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Section A: Read extract one – answer the questions in full
sentences in the spaces provided (15 minutes)
Section B: Read extract two – answer the questions in full
sentences in the spaces provided (15 minutes)
Section C: Choose one of the writing tasks; plan and write in
response to the question you have chosen (30 minutes)
Name
SECTION A: Spend 15 minutes on this section
Read this passage carefully, then answer the questions that follow. The passage below describes Will Parry’s strange
observation on an Oxford road.
He came to a large traffic circle where the road going north crossed the Oxford ring road going east and west.
At this time of night there was very little traffic, and the road where he stood was quiet, with comfortable
houses set back behind a wide expanse of grass on either side. Planted along the grass at the road's edge were
two lines of hornbeam trees, odd-looking things with perfectly symmetrical close-leafed crowns, more like
children's drawings than like real trees. The streetlights made the scene look artificial, like a stage set. Will was
stupefied with exhaustion, and he might have gone on to the north, or he might have laid his head on the grass
under one of those trees and slept; but as he stood trying to clear his head, he saw a cat.
She was a tabby, like Moxie. She padded out of a garden on the Oxford side of the road, where Will was
standing. Will put down his tote bag and held out his hand, and the cat came up to rub her head against his
knuckles, just as Moxie did. Of course, every cat behaved like that, but all the same Will felt such a longing for
home that tears scalded his eyes.
Eventually the cat turned away. This was night, and there was a territory to patrol, there were mice to hunt.
She padded across the road and toward the bushes just beyond the hornbeam trees, and there she stopped.
Will, still watching, saw the cat behave curiously.
She reached out a paw to pat something in the air in front of her, something quite invisible to Will. Then she
leaped backward, back arched and fur on end, tail held out stiffly. Will knew cat behaviour. He watched more
alertly as the cat approached the spot again, just an empty patch of grass between the hornbeams and the
bushes of a garden hedge, and patted the air once more.
Again she leaped back, but less far and with less alarm this time. After another few seconds of sniffing,
touching, and whisker twitching, curiosity overcame wariness.
The cat stepped forward and vanished.
Will blinked. Then he stood still, close to the trunk of the nearest tree, as a truck came around the circle and
swept its lights over him. When it had gone past, he crossed the road, keeping his eyes on the spot where the
cat had been investigating. It wasn't easy, because there was nothing to fix on, but when he came to the place
and cast about to look closely, he saw it.
At least, he saw it from some angles. It looked as if someone had cut a patch out of the air, about two yards
from the edge of the road, a patch roughly square in shape and less than a yard across. If you were level with
the patch so that it was edge-on, it was nearly invisible, and it was completely invisible from behind. You could
see it only from the side nearest the road, and you couldn't see it easily even from there, because all you could
see through it was exactly the same kind of thing that lay in front of it on this side: a patch of grass lit by a
streetlight.
But Will knew without the slightest doubt that that patch of grass on the other side was in a different world.
He couldn't possibly have said why. He knew it at once, as strongly as he knew that fire burned and kindness
was good. He was looking at something profoundly alien.
And for that reason alone, it enticed him to stoop and look further. What he saw made his head swim and his
heart thump harder, but he didn't hesitate: he pushed his tote bag through, and then scrambled through
himself, through the hole in the fabric of this world and into another.
From ‘The Subtle Knife’ by Philip Pullman
Please answer the questions in full sentences. Look at the passage again if you need to. You may
highlight and mark the sheet.
1: In paragraph one, what simile does the narrator use to describe the appearance of the streetlights? (1 mark)
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2: Just before Will sees the cat, he is described as being ‘stupefied with exhaustion’ and two possible options
are given for what he might do next. What are those two options? (2 marks)
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3: Will sees the cat react to ‘something in the air in front of her’. Find and write down the sentence which
describes the cat’s reaction to what she sees. (1 mark)
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4: What word does the writer use to describe how the cat behaves? (1 mark)
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5: What does Will see when he looks more closely at the spot the cat has been investigating? (1 mark)
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6: Will realises that he is looking at something strange. Which two words sum up the unusual nature of what
he is looking at? Find and write down the two words. (2 marks)
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7: When Will steps ‘through the hole in the fabric of this world and into another’ which word do you think
best describes how he is feeling? Circle one letter from the letters below. (1 mark)
A: Scared B: Anxious C: Aggressive D: Intrigued
SECTION B: Spend 15 minutes on this section
Read this passage carefully, then answer the questions that follow.
The Big Question: Is time travel possible, and is there any
chance that it will ever take place?
By Steve Connor, Science Editor
Friday, 8 February 2008
Why are we asking this now?
Two Russian mathematicians have suggested that the giant atom-smasher being built at the European centre
for nuclear research, Cern, near Geneva, could create the conditions where it might be possible to travel
backwards or forwards in time. In essence, Irina Aref'eva and Igor Volovich believe that the Large Hadron
Collider at Cern, which is due to be switched on this year for the first time, might create tiny "wormholes" in
space which could allow some form of limited time travel.
If true, this would mark the first time in human history that a time machine has been created. If travelling back
in time is possible at all, it should in theory be only possible to travel back to the point when the first time
machine was created and so this would mean that time travellers from the future would be able to visit us. As
an article in this week's New Scientist suggests, this year – 2008 – could become "year zero" for time travel.
Is this really a serious proposition?
The New Scientist article points out that there are many practical problems and theoretical paradoxes to time
travel. "Nevertheless, the slim possibility remains that we will see visitors from the future in the next year,"
says the magazine says, rather provocatively.
It has to be said that few scientists accept the idea that the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) will create the
conditions thought to be necessary for time travel. The LHC is designed to probe the mysterious forces that
exist at the level of sub-atomic particles, and as such will answer many important questions, such as the true
nature of gravity. It is not designed as a time machine.
In any case, if the LHC became a time machine by accident, the device would exist only at the sub-atomic level
so we are not talking about a machine like Dr Who's Tardis, which is able to carry people forwards and
backwards from the future.
What do the experts say about the idea of time travel?
The theoretical possibility is widely debated, but everyone agrees that the practical problems are so immense
that it is, in all likelihood, never going to happen. Brian Cox, a Cern researcher at the University of
Manchester, points out that even if the laws of physics do not prohibit time travel, that doesn't mean to say it's
going to happen, certainly in terms of travelling back in time.
"Saying that the laws of physics as we know them permit travel into the past is the same as saying that, to
paraphrase Bertrand Russell, they permit a teapot to be in orbit around Venus," Dr Cox says. It's possible, but
not likely.
"Time travel into the future is absolutely possible, in fact time passes at a different rate in orbit than it does on
the ground, and this has to be taken into consideration in order for satellite navigation systems to work. But
time travel into the past, although technically allowed in Einstein's theory, will in the opinion of most physicists
be ruled out when, and if, we develop a better understanding of the fundamental laws of physics – and that's
what the LHC is all about."
From http://www.independent.co.uk/news/science/the-big-question-is-time-travel-possible-and-is-there-any-
chance-that-it-will-ever-take-place-779761.html
Please answer the questions in full sentences. Look at the passage again if you need to. You may
highlight and mark the sheet.
1: When the Large Hadron Collider is switched on for the first time, what might it create? (1 mark)
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2: Which year does the New Scientist suggest could be the ‘year zero’ for time travel? (1 mark)
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3: In the article it says that the LHC (Large Hadron Collider) is not designed to be a time machine. Find and
write down the sentence which does describe what the LHC is designed to do. (1 mark)
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4: Which character and his famous time machine are mentioned in the article? Name the character and the
name their time machine is known by. (2 marks)
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5: Read the statements below and circle the letter of one statement which best summarises the article’s ideas
about time travel. (1 mark)
A: Time travel is possible but unlikely to happen due to practical difficulties
B: Time travel is absolutely impossible
C: Time travel is definitely going to happen in 2008
D: The Large Hadron Collider was designed specifically to investigate time travel.
SECTION C: Spend 30 minutes on this section
Writing task
Task: choose one of the titles below and plan a piece of imaginative writing based on that
title. You must show your planning in the box below before writing an accurate response on
the page opposite. Write a minimum of half a side of A4 and a maximum of one side of A4.
You have 30 minutes to plan, write and check your work for its accuracy. Leave time to
check your spelling, punctuation and grammar. (15 marks)
1: ‘...He didn't hesitate: he pushed his tote bag through, and then scrambled through
himself, through the hole in the fabric of this world and into another.’ Plan and write an
extract from a story which describes what Will sees next and how he reacts to the parallel
world he finds.
2: Write an article for a newspaper in which you try to persuade the reader of the
possibilities of time travel and the benefits it may offer. Remember to use persuasive
techniques. (You do not have to write in columns)
3: Describe a time when you were faced with an unusual situation or something unexpected
happened. Remember to use descriptive words to make your writing vivid and interesting
for the reader.
