Van der Waals B) Hydrophobic-hydrophilic C) Ionic D) Covalent

112. The particle associated with bioluminescence

A) Photon B) Electron C) Scintillon D) Phytotron


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113. The average fleece weight in a large band of sheep together with its standard deviation was calculated to be 10.3±1.5lb. The statistics for fleece grade was 5.1± 0.7. Which trait is relatively more variable? A) Fleece weight B) Fleece grade C) Both traits D) None of the traits

114. A common digital sound file existing in personal computers is known as

A) JPEG file B) ZIP file C) WAV file D) BMP file

115. A translator that converts a programme written in assembly level language into a

machine level language A) Compiler B) Assembler C) Algorithm D) Interpreter

116. The largest order among the Gymnosperms A) Cycadales B) Coniferales

C) Ginkgoales D) Gnetales 117. In eukaryotes ATP-Synthase enzyme involved in respiration is in the

A) Cytoplasam B) Mitochondrial matrix C) Oxysomes D) Quantasomes

118. One of the following sterols is less prevalent in plants

A) Campesterol B) Sitosterol C) Stigmasterol D) Cholesterol

119. Oxidative phosphorylation is a process that

A) Occurs during respiration B) Occurs during photosynthesis C) Occurs in the thylakoid membrane D) Involves PS I and PS II

120. BLAST programme is used in

A) DNA sequencing B) Amino acid sequencing C) DNA bar coding D) Bioinformatics

************


12903 120 MINUTES 1. The plant part from which colchicine is isolated

A) Fruit &seeds B) Stem& leaf C) Seeds & corms D) Fruit & bulb

2. Albuminous cells are present in A) Monocotyledonous plants B) Hydrophytes C) Gymnosperms D) Bryophytes

3. The Casparian strip is usually composed of A) Pectin B) Lignin C) Suberin D) Chitin

4. Histochemical localization of proteins is performed by using A) Sudan black B) Mercuric bromophenol blue C) Periodic acid Schiffs (PAS) reagent D) Iodine potassium iodide (IKI) solution

5. Orcein is obtained from A) Fractionation of coal tar B) Heartwood of Caesalpinia C) Roccella tinctoria.

D) Abdominal part of insects Dactylopius coccus 6. Janus green B is used to stain

A) Chloroplast B) Golgi complex C) Vacuoles D) Mitochondria

7. The sectioning of woody materials for histo enzymological study is made through---- A) Rotary microtome B) Sledge microtome C) Cryotome D) Rocking microtome

8. Molecular formula of chlorophyll a is A) C55H70O5N4Mg B) C55H72O6N4Mg C) C55H70O6N4Mg D) C55H72O5N4Mg

9. RQ value of protein is A) Higher than 1 B) 1 C) Less than 1 D) Infinite

10. Recombination nodules are present in A) Kinetochore B) Centriole C) Synaptonemal complex D) Nucleolar organizing region


2

11. The movement of solutes in the phloem is mainly

A) Lateral B) Acropetal C) Basipetal D) Centripetal

12. The first stable compound in Hatch and Slack cycle is A) Pyruvic acid B) Malic acid C) Citric acid D) Oxalo acetic acid

13. ------------ is an example for sulphur containing amino acid A) Aspartic acid B) Methionine C) Glycine D) Isoleucine

14. Microevolution means A) Evolution at geographical level B) Evolution in a small community C) Changes in gene frequency within a population D) Spatial evolution

15. When a population formerly continuous in range, splits into two or more geographically isolated populations and form new species, the mode of speciation is A) Sympatric speciation B) Polytypic speciation C) Allopatric speciation D) Evolutionary speciation

16. Endosperm is absent in A) Orchidaceae B) Compositae C) Poaceae D) Malvaceae

17. Tyloses are

A) Composite sieve plate B) Specialized laticeferous canals C) Tracheal plugs D) Resin ducts

18. In Dracaena, secondary vascular bundle is A) Bicollataral B) Amphicribral C) Collateral D) Amphivasal

19. Osmium tetra oxide is used in electron microscopy as a A) Fixing agent B) Mordant C) Staining agent D) Precipitator

20. The pH of phloem sap is about------------------ A) 5.5-6.5 B) 6.5 -7.5 C) 8.0-8.5 D) 4.5-5.5


3

21. Q10 refers to

A) Quantum recharge B) Respiratory coefficient

C) A temperature coefficient D) Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) coefficient

22. Warburg effect explains decreased rate of photosynthesis due to

A) High concentration of CO2 B) Low concentration of CO2 C) High concentration of O2 D) Low concentration of O2

23. Fruit drop is caused by A) Accumulation of more auxin in fruit than in stem B) Accumulation of less auxin in fruit than in stem C) Absence of auxin in stem and roots D) Accumulation of auxin in roots

24. The closure of lid of pitcher in Nepenthes is A) A turgor movement B) A paratonic movement C) A tropic movement D) An autonomic movement

25. National park is an example of A) In vitro conservation B) Ex situ conservation C) In situ conservation D) All of these

26. In Funaria capsule, the peristome consist of A) 16 teeth B) 32 teeth C) 64 teeth D) 128 teeth

27. Protonema is found in A) Riccia B) Anthoceros C) Marchantia D) Funaria

28. Western Ghats passes through ------------ states in India A) 6 B) 4 C) 7 D) 5

29. Partial or complete loss of virulence in pathogen is called A) Abortive parasitism B) Attenuation C) Neutralism D) Susceptibility

30. Phytoalexins are produced A) During infection B) During flowering C) Throughout the lifecycle D) By seedlings only


4

31. Katte disease of cardamom is caused due to

A) Colletotrichum elettariae B) Phytophthora medii C) Cardamom mosaic virus D) Fusarium sp.

32. If the probability of being blood type A is 1/8 and the probability of blood type O

is ½ , what is the probability of being either blood type A or blood type O? A) 5/8 B) 1/16 C) 1/8 D) 1/2

33. An animal has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes. During meiosis how many chromatids are present in metaphase of second meiotic stage? A) 16 B) 8 C) 4 D) 32

34. What is the sexual phenotype of a diploid fruit fly that has XXYYY sex chromosome? A) Male B) Female C) Intersex D) Metamale

35. Betty has normal vision but her mother is color blind. Sam is color blind. If Betty and Sam are married and have a girl child, what is the probability that the child will be color blind? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 1/3 D) 2/3

36. How many genotypes are present at a locus with four alleles? A) 15 B) 10 C) 8 D) 16

37. An organism has 10 pairs of independent genes. Aa BB cc Dd Ee Ff Gg HH II Jj. How many types of gametes with respect to gene content can this individual produce? A) 16 B) 32 C) 64 D) 128

38. Which process of DNA transfer in bacteria require a virus A) Conjugation B) Transduction C) Transformation D) All of these

39. Species A has 2n=16 chromosomes and species B has 2n=14 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be found in an allotriploid of these two species? A) 21 or 24 B) 42 or 48 C) 22 or 23 D) 45

40. The percentage of cytosine in double stranded DNA molecule is 40%. What is the percentage of Thiamine? A) 40% B) 60% C) 20% D) 10%


5

41. What type of replication require a break in the nucleotide strand to get started

A) Theta replication B) Rolling cycle replication C) Linear eukaryotic replication D) All of these

42. If two loci are 10 map units apart, what proportion of the meiotic events will contain a single cross over in the region between these two loci, assuming that no multiple cross over occur? A) 10% B) 15% C) 5% D) 20%

43. What is the effect of high level glucose in lac operon A) Transcription is stimulated

B) Little transcription takes place C) Transcription not affected D) Transcription may be stimulated or inhibited depending upon the level of

lactose.

44. In RNA silencing, si RNAs and mi RNAs usually bind to which part of the mRNA molecule that they control A) 5’UTR B) Segments that encodes aminoacids C) 3’poly(A) tail D) 3’UTR

45. DNA binding regulatory proteins are grouped into distinct classes based on the

motif found within the binding domains. In the following group which are common bacterial regulatory proteins A) Helix –turn- helix B) B.zinc finger C) Leucine zipper D) Helix –loop -helix

46. In a group of students, about 36% could roll their tongues, a trait determined by a dominant gene (R). The other 64% of the students were nonrollers (r) . The population is in Hardy-Wienberg equilibrium. What is the frequency of the gene R and its recessive allele r? A) R=0.3 and r=0.1 B) R=0.64 and r=0.36 C) R=0.8 and r=0.2 D) R=0.2 and r=0.8

47. Which of the following changes is a transition base substitution? A) Adenine replaced by thymine B) Cytosine replaced by adenine C) Guanine replaced by adenine D) Three nucleotide pairs are inserted into DNA

48. A genetically engineered squash called Freedom II carries genes from A) Watermelon mosaic virus B) Zucchini virus C) Cauliflower mosaic virus D) Both A & B


6

49. Which gene is inserted to the target gene to create knockout mice?

A) ‘tk’ gene B) ‘neo’ gene C) Both A & B D) Neither A & B

50. In the following common bioinformatic data bases, which contains protein sequence data? A) Gene Bank B) EMBL-Bank C) dbEST D) UniProt

51. Genes found in different species that evolved from same gene in a common ancestor is called A) Homologs B) Paralogs C) Orthologs D) Homeologs

52. Which lichen is known as “Reindeer moss?”

A) Cladonia rengiferina B) Peltigera canina C) Lobaria pulmonaria D) Rocella montaignei

53. Proflavin and acridine oranges are chemicals that cause mutations because

A) They distort the structure of DNA B) They chemically modify the normal bases C) They are similar in structure to the normal bases D) They sandwich between adjacent bases in DNA

54. A codon that specifies aminoacid Tryptophan undergoes a single base substitution that yields a nonsense codon. What is the mutated codon? A) UUG B) UGA C) UAA D) UGG

55. The retrovirus genome is A) RNA B) DNA C) RNA in free virus but converted to DNA inside the host cell D) DNA in free virus but converted to RNA inside the host cell

56. A recombinant cross is performed between two organisms producing a total of 400 offspring. There were two distinct types of recombinants, with 36 of the first type and 58 of the second type present. The recombination frequency of the gene is A) 0.145 B) 0.235 C) 0.345 D) 0.445

57. What are known as “safe havens” during insertion of transposable elements? A) Centromere regions B) Retrotransposon regions C) Heterochromatin regions D) All these


7

58. Total length of life cycle in yeast

A) 90 minutes B) 1 hour C) 12 hours D) 24 hours

59. P elements are transposable elements found in A) Maize B) Yeast C) Drosophila D) Arabdiopsis

60. Hammerling performed experiments to prove that nucleus is the physical basis of heredity by working on A) Neurospora crassa B) Drosophila melanogaster C) Acetabularia crenulata D) Saccharomyces pombi

61. Minute granular structures found on the inner face of the thyalakoid membrane A) Quantasomes B) Diplosomes C) Oxysomes D) Lysosomes

62. When a cell with 2n = 60 chromosomes undergoes meiosis, each of the four resulting cells has ------ chromosomes A) 30 B) 60 C) 40 D) 10

63. The somatic chromosome number (2n) of Arabidopsis thaliana is

A) 20 B) 10 C) 5 D) 30 64. The normal sequence of markers on a certain Drosophila chromosome is

123.456789, where the dot represents the centromere. One fly was isolated with the following aberration, 1654.32789. What could be the structural aberration involved? A) Paracentric inversion B) Deletion C) Duplication D) Pericentric inversion

65. If the somatic chromosome number for an organism is 2n = 16, the hexaploid number would be A) 16 B) 32 C) 48 D) 64

66. --------------- is a drooping pendant fruticose lichen A) Physcia B) Cladonia C) Usnea D) Haematomma

67. Cyphellae in lichens are analogous to ----------------- in higher plants

A) Palisade tissue B) Epidermis C) Bundle sheath D) Stomata

68. Which of the following is called ‘walking fern’? A) Selaginella rupestris B) Selaginella bryopteris C) Adiantus incisum D) Adiantum caudatum


8

69. Which of the following has amphiphloic siphonostele?

A) Marsillea B) Lycopodium C) Pteris D) Dryopteris

70. The fossil fern, Rhynia was discovered by A) Sir William Dawson B) Kidson and Lang C) De Bary D) Captain Cooke

71. Smallest fern among the following is A) Drynaria B) Anogramma C) Cyathea D) Woodsia

72. Endosperm in gymnosperm is A) Generally diploid B) Always haploid C) Triploid D) With different ploidy levels

73. Characters of both conifer and cycads are found in A) Ginkgo B) Ephedra C) Cupress D) Thuja

74. The number of neck canal cells in the archegonium of Cycas is A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 0

75. The dwarf shoots of Pinus wallichiana are A) Monofoliar B) Bifoliar C) Trifoliar D) Pentafoliar

76. Species that occur in different geographical regions separated by special barrier are A) Autogenic B) Allogenic C) Allopatric D) Sympatric

77. Area within the centre of diversity protected from human interference. A) Gene sanctuary B) Gene bank C) Biosphere D) Microcentre

78. Which is the age of ‘higher gymnosperms’?

A) Mesozoic B) Palaeozoic C) Archaeozoic D) Proterozoic

79. The storage of energy at consumer’s level is A) Gross primary productivity B) Secondary productivity C) Net primary productivity D) Primary productivity


9

80. Ozone in the atmosphere absorbs:

A) All UV-C B) All UV-C and most of UV-B C) All UV-A and UV-B D) All UV-A and UV-C

81. The taxa which is believed likely to join the endangered category in near future is called: A) Extinct B) Rare C) Vulnerable D) Living fossil

82. Total soluble salts in soil are measured by A) Tensiometer B) Conductivity meter C) pH meter D) None of these

83. Yeast is an important source of A) Vitamin C B) Riboflavin C) Sugar D) Fat

84. Powdery mildews of crops are caused by A) Bacteria B) Ascomycetes C) Phycomycetes D) Basidiomycetes

85. A fungus with hyphae containing nuclei from different genomes, the nuclei do not fuse but divide independently and simultaneously as new cells are formed is A) Phycomycetes B) Zygomycetes C) Deuteromycetes D) Basidiomycetes

86. The type of ovule in which micropyle and funicle lie in one line A) Orthotropous B) Anatropous C) Amphitropous D) Campylotropus

87. Study of pollen grains in honey is known as A) Iatropalynology B) Aeropalynology C) Melissopalynology D) Pharmacopalynology

88. Sporopollinin is seen in

A) Intine B) Exine C) Endocarp D) Mesocarp

89. The common bread wheat is called: A) Triticum aestivum B) Triticum turgidum C) Triticum monococcum D) None of these

90. Major component of ‘Jeevani’ is A) Ocimum basilicum B) Acorus calamus C) Trichopus zeylanicus D) Bacopa monnieri


10

91. Predominant ethnic group in Thiruvananthapuram district is:

A) Kani B) Malavedan C) Malapandaram D) Cholanaikan

92. X2 test is used to A) Measure the degree of deviation of the experimental result from the

expected result B) To test the closeness of observed and expected frequency C) To test the population variance and sample variance D) All of the above

93. Mode can be located graphically with the help of A) Line diagram B) Bar diagram C) Histogram D) Pie diagram

94. X-ray diffraction analysis is based on A) Beer-Lambert’s law B) Bragg’s equation C) Partition coefficient D) Sedimentation coefficient

95. Sudan Black B is often used for visualization of A) Protein B) Carbohydrates C) Aminoacids D) Lipids

96. Which instrument is more useful to study the surface details of a specimen? A) Phase contrast microscope B) Scanning electron microscope C) Light microscope D) Transition electron microscope

97. Stock and scion are needed for doing A) Budding B) Grafting C) Layering D) None of these

98. Insecticide that remains active in environment for the longest period of time A) Organophosphates B) Chlorinated hydrocarbons C) Carbonyles D) None of these

99. The large center root of plant used in bonsai is cut off A) To dwarf the plant B) To cause root brancing C) To make the root system shallow enough to fit in the container D) To simplify the root pruning job

100. Which vegetable crops use large amounts of nitrogen fertilizer? A) Leaf B) Root C) Fruit D) All of these


11

101. Rhinoviruses are the causative organism for

A) Tuberculosis B) Whooping cough C) Diphtheria D) Common cold

102. Bacterial cell divides once in every minute. It takes I hour to fill a petri plate. How much time is taken to fill half of the plate? A) 59 minutes B) 49 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 29 minutes

103. Infective RNA particles without protein sheath are:

A) Rickettse B) Mycoplasma C) Virus D) Viroid

104. Operating system is A) A collection of hardware components B) A collection of input-output devices C) A collection of software routines D) All of the above

105. A data base of current sequence map of the human genome is called A) OMIM B) HGMD C) Golden path D) GeneCards

106. Laminarin is the reserve food material of A) Chlorophyta B) Rhodophyta C) Phaeophyta D) Cyanophyta

107. Chlamydomonas and Volvox are similar because A) Both of them are motile B) They are filamentous C) They are colonial D) They have diploid thallus

108. Which of the following algal group never produces motile, flagellated cells among any of its members?

A) Chrysophyta B) Phaeophyta C) Chlorophyta D) Rhodophyta

109. The most primitive algal group is A) Green algae B) Brown algae C) Red algae D) Blue-green algae

110. The newly collected specimen which is used as a substitute, when the original type material is missing in a herbarium, is designated as

A) Lectotype B) Holotype C) Neotype D) Isotype


12

111. Hypanthodium is the characteristic of

A) Amorphophallus B) Acrocephalus C) Ficus D) Euphorbia

112. A single seeded fruit with inseparably fused testa and pericarp is A) Achene B) Caryopsis C) Cypsella D) Cremocarp

113. A family having unisexual flowers with parietal placentation is A) Cruciferae B) Euphorbiaceae C) Orchidaceae D) Cucurbitaceae

114. The family Lythraceae belongs to the series A) Disciflorae B) Calyciflorae C) Heteromerae D) Inferae

115. The family Amaryllidaceae differs from Liliaceae in having A) Actinomorphic to slightly zygomorphic flowers B) Inferior ovary C) Axile placentation D) Perianth of six tepals

116. The lowest ranking taxa in numerical taxonomy is A) Species B) Operational taxonomic unit C) Character states D) Variety

117. Cladistic relationship is expressed in terms of correlation amongst individuals with regard to

A) Phenotypic characters B) Their evolutionary history C) Relationship between operational taxonomic unit D) Their chromosomal behaviour

118. Primary centre of origin of rice is A) Asia minor centre B) Central Asia centre C) Hindustan centre D) Mediterranean centre

119. Heterosis results from A) Harmfull effects of recessive alleles and heterozygosity B) Homozygosity C) Heterozygosity D) Heterozygosity and masking of harmfull effects of recessive alleles

120. Production of a double cross hybrid involves A) Two inbreds B) Four inbreds C) Six inbreds D) Three inbreds

……………


14203 120 MINUTES 1. Which of the following is not a domain in the three domain classification? A) Eukarya B) Bacteria

C) Cyanobacteria D) Archaea 2. Teminism is the phenomenon of synthesis of A) DNA depending RNA B) RNA depending DNA C) RNA depending Proteins D) RNA depending RNA 3. Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria are present in A) Oriza sativa B) Triticumestivum C) Pisumsativum D) Zea mays 4. Bioluminescence is usually associated with

A) Chrysophyta B) Pyrrophyta C) Chlorophyta D) Phaeophyta

5. Name the Irish moss which produces carageenin?

A) Octoblepharum albidum B) Leucobryumbowringii C) Porphyra tenera D) Chondruscrispus

6. Which of the following are not algae in the true sense? A) Spirogyra and Chlorella B) Nostoc and Spirogyra C) Ulva and Chlorella D) Nostocand Chlorella 7. The following is not a vegetative mode of reproduction in fungi A) Fragmentation B) Rhizomorph C) Sclerotia D) Somatogamy 8. Rhizopus, Pencillium and Aspergillus are examples of A) Parasitic fungi B) Symbiotic fungi C) Saprophytic fungi D) Predacious fungi 9. The following is not cultivated asan edible fungi A) Coprinuscomatus B) Agaricusbispora C) Volvariellavolvacea D) Pleurotussajorcaju 10. Parmeliais known as A) Iceland moss B) Orchil C) Rock flower D) Reindeer moss


2

11. In Lichens following special vegetative structure is formed as respiratory organs A) Soredia B) Isdia C) Cyphellae D) Medulla 12. When a big fish eats a small fish, which eats water fleas supported by phytoplankton, the water fleas are A) Producers B) Primary consumers C) Secondary consumers D) Tertiary consumers 13. Match the following

A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 C) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3 D) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1

14. Red rust in tea is caused by A) Fungi B) Bacteria C) Algae D) Virus 15. Basidospores differ from ascospores in which of the following characters?