Planning Space
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DHSB / SD
Where a quotation is asked for specific quotation required and with multiple choice answers I’m looking for them to have followed instructions and circled a letter, not written the correct answer below. Reading: Section A ‘The Subtle Knife’
1. In paragraph one, what simile does the narrator use to describe the appearance of the streetlights? ‘The streetlights made the scene look artificial, like a stage set’. 1 mark
2. Just before Will sees the cat, he is described as being ‘stupefied with exhaustion’ and two possible options are given for what he might do next. What are those two options? He might have gone to the north or he might have laid his head on the grass under one of the trees and gone to sleep. 2 marks
3. Will sees the cat react to ‘something in the air in front of her’. Find and write down the sentence which describes the cat’s reaction to what she sees. . ‘Then she leaped backward, back arched and fur on end, tail held out stiffly.’ 1 mark
4. What word does the writer use to describe how the cat behaves? ‘Curiously’. 1 mark
5. What does Will see when he looks more closely at the spot the cat has been investigating? He sees a patch in the air. 1 mark
6. Will realises that he is looking at something strange. Which two words sum up the unusual nature of what he is looking at? Find and write down the two words. ‘Invisible’ and ‘alien’ 2 marks
7. When Will steps ‘through the hole in the fabric of this world and into another’ which word do you think best describes how he is feeling? Circle one letter from the letters below. ‘Intrigued’. 1 mark
Reading: Section B The Independent Time Travel article
1. When the Large Hadron Collider is switched on for the first time, what might it create? It might create ‘wormholes’ in space which could allow some limited form of time travel/the possibility of travelling backwards or forwards in time. 1 mark
2. Which year does the New Scientist suggest could be the ‘year zero’ for time travel? 2008 1 mark
3. In the article it says that the LHC (Large Hadron Collider) is not designed to be a time machine. Find and write down the sentence which does describe what the LHC is designed to do. ‘The LHC is designed to probe the mysterious forces that exist at the level of sub-atomic particles, and as such will answer many important questions, such as the true nature of gravity. It is not designed as a time machine.’ 1 mark
4. Which character and his famous time machine are mentioned in the article? Name the character and the name their time machine is known by. Dr Who and The Tardis. 2 marks
5. Read the statements below and circle the letter of one statement which best summarises the article’s ideas about time travel. A: Time travel is possible but unlikely to happen due to practical difficulties. 1 mark
Writing Section C: Choice of three tasks 15 marks available divided into three sections: SSP, TSO and CE Sentence structure and punctuation – maximum of five marks 5 – Candidates can confidently use varied sentence lengths (including complex sentences) and structures for emphasis, specific effects of to make ideas clear; full range of accurately used punctuation is evident, including punctuation to show speech. 4 – Candidates attempt to use varied sentence lengths and structures (including complex sentences) and use a range of punctuation. 3 – Candidates try to vary length and structure of sentences but may rely on complex sentences with straightforward connectives such as because, if and when. Sentences are generally closed off accurately and some speech punctuation is used accurately. May be an over-reliance on ‘and’ as a way of joining ideas. 2 – Sentence structures are mostly simple and complex with basic punctuation used correctly. 1 – Basic sentence structures employed with punctuation such as full stops and commas used. Commas may not always be used correctly. Text structure and organisation – maximum of 5 marks 5 – Writing is well planned and structured with a clear idea of where the story/writing is going. Ideas are developed in a clear order. Paragraphs are used to clearly structure the main ideas across the whole text. 4 – Writing is planned and structured using paragraphs. Organisation shows thought and an idea of where the text is going. 3 – Paragraphs are used to organise writing and ideas are linked within the paragraphs. Writing is structured with a sense of beginning, middle and end. Direction of writing not always clear. 2 – Evidence of some grouping of ideas which is usually in paragraphs, with a sense of beginning, middle and end although the direction of writing is not always clear. 1 – Text employs a beginning/middle/end structure but the demarcation of paragraphs is not always clear and does not always help make the writing more coherent. Composition and Effect – maximum of 5 marks 5 – Candidate has the purpose and form of task firmly in mind as they write. A variety of features is evident in their writing, such as adjectives and descriptive detail in creative writing, an appropriate factual/persuasive tone in newspaper report or creative and descriptive first person accounts of a time they were in danger. Writing is generally thoughtful, imaginative and interesting. 4 – Overall the purpose and form of task is evident and the candidate follows requirements for the form they are using. Detail is sufficiently developed to create interest. 3 - Some evidence of form and task as candidate writes and the main purpose is clear. Text shows thought but execution may not make all ideas as clear as possible. 2 – Candidate has attempted to follow purpose of task set but the main purpose may not be clear and they will be lapses in the execution of the writing, e.g. no descriptive detail to make writing interesting. 1 – Candidate has evidence of formulating ideas in the planning stage and has made attempts to create writing which follows the purpose but they have not interested or engaged reader as there is no descriptive detail or not enough attention to format/purpose.
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
Name
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
Section A: Spend 30 minutes on this section (20 marks)
Read the extract below and then answer the multiple-choice
questions that follow:
‘To Kill a Mockingbird’ Harper Lee
Scout Finch lives with her brother, Jem, and their widowed father, Atticus, in the sleepy
Alabama town of Maycomb. One summer, Jem and Scout befriend a boy named Dill, who
has come to live in their neighborhood for the summer, and the trio acts out stories
together. Eventually, Dill becomes fascinated with the spooky house on their street
called the Radley Place.
The Radley Place fascinated Dill. In spite of our warnings and explanations it drew him as the
moon draws water, but drew him no nearer than the light-pole on the corner, a safe distance
from the Radley gate. There he would stand, his arm around the fat pole, staring and
wondering.
The Radley Place jutted into a sharp curve beyond our house. Walking south, one faced its
porch; the sidewalk turned and ran beside the lot. The house was low, was once white with a
deep front porch and green shutters, but had long ago darkened to the color of the slate-gray
yard around it. Rain-rotted shingles drooped over the eaves of the veranda; oak trees kept the
sun away. The remains of a picket drunkenly guarded the front yard- a "swept" yard that was
never swept-where johnson grass and rabbit-tobacco grew in abundance.
Inside the house lived a malevolent phantom. People said he existed, but Jem and I had never
seen him. People said he went out at night when the moon was down, and peeped in windows.
When people's azaleas froze in a cold snap, it was because he had breathed on them. Any
stealthy small crimes committed in Maycomb were his work. Once the town was terrorized by a
series of morbid nocturnal events: people's chickens and household pets were found mutilated;
although the culprit was Crazy Addie, who eventually drowned himself in Barker's Eddy, people
still looked at the Radley Place, unwilling to discard their initial suspicions. A Negro would not
pass the Radley Place at night, he would cut across to the sidewalk opposite and whistle as he
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
walked. The Maycomb school grounds adjoined the back of the Radley lot; from the Radley
chickenyard tall pecan trees shook their fruit into the schoolyard, but the nuts lay untouched by
the children: Radley pecans would kill you. A baseball hit into the Radley yard was a lost ball
and no questions asked.
"Wonder what he looks like?" said Dill.
Jem gave a reasonable description of Boo: Boo was about six-and-a-half feet tall, judging from
his tracks; he dined on raw squirrels and any cats he could catch, that's why his hands were
bloodstained- if you ate an animal raw, you could never wash the blood off. There was a long
jagged scar that ran across his face; what teeth he had were yellow and rotten; his eyes
popped, and he drooled most of the time.
"Let's try to make him come out," said Dill. "I'd like to see what he looks like."
Circle the letter of the correct answer:
1. Where would Dill stand to look at the Radley house?
A. On the porch
B. Under the light-pole on the corner
C. On the other side of the street
D. In the Radley’s front garden
2. Take another look at this quotation: “it drew him as the moon draws water”(lines
1-2). What is the purpose of describing Dill’s attraction to the Radley house in
this way?
The description emphasises:
A. that Dill’s attraction to the house is natural and uncontrollable
B. that Dill is carried to the house by water
C. that Dill is lead to the house by the moonlight
D. that Dill drew a picture of the house
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
3. Who said that Boo Radley dined on squirrels and cats?
A. Dill
B. Crazy Addie
C. A person from the town
D. Jem
4. What would happen to a baseball that was hit into the Radley yard?
A. Boo Radley would throw it back
B. It was lost and no questions were asked
C. The person who hit it would enter the yard to get it back
D. The police would be called
5. What kind of atmosphere does the writer convey through the language used to
describe the house?
A. Joyful and exciting
B. Dangerous
C. Neglected and depressing
D. Spooky
6. Why would the school children not eat the pecan nuts that fell from the Radley’s
tree into the schoolyard?
A. The chickens ate them all
B. The nuts were rotten
C. It was believed that Radley nuts would kill you
D. The headteacher told them not to
7. Which two words were used by Jem to describe Boo (lines….)?
A. Small and round
B. Rotten and blood-stained
C. Wicked and tall
D. Green and toothless
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
8. Which sequence shows the correct order of events?
A. The superstitions about Boo are described; Dill wonders what Boo looks like; The
Radley Place is described; Dill stares at The Radley Place; Jem describes Boo;
Dill suggests trying to make Boo come out.
B. Dill stares at The Radley Place; Dill suggests trying to make Boo come out; the
superstitions about Boo are described; Jem describes Boo; The Radley Place is
described; Dill wonders what Boo looks like.
C. Jem describes Boo; The Radley Place is described; Dill wonders what Boo looks
like; Dill stares at The Radley Place; the superstitions about Boo are described;
Dill suggests trying to make Boo come out.
D. Dill stares at The Radley Place; The Radley Place is described; the superstitions
about Boo are described; Dill wonders what Boo looks like; Jem describes Boo;
Dill suggests trying to make Boo come out.
9. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to “malevolent” (line …)?
A. Scary
B. Ugly
C. Evil
D. Mysterious
10. What type of words are the following: ‘rotten’, ‘yellow’, ‘cold’, ‘jagged’?
A. Noun
B. Verb
C. Adverb
D. Adjective
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
Select the correct word to complete the following sentences:
11. After I entered the house, I _______________ that I was in danger.
A. realised
B. realising
C. realise
D. realises
12. My friend and ________________ both love to make up spooky stories.
A. me
B. I
C. mine
D. my
13. Long, hot summers in Spain are the best. I love going _____________.
A. there
B. their
C. theyre
D. they’re
14. ________________ do you like to go on holiday?
A. Were
B. We’re
C. Where
D. Wear
15. I would love to come to your party _____________ I’m not feeling well.
A. but
B. because
C. and
D. so
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
Choose the correct punctuation mark to place in the blank space:
16. Have you ever seen the school that looks like Hogwarts___
A. !
B. .
C. ,
D. ?
17. My favourite pizza topping is ham and cheese ___ my brother’s is pepperoni.
A. ,
B. ;
C. .
D. !
18. The referee shouted, ___ Stop!”
A. “
B. :
C. !
D. -
19. For the camping trip, you will need___ a tent; a sleeping bag; some wellies and
a warm coat.
A. ;
B. :
C. .
D. ?
20. DHSB ___ Devonport High School for Boys) is a fantastic school!
A. …
B. )
C. (
D. :
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
Section B: Spend 30 minutes on this section
Task: choose one of the tasks below and plan a piece of imaginative writing
based on that task. You must show your planning in the box below before writing
an accurate response on the next page. Write a minimum of half a side of A4 and
a maximum of one side of A4.
You have 30 minutes to plan, write and check your work for its accuracy. Leave
time to check your spelling, punctuation and grammar.
1. Imagine that you are Dill and you and Jem approach the Radley house one
summer evening to try and make Boo Radley come out so that you can get a
look at him. Write an extract of a story about that evening. Describe what the
house looks like from close up; explain how you feel as you approach the house
and describe what happens as you and Jem try to get Boo to come out.
Remember to use descriptive words to make your writing vivid and interesting for
the reader.
2. Write an article for a newspaper that informs your readers of a sighting of the
mysterious Boo Radley. Include details of the house and the person who saw
Boo. (You do not have to write in columns.)
3. Write a letter to a friend to try and persuade them help you find out what Boo
Radley looks like. Remember to use persuasive techniques.
Planning space
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
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DHSB/CLJ June 2017
Devonport High School for Boys
11+ Familiarisation
10 June 2017
English Test – Mark Scheme
Section A: Reading ‘To Kill a Mockingbird’
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. C
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
Section B: Writing: Choice of three tasks
15 marks available divided into three sections: SSP, TSO and CE
Sentence structure and punctuation – maximum of five marks
5 – Candidates can confidently use varied sentence lengths (including complex
sentences) and structures for emphasis, specific effects of to make ideas clear; full
range of accurately used punctuation is evident, including punctuation to show speech.
4 – Candidates attempt to use varied sentence lengths and structures (including
complex sentences) and use a range of punctuation.
3 – Candidates try to vary length and structure of sentences but may rely on complex
sentences with straightforward connectives such as because, if and when. Sentences
are generally closed off accurately and some speech punctuation is used accurately.
There may be an over-reliance on ‘and’ as a way of joining ideas.
2 – Sentence structures are mostly simple and complex with basic punctuation used
correctly.
1 – Basic sentence structures employed with punctuation such as full stops and
commas used. Commas may not always be used correctly.
Text structure and organisation – maximum of five marks
5 – Writing is well planned and structured with a clear idea of where the story/writing is
going. Ideas are developed in a clear order. Paragraphs are used to clearly structure
the
main ideas across the whole text.
4 – Writing is planned and structured using paragraphs. Organisation shows thought
and an idea of where the text is going.
3 – Paragraphs are used to organise writing and ideas are linked within the paragraphs.
Writing is structured with a sense of beginning, middle and end. Direction of writing not
always clear.
2 – Evidence of some grouping of ideas which is usually in paragraphs, with a sense of
beginning, middle and end, although the direction of writing is not always clear.
1 – Text employs a beginning/middle/end structure but the demarcation of paragraphs is
not always clear and does not always help make the writing more coherent.
DHSB/CLJ June 2017
Composition and Effect – maximum of five marks
5 – Candidate has the purpose and form of task firmly in mind as they write. A variety of
features is evident in their writing, such as adjectives and descriptive detail in creative
writing, an appropriate persuasive tone in the letter or creative and descriptive first
person accounts. Writing is generally thoughtful, imaginative and interesting.
4 – Overall the purpose and form of task is evident and the candidate follows
requirements for the form they are using. Detail is sufficiently developed to create
interest.
3 - Some evidence of form and task as candidate writes and the main purpose is clear.
Text shows thought but execution may not make all ideas as clear as possible.
2 – Candidate has attempted to follow purpose of task set but the main purpose may
not be clear and there will be lapses in the execution of the writing, e.g. no descriptive
detail to make writing interesting.
1 – Candidate has evidence of formulating ideas in the planning stage and has made
attempts to create writing which follows the purpose but they have not interested or
engaged reader as there is no descriptive detail or not enough attention to
format/purpose.
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
Name
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
Section A: Spend 30 minutes on this section (20 marks)
Read the extract below and then answer the multiple-choice questions that
follow:
‘War of the Worlds’ H.G Wells
Early one morning, the residents of Surrey are disturbed by a strange cylinder falling
from the atmosphere. Many people witness the ‘falling star’, but one man called Ogilvy
decides to investigate further.
CHAPTER TWO: THE FALLING STAR
Then came the night of the first falling star. It was seen early in the morning, rushing over Winchester
eastward, a line of flame high in the atmosphere. Hundreds must have seen it, and taken it for an
ordinary falling star. Albin described it as leaving a greenish streak behind it that glowed for some
seconds. Denning, our greatest authority on meteorites, stated that the height of its first appearance
was about ninety or one hundred miles. It seemed to him that it fell to earth about one hundred miles
east of him.
I was at home at that hour and writing in my study; and although my French windows face towards
Ottershaw and the blind was up (for I loved in those days to look up at the night sky), I saw nothing of
it. Yet this strangest of all things that ever came to earth from outer space must have fallen while I was
sitting there, visible to me had I only looked up as it passed. Some of those who saw its flight say it
travelled with a hissing sound. I myself heard nothing of that. Many people in Berkshire, Surrey, and
Middlesex must have seen the fall of it, and, at most, have thought that another meteorite had
descended. No one seems to have troubled to look for the fallen mass that night.
But very early in the morning poor Ogilvy, who had seen the shooting star and who was persuaded
that a meteorite lay somewhere on the common between Horsell, Ottershaw, and Woking, rose early
with the idea of finding it. Find it he did, soon after dawn, and not far from the sand pits. An enormous
hole had been made by the impact of the projectile, and the sand and gravel had been flung violently
in every direction over the heath, forming heaps visible a mile and a half away. The heather was on
fire eastward, and a thin blue smoke rose against the dawn.
The Thing itself lay almost entirely buried in sand, amidst the scattered splinters of a fir tree it had
shivered to fragments in its descent. The uncovered part had the appearance of a huge cylinder,
caked over and its outline softened by a thick scaly dun-coloured incrustation. It had a diameter of
about thirty yards. He approached the mass, surprised at the size and more so at the shape, since
most meteorites are rounded more or less completely. It was, however, still so hot from its flight
through the air as to forbid his near approach. A stirring noise within its cylinder he ascribed to the
unequal cooling of its surface; for at that time it had not occurred to him that it might be hollow.
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
He remained standing at the edge of the pit that the Thing had made for itself, staring at its strange
appearance, astonished chiefly at its unusual shape and colour, and dimly perceiving even then some
evidence of design in its arrival. The early morning was wonderfully still, and the sun, just clearing the
pine trees towards Weybridge, was already warm. He did not remember hearing any birds that
morning, there was certainly no breeze stirring, and the only sounds were the faint movements from
within the cindery cylinder. He was all alone on the common.
Then suddenly he noticed with a start that some of the grey clinker, the ashy incrustation that covered
the meteorite, was falling off the circular edge of the end. It was dropping off in flakes and raining
down upon the sand. A large piece suddenly came off and fell with a sharp noise that brought his
heart into his mouth.
For a minute he scarcely realised what this meant, and, although the heat was excessive, he
clambered down into the pit close to the bulk to see the Thing more clearly. He fancied even then that
the cooling of the body might account for this, but what disturbed that idea was the fact that the ash
was falling only from the end of the cylinder.
And then he perceived that, very slowly, the circular top of the cylinder was rotating on its body. It was
such a gradual movement that he discovered it only through noticing that a black mark that had been
near him five minutes ago was now at the other side of the circumference. Even then he scarcely
understood what this indicated, until he heard a muffled grating sound and saw the black mark jerk
forward an inch or so. Then the thing came upon him in a flash. The cylinder was artificial--hollow--
with an end that screwed out! Something within the cylinder was unscrewing the top!
Circle the letter of the correct answer:
1. Where was the first ‘falling star’ seen rushing over?
A. Ottershaw
B. Winchester
C. Berkshire
D. Surrey
2. Take another look at this quotation: “leaving a greenish streak behind it that glowed for
some seconds.” (lines 3-4). What is the purpose of describing the ‘shooting star’ in this
way?
The description suggests:
A. that the ‘shooting star’ was supernatural
B. that the ‘shooting star’ was a firework
C. that the ‘shooting star’ had a glowing light
D. that the ‘shooting star’ could be seen for a few seconds
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
3. Who stated that the ‘shooting star’ was 90 to 100 miles high when it was first seen?
A. Ogilvy
B. Albin
C. The narrator
D. Denning
4. Why did the narrator not see the ‘shooting star’ fall?
A. His blinds on his French windows were down
B. He did not look up at his window as it passed
C. His window faces the wrong way
D. He was asleep
5. When Ogilvy is standing at the edge of the pit, what kind of atmosphere does the writer
convey through the language used to describe ‘The Thing’?
A. Joyful and exciting
B. Dangerous
C. Disbelief
D. Sad and depressing
6. Why was there gravel and sand flung all over the heath?
A. There was a high wind
B. Men had tried to dig ‘The Thing’ out of the ground
C. The impact that ‘The Thing’ made had created a large crater
D. There had been a storm the night before
7. Which three words were used to describe the incrustation that covered the cylinder?
A. Small, shiny and round
B. Thick, scaly and dun-coloured
C. Wicked, silent and tall
D. Green, scaly and noisy
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
8. Which sequence shows the correct order of events?
A. Ogilvy found the ‘shooting star’ in an enormous hole near the sand pits; many people
saw a ‘falling star’ early in the morning; the end of the cylinder was being unscrewed
from within; the ashy incrustation started falling off the circular edge of the end of the
cylinder; Ogilvy climbed down into the pit to get a closer look at ‘The Thing’; Ogilvy
heard sounds coming from the cylinder.
B. Ogilvy heard sounds coming from the cylinder; Ogilvy found the ‘shooting star’ in an
enormous hole near the sand pits; the ashy incrustation started falling off the circular
edge of the end of the cylinder; many people saw a ‘falling star’ early in the morning;
the end of the cylinder was being unscrewed from within; Ogilvy climbed down into the
pit to get a closer look at ‘The Thing’.
C. Ogilvy climbed down into the pit to get a closer look at ‘The Thing’; Ogilvy found the
‘shooting star’ in an enormous hole near the sand pits; the ashy incrustation started
falling off the circular edge of the end of the cylinder; many people saw a ‘falling star’
early in the morning; the end of the cylinder was being unscrewed from within; Ogilvy
heard sounds coming from the cylinder.
D. Many people saw a ‘falling star’ early in the morning; Ogilvy found the ‘shooting star’ in
an enormous hole near the sand pits; Ogilvy heard sounds coming from the cylinder;
the ashy incrustation started falling off the circular edge of the end of the cylinder;
Ogilvy climbed down into the pit to get a closer look at ‘The Thing’; the end of the
cylinder was being unscrewed from within.
9. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to “perceived” (1st line of last
paragraph)?
A. Heard
B. Felt
C. Realised
D. Looked
10. What type of words are the following: black, muffled, grating, hollow?
A. Noun
B. Verb
C. Adverb
D. Adjective
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
Select the correct word to complete the following sentences:
11. After I entered the pit, I _______________ that it was not a shooting star.
A. realised
B. realising
C. realise
D. realises
12. My friend and ________________ both saw a falling star early in the morning.
A. me
B. I
C. mine
D. my
13. My friend lives in the countryside; I love going _____________.
A. there
B. their
C. theyre
D. they’re
14. ________________ do you like to play with your friends?