A) Four spores and are exogenously produced B) Eight spores and are exogenously produced C) Four spores and are endogenously produced D) Eight spores and are endogenously produced

16. Cyanobacteria form a variety of associations with bryophytes ranging from the

almost accidental to close symbioses. Name the bryophyte that possesses this property A) Marchantia B) Anthoceros C) Porella D) Polytrichum

17. When moss spore germinate they form A) Leafy gamaetophyte directly B) Capsule directly C) Protonema , then a leafy gametophyte D) Protonema which bears archegonia and antheridia

a. Apothecium 1. Erysiphe

b. Perithecium 2. Peziza

c. Cleistothecium 3. Claviceps

d. Ascostroma 4. Loculoascomycetidae


3

18. The conducting tissues do not consists Xylem and Phloem tissues in A) Pinus B) Cycas C) Brassica D) Funaria 19. The sporophyte containspseudoelators in A) Riccia B) Marchatia C) Anthoceros D) Funaria 20. The protostele of --------------species shows variations with respect to its shape

and arrangement of vascular tissue such as actinostele, plectostele, mixed protostels and plectosteles A) Marsilea B) Salvinia C) Equisetum D) Lycopodium

21. Dehiscence of sporangia takes place by a vertical splitting in A) Lycopodium B) Selaginella C) Equisetum D) Marselia 22. In theprothallus of the fern plant A) The nuclei of all cells including sex organs and gametes have monoploid number B) Only the sex organs and gametes have monoploid number C) Only the gametes have monoploid number D) The cells have mixploid condition 23. Winged seeds are present in A) Cycas B) Pinus C) Gnetum D) Ephedra 24. Deodar wood, the strongest coniferous wood is obtained from

A) Cryptomeria B) Cedrus C) Taxodium D) Sequoia

25. The gymnosperm Ginkgo bilobais considered as living fossil because it retains

primitive characters and A) It originated in the Triassic period of Mesozoic era B) It originated in the Jurassic period of Mesozoic era C) It originated in the Cretaceous period of Mesozoic era D) It originated in the Triassic period of Paleozoic era 26. In the system of classification by Bentham & Hooker dicotyledonous plants have been classified as A) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Monochlamydae B) Polypetalae, Gamopetalae, Dichlamydae C) Archechlamydae, Polypetalae, Monochlamydae D) None of these


4

27. In the plant name Capparislasiantha R.Br..ex.DC. The author citation indicated that A) Robert Brown published the name B) De candolle named it C) Robert Brown has more status than de Candolle D) Robert Brown and de Candolle have equal status 28. Gynobasic style is characteristic to the family A) Liliaceae B) Loranthaceae C) Lauraceae D) Labiatae 29. In a heaxaploid plant 2n=42. The base chromosome number x = A) 21 B) 7 C) 14 D) 12 30. Triticumaestivum is a polyploidy with genomes from A) Triticummonococum&Aegilopsspeltoedus B) Aegilopsspeltoedus&Aegilopsissquarrosa C) Aegilopsissquarrosa&Triticummonococum D) Triticummonococum ,Aegilopsspeltoedus&Aegilopsissquarrosa 31. The fruit in the family cruciferae is A) Siliqua B) Achene C) Berry D) Follicle 32. Cincinnus inflorescence is a distinguishing feature of family A) Rutaceae B) Metastomaceae C) Caryophyllaceae D) Lythraceae 33. Quinine is obtained from the plant that belongs to the family A) Rutaceae B) Rhamnaceae C) Rosaceae D) Rubiaceae 34. The fleshy edible fruit of cashew nut is the modified A) Ovary B) Thalamus C) Mesocarp D) Epicarp 35. A species confined to a small area is known as A) Rare B) Key stone C) Endemic D) Endangered 36. For preservation in the herbarium, the specimens are treated with A) Heating B) Repellents C) Fumigants D) All the above


5

37. Which among the following system is not a phylogenetic system of classification? A) Charles Bessey B) Robert Thorne C) Engler&Prantl D) De Candolle 38. A taxon should have a single correct name if the same name to be used for

different species or taxa is known as A) Tautonym B) Basionym C) Homonym D) Nomennudum 39. The pollen tube that enters the ovule by piercing the integuments is known as A) Porogamy B) Chalazogamy C) Mesogamy D) Syngamy 40. Endosperm development is completely absent in A) Orchidaceae B) Podostemaceae C) Both in A&B D) None of the above 41. Monosporicembryosac with eight nuclei is found in A) Adoxa B) Polygonum C) Allium D) Fritillaria 42. Indian rubber plant is A) Ficuselastica B) Ficusaltissima C) Ficuscarica D) Ficuspalmate 43. Saffron is obtained from A) The stigma B) The stamens C) The petals D) The seeds 44. Ragi is obtained from A) Oryza sativa B) Eleusinecoracana C) Panicummiliaceum D) Sorghum vulgare 45. Chlorofluorocarbons rise to the stratosphere and

A) React directly with stratospheric ozone to destroy it. B) Become free radicals that react with oxygen to create ozone. C) React with free radicals to remove carbon dioxide. D) After interacting with UV energy, become free radicals, which destroy

ozone. 46. “Jeevani” made by using ethanobotanical lead from the tribe A) Kani B) Kurumar C) Vellan D) Naikkan


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47. Generally the tribal people are non- vegetarians except A) Todas B) Kora C) Paniyan D) Kurichiyar 48. The fibers of Flax and Hemp originated from A) Xylem B) Pericycle C) Phloem D) Endodermis 49. During secondary thickening, the epidermis ruptured and the protective function is taken by A) Phellum B) Phellogen C) Periderm D) Phelloderm 50. In higher plants, parts get detached from mother plant by forming A) Callus B) Separation layer C) Protective layer D) Abscission zone 51. Calorimeters functions only in the visible light of frequency ranging from A) 400-700nm B) 200-400nm C) 700-800nm D) 100-400nm 52. Which of the following is not a natural dye? A) Brazilin B) Hematoxylin C) Colchineal D) Aniline blue 53. Which of the following can be used to stain DNA?

i. Feulgen ii. Ethidium bromide iii.Acetocarmineiv. Orcein A) i and ii only B) i and iii only C) i and iv only D) ii and iv only

54. The vital evidence to discover DNA structure wasprovided by A) Atomic Force Microscopy

B) Spectrophotometry C) X-ray Diffraction

D) Mass Spectrometry 55. All of the following are true for both TEM and SEM except: A) The illuminating source is an electron beam B) The microscope is focused using electromagnetic lenses C) Can be used to view specimens smaller than 0.2 micrometers D) The specimen must be sectioned prior to viewing


7

56. “Human cells contain DNA sequences that match the sequences found in bacterial

16SrDNA.” What is your response to this statement? A) The statement is untrue, because healthy human cells should contain no

bacterial DNA B) The statement is true, because mitochondria contain bacterial DNA

sequences C) The statement is untrue, because there is no such thing as rDNA, only

rRNA D) The statement is true, because the 16S sequences are part of the human

18S sequences 57. For transmission electron microscopy, thin sections have to be prepared by A) Rotary microtome B) Sled microtome C) Cryomicrotome D) Ultramicrotome 58. Haematoxylin is obtained from the A) Heart wood of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Fabaceae B) Leaf of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Fabaceae C) Heart wood of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Malvaceae D) Leaves of Haematoxylumcampechianum of the family Malvaceae 59. The fuelgen nuclear reaction included the following A) Reaction of deoxyribose with leucofuschin to give purple colour to DNA B) Reaction of ribose with leucofuschin to give purple colour to DNA C) Removal of purine at purine deoxyriboseglycosidic bond of DNA by acid hydrolysis. D) All of the above 60. In humans, the Barr body is an

A) Active X chromosome in females B) Active X chromosome in males C) Inactive Y chromosome in males D) Inactive X chromosome in females

61. Disease(s) caused by perturbation of protein conformation A) Prion diseases only B) Alzheimer’sdisease only C) Both A&B D) None of these 62. The following is not a carbohydrate. A) Starch B) Glycogen C) Inulin D) Prostaglandins 63. Kwashiorkor disease is caused by deficiency of A) Starch B) Protein C) Fatty acids D) Minerals


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64. The anticodon loop of atRNA typically consists of A) 3 codons B) 6 codons C) 7 codons D) 5 codons 65. Transcription is specifically regulated by regulatory proteins of unique motifs - A) Helix-turn Helix B) Zinc finger C) Leucine Zipper D) All the above 66. Eco R1 is the restriction enzyme that recognizes the following DNA sequence A) GGATCC

CCTAGG B) GAATTC

CTTAAG C) GCGC

CGCG D) TCGA

AGCT 67. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin K D) Vitamin D 68. Which of the following is not listed as essential amino acid in humans? A) Arginine B) Valine C) Leucine D) Alanine 69. In higher plant leaves, the reduction of nitrate to ammonium takes place by the

combined action of nitrate reductase localized in cytosol and nitrite reductase localized in A) Peroxisomes B) Mitochondria C) Chloroplasts D) Cytosol

70. The swelling of doors and windows during rainy season is due to A) Adsorption of water B) Absorption of water C) Imbibition of water D) Diffusion of water 71. Which of the following represents the sequence of electron flow in the light

reactions of photosynthesis in higher plants? A) H2O photosystem I photosystem II NADP B) H2O photosystem II photosystem I NADP C) H2O photosystem II photosystem I ATP D) NADPH photosystem I → photosystem II O2


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72. The atom within each cytochrome molecule that actually accepts and release

electron is A) Carbon B) Iron C) Zinc D) Oxygen 73. Which of the following statements are associated with the process of

photorespiration in plants? (P) Photorespiration takes place in only C3 plants. (Q) Photorespiration takes place in only C4 plants. (R) Photorespiration takes place in both C3 and C4 plants. (S) Glycolate is oxidized to glyoxylate in the peroxisome. (T) Glycolate is oxidized to glyoxylate in the mitochondria. A) (P) and (S) B) (R) and (S) C) (Q) and (T) D) (R) and (T)

74. How many distinct photosynthetic mechanisms exist in vascular plants? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1 75. In the following crops, which produces maximum carbohydrate/unit land? A) Rice B) Wheat C) Potato D) Sugarcane 76. The treatment that induces rapid growth and development in the plants of

temperate or polar region is A) Vernalization B) Grating C) Scarification D) Soaking of seeds 77. Movement of pollen tube towards micropyle of ovule depends on A) Thigmotropism B) Thermotropism C) Chemotropism D) Hydrotropism 78. Which of the following groups of enzymes are unique to the Calvin cycle?

A) Ribulosebisphosphate carboxylase, phosphoribulokinase, and sedoheptulose1, 7-bisphosphatase

B) Ribose 5-phosphate isomerase, epimerase, and aldolase C) Glyceraldehyde3-phosphate dehydrogenase, phosphofructokinase, and

phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase D) Phosphoglycolate phosphatase, glycerol kinase, and serine synthetase

79. Biomass turnover time is the ratio between biomass and productivity of an

ecosystem. Which of the following forests should have highest biomass turnover time? A) Tropical dry forests B) Tropical wet forests C) Temperate deciduous forests D) Boreal forests


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80. A community dominated by shrubs and bushes is called A) Steppe B) Prairie C) Scrub D) Pampas 81. Population of individuals of a species having genetically fixed variations but are

interfertile and placed under same taxonomic species is called A) Ecads B) Ecotypes C) Endemic species D) Key stone species

82. Which among the following is not an organophosphates pesticide?

A) Parathion B) Malathion C) Methyl parathion D) DDT

83. Tectonagrandis shed leaves during A) Winter B) Summer C) Before flowering D) After fruiting 84. Which of the following represents a food chain A) Grasshopper-Green plants-Frog-Snake-Peacock B) Green plants - Grasshopper- -Frog-Snake-Peacock C) Grasshopper-Green plants- Snake- Frog –Peacock D) Green plants -Grasshopper- Frog--Peacock- Snake 85. Match Column I Column II

a. Strontium (i) minamata

b. Mercury (ii) itai–itai

c. lead (iii) bone cancer

d. Cadmium (iv) anaemia

A) a- iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii B) a- ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii C) a- i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv D) a- iv, b-i c-iii, d-ii

86. The period known as Age of Giant Lycopods A) Cretaceous B) Jurassic C) Triassic D) Carboniferous 87. Gondwana land consists of A) India, Africa, Australia, South America &Antartica B) South America &Antartica C) Africa, America &Antartica D) India & Australia


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88. Which of the following best supports the endosymbiotic theory of the

evolutionary origin of mitochondria? A) Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and prokaryotes contain electron carriers. B) Genes for mitochondrial pyruvate dehydrogenase subunits are found in the

nuclear DNA C) Mitochondrial and bacterial ribosomal functions are inhibited by the same

antibiotics D) The outer mitochondrial membrane contains the protein porin.

89. The organism which requires priority of conservation according to the Red Data

Book published by IUCN is A) Vulnerable B) Endangered C) Rare D) Threatened

90. The following biofertilizer is not a nitrogen source A) Rhizobium B) Azolla C) Pseudomonas D) Azospirillum 91. Biosphere reserve in Madhya Pradesh A) Gulf of Mannar B) Sundarbans C) Nandadevi D) Panchmarhi 92. Diploid organisms in which one chromosome of a single pair is missing are called A) Trisomic B) Nullisomic C) Monosomic D) Tetrasomic 93. Abnormal males possessing an extra X chromosome develop A) Klinefelter Syndrome B) Turner Syndrome C) Down syndrome D) Patau Syndrome 94. In meiosis, an inversion in one member of a pair of homologous chromosomes

will most likely lead to which of the following? A) Nondisjunction of the affected chromosome B) Chromosomes with duplications and deficiencies C) Increased recombination frequency in the inverted region D) Mispairing of the affected chromosome with a nonhomologous

chromosome 95. Smallest unit in the cell wall is A) Fibril B) Microfibril C) Micelle D) Cutin 96. The following crystalline DNA helix structure is left handed A) A- DNA B) B –DNA C) Z -DNA D) D –DNA


12

97. During meiosis, crossing over between two non-sister chromatids occurs at A) Leptotene B) Zygotene C) Pachytene D) Diplotene 98. If an organism of genotype AaBbCcDd are test crossed, how many different

phenotypes can appear in the progeny A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16

99. The genotype Ab/aB produces 8% each of cross over type gametes. The distance

between A and B is estimated as A) 8cM B) 16cM C) 4cM D) None of the above

100. A class of mutations caused by addition or deletion of one or two nucleotides is

called A) Silent Mutation B) Transition C) Frame shift D) Transversion 101. Chloroplast based DNA markers are now being used for the taxonomic

identification of plants. This method is called A) RAPD B) RFLP C) AFLP D) DNA barcoding 102. Suppose that in a sample of 900 sheep, 891 are white and 9 are black. White

wool is dominant over black wool. Estimate the frequency of recessive allele A) 0.7 B) 0.3 C) 0.9 D) 0.1

103. Individuals born with a condition known as phenylketonuria must control their intake of phenylalanine or suffer developmental problems. Because of this they must avoid foods rich in what? A) Proteins and lipids B) Fats and oils C) Proteins D) Simple sugars

104. The mRNA codon GUC will be recognized by the anticodon of tRNA A) CAG B) GUC C) GAC D) CTG 105. The radioisotope used to label protein differently from nucleic acid is A) 32P B) 14C C) 35S D) 15N 106. There are three kinds of RNA polymerase, each specific for one class of RNA.

Which of the following is the correct match? A) RNA I-rRNA, RNA II –mRNA, RNA III-tRNA B) RNA I-rRNA, RNA II-tRNA, RNA III-mRNA C) RNA I-mRNA, RNAII-tRNA, RNAIII-rRNA D) RNA I-tRNA, RNA II-tRNA, RNA III- r RNA


13

107. The terminator codons are A) UAA, UAG, UGA B) UUU, UUC, UUG C) UUA, UGG, UGA D) UGC, UGG, UAG 108. A base change in DNA that would not affect the amino acid sequence in the

protein is known as A) Missense mutation B) Nonsense mutation C) Silent Mutation D) Neutral mutation 109. Electrophoresis of histones and myoglobin under non-denaturing conditions (pH =

7.0) results in A) Both proteins migrate to the anode B) Histones migrate to the anode and myoglobin migrates to the cathode C) Histones migrate to the cathode and myoglobin migrates to the anode D) Both proteins migrate to the cathode

110. Formation of what type of chemical bond is catalyzed by DNA ligase A) Phosphoester B) Hydrogen C) Glycosidic D) Ester 111. The following crop is used in phytoremediation A) Mustard B) Wheat C) Rice D) Sugarcane 112. Freeze preservation of living plant cells involves the following steps A) Freezing- thawing – storage- reculture B) Freezing-storage- reculture –thawing C) Freezing-storage-thawing-reculture D) Freezing--reculture -storage-thawing 113. The cDNA library of the organism will be A) Tissue specific B) Growth specific C) Organ specific D) Cell specific 114. Drought tolerance in plants is strongly correlated with the accumulation of

aminoacid A) Serine B) Lysine C) Tryptophan D) Proline 115. If male plant is diploid and female plant is tetraploid , the endosperm will be A) Haploid B) Pentaploid C) Triploid D) Tetraploid


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116. The tool used for pairwise analysis of DNA sequences A) ClustalW B) PROBCONS C) MUSCLE D) BLAST 117. Which of the following public domain is/are open access data bases? A) NCBI B) ExPASy C) PDB D) All the above 118. Emasculation in coconut tree is done by A) Removing anthers from the male flowers B) Removing anthers from the bisexual flowers C) Removing the male flowers from the inflorescence D) Removing anthers from the male flowers before anthesis 119. When light is irradiated into a rapidly flowing solution containing cells, a

scattered light is released from the cells and cells can be separated based on the properties of the scattered light. This principle is used in

A) Radioimmunoassay B) Flow cytometry C) Immunoprecipitation D) Fluorescence microscopy 120. The standard deviation of the data is 6. When each observation is increased by 1,

the standard deviation of the new data is A) 6 B) 8 C) 5 D) 7

******************


13603 120 MINUTES 1. Mycoplasma are resistant to common antibiotics like penicillin because of

A) Sterols in the membrane B) Lack of cell wall C) Small genome size D) Active repairing mechanism

2. The compound employed as a fusogen for plant protoplast fusion techniques? A) Sodium chloride B) Potassium chloride C) Polyethylene glycol D) Trehalose

3. Reverse transcriptases are encoded by retroviruses. One of the enzymes from the mammalian cells which shows reverse transcriptase-like activity is

A) Telomerase B) Ribozyme C) Caspase D) Ribonuclease

4. The frequency of an allele in a population can be changed by forces like A) Dominance, family selection, fitness & diversification B) Selection, mutation, migration, inbreeding & random genetic drift C) Forward mutation, gene conversion, neutral evolution & recombination D) Gene interaction, gene transfer, gene mutation & out breeding

5. The methodology for defining gene arrangement in very long stretches of DNA (for example 50-100kb) is A) Nick translation B) Chromosome walking C) AFLP D) Southern blotting 6. Norman Borlaug, the Father of Green Revolution, revolutionized agriculture by

developing new varieties of A) Wheat B) Rice C) Maize D) Corn

7. Theory of Continental Drift was proposed by A) Du Tolit B) Charles Darwin C) Alfred Wegener D) Weisman

8. For a population in which mortality rate is low until the end of life span, the mode of survivorship graph is

A) Highly convex curve B) Highly Diagonal curve C) Concave curve D) Linear curve


2

9. The mechanism that best describes the opening of stomata in plants?

A) Influx of K+ into the guard cells followed by endosmosis, making the cells turgid

B) K+ triggers the water pumps in the guard cell membrane that make them turgid

C) Efflux of K+ from the guard cells followed by water, making the cells flaccid

D) Loss of K+ from guard cells creates positive pressure leading to turgidity of the guard cells

10. How many ATP molecules or ATP equivalents are required to synthesize a protein which contains 100 amino acids?

A) 600 B) 400 C) 200 D) 300

11. Polygonum type embryo sac is A) Monosporic B) Bisporic C) Trisporic D) Tetrasporic

12. In a frequency distribution, if the mean is less than the mode, and the median is greater than the mean but less than the mode, the distribution is considered to be: A) Negatively skewed B) Positively skewed C) Symmetrical D) Open ended 13. Which of the following computer language is used for artificial intelligence?

A) FORTRAN B) COBOL C) PROLOG D) C

14. Cell cycle check points form a mechanism to ensure A) Proper DNA replication B) Proper chromosome separation C) Proper completion of each stage in cell cycle D) Proper termination of cell cycle

15. Which of the following type of microscopy is most useful for viewing the internal structures of unstained specimens?

A) Phase-contrast B) Bright field C) Electron D) Confocal

16. Which of the following techniques would give you the most precise and accurate information about where and when a given gene is expressed?

A) In situ hybridization B) DNA microarray C) Promoter gene fusion including introns D) Reporter gene fusion including introns

17. The spore of diatoms resulting from syngamy are called A) Autospore B) Auxospore C) Androspore D) Zygospore


3

18. Infectious single stranded RNA in plants that are not associated with any protein

is known as A) Viruses B) Viroids C) Priones D) Satellite viruses

19. Powdery lesions on the underside of the coffee leaves appear as orange yellow to red orange in colour known as coffee rust is caused by

A) Hemileia vastatrix B) Puccinia graminis C) Cronartium ribicola D) Uromyces phaseoli

20. Which of these spores are characteristic of the black bread mold Rhizopus? A) Basidospores B) Arthrospores C) Sporangiospores D) Ascospores

21. Litmus, a dye used in laboratories as an indicator of acid-base, is obtained from A) Rocella B) Usnea C) Peltigera D) Everina

22. Sporophyte with Synangium, homosporous with eusporangite development is seen in the pteridophyte

A) Psilotum B) Lycopodium C) Isoetes D) Marselia

23. Birbal Sahni (1948) made the first collection of fossilized pteridophyte Pentoxylales from the village Nipania of A) Bihar B) Assam C) Utter Pradesh D) Kashmir 24. Who among the following proposed a phylogenetic system of classification?