A. Were
B. We’re
C. Where
D. Wear
15. I would like to go to the beach today _____________ I’m not feeling well.
A. but
B. because
C. and
D. so
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
Choose the correct punctuation mark to place in the blank space:
16. Have you ever seen a meteorite ___
A. !
B. .
C. ,
D. ?
17. My favourite flavour of crisps is cheese and onion ___ my brother’s is salt and vinegar.
A. ,
B. ;
C. .
D. !
18. The police shouted, ___ Freeze!”
A. “
B. :
C. !
D. -
19. For your holiday, you will need___ a suitcase; a swimming costume; some sun-cream
and a pair of shorts.
A. ;
B. :
C. .
D. ?
20. DHSB ___ Devonport High School for Boys) is a fantastic school!
A. …
B. )
C. (
D. :
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
Section B: Spend 30 minutes on this section
Task: choose one of the tasks below and plan a piece of imaginative writing based on
that task. You must show your planning in the box below before writing an accurate
response on the page opposite. Write a minimum of half a side of A4 and a maximum
of one side of A4.
You have 30 minutes to plan, write and check your work for its accuracy. Leave time to
check your spelling, punctuation and grammar.
1. Imagine that you are Ogilvy and you have just witnessed the end of the cylinder being
unscrewed from within. Write an extract of a story following on from this moment.
Describe what comes out of the cylinder; explain how you feel as you see what comes
out and describe what happens immediately afterwards. Remember to use descriptive
words to make your writing vivid and interesting for the reader.
2. Write an article for a newspaper that informs your readers of the sighting of the ‘falling
star’. Include details of the ‘The Thing’ and the person who first saw it. (You do not
have to write in columns.)
3. Write a letter to a friend to try and persuade them to help you try and find the landing
site of the ‘falling star’. Remember to use persuasive techniques.
Planning space
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
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DHSB/CLJ June 2018
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DHSB/CLJ June 2018
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DHSB/CLJ June 2018
Devonport High School for Boys
11+ Familiarisation
June 2018
English Test – Mark Scheme
Section A: Reading ‘War of the Worlds’
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. C
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
Section B: Writing: Choice of three tasks
15 marks available divided into three sections: SSP, TSO and CE
Sentence structure and punctuation – maximum of five marks
5 – Candidates can confidently use varied sentence lengths (including complex
sentences) and structures for emphasis, specific effects of to make ideas clear; full
range of accurately used punctuation is evident, including punctuation to show speech.
4 – Candidates attempt to use varied sentence lengths and structures (including
complex sentences) and use a range of punctuation.
3 – Candidates try to vary length and structure of sentences but may rely on complex
sentences with straightforward connectives such as because, if and when. Sentences
are generally closed off accurately and some speech punctuation is used accurately.
There may be an over-reliance on ‘and’ as a way of joining ideas.
2 – Sentence structures are mostly simple and complex with basic punctuation used
correctly.
1 – Basic sentence structures employed with punctuation such as full stops and
commas used. Commas may not always be used correctly.
Text structure and organisation – maximum of five marks
5 – Writing is well planned and structured with a clear idea of where the story/writing is
going. Ideas are developed in a clear order. Paragraphs are used to clearly structure
the
main ideas across the whole text.
4 – Writing is planned and structured using paragraphs. Organisation shows thought
and an idea of where the text is going.
3 – Paragraphs are used to organise writing and ideas are linked within the paragraphs.
Writing is structured with a sense of beginning, middle and end. Direction of writing not
always clear.
2 – Evidence of some grouping of ideas which is usually in paragraphs, with a sense of
beginning, middle and end, although the direction of writing is not always clear.
1 – Text employs a beginning/middle/end structure but the demarcation of paragraphs is
not always clear and does not always help make the writing more coherent.
DHSB/CLJ June 2018
Composition and Effect – maximum of five marks
5 – Candidate has the purpose and form of task firmly in mind as they write. A variety of
features is evident in their writing, such as adjectives and descriptive detail in creative
writing, an appropriate persuasive tone in the letter or creative and descriptive first
person accounts. Writing is generally thoughtful, imaginative and interesting.
4 – Overall the purpose and form of task is evident and the candidate follows
requirements for the form they are using. Detail is sufficiently developed to create
interest.
3 - Some evidence of form and task as candidate writes and the main purpose is clear.
Text shows thought but execution may not make all ideas as clear as possible.
2 – Candidate has attempted to follow purpose of task set but the main purpose may
not be clear and there will be lapses in the execution of the writing, e.g. no descriptive
detail to make writing interesting.
1 – Candidate has evidence of formulating ideas in the planning stage and has made
attempts to create writing which follows the purpose but they have not interested or
engaged reader as there is no descriptive detail or not enough attention to
format/purpose.
DHSB/JN May 2019
Name
DHSB/JN May 2019
Section A: Spend 30 minutes on this section (20 marks)
Read the extract below and then answer the multiple-choice questions that follow:
‘Anne of Green Gables’ by Lucy Maud Montgomery
When he reached Bright River there was no sign of any train; he thought he was too early,
so he tied his horse in the yard of the small Bright River hotel and went over to the station
house. The long platform was almost deserted; the only living creature in sight being a girl
who was sitting on a pile of shingles 1at the extreme end. Matthew, barely noting that it was
a girl, sidled past her as quickly as possible without looking at her. Had he looked he could
hardly have failed to notice the tense rigidity and expectation of her attitude and expression.
She was sitting there waiting for something or somebody and, since sitting and waiting was
the only thing to do just then, she sat and waited with all her might and main.
Matthew encountered the stationmaster locking up the ticket office preparatory to going
home for supper, and asked him if the five-thirty train would soon be along.
“The five-thirty train has been in and gone half an hour ago,” answered that brisk official.
“But there was a passenger dropped off for you—a little girl. She’s sitting out there on the
shingles. I asked her to go into the ladies’ waiting room, but she informed me gravely 2that
she preferred to stay outside. ‘There was more scope for imagination,’ she said. She’s a
case, I should say.”
“I’m not expecting a girl,” said Matthew blankly. “It’s a boy I’ve come for. He should be
here. Mrs. Alexander Spencer was to bring him over from Nova Scotia for me.”
The stationmaster whistled.
“Guess there’s some mistake,” he said. “Mrs. Spencer came off the train with that girl and
gave her into my charge3. Said you and your sister were adopting her from an orphan
asylum and that you would be along for her presently. That’s all I know about it—and I
haven’t got any more orphans concealed hereabouts.”
“I don’t understand,” said Matthew helplessly, wishing that Marilla was at hand to cope
with the situation.
“Well, you’d better question the girl,” said the station-master carelessly. “I dare say she’ll
be able to explain—she’s got a tongue of her own, that’s certain. Maybe they were out of
boys of the brand you wanted.”
He walked jauntily away, being hungry, and the unfortunate Matthew was left to do that
which was harder for him than bearding a lion in its den—walk up to a girl—a strange girl—
an orphan girl—and demand of her why she wasn’t a boy. Matthew groaned in spirit as he
turned about and shuffled gently down the platform towards her.
She had been watching him ever since he had passed her and she had her eyes on him
now. Matthew was not looking at her and would not have seen what she was really like if he
had been, but an ordinary observer would have seen this: A child of about eleven, garbed in
1 Shingles - rectangular wooden tiles used on walls or roofs
2 Gravely - in a serious way
3 Charge - responsibility
DHSB/JN May 2019
a very short, very tight, very ugly dress of yellowish-gray wincey4. She wore a faded brown
sailor hat and beneath the hat, extending down her back, were two braids of very thick,
decidedly red hair. Her face was small, white and thin, also much freckled; her mouth was
large and so were her eyes, which looked green in some lights and moods and gray in
others.
“I suppose you are Mr. Matthew Cuthbert of Green Gables?” she said in a peculiarly clear,
sweet voice. “I’m very glad to see you. I was beginning to be afraid you weren’t coming for
me and I was imagining all the things that might have happened to prevent you. I had made
up my mind that if you didn’t come for me to-night I’d go down the track to that big wild
cherry-tree at the bend, and climb up into it to stay all night. I wouldn’t be a bit afraid, and it
would be lovely to sleep in a wild cherry-tree all white with bloom in the moonshine, don’t
you think? You could imagine you were dwelling in marble halls, couldn’t you? And I was
quite sure you would come for me in the morning, if you didn’t to-night.”
Matthew had taken the scrawny 5little hand awkwardly in his; then and there he decided
what to do. He could not tell this child with the glowing eyes that there had been a mistake;
he would take her home and let Marilla do that. She couldn’t be left at Bright River anyhow,
no matter what mistake had been made, so all questions and explanations might as well be
deferred until he was safely back at Green Gables.
“I’m sorry I was late,” he said shyly. “Come along. The horse is over in the yard. Give me
your bag.”
“Oh, I can carry it,” the child responded cheerfully. “It isn’t heavy. I’ve got all my worldly
goods in it, but it isn’t heavy. And if it isn’t carried in just a certain way the handle pulls out—
so I’d better keep it because I know the exact knack of it. It’s an extremely old carpet-bag.
Oh, I’m very glad you’ve come, even if it would have been nice to sleep in a wild cherry-tree.
We’ve got to drive a long piece, haven’t we? Mrs. Spencer said it was eight miles. I’m glad
because I love driving. Oh, it seems so wonderful that I’m going to live with you and belong
to you. I’ve never belonged to anybody—not really. But the asylum was the worst. I’ve only
been in it four months, but that was enough. I don’t suppose you ever were an orphan in an
asylum, so you can’t possibly understand what it is like. It’s worse than anything you could
imagine. Mrs. Spencer said it was wicked of me to talk like that, but I didn’t mean to be
wicked. It’s so easy to be wicked without knowing it, isn’t it? They were good, you know—the
asylum people. But there is so little scope for the imagination in an asylum—only just in the
other orphans. It was pretty interesting to imagine things about them—to imagine that
perhaps the girl who sat next to you was really the daughter of a belted earl, who had been
stolen away from her parents in her infancy by a cruel nurse who died before she could
confess. I used to lie awake at nights and imagine things like that, because I didn’t have time
in the day. I guess that’s why I’m so thin—I am dreadful thin, ain’t I? There isn’t a pick 6on
my bones. I do love to imagine I’m nice and plump, with dimples in my elbows.”
With this Matthew’s companion stopped talking, partly because she was out of breath and
partly because they had reached the buggy.
4 Wincey - a strong fabric, probably wool or cotton
5 Scrawny - very thin and bony
6 Pick - means there isn’t any meat on her bones
DHSB/JN May 2019
Circle the letter of the correct answer:
1. Where is the train station?
A. Nova Scotia
B. Green Gables
C. Bright River
D. Shingles
2. Take another look at this quotation: “he could hardly have failed to notice the tense
rigidity and expectation of her attitude and expression”. What is the effect of describing
Anne in this way?
The description suggests:
A. That Matthew doesn’t notice Anne
B. That it is noticeable how nervous and hopeful Anne is
C. That Anne doesn’t show her feelings
D. That Anne is feeling calm and relaxed
3. Who was supposed to bring a boy to meet Matthew?
A. The stationmaster
B. Marilla
C. Mr Cuthbert
D. Mrs Alexander Spencer
4. When Matthew has to go up to Anne for the first time, what impression of Matthew does
the writer convey through the language used to describe his actions?
A. He is annoyed and outspoken
B. He is excited and lively
C. He is confused and shy
D. He is pleased and conversational
5. Which three words are used to describe Anne’s face?
A. Large, red and ugly
B. Small, white and thin
C. Small, yellowish and freckled
D. Large, white and freckled
6. Why does Anne think it is going to be wonderful to live with Matthew and Marilla?
A. Because she’s never belonged to anybody before
B. Because she wants to stay thin
C. Because she really liked the asylum
D. Because she wants to be a boy
DHSB/JN May 2019
7. When the stationmaster says ‘she’s got a tongue of her own, that’s certain,’ what does he
mean?
A. He means she doesn’t have a family
B. He means she doesn’t like to borrow things from other people
C. He means she talks a lot
D. He means she is shy
8. Which sequence shows the correct order of events?
A. There is a girl waiting alone on the platform; Matthew arrives at the train station;
Anne introduces herself; Matthew is confused because he was expecting a boy;
Matthew shows Anne to the horse and cart.
B. Matthew arrives at the train station; there is a girl waiting alone on the platform;
Matthew is confused because he was expecting a boy; Anne introduces herself;
Matthew shows Anne to the horse and cart.
C. Matthew arrives at the train station; there is a girl waiting alone on the platform; Anne
introduces herself; Matthew shows Anne to the horse and cart; Matthew is confused
because he was expecting a boy.
D. Matthew shows Anne to the horse and cart; Anne introduces herself; Matthew arrives
at the train station; there is a girl waiting alone on the platform; Matthew is confused
because he was expecting a boy.
9. Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to ‘deferred’ in the quotation ‘all
questions and explanations might as well be deferred until he was safely back at Green
Gables’?
A. Delayed
B. Forgotten about
C. Ignored
D. Thought about
10. What types of words are the following: peculiarly, awkwardly, cheerfully?
A. Noun
B. Verb
C. Adverb
D. Adjective
DHSB/JN May 2019
Select the correct word to complete the following sentences:
11. As I was waiting on the platform, I _________________ excited yet nervous.
A. feel
B. feeling
C. feels
D. felt
12. When Matthew and Anne meet, ___________ strangers.
A. there
B. their
C. theyre
D. they’re
13. They ___________ about to start the next phase of their life as a family.
A. were
B. we’re
C. where
D. wear
14. Anne would sleep in the cherry-tree _________ nobody came to collect her.
A. but
B. so
C. and
D. if
15. The stationmaster went to eat _________ dinner.
A. he
B. his
C. she
D. her
DHSB/JN May 2019
Circle the letter of the sentence that has incorrect punctuation:
16. Question mark
A. Have you ever been abroad?
B. Tell me when you went on holiday.
C. I wonder if you have been in an aeroplane?
D. How do you feel about sailing?
17. Semi-colon
A. My brother; he likes computer games.
B. My brother likes computer games; I don’t even have a console.
C. I have a big test tomorrow; I can’t go out tonight.
D. When I’m doing homework, I need: music playing; a drink; my favourite pen.
18. Speech marks
A. The police officer shouted, “Hey!”
B. “Watch out,” said Sarah. “There’s a step there.”
C. “I know where you’re going,” my mum declared.
D. “What time is it”? asked the teacher.
19. Apostrophe
A. The phones’ battery has run out.
B. Check your pen doesn’t run out of ink.
C. It’s a good idea to borrow your brother’s coat.
D. You’ll know who’s missing when you get there.
20. Commas
A. Although it was cold, she did not take her coat.
B. The postman, who was early, rang the doorbell urgently.
C. Don’t forget, to brush your teeth.
D. I saw a duck when I went running.
DHSB/JN May 2019
Section B: Spend 30 minutes on this section
Task: choose one of the tasks below and plan a piece of imaginative writing based on
that task. You must show your planning in the box below before writing an accurate
response on the page opposite. Write a minimum of half a side of A4 and a maximum
of one side of A4.
You have 30 minutes to plan, write and check your work for its accuracy. Leave time
to check your spelling, punctuation and grammar.
1. Imagine you are the orphan, Anne, and you have just arrived in a new town to live
with a new family. Write a detailed diary extract as if you are Anne. You should
describe her experiences and what happens next when she gets to Green Gables
Farm. Remember to use descriptive words and interesting details.
2. Write a letter to Matthew to persuade him to give Anne a chance and let her stay at
Green Gables Farm. Remember to give good reasons and use persuasive
techniques.
3. Write an article for a magazine in which you give advice about how to get along with
a stranger when you meet them for the first time. Inform readers of what they should
and should not do.
Planning space
DHSB/JN May 2019
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DHSB/JN May 2019
Devonport High School for Boys
11+ Familiarisation
June 2019
English Test – Mark Scheme
Section A: Reading ‘Anne of Green Gables’
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. D
13. A
14. D
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. C
DHSB/JN May 2019
Section B: Writing: Choice of three tasks
15 marks available divided into three sections: SSP, TSO and CE
Sentence structure and punctuation – maximum of five marks
5 – Candidates can confidently use varied sentence lengths (including complex
sentences) and structures for emphasis, specific effects of to make ideas clear; full
range of accurately used punctuation is evident, including punctuation to show
speech.
4 – Candidates attempt to use varied sentence lengths and structures (including
complex sentences) and use a range of punctuation.
3 – Candidates try to vary length and structure of sentences but may rely on complex
sentences with straightforward connectives such as because, if and when.
Sentences are generally closed off accurately and some speech punctuation is used
accurately. There may be an over-reliance on ‘and’ as a way of joining ideas.
2 – Sentence structures are mostly simple and complex with basic punctuation used
correctly.
1 – Basic sentence structures employed with punctuation such as full stops and
commas used. Commas may not always be used correctly.
Text structure and organisation – maximum of five marks
5 – Writing is well planned and structured with a clear idea of where the story/writing
is going. Ideas are developed in a clear order. Paragraphs are used to clearly
structure the main ideas across the whole text.
4 – Writing is planned and structured using paragraphs. Organisation shows thought
and an idea of where the text is going.
3 – Paragraphs are used to organise writing and ideas are linked within the
paragraphs.
Writing is structured with a sense of beginning, middle and end. Direction of writing
not always clear.
2 – Evidence of some grouping of ideas which is usually in paragraphs, with a sense
of beginning, middle and end, although the direction of writing is not always clear.
1 – Text employs a beginning/middle/end structure but the demarcation of
paragraphs is not always clear and does not always help make the writing more
coherent.
DHSB/JN May 2019
Composition and Effect – maximum of five marks
5 – Candidate has the purpose and form of task firmly in mind as they write. A
variety of features is evident in their writing, such as adjectives and descriptive detail
in creative writing, an appropriate persuasive tone in the letter or creative and
descriptive first person accounts. Writing is generally thoughtful, imaginative and
interesting.
4 – Overall the purpose and form of task is evident and the candidate follows
requirements for the form they are using. Detail is sufficiently developed to create
interest.
3 - Some evidence of form and task as candidate writes and the main purpose is
clear. Text shows thought but execution may not make all ideas as clear as possible.
2 – Candidate has attempted to follow purpose of task set but the main purpose may
not be clear and there will be lapses in the execution of the writing, e.g. no
descriptive detail to make writing interesting.
1 – Candidate has evidence of formulating ideas in the planning stage and has made
attempts to create writing which follows the purpose but they have not interested or
engaged reader as there is no descriptive detail or not enough attention to
format/purpose.
Do not turn the page until you are told to do so
Answers should be marked on the answer sheet using a pencil
Only give one answer to each question
If you become stuck on a question go on to the next and come back if time allows
Use the paper supplied to do any working out necessary
You will have 40 minutes to do the test
Name
DHSB / SPC
Question 1
The original cost of a mobile phone is £76.30
The price is reduced by £18.45
What is the new price?
Question 2
The bar chart shows the number of animals
on a farm.
How many more sheep are there than pigs?
Question 3
Chocolate bars are packed in boxes of 36.
A shop buys 14 boxes.
How many chocolate bars are in 14 boxes?
Question 4
+ (3 × ) = 36
What number does stand for?
Question 5
A minibus carries 12 pupils.
How many buses would be needed to take
248 pupils?
Question 6
ABCDEF is a regular hexagon.
What is the size of angle x?
Question 7
The chart shows the number of pupils
choosing their favourite colours.
Which statement is wrong?
A Red received seven more votes than yellow
B There are ten pupils in the class
C Four people like blue best
D More voted for green than orange
E Nobody has black as their favourite colour
Question 8
The marks in a Maths test were:
25 26 26 22 28 25
27 25 26 27 25 26
28 30 24 25 26 29
25 26 27 25 30 21
What is the mode of these numbers?
Question 9
What does the 5 in the number 3567.23 stand
for?
Question 10
I am thinking of a number. One fifth of my
number is 8.
What is one tenth of my number?
Question 11
How many times can 143 be subtracted from
855 before we get to zero?
Question 12
14 -13 -40 -67 -94
How large is the step between successive
numbers in this sequence?
GO STRAIGHT ON GO STRAIGHT ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
010203040506070
Cow Sheep Pig Horse
Animal 0
2
4
6
8
10
Blue Red Yellow Green Others
A B
C F x
D E
Question 13
What is the area of this shape?
Question 14
There is 6g of sugar in every 10g of jam.
How much sugar is in 500g of jam?
Question 15
A B C D E
Which shape has exactly 2 lines of reflective
symmetry and also rotational symmetry?
Question 16
The ages of the members of a club are given
on the histogram below.
How many members were aged 25 or older?
Question 17
Which of these lengths is longest?
42cm 0.4m 147mm 0.351m 33cm
Question 18
What is the 5th term in this sequence?
951 828 705 ___ ___
Question 19
John is dark haired, has brown eyes and
wears glasses. In which section would you put
his name?
Question 20
What units would you use to measure the
capacity of a cup?