A) Carl Linnaeus B) Bentham and Hooker C) John Hutchinson D) Charles Darwin

25. Plants with stellate hairs, mucilaginous, free lateral stipule, solitary flowers, free petals with contorted aestivation, monoadelphous stamen, ovules with axile placentation is seen in the family

A) Malvaceae B) Rutaceae C) Caryophyllacea D) Meliaceae

26. Pavement tissue, a unique region occurs in the ovule of the gymnosperm A) Gnetum B) Taxus C) Agathis D) Ephedra

27. Study of medical aspects of pollen grains is known as

A) Latropalynology B) Mellitopalynology C) Aeropalynology D) Copropalynology


4

28. Strip of parenchyma cells, polygonal or radially elongated, lying in between vascular bundle is known as

A) Cambium B) Bundle sheath C) Medullary rays D) Endodermis 29. Feulgen staining of DNA is based on the reaction of Schiffs reagent with

A) Free aldehyde group of pentose sugar B) Purines at N-7 position C) Pyrimidines at N-1 position D) Phosphate moiety of nucleotide

30. Winged bean is the common name of A) Psophocarpus tetragonolobus B) Viccia angularis C) Lens culinaris D) Cyamopsis tetragonoloba

31. The chemistry of raphide crystal is A) Silica B) Calcium oxalate C) Calcium carbonate D) Ferric sulphate

32. In a competitive inhibition the Km and Vmax values of an enzyme A) Km and Vmax values decrease B) Km value increases whereas Vmax remains unchanged C) Km and Vmax values increase D) Km value remains unchanged and Vmax value decreases

33. The proteins in the native PAGE are separated on the basis of A) Molecular mass B) Net charge and size C) Net charges D) Based on isoelectric value

34. Which is the strongest reducing agent in photosynthetic electron transport cycle in chloroplast?

A) P700* B) P680* C) Plastoquinone D) Plasocyanin

35. If a carotenoid-less mutant plant was grown under normal sunlight, then ……. occurs

A) Increased chlorophyll oxidation and necrosis B) Increased chlorophyll synthesis C) Increased photosynthetic rate D) Reduced photorespiration

36. Plasma membrane infoldings are characteristic of A) Transfer cells B) Transfusion tissue

C) Mitochondria D) Companion cells


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37. The antibody that binds to mast cells, promote the release of histamine and other agents that produce allergic symptoms

A) Ig M B) Ig G C) Ig E D) Ig D

38. Deinococcus radiodurans an extremophilic bacterium is able to survive even exposure to massive radiation?

A) Because it possess a thick shell which acts as a shield from the radiation B) Because it has unique repair mechanisms C) Because its cell wall contains radioactive neutralizing elements D) Because it has many copies of genes encoding DNA repair

39. The presence of pyrenoid in the middle of the chloroplast in a bryophyte, a unique feature, makes it apparently resemble with algae is seen in

A) Funaria B) Riccia C) Anthoceros D) Porella 40. Canada balsam is obtained from

A) Podocarpus acutifolius B) Taxus baccata C) Agathis alba D) Abies balsamea

41. Taxonomy, when it is strengthened by incorporating data from semantides and non semantides is called

A) Numerical taxonomy B) Cytotaxonomy C) Chemotaxonomy D) Alpha taxonomy

42. Botanical Survey of India was established in 1890 under the Ex-officio Director A) Sir George King B) Sir Arthur James C) J.D. Hooker D) Robert Kyd

43. A fossil bryophyte identified from Rhaetic, Upper Triassic is A) Naiadita B) Plagiochasma C) Leucobryum D) Plagiochila 44. Carnoy’s fluid employed in cytological preparations consists of the following

A) Absolute alcohol + chloroform + glacial acetic acid B) Absolute alcohol + chloroform + distilled water C) Absolute alcohol + Formalin + glacial acetic acid D) Absolute alcohol + Chromic acid + glacial acetic acid

45. Abnormal functioning of cambium and multiple cambial ring formation leads to anomalous secondary growth in

A) Bignonia B) Bauhinia C) Boerhavia D) Eupatorium

46. The chemotherapeutic drug derived from Taxus species which is used to treat breast cancer is

A) Vincristin B) Vinblastin C) Paclitaxel D) Taxine


6

47. Melting of DNA molecule leads to

A) Decrease in optical density B) Increase in optical density C) No change in optical density D) Fluctuation in optical density

48. When the cell is Plasmolyzed, its A) DPD = OP B) DPD = 0 C) DPD = OP + TP D) DPD = OP – TP

49. A transitional zone between two ecosystems is called A) Fragile ecosystem B) Biome C) Ecotone D) Buffer zone

50. Whose name is most closely associated with molecular evolution? A) Theodosius Dobzhansky B) Motoo Kimura C) Frederick Sanger D) Stephen Jay Gould

51. International Conservation for Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) headquarters is located at

A) Morges, Switzerland B) Paris, France C) Vienna, Austria D) New York, USA

52. The Gangetic estuary of Sunderban region is rich in A) Deciduous forests B) Evergreen forests C) Subtropical forests D) Mangrove vegetation 53. A gene inherited from female is not recognized in either male or female offspring, but the same gene is expressed in both male and female offspring when inherited from male. This can be aptly explained by

A) Repression B) Deletion C) Recombination D) Imprinting

54. Chromosomal puffs are active sites of A) RNA synthesis B) DNA replication C) Lipid synthesis D) Polysaccharide synthesis

55. Satellite DNA is A) Short repetitive nucleotide sequence B) Single gene regions C) Ribosomal RNA genes D) Extra chromosomal DNA

56. The factor involved in the control of epigenetic gene expression in eukaryotes is? A) RNA polymerase II B) DNA methyltransferase C) TF II D D) TF II H

57. In a population, 75% are with dominant phenotype and the rest are with the recessive phenotype. If the population is in equilibrium with respect to this locus, what is the frequency of the dominant allele?

A) 0.5 B) 0.25 C) 0.75 D) 0.40


7

58. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disease that causes a variety of phenotypic changes in skin cells on exposure to light like freckles on face, arms, and legs. What is the most likely disorder of this DNA repair mechanism?

A) Base excision repair B) Nucleotide excision repair C) Defective RNA transcription from TATA- less promoter D) Impaired DNA repair by photo reactivation

59. Which was the first eukaryotic chromosome sequenced with 315 kb? A) Yeast chromosome III B) Yeast chromosome XI C) Arabidopsis chromosome IV D) Arabidopsis chromosome III

60. Elite plants of a population are selected at the time of harvest and their seeds are bulked for sowing in the next season is termed as

A) Pure line selection B) Mass selection C) Line breeding D) Recurrent selection

61. First genetically modified plant produced in 1982 was A) Transgenic tobacco B) Transgenic maize C) Transgenic tomato D) Transgenic cotton 62. The mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is

A) Translocation B) Inversion C) Crossing over D) Duplication

63. A mouse in which one particular gene has been replaced by its inactivated form generated in vitro is called A) Transgenic mouse B) Knockout mouse C) Humouse D) Recombinant mouse 64. The field of horticulture involved in fruit growing and study of all fruits and nuts

is A) Pomology B) Olericulture C) Arboriculture D) Floriculture

65. Which among the following tribal community receives benefit of the use of Trichopus zeylanicus as per benefit sharing system?

A) Kuruchiyar B) Kaatunaikan C) Kani D) Mullukurumba

66. Bacterial artificial chromosome, cosmid, P1phage and plasmid are common cloning vectors with a range from 1 to 300k. Which of the following is the proper order for these vectors in terms of cloning capacity?

A) Bacterial artificial chromosome, cosmid, P1 phage, plasmid B) Cosmid, Bacterial artificial chromosome, P1 phage, plasmid C) P1 Phage, cosmid, Bacterial artificial chromosome, plasmid D) Plasmid, cosmid, P1 phage, Bacterial artificial chromosome


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67. The first step of proof reading during protein synthesis is carried out by?

A) Ribosomes B) aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase C) m-RNA D) t-RNA

68. Position effect is the result of A) Mutations B) Deletions C) Transversions D) Inversions

69. A taxonomic system based only on the traits that reflect the order in time in which branches arose in a phylogenetic tree is called

A) Phylogeny B) Cladistic C) Classical evolutionary taxonomy D) Phenetics

70. A keystone species is one that A) Exhibits higher likelihood of extinction than a non keystone species B) Exerts a strong influence on an ecosystem C) Leads to extinction of other species D) Has a weak influence on an ecosystem

71. Plant succession initiated on such areas where there is extreme scarcity of water is known as

A) Lithosere B) Hydrosere C) Xerosere D) Psammosere 72. The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known as the A) Net primary productivity B) Standing crop C) Trophic efficiency D) Standing state 73. Paratracheal parenchyma may be found:

A) at the interface of spring and summer wood B) around wood rays C) around xylem vessels D) in phloem

74. Endosperm haustoria with vermiform appendage is reported in A) Grevillea B) Coconut C) Adoxa D) Hyoscymus

75. Pseudostem with sheathing leaf base, thick midrib, spathaceous bracts, corolla two lipped, stamens 5, ovary inferior with many ovules on axile placentation – these are seen in A) Arecaceae B) Aroideae C) Poaceae D) Musaceae

76. Prokaryotes contain one RNA polymerase. How many are there in eukaryotes? A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4


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77. The gymnosperm wood which is densely packed with reduced pith and cortex is known as A) Pycnoxylic B) Monoxylic C) Hard wood D) Light wood 78. Red rot of sugar cane is caused by

A) Colletotrichum falcatum B) Xanthomonas citri C) Alternaria solani D) Fusarium oxysporum

79. The genetic effect seen in an isolated population formed by a few individuals of a species is known as A) Bottleneck effect B) Founder effect C) Assortative effect D) Random mating

80. Which fungal group shows Clamp Formation? A) Basidomycota B) Ascomycota C) Chytridiomycota D) Deuteromycota

81. The algae possess a life cycle that switches between diploid sporophyte and haploid gametophyte which are indistinguishable morphologically i.e. isomorphic diplohaplontic?

A) Volvox B) Zygnema C) Ulothrix D) Cladophora

82. The binding of the antigen to the antibody takes place through the interaction of antigen with

A) Light chain of antibody B) Light & heavy chain of antibody C) Light & heavy chain and with Fc fragment of the antibody D) Heavy chain of antibody

83. Student’s t-test was developed

A) As an easy statistical test for students B) By the students of Oxford University C) By W.S.Gosset D) By R.A.Fisher

84. Teichoic acids are polysaccharides of glycerol phosphate typically found in A) Cell walls of gram positive bacteria B) Cell walls of gram negative bacteria C) Cell membrane of gram positive bacteria D) Cell membrane of gram negative bacteria 85. Of the three types of ecological pyramids, which pyramid gives the best overall picture of the functional nature of communities? A) Pyramid of number B) Pyramid of mass C) Pyramid of energy D) Both A and C


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86. Which of the following is incorrect? A) Root apical meristem is the meristem of synthesis of cytokinin B) Methionine is the precursor of Ethylene C) Tryptophan is the precursor of IAA

D) Thidiazuron is the most abundant naturally occurring cytokinin of higher plants

87. Agar is obtained from the algae

A) Gelidium B) Gracillaria C) Both A & B D) Polysiphonia

88. The most common type of chromosome rearrangement involving acrocentric chromosomes of humans is

A) Robertsonian translocation B) Inversion C) Duplication D) Deletion 89. In amphivasal vascular bundles A) Peripherally arranged xylem elements enclose a mass of phloem B) Peripherally arranged phloem elements enclose a mass of xylem C) Xylem and phloem are arranged side by side D) Xylem is seen on either side of the phloem 90. A Pteridophyte member with ridged stem, consists of alternating vallecular and carinal canal with V shaped poorly developed xylem

A) Selaginella B) Equisetum C) Microsorium D) Marsilea

91. The Gymnosperm known as living fossil and represented worldwide distribution in Jurassic is

A) Ginkgo B) Ephedra C) Williamsonia D) Lyginopteris

92. The specimen collected from the same locality from where the holotype was originally collected and is the contingent from the same population is known as A) Tototype B) Neotype C) Epitype D) Isotype 93. The family characterized by herbaceous plants, swollen nodes, dichasial cyme, complete, actinomorphic, hypogynous flower, obdiplostemonous condition, ovules on free central placentation.

A) Caryophyllaceae B) Ranunculaceae C) Cruciferae D) Rutaceae

94. If a diploid cell contains six chromosomes, how many possible random arrangements of homologous could occur during Metaphase- I

A) 4 B) 8 C) 6 D) 64

95. A plant of genotype AB/ab is test crossed to ab/ab. If the two loci are 10 map units apart, what proportion of the progeny will be AB/ab?

A) 5% B) 45% C) 10% D) 20%


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96. The genome of a typical bacterium contains about 5 × 106 base pairs and can be replicated in about 41 minutes. The human genome is 600X larger (3 × 109 base pairs) and at the rate of a bacterium would require 300 hours (~12 days) to be replicated; yet the entire human genome can be replicated within a few hours. How is this possible? A) Eukaryotic DNA is simpler to replicate than prokaryotic DNA

B) Human DNA polymerases works much faster than that of prokaryotes C) The nucleosomes of eukaryotic DNA allow for faster DNA replication D) Human DNA contains more origins of replication than prokaryotic DNA 97. Choose the mismatch

A. DNase I 1.Cleaves only ds DNA B. Maxam-Gilbert method 2.Chemical modification of bases

C. Dideoxy terminator 3. Sanger method

D. Biotin 4. Water soluble vitamin

98. The bacterial enzyme that changes positively supercoiled DNA into negatively supercoiled DNA is

A) DNA helicase B) DNA gyrase C) Single stranded binding protein D) Polymerase

99. In sheep, dominant allele B produces white wool and its recessive allele b produces black wool. In a total of 900 sheep, 891 are white and 9 are black. Estimate the frequency of the B allele

A) 0.1 B) 0.9 C) 0.3 D) 0.7 100. A bag contains 10 black and 20 white balls and a ball is drawn in random. What is the possibility of drawing a black ball?

A) 0.33 B) 0.22 C) 0.55 D) 0.88

101. Rosalind Franklin’s pictures of DNA double helix were taken using the technique known as

A) Diffraction B) X-ray crystallography C) Fluorescence D) Transmission electron microscopy

102. An analysis of chromosomal DNA by Southern blot technique, involves the following steps 1. Autoradiography 2. Blotting 3. Cleavage 4. Electrophoresis 5. Hybridization Which of the following sequence of steps best illustrates this technique?

A) 1,2,3,4,5 B) 1,3,2,4,5 C) 3,5,2,4,1 D) 3,4,2,5,1


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103. Axenic culture is best defined as A) Cell culture B) Organ culture C) Cell culture of microbes D) Cell culture free from other microbes

104. Binomial of a plant with no accompanying description is known as A) Tautonym B) Nomen nudum C) Late homonym D) Later isonym

105. Adventive polyembryony is due to A) Cleavage of proembryo B) Embryo from cells other than egg cell C) Splitting of zygote D) Embryos from nucellus

106. Henna dye is obtained from A) Lawsonia inermis B) Lagerstroemia speciosa C) Lythrum baeticum D) Indigofera tinctoria

107. Jeffreys maceration technique comprises the following chemical combination

A) Chromic acid + nitric acid B) Potassium chlorate C) Potassium chlorate + chromic acid D) Sodium sulphite + chlorine water

108. Dicentric chromatids are produced when crossing over takes place in chromosomes with

A) Heterozygous paracentric inversion B) Heterozygous pericentric inversion

C) Homozygous inversions D) Duplication

109. Fumaria type, Cucurbita type, Lathyrus type and Anemarrhena type are categories

of A) Root stem transition B) Nodal anatomy C) Stelar types D) Embryo sac types

110. Ribose and Deoxyribose differ in the structure around a single carbon namely

A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C5

111. The key enzyme for nitrogen fixation namely Nitrogenase consists of

dinitrogenase and dinitrogen reductase. These differ from each other in the presence of the following metal component A) Iron B) Molybdenum C) Zinc D) Manganese

112. Name the compound with greatest standard free energy A) ATP B) Phosphocreatine C) Phosphoenol pyruvate D) cAMP


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113. One of the kinase enzymes in Glycolytic pathway is reversible A) Hexokinase B) Phosphofructokinase C) Pyruvate kinase D) Phosphoglycerate kinase

114. The aminoacid that does not participate in transamination

A) Lysine B) Glutamate C) Alanine D) Tryptophan

115. The event leading to post translational modification A) Hydroxylation B) Glycosylation C) Phosphorylation D) All of these

116. Ribosomes are attached to endoplasmic reticulum so as to form rough endoplasmic reticulum mediated by

A) Ribophorin I B) Ribophorin II C) Both (A) and (B) D) Magnesium linked protein

117. The largest cell organelle is

A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondrion C) Peroxisome D) Golgi cisternae

118. In Ectocarpus, gametangia are sexual bodies which are A) Plurilocular B) Unilocular C) Monosporangia D) Nucule 119. What characteristic domain is found in eukaryotic proteins that enable them to enter the endoplasmic reticulum? A) Stop transfer domain B) Signal sequence C) Signal sequence receptor D) Signal recognition protein 120. Cryptochromes are pigments involved in the circadian rhythms of plants, sensing of magnetic fields in a number of species and are sensitive to

A) Red light B) Blue light C) Far red light D) Both blue & red light

………………


A 16103 120 MINUTES 1. The consensus sequence of Pribnow box is A) TATATA B) TATAAT C) TTAATT D) TATTAT 2. The topological form of DNA that does not occur in biological systems is A) A-DNA B) B-DNA C) C-DNA D) Z-DNA 3. The enzymes that induce slight negative supercoiling in natural DNA is A) DNA topoisomerase B) DNA helicase C) DNA primase D) DNA ligase 4. Non-covalent chemical bonds that stabilize the DNA double helix by connecting the adjacent aromatic rings of base pairs is A) Sigma bonds B) Delta bonds C) Gamma bonds D) Pi bonds 5. In DNA triple helix, the third strand is attached to the double helix by A) Watson & Crick pairing B) Hoogsteen pairing C) Agostic pairing D) Ionic pairing 6. RNA polymerase binds to a gene on the 3' end of a DNA template strand, termed A) Repressor B) Promoter C) Attenuator D) Operator 7. Intron homing is A) Removal of introns from the exon sequences B) Splicing of introns in the hnRNA C) Insertion of intron to an intron-less site D) Deletion of introns from a homologous site 8. The snRNPs are found in A) Ribosome B) Lysosome C) Replisome D) Spliceosome 9. In humans, the gene with the greatest number of introns is for A) Globin B) Titin C) Insulin D) Cyclin 10. The 1993 Nobel prize in Physiology and Medicine for the discovery of gene- splicing was awarded to A) Philip Allen Sharp & Richard J. Roberts B) Elizabeth H. Blackburn & Carol W. Greider C) Mario Capecchi, Martin Evans & Oliver Smithies D) Selman Waksman & Albert Schatz


2

11. In which of the following families is pseudo embryo sac present? A) Podostemaceae B) Amaranthaceae C) Malvaceae D) Poaceae 12. Single letter code of tryptophan

A) W B) F C) Y D) Z

13. Which of the following is not an osmolyte? A) Proline B) Sucrose C) Plastoquinone D) Trehalose 14. Which one of the following terms describes the repeated selection on intervening

populations derived from interbreeding of selected individuals to accumulate the desirable genes for a particular quantitative character without loss of genetic variability? A) Mater line selection B) Recurrent selection C) Mass selection D) Pure line selection

15. Which statement is correct regarding Melbourne Code – 2011?

A) Latin diagnosis is not mandatory for names published on or after 01/01/ 2012.

B) Publication of taxa in electronic media is effective on or after 01/01/ 2012. C) The Code is named as International Code of Nomenclature for algae, fungi and plants.

D) All of the above 16. Ames test is a test for: A) Coliforms B) Carbohydrates

C) Mutagenecity D) Lipids 17. The basic unit of numerical taxonomy is called A) PTU B) OTU C) CTU D) KTU 18. What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species?

A) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered; an endangered species has population numbers too low that it is likely to become extinct

B) A threatened species is already extinct; an endangered species means that the population’s numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years

C) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered; an endangered species is already extinct

D) A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing 19. Which among the following is not a nucleic acid database? A) EMBL B) GenBank C) DDBJ D) SWISS-PROT


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20. Red rust is caused by:

A) Puccinia B) Cephaleuros C) Batrachospermum D) Colletotrichum

21. Which of the following is diploid in moss plant?

A) Spore B) Leaves C) Spore mother cell D) Gametes

22. Linen is obtained from: A) Flax B) Hemp C) Sisal D) Manila hemp 23. A cross in which the sexes of the parents are the reverse of another cross: A) Reciprocal cross B) Back cross

C) Test cross D) Dihybrid cross 24. The androecium of family Asteraceae is A) Syngenesious B) Polyadelphous

C) Synandrous D) Monoadelphous 25. A specimen selected from the original material to serve as a nomenclatural type

when no holotype was designated at the time of publication is called: A) Neotype B) Lectotype C) Epitype D) Syntype 26. Which one of the following is the first known fossil vascular plant? A) Cooksonia B) Zosterophyllum C) Rhynia D) Williamsonia 27. BLAST is used: A) To find similarity between sequences B) To align sequences

C) To design primers D) To amplify DNA

28. All of the following act to increase species diversity, except

A) Key stone species B) Competitive exclusion C) Moderate disturbances D) Pachy environments

29. Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the

following terms would best describe this plant herbivore interaction? A) Predation B) Mutualism C) Competition D) Parasitism

30. Gene flow is a concept best used to describe an exchange between

A) Individuals B) Species C) Chromosomes D) Populations


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31. Which of the following terms best describes the process in which organisms reach sexual maturity while retaining some juvenile characteristics? A) Cladogenesis B) Paedomorphosis C) Allometric growth D) Homoplasy

32. Carrying capacity (K)

A) Differs among species, but does not vary within a given species B) Is always eventually reached in any population

C) Remains constant in all environments D) Is often determined by resource limitation

33. The stratosphere extends to a height ranging from:

A) About 10 km - 50 km B) About 5 km to 10 km C) About 50 km – 85 km D) About 60 km - 90 km

34. Which is the inhibitor which inhibits the transfer of electrons from PS II to

cytochrome complex? A) Paraquat B) Methylviologen C) DCMU D) DCBQ

35. The function of the electron transport proteins in the thylakoid membranes is

A) Production of ADP by chemiosmosis B) Production of NADPH by substrate-level phosphorylation C) Pumping of hydrogens into the lumen for later generation of ATP by

chemiosmosis D) Pumping of hydrogens into the inner cristae space for later generation of

ATP by chemiosmosis 36. One of the following is an inhibitor of mitochondrial ETC A) Rotenone B) Chloramphenicol C) Cyclohexamide D) DCPIP 37. One of the following is an inhibitior of electron transport in thylakoids.

A) DCPIP B) DCMU C) Rotenone D) Zeaxanthin

38. One of the following is not a stress protein

A) HSP B) LEA C) Dehydrins D) Phosphoprotein

39. The following is a mobile electron carrier of electron transport in thylakoids.

A) Plastoquinone B) Cytb/f C) phylloquinone D) Phaeophytin

40. Oxygen Evolving Complex consists of following number of polypeptides

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1


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41. Identify the component in the thylakoid electron transport chain, which is more sensitive to any stress A) PS II B) PS I C) Cytb/f D) PQ

42. Inhibitor of GA

A) TIBA B) Placobutrazol C) DAA D) Cyclohexane

43. In lichens that have both green algal and cyanobacterial symbionts, the

cyanobacteria are restricted to structures called: A) Cephalodia B) Isidia C) Soredia D) Soralia 44. An organism that uses glucose as a source of both energy and carbon is called: A) Photoautotroph B) Photoheterotroph C) Chemoautotroph D) Chemoheterotroph 45. Which of the following vitamin is a precursor of coenzyme A? A) Folic acid B) Riboflavin C) Pantothenic acid D) Niacin 46. What is the function of statoliths? A) Photoreception B) Signaling C) Gravity sensing D) Senescence 47. Transport of proteins into mitochondria is through: A) F0& F1 Complexes B) Tom & Tim Complexes

C) GERL Complexes D) Toc & Tic Complexes 48. Which of the following is an illegitimate name? A) Superfluous name B) Later homonyms

C) Tautonyms D) All the above 49. A nomennudum is a name:

A) Without a type B) Without a figure C) Without a description D) Without an author’s name

50. Coffee rust is caused by: A) Puccinia graminis B) Cephaleuros coffeae

C) Helminthosporium coffeae D) Hemileia vastatrix 51. Jute is obtained from: A) Corchorus B) Cannabis C) Linum D) Crotalaria 52. The element taken up by mycorrhizal fungus directly from leaf litter is A) Calcium B) Potassium C) Nitrogen D) Phosphorous


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53. The first eukaryotic cell in which the entire genome was sequenced is A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae B) Schizosaccharomyces pombe C) Saccharomyces carisbergensis D) Saccharomyces pastorianus 54. Shotgun cloning stands for A) Cloning cDNAs B) Chromosome walking C) Cloning a genome D) Restriction analysis of DNA 55. Rice was first domesticated approximately 5,000 years ago, in: A) Southeast Asia B) Southwest Asia C) South Asia D) Asia Pacific 56. The “Guttiferae” has been renamed as A) Arecaeae B) Apiaceae C) Clusiaceae D) Fabaceae 57. The characteristic type of inflorescence of the Genus Arisaema A) Capitulum B) Spadix C) Cyathium D) Compound spadix 58. Robert Brown published the name Capparis lasiantha and did not give the

diagnosis for it. Later de Candolle studied the specimen and agreed the validity of the name and published Latin diagnosis for it. The plant name should be noted as

A) Capparis lasiantha R. Br., ex. DC B) Capparis lasianthaR. Br. ex. DC C) Capparis lasianthaR.Br.(DC) D) Capparis lasiantha(R.Br.) D 59. Sequence of taxonomic categories is-

A) Class-Phylum-Tribe-Order-Family-Genus-Species B) Division-Class-Family-Tribe-Order-Genus-Species C) Division-Class-Order-Family-Tribe–Genus–Species D) Phylum-Order-Class-Tribe-Family–Genus–Species 60. Which is the plant family having characteristic umbel inflorescence

A) Asteraceae B) Acanthaceae C) Apiaceae D) Poaceae

61. The main mineral constituents of wood are salts of A) Carbon, magnesium and potassium B) Calcium,magnesium and potassium C) Carbon, nitrogen and potassium D) Calcium, potassium and manganese


7

62. Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) is used while separating proteins by polyacrylanide gel electrophoresis A) It helps in solubilization of proteins thereby making it easier to separate B) It binds to proteins and confers uniform negative charge density thereby

making them move during electrophoresis C) Decreases the surface tension of the buffer used for electrophoresis D) Stabilizes the proteins 63. Which of the following statements is true about the Krebs (citric acid) cycle and

the Calvin (light independent) cycle? A) They both result in a net production of ATP and NADH B) They both result in a release of oxygen C) They both are carried out by enzymes located within an organelle matrix D) They both take place within the cytoplasmic matrix 64. Arctic animals maintain their body temperature because they have more A) Transducing protein B) Uncoupling protein C) Myoglobin protein D) F0F1 ATPase 65. Which is not a free radical? A) Superoxide B) Singlet oxygen C) Dioxide D) Hydrogen peroxide 66. Bengal famine was caused by A) Helminthosporium oryzae B) Phytophthora infestans C) Puccinia graminis D) Erysiphae graminicola 67. Major cause of evolution of genes and protein is A) Point mutation B) Chromosomal mutation C) Sexual reproduction D) Gene duplication and divergence 68. A protein which is to be degraded in proteasome is tagged with A) Polyglycine B) Polyproline C) Ubiquitin D) Formyl methionine 69. Taxa which occupy mutually exclusive geographical areas are termed

A) Sympatric B) Allopatric C) Pantropical D) New world taxa

70. Taxa shows distribution pattern which are interrupted by considerable areas from

which the taxon is absent are termed A) Vicariance B) Disjunct C) Plesiomorphic D) Alien

71. The first herbarium in the world was founded in A) Kew, UK B) Padua, Italy C) Paris, France D) Leningrad, Russia


8

72. Permanent wilting coefficient represents ....... form of water. A) Hygroscopic B) Runaway C) Capillary D) Chemically combined 73. Which of the following region is widely used for barcoding in plants and animals? A) matK in plants and COI in animals B) ITS in both C) trnL in plants trnF in animals D) rbcL in plants, atpB in animals 74. These are various steps of immunoblotting. Give the sequence in order. i) Binding with specific antibody ii) Electrophoresis to separate antigens iii) Production of replica of the gel on nitrocellulose paper

iv) Addition of secondary antibody to primary antibody, which in turn is attached to an enzyme detected by a chromogenic reaction

A) i, ii,iii,iv B) ii, iii,iv,i C) ii,iii,i,iv D) iii,iv,i,ii 75. Estimating or predicting the unknown values of one variable from the known

values of another variable. A) Correlation analysis B) Regression analysis C) Comparative analysis D) Conformational analysis 76. Who described the NPC system of pollen classification? A) Blackman B) Edalman C) Erdtman D) Stihlman 77. One of the following is not a limitation of somaclonal variation technique. A) The technique is applicable only to those species of cell cultures which

regenerate complete plants. B) Selected cell lines often show reduced regeneration potential. C) Many selected clones show reduced fertility, growth and even overall

performance D) This may bring about ‘new’ alleles or even ‘new’ mutations. 78. If the wave length of transmitted light of dye bound product is shifted away from

that of the dye, the condition is called A) Orthochromasia B) Metachromasia C) Laevochromasia D) Dextrochromasia 79. The fine endings of the hyphae of mycorrhiza in the cell-site of nutrient exchange

between the fungus and the host. A) Vesicles B) Arbuscules

C) Nutrioles D) Hypioles


9

80. Enzymes differ from co enzymes as (i) Enzymes have high molecular weight; Co enzyme has low molecular weight (ii) Enzymes are not stable beyond 400C: Co enzymes are heat stable

A) Both are correct B) Only (i) is correct C) Only (ii) is correct D) Both are wrong 81. Identify the statement which does not characterize mollicutes.

A) The Mollicutes are a class of bacteria distinguished by the absence of a cell wall. B) They are parasites of various animals alone, living on or in the host's cells. C) Individuals are very small, typically only 0.2–0.3 µm in size and have a very small genome size.

D) Many are able to move about through gliding. 82. What is meant by fuelgen reaction?

A) DNA-erythrosin reacts with free aldehyde to form red product B) DNA-ethidium bromide reacts with free aldehyde to form red product C) DNA-leucobasicfuchsin reacts with free aldehyde to form red product D) DNA-acetocarmine reacts with free aldehyde to form red product

83. Identify the synthetic stain from the following.

A) Hematoxylin-Harris stain B) Orcein C) Carmine D) Cotton blue

84. Two stage fixation procedure using glutraldehyde buffered with phosphate

followed by osmium tetraoxide is generally adopted in the case of A) Electron microscopy B) Fluorescence microscopy C) Phase contrast microscopy D) Confocal microscopy 85. Name an instrument where the cell separation is done based on the bound

flurochrome to the DNA. A) Cell sorter B) Fluorometer C) Flow cytometer D) Fluorescence spectroscope

86. Pick out a non antioxidant from the list below A) Ascorbate B) Beta tocopherol C) Carotenoids D) Glutathione

87. Relationship by descent from a common ancestor is termed as

A) Consanguinity B) Heritability C) Relativity D) Ancestroy


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88. Give the correct definition for gene sanctuaries. A) Place where germplasm can be conserved in living state

B) Areas of land in which germplasm collections of growing plants are assembled

C) Genetic diversity is sometimes conserved under natural habitat D) Germplasm of asexually propagated species.

89. The DNA segments may be mapped by locating the restriction sites through

restriction enzymes, called restriction mapping. When this is extended to complete chromosome it is called

A) Chromosome walking B) Chromosome mapping C) Chromosome jumping D) Chromosome locating 90. Identify the sentence which does not fit for the definition of genomic imprinting.

A) Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon by which certain genes can be expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner. B) It ensures that transposable elements remain epigenetically silenced throughout gametogenic reprogramming to maintain genome integrity. C) It is a non inheritance process dependent of the classical Mendelian inheritance D) Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic process that can involve DNA methylation and histone modulation in order to achieve monoallelic gene expression without altering the genetic sequence.

91. Pick out the numerical test not used to assess the significance of a deviation

A) T-test B) X2 test C) F test D) X test

92. What is the role of aspirator in killing and fixation of plant materials? A) Helps the application of the killing and fixing solution B) Helps the section to submerge by creating vacuum C) Helps the sections to float D) Helps the sections to be properly distributed. 93. Identify the stain used to stain proteins

A) PAS reagent B) Naphthol yellow S C) Rhodamine B D) Azure B

94. In air layering, cutting the bark off the stem, known as girdling is performed for

A) Stimulating root formation just above the point of girdling B) Helping in breaking off the stem when it is rooted C) Gradually starving the stem D) All of the above

95. The set of seeds distributed to certified seed growers to be further multiplied for

distribution. A) Breeder seed B) Foundation seed C) Registered seed D) Certified seed.


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96. Lichen with a 3-dimensional branching, bushy appearance, like a leafless shrub is called A) Fruticose lichen B) Foliose lichen C) Crustose lichen D) Anastomose lichen

97. Specialized cell typical of many fungal plant pathogens that is used to infect host

plants. A) Hyphae B) Vesicles C) Appressorium D) Germ tube

98. Which is the fruiting body of ascomycetes.

A) Cleistothecium B) Perithecium C) Gymnothecium D) All of the above

99. A second reduction division following the usual two meiotic divisions reputed to

occur in the ascus of certain fungi. A) Secomeiosis B) Ascomeiosis C) Brachymeiosis D) Redomeiosis

100. Name the order to which Pandorina belongs

A) Chlamydomonales B) Volvocales C) Fucales D) Laminariales

101. A protective covering in gymnosperms, which morphologically is equivalent to

ovuliferous scale, develops next to the integument. A) Perichaetium B) Epimatium C) Epigynium D) Perigynium

102. Identify the monotypic gymnosperm genus.

A) Welwitschia B) Zamia C) Araucaria D) Gnetum

103. Pureline breeding refers to the following

A) Homozygosity only B) Heterozygosity only C) Heterozygosity and linkage D) Homozygosity and self assortment

104. What is the role of DMSO in plant biotechnology?

A) Hormonal substitute B) Chelating agent C) Phenol absorbent D) Cryoprotectant

105. Pick out an endemic disease from the following

A) Wheat stem rust (Puccinia graminis tritici) B) Late blight of potato (Phytophthora infestans), C) Red rot of sugar cane(Colletotrichum falcatum), D) Citrus canker (Xanthomonas axonopodis pv citri)


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106. Identify the characters of an offspring developed as a result of inbreeding A) Increased genetic disorders B) Higher infant mortality

C) Depression on growth rate D) All of the above

107. What are the ecological effects of Eutrophication?

A) Decreased biodiversity B) New species invasion C) Algal blooms D) All of the above

108. A group of one or more species derived from a sequential development pattern which involves continual and uniform changes from an extinct ancestral form on an evolutionary scale.

A) Perinospecies B) Chronospecies C) Ecospecies D) Evospecies

109. Succession beginning with sand is called

A) Lithosere B) Sanosere C) Psammosere D) Hydrosere

110. Lime loving plants are referred to as

A) Calcifuge B) Calciferous C) Calcicoles D) Calcareous

111. Match the most suiting ones p) Fusogen l) Inhibitor of giberellin q) KCN m) Poly ethylene Glycol r) Placobutrazol n) Inhibitor of terminal oxidase s) TIBA o) Auxin inhibitor

A) p-n, q-o, r-m, s-l B) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l C) p-m, q-n, r-l, s-o D) p-m, q-l, r-n, s-o

112. Match the following class of algae with their reserve food material p) Xanthophyceae l) Fat and leucosin q) Chrysophyceae m) Oil r) Bacillariophyceae n) Mannitol and laminarin s) Phaeophyceae o) Fat and volutin

A) p-l, q-m, r-n, s-o B) p-m, q-l, r-o, s-n C) p-o, q-n, r-m, s-l D) p-n, q-o, r-l, s-m

113. Match the algae with the respective economic importance p) Source of salad l) Ulva q) Source of iodine m) Acetabularia r) Material for photosynthesis research n) Laminaria s) To study nuclecytoplasmic interactions o) Chlorella

A) p-o, q-n, r-m, s-l B) p-l, q-m, r-n, s-o C) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l D) p-l, q-n, r-o, s-m


13

114. Which is the most primitive tribal groups found in Kerala? A) Cholanaikkans B) Kurumbas C) Kattunaikans D) Kadars

115. In gel permeation chromatography, ______ is eluted first from the column.

A) Cations B) Anions C) Smaller molecules D) Bigger molecules

116. Following are some statements related to mitochondrial electron transport 1) Alternate oxidase is inhibited by salicylhydroxyamic acid 2) NADH hydrogenase is inhibited by rotenone 3) Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by Antimycin 4) ATPase is inhibited by paraquat Which of the following combinations of above statements are true?

A) (1) and (2) B) (1) and (3) C) (1) and (4) D) (2) and (3)

117. A person with Klinefelter syndrome is with ....... condition. A) Monosomic B) Triploid C) Trisomic D) Nullisomic 118. To which of this class, sub class “Metzgeriidae” belongs to

A) Sphaeropsida B) Jungermanniopsida C) Anthoceratopsida D) Bryopsida

119. Where is the location of Birbal Sahini Institute for Palaeobotany?

A) Indore B) Kanpur C) Delhi D) Lucknow

120. One of these methods tends to preserve the more robust plant parts such as seeds

or woody stems as fossils. A) Compression B) Petrifactions C) Casts D) Mineralisations

*****************


15603 120 MINUTES 1. Protonema in the life cycle of Funaria is

A) Diploid B) Haploid C) Dihaploid D) Merodiploid

2. Spore dispersal in moss is made possible by

A) Columella B) Operculum C) Peristome teeth D) None of these

3. Cryopreservation of germplasm is carried out using liquid nitrogen at the temperature ----------

A) –1960 C B) – 800 C C) 00 C D) –200 C 4. Endosperm in gymnosperms is

A) Pre fertilization product and haploid B) Post fertilization product and diploid C) Pre fertilization product and triploid D) Post fertilization product and triploid

5. Lichens living on rocks are called A) Saxicolous B) Corticolous C) Terricolous D) Halicolous

6. When two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called

A) Habitat B) Niche C) Ecotone D) Ecotype

7. Recently (2013) Government of India notified one biosphere reserve. Choose the correct one from the following:

A) Valley of Flowers B) Nanda Devi C) Nicobar Islands D) Seshachalam

8. The modern synthetic theory of evolution is the consortium of the work by a number of scientists namely T. Dobzhansky, R.A. Fisher, J.B.S. Haldane, Swall Wright, Ernst Mayr, and G.L. Stebbins. Name the two theories in Science that are combined to form the synthetic theory of evolution?

A) Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection and Lamarck’s Theory of Use and

Disuse B) Mendel’s Theory of Heredity and Heckel’s Theory of Ontogeny Repeats

Phylogeny C) Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection and Mendel’s Theory of Heredity D) Lamarck’s Theory of Use and Disuse and Heckel’s Theory of Ontogeny

Repeats Phylogeny


2

9. DNA supercoiling is the over- or under-winding of a DNA strand, and is an expression of the strain on that strand. This helical winding of DNA molecules is removed by the activity of an enzyme

A) DNA polymerase B) DNA primase C) DNA helicase D) DNA topoisomerase

10. Match the List I with II

List I List II

A.Population i. Large naturally occurring community of flora & fauna occupying a major habitat

B.Biocoenoosis ii. Assemblage of all the individuals belonging to different species occurring in the same geographical area

C.Ecosystem iii. Group of similar individuals belonging to the same species found in an area

D.Biome iv. Interaction between the living organisms and their physical environmental components

v. Classification of species assemblage based on the type of environment

A) A- v, B- ii, C- iii, D- i B) A- iv, B- i, C- ii, D- iii C) A- iii, B- ii, C- iv, D-i D) A- ii, B- iii, C- iv, D- i

11. Okazaki fragments are short, discontinually newly produced DNA fragments that are formed on the lagging template strand during replication of DNA. These DNA fragments are sealed by which one of the following enzyme?

A) RNA primase B) DNA ligase C) Single strand binding proteins D) DNA polymerase

12. Coding region of an mRNA is 336 nucleotides long, including the initiator and termination codons. Predict the number of amino acids in the protein translated from this m RNA?

A) 109 B) 110 C) 111 D) 112

13. The protective covering of radicle in monocot seeds is called A) Coleoptile B) Coleorrhiza C) Scutellum D) Aleurone layer


3

14. Match the List I (interaction) with List II (character) using the codes given below the Lists:

List – I List – II

I) Incomplete dominance 1) Human skin colour

II) Codominance 2) Purple colour in maize due to anthocyanin

III) Polygenes 3) Human being belonging to AB blood group

IV) Complementary genes 4) Pink colour in 4 O’ clock plant Code: I II III IV A) 4 3 1 2 B) 3 4 2 1 C) 4 3 2 1 D) 3 4 1 2

15. A Ti plasmid is: A) A vector that can transfer recombinant genes into plant genomes B) A vector that can be used to produce recombinant proteins in yeast C) A vector specific to cereals like wheat and rice D) All of the above

16. Which among the following is a naturally occurring hormone?

A) Zeatin B) 2,4-D C) Benzyl adenine D) Indole-3-butyric acid

17. Observe the following statements related with various biological process and their structural components. Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement?

A) Manganese forms the structural core of chlorophyll B) Iron is a structural component of porphyrin rings C) Boron plays major role in translocation of sugars D) Molybdenum regulates nitrogen fixation

18. The scientists who proposed the system of classification called as Neo- Adansonian system are

A) Engler & Prantl B) Bentham & Hooker C) Sokal & Sneath D) Camp & Gilly

19. Sporophyte of Riccia is protected by

A) Indusium B) Calyptra C) Endothecium D) Amphithecium


4

20. Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division which reduces the chromosome number by half. This process occurs in all sexually reproducing eukaryotes (both single-celled and multicellular) including animals, plants, and fungi. Which of the following statements about meiosis is NOT true?

A) Kinetochores of sister chromatids attach to opposite poles in Meiosis I B) Kinetochores of sister chromatids attach to opposite poles in Meiosis II C) Chiasma is formed in Prophase I D) Homologous chromosomes are segregated in Meiosis I

21. The site for coupled oxidation-reduction reactions in the chloroplast is the A) Outer chloroplast membrane B) Inner chloroplast membrane C) Thylakoid space D) Stromal space

22. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Tundra: permafrost B) Coniferous: evergreen trees C) Prairie: deciduous forest D) Savanna: Acacia 23. Auxin namely IAA, is present in all parts of a plant, although in minute quantities. The structure of this hormone is related to which one of the following amino acids?

A) Glutamic acid B) Aspartic acid C) Threonine D) Tryptophan

24. Stomatal movement in leaves of well-watered plants grown in natural environment is significantly controlled by Light. Which one of the following wavelengths of light is responsible for such regulation?

A) Red light B) Blue light C) Green light D) Far-red light

25. Pharmacogenomics deals with A) Interaction of two molecules B) Protein sequencing C) Genetic Variations and responses to drugs D) All of the above

26. Commensalism is a class of relationships between two organisms. An example of the species interaction called commensalism is

A) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in association with legume plant roots. B) A microbe in living human gut. C) Female mosquito deriving nourishment from human blood D) Orchid plant growing on the trunk of mango tree


5

27. A eukaryotic chromosome at metaphase consists of A) Naked DNA B) Single strand DNA C) Two chromatids joined by a centromere D) A single chromatid

28. DNA is not hydrolyzed by alkali whereas RNA is readily hydrolyzed. The reason is due to

A) The double helical structure of DNA B) The presence of uridine in RNA C) Due to features observed in RNA such as stem-loop structures D) The presence of 2’-OH group in RNA

29. Which among the following correctly depicts the chromosome complement of nullisomics? A) 2n+1 B) 2n-1 C) 2n-2 D) 2n+2 30. DNA replication takes place during A) G1 Phase B) G2 Phase C) G0 Phase D) S Phase 31. Which of the following does NOT contain phosphate?