Question 21
If two angles of a triangle add up to 1370, what
is the size of the third angle?
Question 22
What is 4 x (6.2 + 1.05)?
Question 23
I buy 11 chocolate bars costing 38p each.
How much change would I get from £10?
Question 24
What fraction of an hour is 12 minutes?
Question 25
Which of the following is a multiple of 2, 3
and 7?
21 42 40 36 44
Question 26
What is the missing number?
8 x 7 -11 = 6 x 4 + ?
Question 27
What is the largest number you can make
using the digits 7, 8, 9 and 9?
GO STRAIGHT ON GO STRAIGHT ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
0
10
20
30
40
5 10 15 20 25 30 350 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
7 cm 6 cm
4 cm
12 cm
23 35
17 9
Blue-eyed
Wear glasses
Dark
Haired A
BC
DE
Question 28
How many seconds in 24 hours?
Question 29
In a bag there are 84 counters. 5
7 of the
counters are blue. How many blue counters
are there?
Question 30
The sun rose at 05:43 and set at 18:05. How
many minutes were there between sunrise
and sunset?
Question 31
The mean shoe size for six boys was 5. Five of
the boys had sizes 3, 7, 6, 2, 3. What was the
shoe size of the sixth boy?
Question 32
Which number is in the wrong place?
Question 33
A car costing £45,000 decreases in value by
15% in one year.
What is its new value?
Question 34
5 gallons = 22.82 litres
Which is nearest to 1 gallon?
4.528 4.448 4.645 4.565 4.504
Question 35
For a train journey t tickets cost c = 8 + 12t.
How many tickets can I get for £100?
Question 36
48 pencils cost £11.04.
What is the cost of each pencil?
Question 37
16 cards each have a letter on them. The
chart below shows how many with each letter
on them.
I pick a card with a D on it and don’t put it
back.
If I pick another card, what is the probability it
will have a C on it?
Question 38
Through what angles does the hour hand of a
clock rotate between 8am and 9:30am?
Question 39
Which fraction is 28
35 equivalent to?
Question 40
8% of children wear glasses. If there are 1150
children at a school, how many wear glasses?
Question 41
A full sweet jar weighs 165.5g. The jar
contains 90 sweets. Each sweet weighs 450mg.
How much does the empty jar weigh?
Question 42
The centre pages of a book are numbered 22
and 23. How many pages are in the book?
Question 43
What is the 50th number in this sequence?
1.15 2.05 2.95 3.85 ____
GO STRAIGHT ON END OF TEST
0
1
2
3
4
5
A B C D E F
15
21
17
9 2
Odd numbers Prime numbers
Mark answers with a thin line like this [ 0 ]
DATE OF BIRTH
Day Month Year
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] January [ ] 1998 [ ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] February [ ] 1999 [ ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] March [ ] 2000 [ ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] April [ ] 2001 [ ]
[ 4 ] May [ ] 2002 [ ]
[ 5 ] June [ ] 2003 [ ]
[ 6 ] July [ ] 2004 [ ]
[ 7 ] August [ ] 2005 [ ]
[ 8 ] September [ ] 2006 [ ]
[ 9 ] October [ ] 2007 [ ]
November [ ] 2008 [ ]
December [ ] 2009 [ ]
PUPIL NUMBER
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]
SCHOOL NUMBER
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]
1
£67.85 [ ]
£57.85 [ ]
£57.75 [ ]
£47.85 [ ]
£62.15 [ ]
2
27 [ ]
30 [ ]
35 [ ]
40 [ ]
32 [ ]
3
410 [ ]
456 [ ]
504 [ ]
524 [ ]
484 [ ]
4
8 [ ]
3 [ ]
12 [ ]
6 [ ]
9 [ ]
5
21 [ ]
18 [ ]
20 [ ]
22 [ ]
19 [ ]
6
600 [ ]
1080 [ ]
1200 [ ]
1000 [ ]
720 [ ]
7
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
8
27 [ ]
26 [ ]
28 [ ]
24 [ ]
25 [ ]
9
5 ones [ ]
5 tenths [ ]
5 hundred [ ]
5 thousand [ ]
5 tens [ ]
10
8 [ ]
4 [ ]
10 [ ]
40 [ ]
16 [ ]
11
5 [ ]
4 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
3 [ ]
12
17 [ ]
14 [ ]
27 [ ]
54 [ ]
23 [ ]
13
58 [ ]
36 [ ]
72 [ ]
60 [ ]
84 [ ]
14
60 [ ]
300 [ ]
400 [ ]
350 [ ]
360 [ ]
15
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
16
61 [ ]
9 [ ]
17 [ ]
26 [ ]
25 [ ]
17
42cm [ ]
0.4m [ ]
147mm [ ]
0.351m [ ]
33cm [ ]
18
459 [ ]
582 [ ]
336 [ ]
451 [ ]
359 [ ]
19
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
20
grams [ ]
kilograms [ ]
litres [ ]
centimetres [ ]
millilitres [ ]
21
43 [ ]
37 [ ]
63 [ ]
47 [ ]
53 [ ]
22
32 [ ]
25.85 [ ]
28 [ ]
10.4 [ ]
29 [ ]
23
£4.18 [ ]
£9.62 [ ]
£5.82 [ ]
£5.72 [ ]
£4.82 [ ]
24
1/12 [ ]
1/6 [ ]
1/5 [ ]
1/4 [ ]
1/10 [ ]
25
21 [ ]
42 [ ]
40 [ ]
36 [ ]
44 [ ]
26
21 [ ]
13 [ ]
9 [ ]
31 [ ]
11 [ ]
27
9897 [ ]
8997 [ ]
9987 [ ]
9798 [ ]
7899 [ ]
28
86,400 [ ]
3600 [ ]
43,200 [ ]
24,400 [ ]
48,000 [ ]
29
24 [ ]
60 [ ]
12 [ ]
44 [ ]
48 [ ]
30
768 [ ]
22 [ ]
34 [ ]
742 [ ]
1222 [ ]
31
6 [ ]
5 [ ]
9 [ ]
8 [ ]
7 [ ]
32
9 [ ]
2 [ ]
17 [ ]
15 [ ]
21 [ ]
33
£6750 [ ]
£39,250 [ ]
£6850 [ ]
£42,750 [ ]
£38,250 [ ]
34
4.528 [ ]
4.448 [ ]
4.645 [ ]
4.565 [ ]
4.504 [ ]
35
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
9 [ ]
10 [ ]
43
44.35 [ ]
45.25 [ ]
57.5 [ ]
47.5 [ ]
46.15 [ ]
36
24p [ ]
13p [ ]
32p [ ]
23p [ ]
27p [ ]
37
1/4 [ ]
1/5 [ ]
2/15 [ ]
1/8 [ ]
4/15 [ ]
38
300 [ ]
450 [ ]
5400 [ ]
750 [ ]
900 [ ]
39
2/3 [ ]
40/50 [ ]
14/27 [ ]
56/68 [ ]
4/7 [ ]
40
80 [ ]
115 [ ]
92 [ ]
1058 [ ]
46 [ ]
41
125g [ ]
165.05g [ ]
105.5g [ ]
161.45g [ ]
40.5g [ ]
42
42 [ ]
43 [ ]
44 [ ]
45 [ ]
46 [ ]
Pupil’s Name
School Name
Date of Test
1 B 2 C 3 C 4 E 5 A 6 A 7 B
8 E 9 C 10 B 11 A 12 C 13 A 14 B
15 D 16 D 17 A 18 A 19 B 20 E 21 A
22 E 23 C 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 C 28 A
29 B 30 D 31 C 32 A 33 E 34 D 35 B
36 D 37 E 38 B 39 B 40 C 41 A 42 C 43 B
Notes
1 B £76.30-£18.45. Write out as sum or take the 0.45 first giving £75.85 then take the £18 giving
£57.85
2 C 65-30=35
3 C 36 x 14. Use written multiplication method to get 504
4 E Box plus 3 boxes makes 4 boxes, so 4 boxes equal 36 meaning box must be 9
5 A 248 /12 give 20 remainder 8 meaning 21 buses are needed
6 A There are 6 angles like x on the outside and they total 360 so each one must be 60
7 B 10 pupils like Red so there are certainly more than 10 students in the class
8 E Mode is the one which appears most often in the list
9 C The 5 is in the hundreds column
10 B If one fifth of a number is 8 then the number must be 5 x 8 = 40; therefore 1/10 of the
number is 4
11 A 855-143=712, 712-143=569, 569-143=426, 426-143=283, 283-143=140 so 5 times.
Alternatively could guess 5 and use 5x143=715 and work from there
12 C 14 to -13 is a drop of 27; check with -13 to -40; also 27
13 A Split into 2 rectangles; 6x5 and 7x4 or 12x4 and 2x5. Or large rectangle 12 x 6 take small
rectangle 7 x 2
14 B 500g is 50x10g so sugar is 50x6g = 300g
15 D A 1ine of symmetry; B 3 lines of symmetry; C1 line of symmetry; D 2 lines of symmetry; E 0
lines of symmetry
16 D 17+9 = 26
17 A Converting all to mm 420, 400, 147, 351, 330 so A is largest
18 A 951 to 828 is a drop of 123, 705-123 = 582; 582-123=459
19 B Has to be in the Dark haired circle and in the wears glasses circle but not in the blue-eyed
circle
20 E Needs to be a volume unit, a litre is too big so millilitres is appropriate
21 A 180 – 137 = 43
22 E Brackets first 6.2+1.05=7.25, then 7.25x4=29 (can double and double again for x4)
23 C 11x38=418p £10-£4.18=5.82
24 C 12/60 = 1/5
25 B 21 not a multiple of 2; 42 works; 40, 36 & 44 not multiples of 7
26 A Left side 8x7-11=45. Right side 6x4+?=24+? So ?=21 to make sides equal
27 C Digits in size order 9987
28 A 24x60=1440; 1440x60=86 400
29 B 1/7 of 84 = 84/7=12; so 5/7 of 84 is 5x12=60
30 D 05:43 -> 06:00 is 17minutes. 06:00 ->18:00 is 12h=720minutes; 18:00->18:05 is 5 minutes
Total 17+720+5=742minutes
31 C Six boys mean 5 means total = 6 x 5 = 30. 3+7+6+2+3=21 so last boy must be 9
32 A 9 is not a prime number and so is in the wrong place
33 E 10% of 45,000 is 4500. 5% will be 2250 so 15% is 6750. 45000-6750=£38,250
34 D 22.82/5=4.564 so nearest 4.565 short division
35 B 100 = 8 +12t; so 92=12t; t=7 remainder 8 so 7 tickets. Alternatively use trial and
improvement
36 D £11.04/48 = £0.23
37 E Total number of cards with one D taken = 1+2+4+3+3+2=15. Probability of C is then 4/15
38 B 12 hours in the day so each hour the hour hand moves through 360/12=30; in 1.5h it will
rotate through 45
39 B 28/35 = 4/5 (divide top and bottom by 7). Cancelling down 40/50 also gives 4/5
40 C Could find 10%=115 and 1%=11.5 then 8% =115-2x11.5=92
41 A 450mg=0.45g; 90x0.45=40.5g so jar weighs 165.5g-40.5g=125g
42 C p22 represents half the pages in the book so 44 total
43 B Step up of 0.9. from 1st to 50th there are 49 steps so 49 x 0.9 + 1.15 =45.25
Approximate equivalent percentage
Score %
Score %
Score %
Score %
1 2
12 28
23 53
34 79
2 5
13 30
24 56
35 81
3 7
14 33
25 58
36 84
4 9
15 35
26 60
37 86
5 12
16 37
27 63
38 88
6 14
17 40
28 65
39 91
7 16
18 42
29 67
40 93
8 19
19 44
30 70
41 95
9 21
20 47
31 72
42 98
10 23
21 49
32 74
43 100
11 26
22 51
33 77
Do not turn the page until you are told to do so
Answers should be marked on the answer sheet using a pencil
Only give one answer to each question
If you become stuck on a question go on to the next and come back if time allows
Use the paper supplied to do any working out necessary
You will have 40 minutes to do the test
Name
DHSB / SPC June 2017
Question 1
The original cost of a television is £156.20
The price is reduced by £15.65
What is the new price?