A) A nucleoside B) A nucleotide C) DNA D) RNA 32. Plant membranes are relatively abundant with a class of proteins called Aquaporins. Following are certain statements regarding the properties of aquaporins:

a. Aquaporins form water channels in membrane b. Aquaporins form tetramers in the cell membrane c. The aquaporins also permit the movement of charged particles d. The aquaporins are present only in higher plants Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

A) a, b and c B) b, c and d C) a, c and d D) a, b and d

33. Recombinant DNA may be inserted into mammalian cells by A) Transfection B) Translation C) Transduction D) All the above

34. Blue cheese is made from cow's milk, sheep's milk, or goat's milk with the cultures of the mold. The microorganism involved in making of blue cheese is: A) Penicillium crustosum B) Penicillium commune

C) Penicullum roquefortii D) Penicillium purpurogenum

35. The formation of product by Allosteric enzymes is regulated by: A) Competitive inhibition B) Non-competitive inhibition C) Feedback inhibition D) Uncompetitive inhibition


6

36. Which among the following lack sexual reproduction? A) Ascomycetes B) Basidiomycetes C) Deuteromycetes D) Oomycetes

37. The function of enzyme ligase is to

A) Covalently join two ends of a double stranded DNA B) Covalently join the ends of two single DNA strands C) Connects RNA strands to DNA D) All the above

38. Resurrection plant is a species of

A) Usnea B) Selaginella C) Cycas D) Sargassum

39. Secondary metabolite biosynthetic pathway result in the synthesis of many

significant phytochemicals in the plants. Identify the pathway/s that produce terpenes? A) Mevalonic acid and MEP pathways B) Malonic acid and MEP pathways C) Shikimik acid and Malonic acid pathway D) Shikimik acid and Mevalonic acid pathways

40. Large number of cloning vectors are available. Identify the cloning vector capable of an insert size upto 3000 KB?

A) Phage B) Cosmid C) BAC D) YAC

41. According to Chargaff's rules A) In double-stranded DNA, the amount of G equals the amount of C. B) All DNA molecules contain the same proportions of A, C, G and T C) Single stranded RNA molecules contain same amount of A and U D) In double-stranded DNA, the amount of T equals the amount of C

42. Occurrence of Himalayan floral element in Western Ghats of India is best explained by which hypothesis?

A) Continental Drift Theory B) Deccan Trap Hypothesis C) Himalayan Glaciations Theory D) Coromandel Coast Hypothesis

43. How do the bacteria save its DNA from the restriction enzymes it produces? A) Bacterial DNA has no restriction sites B) Modification enzymes inactivates the restriction sites C) DNA is protected by methylation D) Restriction enzymes are not produced inside the cell


7

44. The taxonomic designation called Tautonym used for referring to A) Same name for both the genus and species B) Same name for species and subspecies C) Trinomial nomenclature D) The name of the author for the species

45. Inulin is an organic compound, a polysaccharide consisting of repeated units of: A) Glucose and galactose B) Galactose C) Glucose D) Fructose

46. Transpiration in plants are regulated by a pigment known as A) Crypto chromes B) Carotenoids C) Cytochromes D) Phytochrome

47. Mass scale production of vitamin B2 is carried using the fungus ----------- A) Penicillium chrysogenum B) Aspergillus niger C) Ashbya gossypi D) Trichoderma harzianum

48. Engler and Prantl system is one of the phylogenetic classifications. They classified --------

A) All tracheophytes B) All plants C) All seed plants D) Thallophytes, bryophytes and Pteridophytes

49. The class of fungi to which the common mushroom, puffballs and truffles belongs to: A) Ascomycetes B) Basidiomycetes C) Oomycetes D) Deuteromycetes

50. Identify the correct sequences of the trend in the evolution of thallus in algae? A) Unicellular – Heterotrichous-Colonial - Filamentous B) Unicellular -Filamentous -Heterotrichous -Colonial C) Unicellular -Colonial -Filamentous -Heterotrichous D) Unicellular -Filamentous -Colonial – Heterotrichous

51. Name the algal group that contain the predominating pigment fucoxanthin,

laminarin as reserve food is A) Rhodophyceae B) Chryophyceae C) Phaeophyceae D) Cyanophyceae

52. A frame shift mutation is A) A point mutation in which a single base pair is inserted or deleted B) When one base is replaced by another C) When a segment of DNA is inverted but remains in the same overall

location D) A mutation that inactivates the gene completely


8

53. Groups of genes with similar function that arose by multiple rounds of duplication are called

A) Genomes B) Gene families C) Operons D) Quasi genes

54. The effect of increasing humidity on rate of transpiration would be----------

A) Rate of transpiration will decrease B) Rate of transpiration will increase C) Initially low then it will be high D) It will be unaffected

55. Corymb is a racemose inflorescence and is a characteristic feature of the Family--- A) Mimosoideae B) Papilionoideae C) Caesalpinioideae D) Apiaceae

56. Identify the type of stain which on ionization gives positively charged molecules A) Acidic Stain B) Basic Stain C) Anionic Stain D) Basic Mordant

57. In a hybridization experiment due to Duplicate dominant gene interaction, the following phenotypic ratio was observed 15:1. How many genes control the trait for the observed phenotypic ratio?

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Polygene

58. Polyploid developed from two different species is known as A) Triploid B) Autopolyploid

C) Allopolyploid D) Monoploid 59. The Unique chemotaxonomic character of the family caryophylaceae is the presence of

A) Betalain B) Glycosides C) Terpenes D) Alkaloids

60. To determine the variation in style length of carpel of Hibiscus plant from five different places which would be the best statistical test?

A) Chi‐square B) Student t‐test C) F‐test D) Regression analysis

61. The Mendelian law of Independent assortment is due to the arrangement of chromosome during

A) Anaphase‐I B) Anaphase‐II C) S‐Phase D) Cytokinesis

62. Triticale is a product of

A) Inter specific cross B) Inter generic cross C) Intra specific cross D) Intra generic cross


9

63. Multiple effects of a single gene is known as

A) Polyploidy B) Heterosis C) Pleiotropy D) None of these

64. Climbers with tendrils are borne in the axil of the leaf, radially symmetrical,

bisexual flowers, one-chambered ovary composed of three to five carpels with numerous ovules, stamens are present below the ovary, born in androgynophore, seeds with fleshy aril and fruits are capsules or berries. Name the family that possess these features A) Passifloraceae B) Vitaceae C) Cucurbitaceae D) Oleaceae

65. The 1987 Montreal Protocol was signed for which of the following reasons?

A) To ban nuclear testing in tropical oceans B) To stop the global trade in products made from endangered tigers C) To begin converting from fossil fuel use to more renewable energy sources

to reduce the anthropogenic greenhouse effect D) To phase out the use of CFC's, found to be causing depletion of the ozone

layer 66. The antibody known to be responsible for allergic reaction is:

A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE

67. Which of the following molecule acts as connecting link between EMP pathway and Kreb’s cycle?

A) Pyruvic acid B) Acetyl CoA C) Phosphophenol Pyruvate D) Ribulose bis phosphate

68. Most stable kind of RNA is A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) snRNA

69. Antisense technology A) Selectively blocks gene expression

B) Helps in gene expression C) Always keeps genes inactivated D) Always keeps genes expressed

70. A structure which arises from the funicle and surrounds the ovule more or less completely in post fertilization stage is called

A) Aril B) Caruncle C) Sarcotesta D) Operculum

71. The family that display Pseudo Embryo Sac is A) Podostemaceae B) Polygonanceae C) Piperaceae D) Portulacaceae


10

72. Choosing the best and most uniform of organisms for subsequent generations of a self-pollinated crop

A) Mass Selection B) Pedigree analysis C) Germ line selection D) Pure line selection

73. A ------- is a genotype formed when haploid cells undergo chromosome doubling?

A) Doubled Haploid B) Selective Haploid C) Artificial Aneuploid D) Diplo-haploid

74. Vital stains are used for

A) Staining of dead tissue outside the body B) Staining of a living cell inside the body C) Staining of a fixed cell outside the body D) Staining of a dead tissue inside the body

75. An Hfr strain of E. coli contains: A) A vector of yeast or bacterial origin which is used to make many copies of a particular DNA sequence B) A bacterial chromosome with a human gene inserted C) A bacterial chromosome with the F factor inserted D) A human chromosome with a transposable element inserted 76. Red rust of coffee is caused by ---------- while red rust of tea by ---------

A) Ustilago & Puccinia B) Albugo & Puccinia C) Cephaleuros & Albugo D) Hemileia & Cephaleuros

77. The organelle of the endomembrane system associated with the sorting of lipids and proteins for various cellular functions are

A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum B) Lysosomes C) Vesicles D) Golgi complex

78. Wood is classified into hardwood or softwood through its physical structure and make up. Which among the following is/are example/s for hardwood?

i. Mahogany ii. Oak iii. Teak iv. Walnut A) i & ii B) i, ii & iii C) i & iii D) i, ii, iii & iv

79. Vascular connection between leaf and stem that is maintained by leaf traces, which are associated with parenchymatous interruptions in the stem vascular cylinder. Nodal anatomy where a leaf is associated with one leaf gap is known as

A) Unilacunar node B) Trilacunar node C) Multilacunar node D) Polyaxial node


11

80. Select the correct option from the following. One is an example of a colonial and other as heterotrichous green alga.

A) Ulva & Coleochaete B) Chlamydomonas & Ulothrix C) Volvox & Coleochaete D) Sargassum & Pandorina

81. The amount of living matter present in a population at any time in the given ecosystem is known as

A) Net productivity B) Gross primary productivity C) Standing crop D) Standing state

82. Anthracosis is a serious lung disease associated with inhaling ---------- A) Cotton dust B) Pollen C) Coal D) Fibers

83. Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies because: A) It is inherited only through the female parent and thus evolves in a way that allows trees of relationship to be easily constructed B) It is inserted into the X chromosome C) It first appeared in humans and is not found in other animals D) It evolves more slowly than the genes in the nucleus 84. Algae have diverse roles. Which among the following are the economically important products of the red algae?

A) Agar used to make capsules for drugs and vitamins as well as a solidifying agent for bacterial media. B) Calcium carbonate C) Nitrogen fixation D) Both A & B

85. The sporocarp of ascomycetes have high diversity in their characters. Name the fruiting body in Xylaria

A) Cleistothecium B) Perithecium C) Apothecium D) Gymnothecium

86. The stele in Marsilea rhizome is an example for A) Amphiploic Siphonostele B) Meristele C) Amphixylic Siphonotele D) Dictyostele

87. Irish famine occurred in 1845 is associated with ----------- A) Phytophthora B) Albugo C) Chondrus crispus D) Penicillium

88. Which statement given below is true about lichens? A) Algal component always enheathed by fungal mycelium B) Both components occur side by side C) Algae and fungal cells are intermixed D) Fungal mycelium envelop algal cells


12

89. Which among the following is an example for fossil bryophyte? A) Pogonatum B) Naiadita C) Lejeunea D) Both B & C

90. Apomixis is defined as the replacement of the normal sexual reproduction by asexual reproduction, without fertilization. The process is discovered by

A) Hans Winkler B) Smith C) Bower D) Farlow

91. Canada balsam is a resinous essential oil, viscous, sticky, colourless or yellowish liquid that turns to a transparent yellowish mass when the essential oils have been allowed to evaporate and is obtained from

A) Pinus B) Abies C) Cedrus D) Taxus

92. The tendency of ecotone to contain a greater number of species and higher population density is known as

A) Niche B) Ecotype C) Edge effect D) Carrying capacity

93. Black rust of wheat is caused by A) Pucciniagraminis B) Pucciniarecondita

C) Pucciniastriformis D) Pucciniaglumarum 94. Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation

A) Ketolase B) Zymase C) Peroxidase D) Oxidase

95. Read the features and identify the family- evergreen plants, coriaceous leaves stamens frequently in whorls, with a pair of glands at the base of the filaments, Anthers with two or four pollen sacs, opening by valves, usually from the base upwards, in the two outer whorls usually introrse. Ovary unicarpellate, unilocular, usually superior, sometimes surrounded by the receptacle to completely enclose in it, with a single, pendulous ovule. A) Solanaceae B) Dipterocarpaceae C) Lauraceae D) Myrsticaceae

96. The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Algae, and Cyanobacteria is

A) Chlorophyll a B) Chlorophyll b C) Porphyrin D) Rhodapsin

97. Which of the following microscopic techniques relies on the specimen interfering with the wavelength of light to produce a high contrast image without the need for dyes or any damage to the sample?

A) Conventional bright field light microscopy B) Phase contrast microscopy C) Electron microscopy D) Fluorescence microscopy


13

98. The total amount of water present in the soil is A) Holard B) Capillary water C) Chesard D) Echard

99. Which is a true statement about ribosomes? A) Ribosomes contain DNA and protein. B) Ribosomes are active in carbohydrate synthesis. C) Ribosomes are present both in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. D) Ribosomes are only found associated with the endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotic cells.

100. Name the Scientists who constructed the prototype electron microscope in 1931 A) Ernst Ruska & Max Knoll B) Eli Franklin Burton, Cecil Hall, James Hillier, and Albert Prebus C) Dennis Gabor, & Leo Szilárd D) Ernst Lubcke of Siemens & Halske

101. Hybridoma technique was first demonstrated by

A) Kohler and Milstein B) Robert Koch C) ‘D’ Herelle D) Land Steiner 102. Complete reduction of archegonium is observed in the gymnosperm --------

A) Gnetum B) Cycas C) Ginkgo D) Pinus

103. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the genotype frequency of heterozygotes, if the frequencies of the two alleles at the gene being studied are 0.6 and 0.4, will be:

A) 0.80 B) 0.64 C) 0.48 D) 0.32

104. Recently, the major reason for worldwide loss of species from the natural habitats is?

A) Habitat destruction B) Intraspecific competition C) Random mating D) Viral outbreaks

105. A homeotic mutation is one which: A) Is present in only one form in an individual B) Substitutes one body part for another in development C) Results in development of a tumor D) Is wild type at one temperature and abnormal at another

106. Eusporangiate ferns are those where the sporangia arise from group of epidermal cells. Identify the eusporangiate fern from the choices given below

A) Dicranopteris B) Matonia C) Equisetum D) Osmunda

107. Which one of the following bacterium is commonly employed for production of transgenic plants?

A) Escherichia coli B) Bacillus thuringiensis C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens


14

108. Identify the abnormal base pairings noticed in “wobble” codon-anticodon binding?

A) Adenosine-uracil B) Guanine-uracil C) Cytosine-inosine D) Guanine-thymine

109. Which of the following is TRUE about G-protein signaling? I. During activation of G-protein, subunit of the G-protein dissociates from the activated G-protein to activate adenyle cyclase II. During activation of G-protein, the active α subunit is terminated by the hydrolysis of the bound GTP caused by GTPase III. Testosterone can bind to the cell membrane receptor to activate G- protein IV. The ratio of G-protein coupled receptor to G-protein is 1:1 A) I only B) II only C) III only D) II and IV only

110. Which type of Genetic Analysis method can detect the presence of a gene but is not useful for single base pair changes?

A) Genetic Sequencing B) Western Blot Analysis C) Southern Blot Analysis D) Cytogenics

111. Name the mitotic stage that is unique and is characterized by the shortening of kinetochore microtubules?

A) Metaphase B) Anaphase C) Prophase D) Telophase

112. Name the triplet codons which is a chain termination codon?

A) UGU B) AAU C) UUG D) UAG 113. The terminology employed to denote species is restricted to a specific area is known as A) Sibling species B) Allopatric species

C) Sympatric species D) Endemic species

114. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer? A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE

115. The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its

A) Habitat B) Logistic growth C) Ecological niche D) Microclimax

116. Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth's primary productivity?

A) Open ocean B) Savanna C) Tundra D) Salt marsh


15

117. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. If a father and the son are hemophilic, but the mother is normal, her genotype must be:

A) XhXh B) XHXh C) XHXH D) XhY

118. Hairy root cultures for secondary metabolite production are induced by transforming plant cells with

A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens B) Bacillus thurigiensis C) Agrobacterium rhizogens D) E.coli plasmids

119. Elicitors are molecules that induce secondary metabolite production. Identify the non plant derived elicitor from the given options

A) Chitin B) Pectin C) Pectic acid D) Cellulose

120. Following are few statements for regeneration of plants from explants/tissues. (1) Cytokinin is required for shoot development. (2) Auxin is required for shoot development. (3) Auxin to cytokinin ratio is very important. (4) Jasmonic acid is required for both root and shoot development.

Which of the following combinations of above statements is true?

A) (1) and (3) B) (2) and (4) C) (1) and (4) D) (2) and (3)

________________________


A

16603 120 MINUTES

1. Who among the following scientists advocated surgeons ‘to wash their hands

before attending delivery to avoid infection of the new-born’ and developed carbolic acid as the first antiseptic?

A) Louis Pasteur B) Robert Koch C) Joseph Lister D) Alexander Fleming

2. All of the following components of a retrovirus are encoded by the viral genome, except: A) reverse transcriptase B) viral RNAs C) capsid proteins D) envelope lipids

3. Which of the following is the exact role of the hetercysts in blue green algae? A) Nitrogen fixation B) Fragmentation of filaments for vegetative reproduction C) Asexual reproduction D) All of the above 4. Which of the following is NOT true about Oomycetes? A) They are known as water moulds B) They cause seedling blights, damping-off, root rots and foliar blights C) Oomycetes are not at all related to algae D) The nuclei of vegetative cells of these fungi are typically diploid 5. In the exponential phase of growth of a bacterial culture, 100 cfu/ml cells

increased to 3200 cfu/ml cells in 2 hours. What is the generation time for this bacterium? A) 12 minutes B) 15 minutes C) 24 minutes D) 30 minutes

6. In which of the following bryophyte, the sporophyte at maturity has reduced to

the sporangia? A) Reboulia B) Riccarida C) Riccia D) Marchantia 7. Which of the following is NOT true about Rhynia? A) Rhynia has apical sporangium B) Rhynia is a single-species genus of Devonian vascular plants C) Rhynia gwynne-vaughanii was the sporophyte generation of a vascular plant D) Life cycle of Rhynia is haplontic 8. Improved nutritional quality in crop plants by breeding is known as

A) Biomagnification B) Biomining C) Biofortification D) Bioremediation


2

9. Major similarities and dissimilarities between chemolithoautotrophs and

photolithoautotrophs is ------ A) Both derive energy from sun light, carbon from carbon dioxide; while the former get Hydrogen from chemicals, the latter get hydrogen from water B) Both get Hydrogen from chemicals and carbon from carbon dioxide; while the former get energy from sunlight, the latter get energy from chemicals C) Both of them derive energy and carbon from chemicals; while the former get hydrogen also from chemicals, the latter derive hydrogen from water D) The former derive energy from chemicals while the latter derive energy from sunlight; both derive hydrogen from inorganic molecules and carbon from carbon dioxide 10. Vegetative reproduction in lichens takes place by

A) soredia B) Isidia C) fragmentation D) all the above

11. Green algal life cycle, where the somatic phase (plant) is haploid (gametophyte)

while the diploid phase (sporophyte) is represented by zygote is called -----, found in.-----

A) Diplontic, Ulothrix B) Haplontic, Ulothrix C) Haplontic, Ulva D) Diplontic, Codium 12. Among the fungi ------- are the economically most useful group and Cladonia is ------ kind of a Lichen A) Basidomycetes, Ascolichen B) Zygomycetes, Basidiolichen C) Ascomycetes, Ascolichen D) Dueteromycetes, Ascolichen 13. Which of the following statements are true or false? (i) Liverworts and mosses grow on soil, on dampy soil, on rocks, and on tree

trunks and also in water (ii) Mosses are found always in slightly acidic environments A) Both the statements are true B) Both the statements are false C) First statement is false, but the second statement is true D) First statement is true, but the second statement is false 14. Identify the protosteles from the following seteles - haplostele, actinostele,

dictyostele plectostele, solenostele, medullated protostele and atactosteles. A) All are protosteles B) Haplostele, actinostele, plectostele, medullated protostele alone are protosteles C) Haplostele, actinostele, plectostele, medullated protostele and siphonosteles are protosteles D) Atactostele, dictyostele, actinostele and haplosteles alone are protosteles.


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15. Analyze the following data related with Gymnosperms and choose the correct

statements from the following 1. Heterosporous - microspores and megaspores, are typically produced in male ones or ovulate cones, respectively. 2. Cycads and Ginkgo have motile sperm that swim directly to the egg inside the ovule, whereas conifers and gnetophytes have sperm with no flagella that are conveyed to the egg along a pollen tube. 3. The mature seed comprises the embryo, the endosperm which is haploid, serves as food supplier with a seed coat. A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 1, 2 and 3

16. Which of the following characters of Gymnosperms are common in all

Angiosperms? Character-1: They do not have pericarp around their seeds Character-2: They do not produce flowers Character-3: They do not produce fruits Character- 4: They are pollinated by the wind Character-5: Some of them have xylem vessels in their wood A) 1 and 4 only B) 1, 3 and 4 only C) 4 and 5 only D) 5 only 17. Match the correct combination of plasmid DNA to their properties

Plasmid DNA

Property

P. conjucative plasmid 1. Can integrate into the chromosome and replicate when the chromosome is copied

Q. Cryptic plasmid 2. Capable of transferring itself between

prokaryotes R. Episome 3. Does not appear to have any function

A) P-1, Q-3, R-2 B) P-2, Q-3, R-1 C) P-2, Q-1, R-3 D) P-3, Q-2, R-1

18. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below 1. Prophage 5. Membrane fusion 2. Temperate Phage 6. Endocytosis 3. Enveloped Viruses 7. Lytic cycle 4. Polio virus 8. Lysogenic cycle A) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5 B) 1-6, 2-7, 3-8, 4-5 C) 1-8, 2-7, 3-5, 4-6 D) 1-5, 2-8, 3-7, 4-6


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19. Which algal division never produces motile, flagellated cells among any of its members? A) Chlorophyta B) Chrysophyta C) Phaeophyta D) Rhodophyta

20. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below 1. Ramenta 5. Ginkgo 2. Terminal Sporangium 6. Pinus 3. Ovules at the tip of a stalk 7. Rhynia 4. Pycnoxylic wood 8. Pteris A) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7 B) 1-8, 2-6, 3-5, 4-7 C) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5 D) 1-8, 2-7, 3-5, 4-6 21. Which of the following is TRUE about the Scutellum in Monocots? A) First green embryonic leaf, haustorial in function B) Scaly embryonic leaf covering endosperm C) Scaly haustorial embryonic leaf D) All of the above 22. Spike with spathe known as Spadix is a typical inflorescence of the plant family--- A) Arecaceae B) Araceae C) Liliaceae D) Orchidaceae 23. Which of the following is NOT true about APG System of Plant Classification? A) It is based on cladistic analysis of DNA sequences B) It is based on DNA sequences of two chloroplast genes and one gene coding for ribosomes C) Latest APG system is APG III D) APG system is a complete formal classification of the angiosperms 24. Cluster analysis is part of ------ system of classification A) Bentham and Hooker’s system B) Numerical System C) APG system D) Cytotaxonomic system 25. Mace is the valuable spice from the seeds of ------and is morphologically ------ A) Nutmeg, seed coat B) Myristica fragrans, placental out-growth C) Nutmeg, calyx D) Myristica fragrans, aril 26. The colour of Annatto belongs to the ------ category A) Alkaloid B) Carotenoid C) Flavanoid D) Anthocyanins 27. Which of the following is NOT true about secondary growth in Dracena? A) It is associated with extra stellar cambial ring in the cortex B) Cambial activity is anomalous C) Secondary vascular bundles are concentrically arranged D) Cork cambium activity is abnormal


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28. Which of the following ‘fixing’ reagents contain Osmium tetroxide? A) FAA B) Flemming’s fluid C) Carnoy’s fluid D) FAD 29. Two taxonomic species are distinguished from each other by

A) their failure to interbreed B) their ability to exchange gene freely C) their similarity in morphological characters D) discontinuity in a set of correlated characters

30. Linnaean system of plant classification is called artificial, because he gave emphasis to ------- only in his classification of plants A) Number of Ovules B) Number of Cotyledons C) Number of Stamens D) Flowers 31. During fertilization in angiosperms, one male gamete fuses with the egg of three

celled egg apparatus, which is called as----, the second male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei, which is called as-----, and the overall process is called -----

A) Syngamy, triple fusion and double fertilization B) Syngamy, double fertilization and triple fusion C) Double fertilization, Triple fusion and Syngamy D) Autogamy, Triple fusion and double fertilization 32. Which among the following families of plants have superior ovary?

1. Asteraceae 2. Brassicaceae 3. Fabaceae 4. Rubiaceae 5. Malvaceae 6. Polygalaceae

A) 2, 4, and 5 only B) 1, 2 and 5 only C) 2, 5 and 6 only D) 2 and 5 only 33. Which of the following is NOT true about gums? A) Gums are formed from the disintegration of internal plant tissues, mostly from the decomposition of cellulose in a process called gummosis B) Gums contain high amounts of sugar and are closely allied to the pectins C) Gums are colloidal and soluble in water, either dissolving entirely or swelling, and are also soluble in alcohol and ether D) Gums are especially common in plants of dry regions 34. Which among the following groups of tribes shown below include tribes not found

in Kerala? A) Kani, Adiyar, Paniyar, Kurichiar B) Koragar, Kurumar, Kattunaykar C) Kani, Paniyar, Mala Arayar, Malapantaram D) Uralis, Koragar, Kurumar, Bhotiyas


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35. Cambial ring and radially arranged vascular tissue with limited number of xylem groups are common in (i) -----, whereas large number of radially arranged xylem groups without a cambial ring is characteristic feature of (ii) ------- A) i- Dicot root, ii-monocot root B) i-Dicot root, ii- Monocot root at the beginning of secondary thickening C) i-Dicot root at the beginning of secondary thickening, ii-Monocot root D) i-Dicot stem, ii-Monocot root 36. Formaldehyde, ethanol, methanol and picric acid are (i) -----, while nigrosin

and Indian Ink are (ii) ------- A) i-Killing agents, ii- acid Cytological stains B) i- Fixing agents, ii-Negative stains C) i-Fixing agents, ii- Nuclear stains D) i- Killing agents, ii- Fixing agents 37. Match the following and choose the correct combinations from the options given below

1. Apomixis 6. Banana 2. Parthenocarpy 7. Seed without fertilization 3. Androgenesis 8. Pollination, but no fertilization 4. Pseudogamy 9. Haploid angiosperms 5. Adventive embryony 10. Embryo from nucellus

A) 1-6, 2-7, 3-9, 4-8, 5-10 B) 1-6, 2-7, 3-8, 4-9, 5-10 C) 1-7, 2-6, 3-9, 4-8, 5-10 D) 1-7, 2-8, 3-6, 4-10, 5-9 38. When a plant of chromosomal type pollinates a plant of type AA, what

chromosome constitution of embryo and endosperm is expected in the resulting seeds A) diploid zygote of type Aa and triploid endosperm of type AAa B) diploid zygote of type aa and triploid endosperm of type Aaa C) diploid zygote of type AA and triploid endosperm of type AAa D) diploid zygote of type Aa and triploid endosperm of type aaa

39. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below

1. Melissopalynology 5. Poly embryony 2. Pollen vitality 6. Self incompatibility 3. in vitro fertilization 7. Acetocarmine 4. Embryo from endosperm 8. Honey

A) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5 B) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7 C) 1-7, 2-8, 3-5, 4-6 D) 1-8, 2-5, 3-7, 4-6 40. Tests that identify monosaccharide, starch, lipids and proteins in plant tissues are

----(i),-----(ii),-----(iii) and .----(iv) respectively A) i-Benedict’s solution, ii- Lugol’s iodine, iii-Sudan Red, iv-Buiret test B) i-Lugol’s iodine, ii-Sudan Red, iii-Buiret test, iv-Benedict’s solution C) i-Benedict’s solution, ii- Lugol’s iodine, iii- Buiret test, iv- Sudan Red D) i-Sudan Red, ii-Buiret test, iii-Benedict’s solution, iv- Lugol’s iodine


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41. Which is NOT true about carrier assisted transport of minerals across root

membrane? A) Carrier assisted transport is active transport B) Ions move across membrane against a concentration gradient C) Osmotic pressure play a significant role in the transport D) It depends on energy availability

42. Which of the following is TRUE about photorespiration? A) Photorespiration is a biochemical process in plants under conditions of water stress B) Photorespiration takes place in C3 plants C) Photorespiration is temperature independent D) Photorespiration is very common in dicot plants

43. Which of the following statement is NOT true? A) Ammonical form of N2 is available in soil in the form of urea or NH4

+ in free state B) Free ammonium is the only utilizable form of N2 that can be directly incorporated into amino acids C) Plant absorb NO3 ions not by just diffusion process, but facilitated by specific carriers D) Certain higher plants have the potential to utilize molecular N2 directly

44. Which is NOT true about Auxins?

A) It suppress the growth of side buds B) Stimulate root growth C) Control tropic movements D) Regulate senescence

45. Gardeners pinch off the tips of plants to stimulate their side growth. Which one of

the following is implicated in this phenomenon? A) auxin B) gibberellins C) cytokinin D) abscisic acid

46. The red/far-red responsive photoreceptors first discovered in plants utilize covalently attached ------ that enable photoconversion between red-absorbing (Pr) and far-red-absorbing (Pfr) forms

A) Bilin chromophores B) Protein chromophores C) Photo-chromophores D) Red chromophores

47. Dichlorophenyl dimethyl urea is a herbicide which kills the plants by A) inhibition of respiration B) destroying the chloroplast C) inhibiting the flow of electrons from water to NADP+ D) inhibiting PS I and photolysis of water


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48. A mutant plant lacked plastocyanin, upon illumination of this plant A) plastoquinol will remain in oxidized state B) plastoquinol will remain in reduced state C) ferrodoxin will remain in oxidized state D) NAD will remain in oxidized state

49. Plant mitochondria were treated with antimycin A and sodium azide. This would

lead to A) increased cyanide resistant respiration and reduced ATP synthesis B) increased cytochrome oxidation C) increased cyanide resistant respiration and increased ATP synthesis D) reduced nuclear mitochondrial interaction

50. Two proteins have the same molecular mass and have identical net charge of pH 7.

The best way to separate them would be to use A) SDS-PAGE B) native gel electrophoresis C) cation exchange chromatography D) anion exchange chromatography

51. Which of the following is NOT a factor for the polar transport system of auxin

movement in plants? A) Acidic properties of auxin B) pH difference between cell wall and cytoplasm C) localized auxin-anion efflux carrier channels in plasma membrane D) proton pump operating in the cell membrane

52. Genes transfer in rice plant to produce “Golden rice” was obtained from

A ) carrot B) the plant - Daffodil and a bacterium - Erwinia C) E.coli and Daffodil D) sunflower and cotton

53. Among the hormone induced activities in plants, which of the following is (are)

that of Gibberellins? A) Rate of cell division, flowering, increase in size of leaves and fruits, seed and bud dormancy, induction of growth at low temperatures B) Increase in size of leaves and fruits, seed and bud dormancy, induction of growth at low temperatures, cell elongation and apical dominance C) Apical dominance, rate of cell division, flowering and increase in size of leaves and fruits D) Cell elongation and cell division alone

54. Among the plant compounds such as alkaloids, amides, amino acids, cellulose, proteins, DNA, RNA, enzymes, vitamins, lipids, hormones, pectin and lignin, which contain no nitrogen?

A) All of them contain nitrogen B) lignin, cellulose, vitamin and alkaloid C) lignin, cellulose, lipid and pectin D) Lipid, lignin, cellulose and vitamin


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55. Which of the following is NOT true about Alternate Oxidase (AOX) in plant respiration?

A) AOX is a e a typical feature of plant respiration B) AOX enable cyanide resistant respiration C) AOX lowers the energy efficiency of respiration D) AOX and Cytochrome pathway are one and the same

56. Which are the end products of Citric acid cycle per every Acetyl CoA consumed? A) 3 NADH, 1 FAD/FADH2 and 1 ATP B) 2 NADH, 1 FAD/FADH2 and 1 ATP C) 3 NADH, 1 FAD/FADH2 and 2 ATP D) 3 NADH, 2 FAD/FADH2 and 1ATP 57. Match the following and choose the correct match:

1. Zinc 5. Enzyme activator 2. Magnesium 6. Active in Chlorophyll formation 3. Copper 7. Component of Chlorophyll 4. Hydrogen 8. Component of organic molecule

A) 1-6, 2-7, 3-5, 4-8 B) 1-8, 2-6, 3-5, 4-7 C) 1-6, 2-5, 3-7, 4-8 D) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8

58. Match the following and choose the correct combination:

1. Abcisic acid 5. Seed germination 2. Auxins 6. Delaying senescence 3. Cytokinins 7. Weed control 4. Gibberellins 8. Stomatal closure

A) 1-8, 2-7,3-5, 4-6 B) 1-6, 2-5, 3-7, 4-8 C) 1-5, 2-8, 3-6, 4-7 D) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5

59. Match the following and choose the correct answer: 1. Molybdenum 5. Stress Molecule 2. Leghemoglobin 6. Bacterial cell 3. Nif genes 7. Host cell 4. Proline 8. Nitrogen Reductase

A) 1-6, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7 B) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7 C) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5 D) 1-5, 2-8, 3-6, 4-7

60. Match the following and choose the correct answer: 1. pH higher than cytosol 5. Co-enzyme Q 2. Proton motive force 6. Mitochondrial matrix 3. Tendency to accept an electron 7. Inner Mitochondrial membrane 4. Ubiquinone 8. Reduction potential

A) 1-6, 2-7, 3-8, 4-5 B) 1-8, 2-7, 3-5, 4-6 C) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5 D) 1-5,2-6, 3-7, 4-8


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61. Nutrients, such as sugars or amino acids diffuse passively through protein channel proteins called as------, which recognize and transport only a limited food group of chemical substances

A) Proteases B) Permeases C) Hydrolases D) Aminases 62. Molecular motors in cells, which use microtubules as tracks are ------ A) dyneins and kinesins B) myosins and dyneins C) kinesins and Myosins D) None of the above 63. Precise duplication and segregation of the centrosome required for normal cell

cycle progression and accurate segregation of the chromosomes at mitosis, takes place at -------stage in cell cycle

A) Mitotic B) G1/S C) G2 D) G0 64. Cell signals, which are produced by the target cell and are secreted, and affect the

target cell itself via receptors are ------ A) Autocrine B) Intacrine C) Juxtacrine D) Paracrine 65. MutS, MutH and MutL are -----, which are essential in detecting the mismatch and

directing repair machinery to it A) Lipids B) Proteins C) Sugars D) Alkaloids 66. Rho is a homohexameric protein that recognizes and binds preferably to -----sites

in the transcribed RNA A) T -rich sites B) G-rich sites C) A-rich sites D) C-rich sites 67. The sequence of nitrogen bases, which occurs on eukaryotic mRNA and has the

consensus (gcc)gccRccAUGG is called ------ A) Kozak consensus sequence B) SD sequence C) Palindrome D) Heterochromatic sequence 68. The genes for ABO Blood group in humans are located in ------ chromosome A) 19th B) 24th C) 9th D) 16th 69. A nonsense mutation involves ------- A) a regulatory sequence B) an AG splice acceptor site C) the creation of a different amino acid D) the creation of a stop codon 70. Exon skipping is associated with ------ A) RNA processing mutations B) nonsense mutations C) regulatory mutations D) silent mutations


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71. Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance? A) Autosomal recessive B) Autosomal dominant C) X-linked dominant D) X-linked recessive 72. The chromosome map unit is ------ A) Centimorgan B) Millimorgan C) millimendel D) centisutton 73. In Mendel's F2 generation of the red and white flower crossing, the dominant to

recessive ratio was------ A) 1:3:1 B) 3:1 C) 4:0 D) 9:3:3:1 74. An Hfr strain of E.coli contains: A) Vector of yeast or bacterial origin which is used to make many copies of a particular DNA sequence B) A bacterial chromosome with a human gene inserted C) A bacterial chromosome with the F factor inserted D) A human chromosome with a transposable element inserted 75. In humans pointed Eyebrows are dominant to smooth Eyebrows and Widow's

peak (downward pointed frontal hairline) is dominant to continuous Hairline. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring from a cross between an individual heterozygous for both genes and an individual homozygous recessive for both genes?

A) 9:3:3:1 B) 1:1:1:1 C) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 D) 9:3:4 76. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB x IAi. Among the blood types of

their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible? A) 2 genotypes; 3 phenotypes B) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes C) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes D) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes 77. A cross between two true breeding lines one with dark blue flowers and one with

bright white flowers produces F1 offspring that are light blue. When the F1 progeny are selfed a 1:2:1 ratio of dark blue to light blue to white flowers is observed. What genetic phenomenon is consistent with these results?

A) epistasis B) incomplete dominance C) codominance D) inbreeding depression 78. Mendel’s law of segregation, as applied to the behavior of chromosomes in

meiosis, means that: A) Pairing of homologs will convert one allele into the other, leading to separation of the types B) Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologs separate in meiosis I, or in meiosis II if there is a single crossover between the gene and the centromere C) Genes on the same chromosome will show 50% recombination D) Alleles of a gene will be linked and passed on together through meiosis


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79. What are the assumptions of Hardy Weinberg equilibrium? A) Small population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation B) large population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation C) large population size, random mating, heterozygotes survive the best, no migration, no mutation D) large population size, like individuals mate, no selection, no migration, no mutation 80. Which of the following can be used for transferring the DNA into host cells?

P. Transformation Q. Sonication R. Transfection S. Electroporation A) only P can be used B) Q and R can be used C) Q, R and S can be used D) P, R and S can be used

81. Contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming in the decreasing order is A) Carbon dioxide, Methane, CFCs B) Methane, Carbon dioxide, CFCs

C) Carbon dioxide, CFCs, Methane D) Methane, CFCs, Carbon dioxide

82. Match the items in List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using codes

given below: List - I List - II (a) Montreal Convention (i) Ozone depletion

(b) Rio - Summit (ii) Greenhouse gas (c) Ramseur Convention (iii) Convention on Biological Diversity (d) Kyoto Protocol (iv) Wetlands Convention Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) D) (i) (ii) (iv) iii)

83. Name the biologist who coined the concept of ecosystem? A) Earnest Haeckel B) A G Tansley C) Charles Elton D) Charles Darwin 84. Green plants represent the ----- structural component of an ecosystem

A) Producer B) Consumer C) Decomposer D) Green

85. In which year the UN convention on biological diversity was enacted? A) 1972 B) 2004 C) 2002 D) 1992


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86. Which one of the following is the single largest air pollutant? A) Carbon dioxide B) Nitrogen C) Carbon monoxide D) PAN 87. The evolutionary theory proposed by Charles Darwin was: A) Change in populations through time as a result of mutations B) The spontaneous generation of new organisms C) The passing on of genes from one generation to the next D) Change in populations through time as a response to environmental change 88. A sudden major climatic change would most likely initially result in: A) A rapid increase in adaptive radiation B) A rapid increase in extinction rates C) A sharp increase in numbers of species D) Plants and animals developing new characteristics in order to cope with environmental changes 89. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) On 5th June 1992 the first world conference on environment took place (2) 5th June is the world environment day, which commemorate the date of 1st world conference on environment (3) UNEP was created by the UN General Assembly in 1972

A) All the three statements are correct B) 2nd and 3rd statements are correct C) 3rd statement alone is correct D) 1st statement alone is correct 90. Study the following statements and select the correct choice 1. Nutrient cycles are unidirectional 2. Energy flow can be cyclic A) Both are false B) Both are true C) Statement 1 is true but 2 is false D) Statement 2 is true but 1 is false 91. Study the following statements and select the correct choice from below

1. India is a signatory to the international agreement ‘Convention on Biodiversity’ 2. Panchayath/Village level biodiversity committee is mandatory as per Indian Biodiversity Act

A) Both the statements are true B) Both the statements are true and the 1st is not the correct reason for the 2nd C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is wrong D) Statement 1 is wrong but statement 2 is correct


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92. Which of the ecosystem has the lowest net primary productivity/ square kilometer? A) Salt marsh B) Open ocean C) Coral reef D) Grass land

93. State which of the following statements are True or False?

1. Hydrogen is expected to be the best fuel of future 2. Petrocrops is an eco-friendly energy source

A) Both are false B) Both are true C) First is true but the second is false D) First is false but the second is true 94. Which of the following contribute to global warming?

1. Deforestation; 2. Fossil fuel burning; 3. Ground level Ozone; A) 1,2, only B) 1,3 only C) None of the above D) All of the above

95. Marine mammals have many structural characteristics in common with fishes. The explanation that evolutionary theory would give for this similarity is: A) Fish and mammals are closely related B) Fish evolved structures similar to those already existing in mammals C) Marine mammals evolved directly from the fishes D) Marine mammals adapted to an environment similar to that of the fishes 96. Genetic drift occurs when a few individuals of a species colonize an island. This

particular phenomenon is known as A) the bottleneck effect B) the founder effect C) assortative mating D) random mating

97. Examine the following statements & select the correct answer given below 1. Successive arrangement of number of organisms in different trophic levels

determine the dynamics of all ecosystems 2. As per second law of thermodynamics, energy change is always from high

to low entropy A) Both the statements are true and 1st is the correct reason for the 2nd statement B) Both the statements are independently true and have no relationships C) First statement is true but the second statement is false D) Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is the correct reason for the 1st statement


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98. Match the following and choose the correct combination 1. Secondary pollutant 6. CO 2. Primary air pollutant 7. Nitrate 3. Ozone depletion 8. PAN 4. Greenhouse effect 9. CO2

5. Methaemoglobinemea 10. CFC A) 1-6, 2-7, 3-10, 4-8, 5-9 B) 1-7, 2-6, 3-9, 4-10, 5-8 C) 1-8, 2-6, 3-10, 4-9, 5-7 D) 1-7, 2-6, 3-10, 4-9, 5-8 99. Match the following and choose the correct answer from below

1. Varieties of a species 6. IUCN 2. Alpha diversity 7. India 3. Use in crop improvement 8. Genetic diversity 4. 8.1% of world biodiversity 9. Diversity in an ecosystem 5. Endangered species 10. Scientific value of biodiversity

A) 1- 8, 2-10, 3-9, 4-6, 5-7 B) 1-10, 2-9, 3-6, 4-7, 5-8 C) 1-8, 2-9, 3-10, 4-7, 5-6 D) 1-8, 2-10, 3- 6, 4-7, 5-9 100. The forces that can change the frequency of an allele in a population are

A) forward mutation, gene conversion, natural selection, recombination B) selection, mutation, migration, inbreeding, random genetic drift C) dominance, family selection, fitness, diversification D) gene interaction, gene transfer, gene mutation, out breeding

101. The culturing of cells in liquid agitated medium is called ------ A) Liquid Culture B) Suspension Culture C) Agitation culture D) Uniform culture 102. Which of the following is best suited for the production of virus free plants? A) Embryo culture B) Ovule Culture C) Meristem culture D) Anther culture 103. Batch cultures are a kind of suspension culture where, ------ A) Medium is continuously replaced B) Medium is loaded only at the beginning C) No depletion of medium occurs D) Cellular wastes are continuously removed 104. Which is model organism database? A) GOLD B) PROMISE C) SGD D) SCOP 105. Blast programme is used for ------- A) Translate protein sequence B) Translate DNA database C) Translate input sequence D) None of these


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106. Which of the following character(s) is/are common among Pteridophytes and bryophytes A) dependent gametophyte on sporophyte B) dependent sporophyte on gametophyte C) multicellular sex organs with sterile jacket cells D) absence of sporophyte

107. The most commonly used method of quantifying primary productivity of a pond

ecosystem involves measurement of the amountof A) CO2 utilized B) autotroph biomass C) oxygen released D) Organic carbon

108. Centre of diversity refers to the area where cultivated plant species and or their

wild relatives show A) low competition with unrelated species B) highest variation C) high ecosystem diversity D) highest variation and high ecosystem diversity

109. Assume that you are the President of a plant biotechnology company and you

want to offer your customers a new variety of cucumber that tastes great, lasts longer on the shelf, and is less susceptible to insect damage. Which method will be the most precise and produce plants with the desired characteristics quicker?

A) Traditional plant breeding B) Genetic modification through genetic engineering C) Mutation breeding D) Breeding for such properties are quite impossible

110. Which of the following Environment related Act is/are correctly mentioned?

1. Environment Protection Act, 1986

2. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

3. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

4. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

A) Only (1) and (2) B) Only (3) and (4)

C) Only (1), (2) and (3) D) Only (1), (2) and (4).

111. Which of the agricultural challenges below cannot be solved with transgenic

techniques? A) Crops are damaged by frost B) Crops are killed by a virus C) Public concern about safety of synthetic pesticides D) Public preference for organic vegetables


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112. The phenomenon of the reversion of mature cells to the meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is known as -------

A) Dedifferentiation B) Redifferentiation C) Micropropagation D) Differentiation culture 113. Which is the most commonly used vector in crop improvement? A) Plasmid B) Cosmid C) Phasmid D) Agrobacterium 114. Synthetic seed is produced by encapsulating somatic embryo with ------- A) Sodium alginate B) Sodium chloride C) Calcium alginate D) Sodium acetate 115. Hormone pair for a callus to differentiate are ------ A) Auxin and cytokinin B) Cytokinins and gibberillin C) Auxin and absiccic acid D) Auxin and Ethylene 116. Environment conditions that favour false smut in paddy include ------ A) High soil nitrogen, rain, high relative humidity (>90%) and temperature ranging from 25−35 ºC B) Low temperature (15-20 ºC), low soil nitrogen content, rain, high relative humidity (100%) C) Low nitrogen in soils and rain, low relative humidity (< 60%) D) None of the above 117. In a crop improvement programme, haploids are significant because

A) can grow optimal in adverse situations B) requires minimum fertilizers C) produce homozygous lines on diploidisation D) ideal for studying meiotic process

118. Match the following and choose the correct combination given below

1. Northern blot 5. Specific DNA fragments 2. Southern blot 6. Specific RNA Fragments 3. Western blot 7. Specific Proteins 4. Eastern blot 8. Post translational modifications of proteins

A) 1-6, 2-7, 3-5, 4-8 B) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7 C) 1-6, 2-5, 3-7, 4-8 D) 1-5, 2-8, 3-6, 4-7


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119. Which among the following statement on traditional DNA markers are NOT true?