Question 2
The bar chart shows which pets children have.
How many more have cats than hamsters?
Question 3
Chocolate bars are packed in boxes of 24.
A shop buys 16 boxes.
How many chocolate bars are in 16 boxes?
Question 4
+ (2 × ) = 27
What number does stand for?
Question 5
A minibus carries 14 pupils.
How many buses would be needed to take
300 pupils?
Question 6
ABCDEF is a regular hexagon.
What is the size of angle x?
Question 7
The chart shows the number of pupils
choosing their favourite colours.
Which statement is wrong?
A Red received five more votes than yellow
B There are thirty pupils in the class
C Four people like blue best
D More voted for green than orange
E One tenth like yellow best
Question 8
The marks in a Maths test were:
25 26 26 22 28 25
27 25 26 27 25 26
28 30 24 25 26 29
25 26 27 25 30 21
What is the mode of these numbers?
Question 9
What does the 6 in the number 3567.23 stand
for?
Question 10
I am thinking of a number. One quarter of my
number is 5.
What is one tenth of my number?
Question 11
How many times can 137 be subtracted from
1024 before we get to zero?
Question 12
-14 -33 -52 -71
How large is the step between successive
numbers in this sequence?
GO STRAIGHT ON GO STRAIGHT ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
02468
10121416
Dog Cat Hamster Rat
Pet 0
2
4
6
8
10
Blue Red Yellow Green Others
A B
C F x
D E
Question 13
What is the area of this shape?
Question 14
There is 5.5g of sugar in every 10g of jam.
How much sugar is in 600g of jam?
Question 15
A B C D E
Which shape has no lines of reflective
symmetry?
Question 16
The ages of the members of a club are given
on the histogram below.
How many members were aged 25 or
younger?
Question 17
Which of these lengths is longest?
42cm 0.4m 147mm 0.351m 33cm
Question 18
What is the 5th term in this sequence?
991 864 737 ___ ___
Question 19
John is dark haired, has blue eyes and does
not wear glasses. In which section would
you put his name?
Question 20
What units would you use to measure the
capacity of a cup?
Question 21
If two angles of a triangle add up to 490, what
is the size of the third angle?
Question 22
What is 8 x (4.1 + 1.07)?
Question 23
I buy 11 chocolate bars costing 27p each.
How much change would I get from £5?
Question 24
What fraction of an hour is 5 minutes?
Question 25
Which of the following is a multiple of 2, 3
and 7?
21 84 40 36 44
Question 26
What is the missing number?
8 x 6 -9 = 6 x 5 + ?
Question 27
What is the largest number you can make
using the digits 7, 8, 9 and 0?
GO STRAIGHT ON GO STRAIGHT ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
0
10
20
30
40
5 10 15 20 25 30 350 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
5 cm 4 cm
2 cm
11 cm
23 35
17 9
Blue-eyed
Wear glasses
Dark
Haired A
BC
DE
Question 28
How many seconds in 12 hours?
Question 29
In a bag there are 63 counters. 3
7 of the
counters are blue. How many blue counters
are there?
Question 30
The sun rose at 05:34 and set at 21:15. How
many minutes were there between sunrise
and sunset?
Question 31
The mean shoe size for six boys was 5. Five of
the boys had sizes 4, 5, 6, 6, 3. What was the
shoe size of the sixth boy?
Question 32
Which number is in the wrong place?
Question 33
A car costing £50,000 decreases in value by
35% in one year.
What is its new value?
Question 34
5 gallons = 22.82 litres
Which is nearest to 1 gallon?
4.528 4.448 4.645 4.565 4.504
Question 35
For a train journey t tickets cost c = 6 + 12t.
How many tickets can I get for £100?
Question 36
36 pencils cost £7.92.
What is the cost of each pencil?
Question 37
16 cards each have a letter on them. The
chart below shows how many with each letter
on them.
I pick a card with an E on it and don’t put it
back.
If I pick another card, what is the probability it
will have a F on it?
Question 38
Through what angles does the hour hand of a
clock rotate between 6am and 11:30am?
Question 39
Which fraction is 28
35 equivalent to?
Question 40
6% of children wear glasses. If there are 1450
children at a school, how many wear glasses?
Question 41
A full sweet jar weighs 180.5g. The jar
contains 120 sweets. Each sweet weighs
450mg.
How much does the empty jar weigh?
Question 42
The centre pages of a book are numbered 34
and 35. How many pages are in the book?
Question 43
What is the 50th number in this sequence?
1.15 2.1 3.05 4.0 ____
GO STRAIGHT ON END OF TEST
0
1
2
3
4
5
A B C D E F
27
21
13
1 2
Odd numbers Prime numbers
DHSB / SPC June 2017
Mark answers with a thin line like this [ 0 ]
DATE OF BIRTH
Day Month Year
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] January [ ] 1998 [ ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] February [ ] 1999 [ ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] March [ ] 2000 [ ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] April [ ] 2001 [ ]
[ 4 ] May [ ] 2002 [ ]
[ 5 ] June [ ] 2003 [ ]
[ 6 ] July [ ] 2004 [ ]
[ 7 ] August [ ] 2005 [ ]
[ 8 ] September [ ] 2006 [ ]
[ 9 ] October [ ] 2007 [ ]
November [ ] 2008 [ ]
December [ ] 2009 [ ]
PUPIL NUMBER
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]
SCHOOL NUMBER
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]
1
£140.55 [ ]
£140.45 [ ]
£171.85 [ ]
£40.55 [ ]
£150.55 [ ]
2
4 [ ]
5 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
3
144 [ ]
384 [ ]
2 [ ]
168 [ ]
288 [ ]
4
12 [ ]
9 [ ]
13 [ ]
11 [ ]
10 [ ]
5
18 [ ]
19 [ ]
20 [ ]
21 [ ]
22 [ ]
6
900 [ ]
1080 [ ]
1200 [ ]
1350 [ ]
1500 [ ]
7
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
8
22 [ ]
23 [ ]
24 [ ]
25 [ ]
26 [ ]
9
6 hundreds [ ]
6 tens [ ]
6 units [ ]
6 tenths [ ]
6 hundredths [ ]
10
1 [ ]
2 [ ]
3 [ ]
4 [ ]
5 [ ]
11
5 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
9 [ ]
12
14 [ ]
19 [ ]
9 [ ]
11 [ ]
21 [ ]
13
28 [ ]
32 [ ]
34 [ ]
42 [ ]
48 [ ]
14
320 [ ]
360 [ ]
300 [ ]
270 [ ]
330 [ ]
15
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
16
23 [ ]
26 [ ]
58 [ ]
84 [ ]
35 [ ]
17
42cm [ ]
0.4m [ ]
147mm [ ]
0.351m [ ]
33cm [ ]
18
356 [ ]
483 [ ]
610 [ ]
485 [ ]
493 [ ]
19
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
20
grams [ ]
kilograms [ ]
litres [ ]
centimetres [ ]
millilitres [ ]
21
141 [ ]
121 [ ]
49 [ ]
131 [ ]
90 [ ]
22
33.87 [ ]
41.36 [ ]
46.4 [ ]
37.187 [ ]
35.096 [ ]
23
£0.27 [ ]
£3.03 [ ]
£2.97 [ ]
£2.03 [ ]
£1.03 [ ]
24
1/5 [ ]
1/10 [ ]
1/12 [ ]
1/6 [ ]
1/15 [ ]
25
21 [ ]
84 [ ]
40 [ ]
36 [ ]
44 [ ]
26
9 [ ]
8 [ ]
7 [ ]
6 [ ]
5 [ ]
27
7890 [ ]
9708 [ ]
8709 [ ]
9970 [ ]
9870 [ ]
28
3600 [ ]
60 [ ]
43,200 [ ]
720 [ ]
12 [ ]
29
36 [ ]
9 [ ]
27 [ ]
32 [ ]
35 [ ]
30
56 [ ]
195 [ ]
900 [ ]
949 [ ]
941 [ ]
31
3 [ ]
4 [ ]
5 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
32
1 [ ]
2 [ ]
13 [ ]
21 [ ]
27 [ ]
33
£17,000 [ ]
£32,500 [ ]
£35,000 [ ]
£67,000 [ ]
£30,000 [ ]
34
4.528 [ ]
4.448 [ ]
4.645 [ ]
4.565 [ ]
4.504 [ ]
35
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
9 [ ]
10 [ ]
43
50 [ ]
46.75 [ ]
47.7 [ ]
48.65 [ ]
57.5 [ ]
36
18p [ ]
19p [ ]
20p [ ]
21p [ ]
22p [ ]
37
1/8 [ ]
2/15 [ ]
1/15 [ ]
1/5 [ ]
1/4 [ ]
38
1550 [ ]
1800 [ ]
1650 [ ]
1200 [ ]
1500 [ ]
39
2/3 [ ]
40/50 [ ]
14/27 [ ]
56/68 [ ]
4/7 [ ]
40
87 [ ]
90 [ ]
88 [ ]
85 [ ]
86 [ ]
41
450g [ ]
180.5g [ ]
1.26g [ ]
54g [ ]
126.5g [ ]
42
66 [ ]
68 [ ]
70 [ ]
72 [ ]
74 [ ]
Pupil’s Name
School Name
Date of Test
DHSB / SPC June 2017
DHSB/SPC June 2017
1 A 2 D 3 B 4 B 5 E 6 C 7 A
8 D 9 B 10 B 11 C 12 E 13 C 14 E
15 E 16 C 17 A 18 B 19 A 20 E 21 D
22 B 23 D 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 E 28 C
29 C 30 E 31 D 32 A 33 B 34 D 35 B
36 E 37 B 38 C 39 B 40 A 41 E 42 B 43 C
Notes
1 A £156.20-15.65. Write out as sum or take the 0.65 first giving £155.55 then take the £15 giving
£140.55
2 D 14-7=7
3 B 24 x 16. Use written multiplication method to get 384
4 B Box plus 2 boxes makes 3 boxes, so 3 boxes equal 27 meaning box must be 9
5 E 300 /14 give 21 remainder 6 meaning 22 buses are needed
6 C Outside angles 60 so inside 120. Or sum is 720 so each is 720/6
7 A It is 7 more
8 D Mode is the one which appears most often in the list
9 B The 6 is in the tens column