1. RAPD (Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA), utilize a large number of short DNA primers with varying sequences, this technique exploits differences in the primer binding sites as different DNA will be amplified by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

2. RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism): Indirectly measure

DNA sequence differences based upon the varying lengths of DNA fragments resulting from cutting it with restriction enzymes. These "fragment length polymorphisms" are visualized by hybridizing the cut DNA with labeled probes from DNA libraries

3. AFLP (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism): Utilizing

restriction enzymes and a large number of short DNA primers with varying sequences, this technique exploits differences in the primer binding sites as different DNA will be amplified using PCR

4. SSR (Simple Sequence Repeat) or microsatellite, exploits differences in

DNA sequences between two PCR products based on the presence or absence of restriction enzyme cutting sites; These markers are often designed from RFLP markers

A) 1 and 2 are not true B) 2 and 3 are not true C) 1, 2 and 3 are not true D) 4 alone is not true 120. Three babies were mixed up in a hospital. After consideration of the data below,

which of the following represent the correct baby and parent combinations?

Couple Blood groups I A and A II A and B III B and O

Baby blood groups 1 B 2 O 3 AB

A) I-3, II-1, III-2 B) I-1, II-3, III-2 C) I-2, II-3, III-1 D) I-2, II-1, III-3

___________________


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A

17203 120 MINUTES

1. Consider List I (chemical compound) and List II (function) and match them List I List II

a. Chloramphenicol 1. Alternative electron donor to PS II b. Reserpine 2. Mitochondrial inhibitor

c. Rotenone 3. Inhibits chloroplastic protein d. Ascorbic acid 4. Antihypertensive drug

Choose the correct answer code: A) a-1; b-3; c-2; d-4 B) a-3; b-4; c-2; d-1 C) a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1 D) a-4; b-2; c-3; d-1

2. During the course of prolonged starvation and fasting, glucose is synthesized from one of

the following metabolic process. A) Glycogenesis B) Glycolysis C) Gluconeogenesis D) Fermentation

3. In aroids a foul smell emanates at the time of the emergence of the inflorescence, which

basically is due to alternative oxidation pathway. Arrange the various steps of the respective process and related events in appropriate order. 1. Volatilisation of indoles and sulphur compounds 2. Temperature generation 3. Oxygen is converted to water 4. Movement of electrons from Ubiquinone to alternate oxidase

A) 1,2,3,4 B) 4,3,2,1 C) 4,2,1,3 D) 4,1,2,3

4. Following are a few statements related to the mitochondrial electron transport in plants.

Pick out the correct statements. 1. NAD(P)H dehydrogenase complex facing intermebrane space facilitate oxidation of

NAD(P)H 2. NAD(P)H dehydrogenase is sensitive to rotenone 3. Alternate oxidase supports cyanide resistant respiratory pathway 4. Terminal oxidase is sensitive to potassium cyanide

A) 1,2,3 only are correct B) 2,3,4 only are correct C) 1,3,4 only are correct D) All are correct

5. In the water oxidizing clock which metal element functions as the pivotal component?

A) Mg2+ B) Mn2+ C) Cu D) Fe


2

6. What is meant by lichenometry?

A) Study regarding the age of lichens. B) Study of the age of exposed rock surfaces based on the size of lichen thalli. C) Study regarding the calculation of the period in which lichens evolved. D) Study regarding the succession of various forms of lichens

7. The pH indicator in the litmus test is a dye extracted from the lichen.

A) Umbilicaria esculenta B) Parmelia saxatilis C) Roccella tinctoria D) Xanthoria parietina

8. State whether these statements are true or false.

1. The acrocarpous mosses are generally those upright mosses with terminal sporangia. 2. Pleurocarpous mosses produce their sporangia on short, specialized lateral branches

or buds and typically are prostrate. 3. Cladocarpous are those mosses that bear sporophytes terminally on short, lateral

branches.

A) 1 and 2 only are correct B) 2 and 3 only are correct C) 1 and 3 only are correct D) All are correct

9. Observe the following definitions and choose the correct ones?

1. Virion is a complete virus particle, consisting of RNA/DNA surrounded by a protein shell and consisting the infective form of a virus.

2. Viroids consist solely of short strands of circular, single-stranded RNA without protein coats.

3. A retrovirus is an infectious agent composed entirely of protein material, called PrP.

A) 1 and 2 only are correct B) 2 and 3 only are correct C) 1 and 3only are correct D) All are correct

10. Match the resin and the source plant.

p. Dammar gum l. Ferula gummosa, q. Frankincense m. Boswellia sacra,

r. Galbanum n. Members of Dipterocarpaceae s. Hashish o. Cannabis indica,

A) p-l,q-n, r-m, s-o B) p-l, q-o, r-n. s-m C) p-n, q-m, r-l, s-o D) p-n, q-l, r-m, s-o

11. Give the types of electron source for transmission electron microscope, operating on

different physical principles. A) Thermionic emission B) Schottky emission C) Field emission D) All of the above


3

12. Match the dye with the respective action.

p) Acridine orange l. is an intense dye used to stain glycogen q) Carmine m. is a nucleic acid selective fluorescent cationic dye r) Coomassie blue n. stains cell walls purple s) Crystal violet, o. non-specifically stains proteins A) p-m, q-l, r-o, s-n B) p-n, q-o, r-l, s-m C) p-o, q-n, r-m, s-l D) p-l, q-o ,r-n, s-m

13. Which of these sentences stands true for an abzyme? 1. A single molecule of an antibody-enzyme, capable of catalyzing the destruction of

thousands of target molecules 2. The efficiency of abzyme technology could permit treatments with smaller doses of

medicines at lower costs than are possible today. 3. An abzyme is used to lower the activation energy of a reaction allowing for the

transition state to be possible and the product to be formed. 4. An abzyme is typically artificially made and is made by having the immune system

make antibodies that bind to a molecule that resembles the transition state of the catalytic process that the researchers want to emulate.

A) 1,2 and 3 only are correct B) 2,3 and 4 only are correct C) 1,3 and 4 only are correct D) All are correct

14. Name the post-translational modifications which calmodulin can undergo.

A) Phosphorylation B) Acetylation C) Methylation D) All of the above

15. Identify the plant hormone known as anti senescence hormone.

A) IAA B) Gibberellin C) Cytokinin D) ABA

16. Suggest an appropriate statistical application if the following assumptions are true. 1. K is the number of times an event occurs in an interval and K can take values

0, 1, 2, 3, etc. 2. The occurrence of one event does not affect the probability that a second event will

occur. That is, events occur independently. 3. The rate at which events occur is constant. The rate cannot be higher in some

intervals and lower in other intervals.

A) Binomial distribution B) Poisson distribution C) Normal distribution D) F distribution


4

17. Which is the technique utilised to estimate the methylation of DNA?

A) Ion-mobility spectrometry B) Mass spectrometry C) Neutron triple-axis spectrometry D) Optical spectrometry

18. What was the earlier name of International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural

Resources (IUCN)? A) International Union for Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) B) International Union for Conservation of Nature C) International Union for Protection of Nature D) International Union for Nature Protection

19. Gamma diversity (γ-diversity) is the total species diversity in a landscape. Who introduced

this terminology? A) Shannon B) Simpson C) Odum D) Whittaker

20. Identify the correct statements related to Biomagnification.

1. Non biodegradable 2. Food chain energetics 3. Persistent organic pollutant

A) 1 and 2 only are correct B) 2 and 3 only are correct C) 1 and 3 only are correct D) All are correct

21. Jacobsen Syndrome is due to:

A) Deletion B) Duplication C) Translocation D) Inversion

22. Pick out the biological function(s) of RNA silencing.

A) Immunity against viruses or transposons B) Down-regulation of genes C) Up-regulation of genes D) All of the above

23. To determine the variation in body size of a single species of insect collected from six

different places, suggest an appropriate statistical test. A) Chi square B) Student t test C) F test D) Regression analysis

24. Polygenic traits in crops can be identified by:

A) QTL mapping B) Cluster analysis C) Tandem analysis D) Gene mapping


5

25. The bending of plants towards unilateral light is due to:

A) Polar transport of auxin B) Auxin degradation in light C) Auxin synthesis in shaded area D) Lateral distribution of auxin towards shaded area

26. Among the following, which is not an assumption of Hardy Weinberg rule?

A) No mutation B) Random mating C) No natural selection D) Small population size

27. Below are three mechanism of exon shuffling of which one is proven to be important in

gene evolution of rice and other grass species, identify the same. A) by the usage of helitrons B) by Long-terminal repeat (LTR) retrotransposons C) by illegitimate recombination D) by the long interspersed element (LINE) -1 mediated 3' transduction

28. Ph chromosome, which is associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia is as a result of:

A) A translocation between chromosome 22 and chromosome 8. B) A translocation between chromosome 21 and chromosome 9. C) A translocation between chromosome 22 and chromosome 9. D) A translocation between chromosome 21 and chromosome 8.

29. The DNA segments may be mapped by locating the restriction sites through restriction

enzymes, called restriction mapping. When this is extended to complete chromosome, it is called:

A) Chromosome sketching B) Chromosome walking C) Chromosome reading D) Chromosome framing

30. Acrosome of spermatozoon contains:

A) Protease B) Hyaluronidase C) Acid phosphatase D) All of the above

31. Match the test with its appropriate purpose.

p. Immunodiffusion test l. to measure antigen or antibody concentration q. Immuno-electrophoresis m. to separate several antigens r. Radial immuno diffusion n. to detect antigen or antibody in samples

A) p-l, q-m, r-n B) p-m, q-n, r-l C) p-n, q-m, r-l D) p-l, q-n, r-m


6

32. Compare the ovule with the appropriate characteristic feature. p) Campilotropous l. Ovule is curved, micropyle is directed towards the surface of origin, chalaza is situated at right angles to the funicle q) Amphitropous m. Nucellus and integuments lie more or less at right angles to the funiculus (eg.Ranunculus) r) Hemitropous n. Ovule curvature is more prominent and embryo sac is horse shoe shaped

s) Circinotropous o. Funicle is very long and form a complete circle around the ovule

A) p-l, q-m, r-n, s-o B) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l C) p-l, q-n, r-m, s-o D) p-l, q-o, r-m, s-n

33. Compare the amoeboid tapetum with the appropriate characteristic feature. p) Sagitaria type l. Tapetum breaks the wall when microspore mother cells undergo meiosis. q) Butomus type m. Formation of periplasmodium occurs when tetrads are formed. r) Sparganium type n. Fusion of protoplasts begins at tetrad stage, tapetal cells are multinucleate. s) Triglochin type o. Tapetal cells loose their wall when the microspore tetrads are formed.

A) p-l, q-m, r-n, s-o B) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l C) p-l, q-n, r-m, s-o D) p-o, q-m, r-n, s-l

34. The viral system used to deliver a therapeutic gene to a specified cell type in gene therapy.

A) Retrovirus B) Adenovirus C) Herpes simplex virus D) All of the above

35. What are arbuscules?

A) The spore producing structures B) Site of nutrient exchange between the fungus and the host C) Propagating structures D) Structures formed for defensive purpose

36. What is fuelgen reaction?

A) DNA-leucobasic fuchsin reacts to form red product B) Sugar-leucobasic fuchsin reacts to form red product C) Lipid-leucobasic fuchsin reacts to form red product D) Protein-leucobasic fuchsin reacts to form red product

37. Heavy charged particle, more toxic than other forms of radiation, not penetrating: These are the properties of which type of radiation?

A) Alpha B) Beta C) Gamma D) All of the above


7

38. Which one forms the basis for scintillation counting of radioactivity?

A) Methods based upon gas ionization B) Methods based upon excitation

C) Methods based upon exposure of photographic emulsions D) Methods based upon photo energy 39. Determination of secondary structure of proteins that cannot be crystallised is achieved through. A) X ray crystallography B) NMR C) Circular dichroism D) Mass spectrometry 40. Which is the predominant auxin biosynthesis pathway in various pathogenic bacteria, such as Pseudomonas savastanoi and Agrobacterium?

A) IPA Pathway B) TAM pathway C) IAN pathway D) IAM pathway

41. Pick out a non antioxidant in plants from the following:

A) Vit C B) Alpha tocopherol C) Carotenoids D) Cysteine

42. Pick out a process not associated with enzyme purification. A) Ammonium sulphate precipitation B) Gel filtration chromatography C) Western blotting D) Dialysis 43. The evolution of genes and the proteins mainly occur due to: A) Point mutation B) Chromosomal aberrations C) Gene recombinations D) Gene duplication and divergence 44. The CSIR Institute, Centre for Medicinal and Aromatic Plants, is located at A) Kanpur B) Lucknow C) Chandigarh D) Kolkata 45. Nitrogen fixation in woody trees is accomplished through the microorganism. A) Rhizobium B) Azotobacter C) Frankia D) Azospirillum 46. Of the different subunits of G protein, this is responsible for activation of Adenylate cyclase? A) Alpha subunit B) Beta subunit C) Gamma subunit D) Delta subunit


8

47. Observe the table showing DNA composition from 3 different species. Which species

contains stable DNA? Organism A:T C:G ( a) 25 75 ( b) 50 50 ( c) 75 25

A) Organism (b) B) Not predictable using this data C) Organism (a) D) Organism (c)

48. Species selected for making conservation-related decisions, typically because protecting

these species indirectly protects the many other species that make up the ecological community of its habitat. A) Indicator species B) Keystone species C) Flagship species D) Umbrella species

49. A biome characterized by coniferous trees consisting mostly of pines, spruces and larches is

referred as: A) Pine forests B) Temperate forests C) Temperate deciduous forests D) Boreal forests

50. The chemical having bactericidal activity as a result of increasing the permeability of the

bacterial cell membrane, allowing inorganic monovalent cations (e.g. Na+) to travel through unrestricted and thereby destroying the ion gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular environment. A) Valinomycin B) Actinomycin C) Gramicidin A D) Nicin

51. Which of these viruses is used as a pesticide for crops infested by insects susceptible to

contraction? A) Cauliflower mosaic virus B) Cucumber mosaic virus C) Rice tungro virus D) Nuclear polyhedrosis virus

52. An evolutionary substitution of one base for another in an exon of a gene coding for a

protein, such that the produced amino acid sequence is not modified is referred as: A) Point mutation B) Gene duplication C) Synonymous mutations D) Non-synonymous mutations

53. Sigma factor in RNA polymerase affects RNA synthesis by

A) Affecting elongation only B) Affecting initiation only C) Affecting both initiation and elongation D) Affecting termination only

54. The sequence (AGGAGG), which is a ribosomal binding site in bacterial and archaeal

messenger RNA, generally located around 8 bases upstream of the start codon AUG. A) Pribnow box B) Hogness box C) Homeo box D) Shine-Dalgarno box


9

55. An approximately 120 nucleotide-long ribosomal RNA molecule with a mass of 40 kDa and

is a structural and functional component of the large subunit of the ribosome in bacteria and eukaryotes. A) miRNA B) rRNA C) 5S RNA D) tRNA

56. Which of the pair is not correctly matched?

A) Alternate oxidase – Cyanide resistant respiratory pathway B) Ascorbate peroxidase-Detoxify Hydrogen peroxide C) Catalase-Detoxify Hydrogen peroxide D) Guaiacol peroxidase- Detoxify guaiacol

57. The gene whose phenotype is masked by the expression of an allele at a separate locus, in

an epistasis event. A) Jumping gene B) Epistatic gene C) Supplementary gene D) Hypostatic gene

58. An ecogeographical rule which states that within a broadly distributed taxonomic clade,

populations and species of larger size are found in colder environments, and species of smaller size are found in warmer regions. A) Allen’s rule B) Cope’s rule C) Bergman’s rule D) Dollo’s Law

59. A secondary messenger molecule which is soluble and diffuses through the cell.

A) 1,2 diacyl glycerol (DAG) B) 3’-5’ Cyclic AMP C) Inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate D) Cyclins

60. A type of natural phenol, and a phytoalexin produced naturally by several plants in response

to injury or when the plant is under attack by pathogens such as bacteria or fungi and also produce statistically significant reductions in systolic blood pressure. A) Taxol B) Cincristine C) Resveratol D) Bardystanin

61. Among the pteridophytes, which have multiciliate antherozoids?

A) Marsilea and Equisetum B) Lycopodium and Selaginella C) Equisetum and Psilotum D) Selaginella and Equisetum 62. Pick out the correct definition for phytotron.

A) An enclosed chamber used to study the plant responses to elevated carbondioxide conditions.

B) An enclosed chamber used to study the plant responses to elevated ultraviolet radiations.

C) An enclosed chamber with controlled environmental conditions used for studying interactions between plants and the environment.

D) An enclosed chamber with controlled environmental conditions used for growing plants.


10

63. Match the following:

p) Used as a fining to extract impurities l. Inhibitor of ethylene q) SHAM m. Polyvinylpolypyrrolidone r) AgNo3 n. Inhibitor of alternate oxidase s) 1-N-Naphthylphthalamic acid (NPA) o. Auxin inhibitor

A) p-n, q-o, r-m, s-l B) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l C) p-m, q-n, r-l, s-o D) p-m, q-l ,r-n, s-o

64. The structure of DNA important for the critical biological processes of DNA recombination

and repair mutations that occur in the cell. A) G-quadrets B) Triplex DNA C) Hairpin DNA D) Cruciform DNA

65. Identify the enzyme which plays a critical role in regulating the total rate of DNA synthesis

so that DNA to cell mass is maintained at a constant ratio during cell division and DNA repair. A) Adenosine deaminase B) Ribonucleotide reductase C) DNA polymerase D) DNA helicase

66. Match the following with appropriate combination.

p) Protein structure l. Southern Blot q) DNA transfer m. Frederick Sanger r) DNA sequencing n. Ramachandran plot s) RNA transfer o. Northern Blot

A) p-n, q-l, r-m, s-o B) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l C) p-m, q-n, r-l, s-o D) p-m, q-l, r-n, s-o

67. Phagotrophs are:

A) Organisms that feed on dead organic matter B) Organisms that absorb dissolved organic matter C) Organisms that ingest other organisms or particulate organic matter D) Organisms that synthesise food from inorganic substances

68. Choose the correct match

p) Model organism l. Ustilago maydis q) Smut disease in maize m. Neurospora crassa r) Ergot fungus n. Cryptococcus neoformans s) Encapsulated yeast o. Claviceps purpurea

A) p-n, q-l, r-m, s-o B) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l C) p-m, q-n, r-l, s-o D) p-m, q-l, r-o, s-n


11

69. Pick out the correct statement.

A) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes B) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes C) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage. D) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living

70. What feature makes sexual reproduction in Spirogyra more advanced? A) Morphologically distinct sex organs B) Similar size of motile sex organs C) Different size of motile sex organs D) Physiologically differentiated sex organs

71. Process in which organisms diversify rapidly from an ancestral species into a multitude of

new forms is referred to as: A) Adaptive radiation B) Natural selection C) Convergent evolution D) Non-random evolution

72. The major tribes of the Waynad tribal population include: A) Koragars and Maradis B) Paniyars and Kurichiar C) Mudugar and Kurumbar D) Malayar, Uralis

73. The key element(s)for the optical design of phase contrast microscope are:

1) isolate the surround and diffracted rays emerging from the specimen so that they occupy different locations in the diffraction plane at the back aperture of the objective lens

2) advance the phase and reduce the amplitude of the surround light, in order to maximize differences in amplitude between the object and background in the image plane.

Which of these statements is/are correct? A) 1 is correct B) 2 is correct C) Both 1 and 2 are correct D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

74. Widely used computer programs used in bioinformatics for multiple sequence alignment

with command line interface. A) BLAST B) TargetP C) CLUSTALW D) Primer Express

75. Which of the following terms best describes the character shared by a set of species but not present in their common ancestor? A) Cladogenesis B) Paedomorphosis C) Allometric growth D) Homoplasy

76. Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

A) Hydrofluoro carbons B) Nitrogen oxides C) Sulphur hexafluoride D) Sulphur dioxide


12

77. Identify the incorrect definitions. 1) Synandrous- Stamen fused at anthers and free at filaments 2) Syngenesious - Androecium with united anthers 3) Polyadelphous- Anthers united into three or more groups 4) Obdiplostemonous– Stamenin two whorls, the outer alternating with the petals A) 1 and 3only are incorrect B) 2 and 3only are incorrect C) 3 and 4only are incorrect D) 1 and 4 only are incorrect 78. Genus of Silurian-Devonian vascular land plant with branching axes on which kidney-

shaped sporangia are arranged in lateral positions. A) Cooksonia B) Zosterophyllum C) Rhynia D) Williamsonia

79. Complex molecular machine that unwinds double stranded DNA into two single strands.

A) Metasome B) Helicsome C) Replisome D) Spliceosome

80. Process by which organic material becomes a fossil through the replacement of the original

material and the filling of the original pore spaces with minerals. A) Compression B) Petrifactions C) Casts D) Mineralisations

81. Pick out the incorrect match. 1) Leaf spot of Mango - Xanthomonas campestris

2) Red rust of tea - Cephaleuros virescens 3) False smut of Paddy - Hemileia vastatrix 4) Coffee rust - Ustilaginoidea virens

A) 1 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 1 and 3 D) 2 and 3

82. Complex of proteins is found in the outer mitochondrial membrane. It allows movement of

proteins through this barrier and into the inter membrane space of the mitochondrion. A) F0& F1 Complexes B) TOM Complexes C) GERL Complexes D) Toc & Tic Complexes

83. Outgrowths of the thallus surface, and are corticated, usually with a columnar structure, and consisting of both fungal hyphae (the mycobiont) and algal cells (the photobiont). A) Cephalodia B) Isidia C) Soredia D) Soralia

84. Sri Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences is funded by which one of the following?

A) Dept. of Science and Technology B) Dept. of Biotechnology C) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research D) Govt. of Kerala


13

85. Name the journal published by Indian Academy of Sciences, Bangalore.

A) Indian Journal of Sciences B) Journal of Biosciences C) Indian Biological Sciences D) Current Advances in Sciences

86. Genomically encoded non-coding RNAs that help regulate gene expression, particularly

during development. A) miRNAs B) siRNAs C) dsRNAs D) ssRNAs

87. Distribution of plant species covering tropical regions of all continents is referred to as:

A) Circumtropical B) Pantropical C) Neotropical D) Palaeotropical

88. When did the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and

Flora come into force? A) 1 July 1972 B) 1 July 1971 C) 1 July 1975 D) 1 July 1974

89. The compound which acts as a phosphorus store, as an energy house, as a source of cations

and as a source of myoinositol. A) Ptyalin B) Phytin C) Phytol D) Phytoline

90. Study of pollen contained in honey and, in particular, the pollen's source.

A) Melissopalynology B) Cercinopalynology C) Cretinopalynology D) Meopalynology

91. The function of NodA, NodB and NodC are given below, arrange them in the order of

their sequential functions: 1. N-acyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of a fatty acyl chain. 2. Chitin-oligosaccharide synthase that links N-acetyl-D-glucosamine monomers. 3. Chitin-oligosaccharide deacetylase that removes the acetyl group from the terminal

non-reducing sugar.

A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2,3,1 C) 1,3,2 D) 3,2,1

92. From the following, pick out the non photochemical quenching of light energy. A) Chlorophyll remits the absorbed energy in the form of fluorescence B) Chlorophyll transfers energy to another chlorophyll molecule C) Chlorophyll remits the absorbed energy in the form of heat D) Energy utilised for photochemistry

93. Below are listed a few statements related to phytochrome. Establish whether these

statements are true or false. 1. Phytochrome is encoded by a multigene family: PHYA through PHYE. 2. phyA:Type I 3. phyB,C,D,E: Type 2 4. phyA & phyB have similar roles

A) 1, 2, 3 are true and 4 is false B) 2, 3, 4 are true and 1 is false C) 1, 3, 4 are true and 2 is false D) 1, 2, 4 are true and 3 is false


14

94. Below are listed different physiological roles of Pentose Phosphate Pathway (PPP). Find out

whether these statements are true or false.

1. In nongreen plastids, such as amyloplasts, and in chloroplasts functioning in the dark, PPP supply NADPH for biosynthetic reactions such as lipid biosynthesis and nitrogen assimilation.

2. PPP produces ribose-5-phosphate, a precursor of the ribose and deoxyribose needed in the synthesis of RNA and DNA, respectively.

3. An intermediate of PPP, the four-carbon erythrose-4-phosphate, combines with PEP in the initial reaction that produces plant phenolic compounds, including the aromatic amino acids and the precursors of lignin, flavonoids, and phytoalexins

4. During the early stages of greening, before leaf tissues become fully photoautotrophic, the PPP is thought to be involved in generating Calvin cycle intermediates.

A) 1, 2 are true and 3, 4 are false B) 1, 2 are false and 3,4 are true C) All are true D) All are false

95. Which is the Na+ transporting proteins located on the tonoplast?

A) SOS 1 B) AtNHX C) NSCC D) AtHKT1

96. Compare the algae/algal product with the most appropriate economic importance associated with it. p) Coralline algae l. Ice cream/Salad cream q) Cyanophycean members m. Cosmetics r) Carragenin n. binding agent on surface of soil s) Algin o. liming the soil

A) p-n, q-l, r-m, s-o B) p-m, q-n, r-o, s-l C) p-m, q-n, r-l, s-o D) p-o, q-n, r-m, s-l

97. Identify the correct and incorrect statements regarding the Characteristics of somatic

hybridization and cybridization.

1. Somatic cell fusion appears to be the only means through which two different parental genomes can be recombined among plants that cannot reproduce sexually (asexual or sterile).

2. Protoplasts of sexually sterile (haploid, triploid, and aneuploid) plants can be fused to produce fertile diploids and polyploids.

3. Somatic cell fusion does not overcome sexual incompatibility barriers. In some cases somatic hybrids between two incompatible plants have also found application in industry or agriculture.

4. Somatic cell fusion is useful in the study of cytoplasmic genes and their activities and this information can be applied in plant breeding experiments.

A) 1,2 and 3 correct, 4 incorrect B) 2,3 and 4 correct, 1 incorrect C) 3,4 and 1 correct, 2 incorrect D) 1,2 and 4 correct, 3 incorrect


15

98. The most important part of an osmometer is:

A) Humidifier B) Osmosensor C) Thermocouple hygrometer D) Flame ionization detector

99. Pick out the correct statement regarding aquaglyceroporins.

A) aquaglyceroporins transports water molecules alone across the membrane. B) aquaglyceroporins along with water, transport glycerol, across the membrane,

depending on the size of the pore C) aquaglyceroporins along with water, transport other small uncharged solutes, such as

glycerol, CO2, ammonia and urea across the membrane, depending on the size of the pore

D) aquaglyceroporins along with water, transport other small charged and uncharged solutes, across the membrane, depending on the size of the pore

100. Give the correct sequence for the different steps followed in Western Blotting.

1) Tissue preparation 2) Gel electrophoresis 3) Blocking non specific binding 4) Transfer of proteins from the gel to nitrocellulose paper 5) Incubation with antibodies 6) Detection and imaging

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4, 6 C) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6 D) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6

101. Cellulosic ethanol is:

A) First generation biofuel B) Second generation biofuel C) Third generation biofuel D) Fourth generation biofuel

102. Identify the farming approach established by Masanobu Fukuoka (1913–2008), a Japanese

farmer and philosopher, introduced in his 1975 book The One-Straw Revolution. It is also referred to as "the Fukuoka Method". A) Mixed farming B) Natural farming C) Ecofarming D) Organic farming

103. The part of a bioreactor used to break the vortex formation in the vessel, which is usually

highly undesirable as it changes the center of gravity of the system and consumes additional power. A) Agitator B) Baffle C) Sparger D) Jacket

104. Identify a DNA marker which is most powerful tool in population genetics, for DNA

profiling in kinship analysis and in forensic identification, genetic linkage analysis/marker assisted selection to locate a gene or a mutation responsible for a given trait or disease. A) Random amplification of polymorphic DNA B) Variable number tandem repeat C) Simple sequence repeat D) Single nucleotide polymorphism


16

105. What is meant by Plant breeders' rights? A) Rights granted to the breeder for a new variety of plant that give the breeder

exclusive control over the propagating material (including seed, cuttings, divisions, tissue culture) of a new variety for a number of years.

B) Rights granted to the breeder for a new variety of plant that give the breeder exclusive control over the propagating material (including seed, cuttings, divisions, tissue culture) of a new variety for ever.

C) Rights granted to the breeder of a new variety of plant that give the breeder exclusive control over the propagating material (including seed, cuttings, divisions, tissue culture) and harvested material (cut flowers, fruit, foliage) of a new variety for a number of years.

D) Rights granted to the breeder of a new variety of plant that give the breeder exclusive control over the propagating material (including seed, cuttings, divisions, tissue culture) and harvested material (cut flowers, fruit, foliage) of a new variety for ever.

106. Starch is synthesized in the:

A) ER B) Chloroplast C) Cytosol D) Mitochondria

107. Match the correct inhibitor with the following processes. a) Respiration p) Atrazine b) Photosynthesis q) KCN c) Protein synthesis r) α-amanitin d) Transcription s) Rifamycin

A) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p B) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r C) a-p, b-s, c-r, d-q D) a-r, b-q, c-s, d-p

108. Which is the largest and most diverse class of voltage-gated channels?

A) Sodium (Na+) channels B) Calcium (Ca2+) channels C) Potassium (K+) channels D) Chloride (Cl−) channels

109. Pick out the apomixix in which the megaspore mother cell undergoes the usual meiotic

divisions and a haploid embryo sac is formed. The new embryo may then arise either from the egg or from some other cell of the gametophyte. A) Nonrecurrent apomixes B) Recurrent apomixis, C) Sporophytic apomixis D) Vegetative apomixes

110. Carotenoids molecules containing oxygen, such as lutein and zeaxanthin, are known as

xanthophylls. The unoxygenated (oxygen free) carotenoids such as α-carotene, β-carotene, and lycopene, are known as carotenes. Of these, which carotenoid is more associated with high light tolerance of plants?

A) Lutein B) Zeaxanthin C) α-carotene D) β-carotene


17

111. The primitive mode of energy generating metabolic reaction is:

A) Photosynthesis B) Reduction of nitrate C) Reduction of sulphate D) Oxidation of nitrate

112. Analyse the following fatty acids. Which among them are essential fatty acids as well as

PUFA category? 1. Oleic acid 2. Linoleic acid 3. Arachidonic acid

A) 1, 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 only C) 1 & 3 only D) 2 & 3 only

113. Which of the statements are correct regarding International Code for nomenclature of algae, fungi and plants (Melbourne Code 2012)?

i. Latin diagnosis is mandatory for names of taxa published after 1 January 2012. ii. Online publication of names in Portable Document Format (PDF with an International

Standard Serial Number (ISSN) or International Standard Book Number (ISBN) is permitted.

iii. Names of taxa published on or after 1 January 2012 without designating types are considered valid. iv. Morphotaxon concept in the nomenclature of fossils is permitted.

A) i alone is correct B) ii alone is correct C) i & iv only are correct D) i & ii only are correct

114. α- taxonomy deals with:

A) Classical taxonomy B) Chemo taxonomy C) Phylogeny D) Experimental taxonomy

115. Specific epithet exactly repeats the generic name called:

A) Tautonym B) Homonym C) Synonym D) Autonym

116. Bisexual, tri or tetramerous flowers with perianth in two whorls of three or four each,

stamens many (10-20), stout, arranged spirally, ovary superior, apocarpus and aggregate fruits is characteristic feature of ------ A) Apocynaceae B) Asclepiadaceae C) Anacardiaceae D) Annonaceae

117. Match column I with Column II and select the correct option.

Column I Column II a. Didynamous Stamens i. Annonaceae b. Pepo ii. Lamiaceae c. Basal Placentation iii. Cucurbitaceae d. Ruminate Endosperm iv. Asteraceae

A) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i) B) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

C) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) D) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)


18

118. The foundation of International Code of Botanical Nomenclature is found in ……., a book

written by Carolus Linnaeus. A) Historia Naturalis B) Systema Naturae C) Species Plantarum D) Philosophia Botanica

119. Which statements are correct regarding Numenical Taxonomy?

i). It is otherwise called Phenetics ii). All characters are equally weighed iii). The taxonomic unit is called Cladon iv). Michael Adanson is called as the Father of Numerical Taxonomy

A) All are correct B) i, ii & iv only are correct C) ii & iii only are correct D) ii & iv only are correct

120. Which among the following are not related to Cladistics?

A) Principle of parsimony B) Ranking based on the age of common ancestor C) Recognizes only monophyletic groups D) Recognizes both monophyletic and paraphyletic groups

_______________________


STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST - 2010 (Conducted on 6/6/2010)

ANSWER KEYS Published on 8/6/2010

CORRECTION IN KEYS

Qn.No Published Key Corrected as

36 A A & B

49 A A & C

BOTANY

Qn.No Key Qn.No Key Qn.No Key Qn.No Key Qn.No Key Qn.No Key

1 A 21 B 41 B 61 A 81 C 101 C

2 B 22 D 42 A 62 A 82 C 102 D

3 D 23 C 43 C 63 A 83 D 103 B

4 C 24 C 44 A 64 A 84 C 104 A

5 B 25 A 45 A 65 A 85 B 105 C

6 B 26 C 46 B 66 B 86 B 106 C

7 C 27 A 47 C 67 B 87 A 107 A

8 A 28 B 48 B 68 C 88 A 108 B

9 D 29 A 49 A 69 C 89 C 109 C

10 A 30 C 50 A 70 D 90 B 110 A

11 D 31 A 51 A 71 A 91 B 111 B

12 C 32 B 52 B 72 A 92 B 112 B

13 A 33 D 53 D 73 C 93 B 113 B

14 C 34 B 54 C 74 A 94 C 114 C

15 B 35 B 55 A 75 C 95 B 115 A

16 B 36 A 56 A 76 D 96 A 116 B

17 B 37 B 57 A 77 C 97 C 117 C

18 D 38 A 58 C 78 D 98 C 118 A

19 D 39 A 59 A 79 C 99 A 119 A

20 B 40 C 60 A 80 D 100 C 120 C



ANSWER KEYS Published on 28-09-2011

BOTANY [ 91103 ]

Correction in Answer Keys

Question

No.

Published

Key Corrected As

15 B B & D


1 B 21 B 41 C 61 C 81 D 101 C

2 C 22 C 42 D 62 B 82 B 102 A

3 A 23 B 43 D 63 B 83 C 103 D

4 B 24 C 44 B 64 A 84 C 104 D

5 B 25 A 45 B 65 C 85 B 105 C

6 B 26 C 46 B 66 B 86 B 106 D

7 B 27 A 47 A 67 C 87 C 107 C

8 A 28 C 48 C 68 C 88 A 108 C

9 A 29 C 49 A 69 B 89 A 109 A

10 C 30 B 50 C 70 A 90 A 110 B

11 B 31 C 51 C 71 A 91 B 111 A

12 B 32 D 52 C 72 A 92 B 112 C

13 B 33 C 53 C 73 D 93 A 113 A

14 C 34 A 54 D 74 C 94 B 114 C

15 B 35 D 55 C 75 C 95 C 115 B

16 B 36 C 56 B 76 B 96 A 116 B

17 A 37 A 57 A 77 C 97 B 117 C

18 A 38 C 58 D 78 A 98 D 118 D

19 B 39 B 59 A 79 A 99 B 119 A

20 C 40 C 60 C 80 C 100 D 120 D




BOTANY [12903]

Qst.No Key Qst.No Key Qst.No Key Qst.No Key

1 C 31 C 61 A 91 A

2 C 32 A 62 A 92 D

3 C 33 A 63 B 93 C

4 B 34 B 64 D 94 B

5 C 35 B 65 C 95 D

6 D 36 B 66 C 96 B

7 B 37 C 67 D 97 B

8 D 38 B 68 D 98 B

9 C 39 C 69 A 99 C

10 C 40 D 70 B 100 A

11 C 41 B 71 B 101 D

12 D 42 D 72 B 102 A

13 B 43 B 73 A 103 D

14 C 44 D 74 D 104 C

15 C 45 A 75 D 105 C

16 A 46 D 76 C 106 C

17 C 47 C 77 A 107 A

18 D 48 D 78 A 108 D

19 C 49 C 79 B 109 D

20 C 50 D 80 B 110 C

21 C 51 C 81 C 111 C

22 C 52 A 82 B 112 B

23 B 53 D 83 B 113 D

24 B 54 B 84 B 114 B

25 C 55 C 85 D 115 B

26 B 56 B 86 A 116 B

27 D 57 D 87 C 117 B

28 A 58 A 88 B 118 C

29 B 59 C 89 A 119 D

30 A 60 C 90 C 120 B


Qn.No. KEY Qn.No. KEY Qn.No. KEY Qn.No. KEY1 B 31 B 61 A 91 A2 C 32 B 62 A 92 A3 A 33 B 63 B 93 A4 B 34 A 64 A 94 B5 B 35 A 65 C 95 B6 A 36 A 66 D 96 D7 C 37 C 67 B 97 A8 A 38 D 68 D 98 B9 A 39 C 69 B 99 B

10 B 40 D 70 B 100 A11 A 41 C 71 C 101 B12 A 42 A 72 B 102 D13 C 43 A 73 C 103 D14 C 44 A 74 A 104 B15 A 45 C 75 D 105 D16 B 46 C 76 B 106 A17 B 47 B 77 A 107 A18 B 48 C 78 A 108 B19 A 49 C 79 B 109 A20 C 50 B 80 A 110 B21 A 51 A 81 D 111 B22 A 52 D 82 B 112 C23 A 53 D 83 C 113 D24 C 54 A 84 A 114 A25 A 55 A 85 C 115 D26 A 56 B 86 D 116 C27 A 57 A 87 C 117 A28 C 58 B 88 A 118 A29 A 59 A 89 A 119 B30 A 60 B 90 B 120 B

SET 2013BOTANY -13603


STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST - 2013 December (Conducted on 02/02/2014)


BOTANY[14203]


1 C 21 B 41 B 61 C 81 B 101 D

2 A 22 A 42 A 62 D 82 D 102 D

3 C 23 B 43 A 63 B 83 B 103 C

4 B 24 B 44 B 64 C 84 B 104 A

5 D 25 A 45 D 65 D 85 A 105 C

6 B 26 A 46 A 66 B 86 D 106 A

7 D 27 D 47 A 67 B 87 A 107 A

8 C 28 D 48 C 68 D 88 C 108 C

9 A 29 B 49 C 69 C 89 B 109 C

10 C 30 D 50 D 70 C 90 C 110 A

11 C 31 A 51 A 71 B 91 D 111 A

12 B 32 C 52 D 72 B 92 C 112 C

13 B 33 D 53 A 73 A 93 A 113 A

14 C 34 B 54 C 74 B 94 B 114 D

15 A 35 C 55 D 75 D 95 C 115 B

16 B 36 D 56 B 76 A 96 C 116 D

17 C 37 D 57 D 77 C 97 C 117 D

18 D 38 C 58 A 78 A 98 D 118 C

19 C 39 C 59 C 79 B 99 B 119 B

20 D 40 C 60 D 80 C 100 C 120 A


STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST - June - 2015 (Conducted on 7/6/2015)


BOTANY[15603]


1 B 21 C 41 A 61 A 81 C 101 A

2 C 22 C 42 C 62 B 82 C 102 A

3 A 23 D 43 C 63 C 83 A 103 C

4 A 24 B 44 A 64 A 84 D 104 A

5 A 25 C 45 C 65 D 85 A 105 B

6 C 26 D 46 A 66 D 86 A 106 C

7 C 27 C 47 C 67 B 87 A 107 D

8 C 28 D 48 B 68 C 88 D 108 B

9 D 29 C 49 B 69 A 89 B 109 B

10 C 30 D 50 C 70 A 90 A 110 C

11 B 31 A 51 C 71 A 91 B 111 B

12 C 32 A 52 A 72 D 92 C 112 D

13 B 33 A 53 B 73 A 93 A 113 D

14 A 34 C 54 A 74 B 94 B 114 B

15 A 35 C 55 C 75 C 95 C 115 C

16 A 36 C 56 B 76 D 96 A 116 A

17 A 37 B 57 B 77 D 97 B 117 B

18 C 38 B 58 C 78 D 98 A 118 C

19 B 39 A 59 A 79 A 99 C 119 A

20 A 40 C 60 C 80 C 100 A 120 A


STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST - December - 2015 (Conducted on 31/01/2016)


BOTANY[16103-A]


1 B 21 C 41 A 61 B 81 B 101 B

2 C 22 A 42 B 62 B 82 C 102 A

3 A 23 A 43 A 63 C 83 D 103 A

4 D 24 A 44 D 64 B 84 A 104 D

5 B 25 B 45 C 65 C 85 C 105 D

6 B 26 C 46 C 66 A 86 B 106 D

7 C 27 A 47 B 67 D 87 A 107 D

8 D 28 B 48 D 68 C 88 C 108 B

9 B 29 B 49 C 69 B 89 A 109 C

10 A 30 D 50 D 70 B 90 C 110 C

11 A 31 B 51 A 71 B 91 D 111 C

12 A 32 D 52 D 72 A 92 B 112 B

13 C 33 A 53 A 73 A 93 B 113 D

14 B 34 C 54 A 74 C 94 D 114 A

15 D 35 C 55 A 75 B 95 C 115 D

16 C 36 A 56 C 76 C 96 A 116 A

17 B 37 B 57 B 77 D 97 C 117 C

18 A 38 D 58 B 78 B 98 D 118 B

19 D 39 A 59 C 79 B 99 C 119 D

20 B 40 B 60 C 80 A 100 B 120 C


STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST - June - 2016 (Conducted on 31/07/2016)


BOTANY[16603-A]


1 C 21 C 41 C 61 B 81 A 101 B

2 D 22 B 42 D 62 A 82 C 102 C

3 A 23 D 43 D 63 B 83 B 103 B

4 C 24 B 44 D 64 A 84 A 104 C

5 C 25 D 45 A 65 B 85 C 105 C

6 C 26 B 46 D 66 D 86 C 106 C

7 D 27 D 47 C 67 A 87 D 107 C

8 B 28 B 48 B 68 C 88 B 108 D

9 D 29 A 49 A 69 D 89 B 109 B

10 D 30 C 50 B 70 A 90 A 110 A

11 B 31 A 51 D 71 A 91 A 111 D

12 C 32 C 52 B 72 A 92 B 112 A

13 D 33 C 53 A 73 B 93 B 113 D

14 B 34 D 54 C 74 C 94 D 114 A

15 D 35 C 55 D 75 B 95 D 115 A

16 D 36 B 56 A 76 D 96 B 116 A

17 B 37 C 57 A 77 B 97 C 117 C

18 C 38 A 58 D 78 B 98 C 118 C

19 D 39 A 59 C 79 B 99 C 119 D

20 D 40 A 60 A 80 D 100 B 120 C


STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST - Feb - 2017 (Conducted on 12/02/2017)


BOTANY[17203-A]


1 B 21 A 41 D 61 C 81 B 101 B

2 C 22 D 42 C 62 C 82 B 102 B

3 C 23 C 43 D 63 D 83 B 103 B

4 C 24 A 44 B 64 D 84 A 104 C

5 B 25 D 45 C 65 B 85 B 105 C

6 B 26 D 46 A 66 A 86 A 106 B

7 C 27 B 47 C 67 C 87 B 107 B

8 D 28 C 48 D 68 D 88 C 108 B

9 A 29 B 49 D 69 B 89 B 109 A

10 C 30 D 50 C 70 D 90 A 110 B

11 D 31 C 51 D 71 A 91 C 111 C

12 A 32 C 52 C 72 B 92 C 112 D

13 D 33 D 53 B 73 C 93 A 113 B

14 D 34 D 54 D 74 C 94 B 114 A

15 C 35 B 55 C 75 D 95 B 115 A

16 B 36 A 56 D 76 D 96 D 116 D

17 B 37 A 57 D 77 D 97 D 117 D

18 C 38 B 58 C 78 B 98 C 118 D

19 D 39 C 59 C 79 C 99 C 119 B

20 B 40 D 60 C 80 B 100 C 120 D


Education

SET Botany Previous Question Papers with Answer key (Kerala) 2010- 2017