10 B If one quarter of a number is 5 then the number must be 4 x5 = 20; therefore 1/10 of the
number is 2
11 C Use repeated subtraction so 7 times. Alternatively could guess 7 and use 7x137=959 and
work from there
12 E -14 to -33 is a drop of 19; check with -33 to -52; also 19
13 C Split into 2 rectangles; 2x11 and 2x6 or 6x4 and 5x2. Or large rectangle 11 x 6 take small
rectangle 5 x 2
14 E 500g is 60x10g so sugar is 60x5.5g = 330g
DHSB/SPC June 2017
15 E A 1ine of symmetry; B 3 lines of symmetry; C1 line of symmetry; D 2 lines of symmetry; E 0
lines of symmetry
16 C 23+35 = 58
17 A Converting all to mm 420, 400, 147, 351, 330 so A is largest
18 B 991 to 864 is a drop of 127, 737-127 = 610; 610-127=483
19 A Has to be in the Dark haired circle and in the Blue-eyed circle
20 E Needs to be a volume unit, a litre is too big so millilitres is appropriate
21 D 180 – 49 = 131
22 B Brackets first 4.1+1.07=5.17, then 5.17x8=41.36 (can double, double and double again for
x8)
23 D 11x27=297p £5-£2.97=£2.03
24 C 5/60 = 1/12
25 B 21 not a multiple of 2; 84 works; 40, 36 & 44 not multiples of 7
26 A Left side 8x6-9=39. Right side 6x5+?=30+? So ?=9 to make sides equal
27 E Digits in size order 9870
28 C 12x60=720; 720x60=43 200
29 C 1/7 of 63 = 63/7=9; so 3/7 of 63 is 3x9=27
30 E 05:34 -> 06:00 is 26minutes. 06:00 ->21:00 is 15h=900minutes; 21:00->21:15 is 15 minutes
Total 26+900+15=941minutes
31 D Six boys mean 5 means total = 6 x 5 = 30. 4+5+6+6+3=24 so last boy must be 6
32 A 1 is not a prime number and so is in the wrong place
33 B 10% of 50,000 is 5000. 30% will be 15000. 5% will be 2500 so 35% is 17500. 50000-
17500=£32,500
34 D 22.82/5=4.564 so nearest 4.565 short division
35 B 100 = 6 +12t; so 94=12t; t=7 remainder 10 so 7 tickets. Alternatively use trial and
improvement
36 E £7.92/36 = £0.22
37 B Total number of cards with one D taken = 1+2+4+4+2+2=15. Probability of F is then 2/15
DHSB/SPC June 2017
38 C 12 hours in the day so each hour the hour hand moves through 360/12=30; in 5.5h it will
rotate through 165
39 B 28/35 = 4/5 (divide top and bottom by 7). Cancelling down 40/50 also gives 4/5
40 A Could find 10%=145 and 1%=14.5 then 6% =145-4x14.5=87
41 E 450mg=0.45g; 120x0.45=54g so jar weighs 180.5g-54g=126.5g
42 B p34 represents half the pages in the book so 68 total
43 C Step up of 0.95. from 1st to 50th there are 49 steps so 49 x 0.95 + 1.15 =47.7
Approximate equivalent percentage
Score %
Score %
Score %
Score %
1 2
12 28
23 53
34 79
2 5
13 30
24 56
35 81
3 7
14 33
25 58
36 84
4 9
15 35
26 60
37 86
5 12
16 37
27 63
38 88
6 14
17 40
28 65
39 91
7 16
18 42
29 67
40 93
8 19
19 44
30 70
41 95
9 21
20 47
31 72
42 98
10 23
21 49
32 74
43 100
11 26
22 51
33 77
Do not turn the page until you are told to do so
Answers should be marked on the answer sheet using a pencil
Only give one answer to each question
If you become stuck on a question go on to the next and come back if time allows
Use the paper supplied to do any working out necessary
You will have 40 minutes to do the test
Name
DHSB / SPC June 2018
Question 1
A school has 1120 pupils, 652 pupils are boys.
How many pupils are girls?
Question 2
What time is the same as 4.30 in the
afternoon?
Question 3
What are the coordinates of the centre of the square?
Question 4
+ (5 × ) = 42
What number does stand for?
Question 5
A train has 6 carriages, Each carriage holds 88
passengers. How many seats has the train
have?
Question 6
Which shape has exactly two lines of
symmetry?
A B C D E
Question 7
Two fifths of the pupils in a school wear
glasses. What percentage of the pupils wear
glasses?
Question 8
The chart below shows the number of
children in classes 5S and 5P who live up to ½
mile and more than ½ mile from school.
How many more children in class 5P than 5S
live less than ½ mile from school?
Question 9
A number is made of 3 hundreds, 7
hundredths, 3 ones, 2 tens and 2 tenths.
What is the number?
Question 10
A parcel weighs 3.7kg. What is its weight in
grams?
Question 11
The UK population is approximately
66,482,000. The population of London is 8.78
million. How many people in the UK live
outside London?
Question 12
How many times can 147 be subtracted from
1270 before we get to zero?
Question 13
20 -4 -28 -52 -76
What is the step between successive
numbers in this sequence?
GO STRAIGHT ON GO STRAIGHT ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
0
2
4
6
8
10
12
14
16
18
20
22
24
5S 5P 5S 5P
Up to ½ mile more than ½ mile
Question 14
A square has the same area as the rectangle
below. What is the length of its side?
Question 15
Which of these is a prime factor of 99?
5 6 7 10 11
Question 16
What is ¾ of £4.48?
Question 17
Which of these lengths is longest?
157mm 52cm 0.451m 43cm 0.5m
Question 18
To get the next number in the sequence you
multiply by three and add one.
3 10 31 94 ___ ___
What is the 6th number in the sequence?
Question 19
Day Temperature
Monday -6 0C
Tuesday -5 0C
Wednesday 4 0C
Thursday -2 0C
Friday -1 0C
Which day has the median temperature?
Question 20
A stationery shop sells 6851 pens in 31 days.
How many pens per day did they sell?
Question 21
What is the smallest number you can make
using the digits 1, 3, 7, 2?
Question 22
What is the range of the shoe sizes?
Question 23
What units would you use to measure the
volume of a drinks can?
Question 24
If two angles of a triangle are 360 and 220,
what is the size of the third angle?
Question 25
What is 4 x (43.4 + 1.02)?
Question 26
To convert kilometers to miles I multiply by 5
and then divide by 8.
Using this method how many miles is 240
kilometers?
Question 27
What fraction of a day is 15 minutes?
Question 28
Which of the following is a multiple of 2, 3
and 7?
25 45 60 35 84
Question 29
What is the missing number?
4 x 7 -11 = 5 x 2 + ?
0
2
4
6
8
10
12
Simon Lisa Joe Jen Alex
Shoe Size
Shoe Size
6 cm
24 cm
GO STRAIGHT ON
Question 30
How many seconds in an hour?
Question 31
In a bag there are 5 red counters, 2 blue
counters, 7 green counters and 1 yellow
counter.
What is the probability of picking a green
counter?
Question 32
The school day starts at 08:55 and finishes at
15.20. How many minutes long is the school
day?
Question 33
The mean of 6 numbers is 9. Five of the
numbers are 3, 6, 7, 8, 6. What is the 6th
number?
Question 34
What is the 7th prime number?
Question 35
A shop sells a television for £300. They
increase the price by 15%.
What is the new price of the television?
Question 36
A four sided shape has no equal straight
sides. There is only 1 pair of parallel sides.
Which shape is it?
Question 37
A chocolate bar costs £0.45. A pack
containing 5 of the bars costs £1.90.
If you buy 5 bars how much money do you
save by buying the 5 pack?
Question 38
Red Blue Green Yellow Orange
5 7 8 3 2
A pie chart is drawn to show children’s
favourite colour using the table above.
What size angle would represent Red?
Question 39
A medicine bottle contains 90 pills. Each pill
weighs 250mg, The full bottle weighs 160g.
How much does the empty bottle weigh?
Question 40
What angle do the hours of a clock make
between each other at 7.30?
Question 41
Which fraction is 42
63 equivalent to?
Question 42
In a school 24% of children have blond hair. If
there are 1100 children at a school, how
many have blond hair?
Question 43
180 children were surveyed as to their
favourite pastime. The results are in the pie
chart above. How many children prefer
computers?
Question 44
What is the square root of 225?
Question 45
What will be the 50th number in the following
sequence
1.23, 1.41, 1.59, 1.77, …..
GO STRAIGHT ON END OF TEST
Reading Computers
Television
Reading
700
1860
1040
2018
Mark answers with a thin line like this [ 0 ]
DATE OF BIRTH
Day Month Year
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] January [ ] 2006 [ ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] February [ ] 2007 [ ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] March [ ] 2008 [ ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] April [ ] 2009 [ ]
[ 4 ] May [ ] 2010 [ ]
[ 5 ] June [ ] [ ]
[ 6 ] July [ ] [ ]
[ 7 ] August [ ] [ ]
[ 8 ] September [ ] [ ]
[ 9 ] October [ ] [ ]
November [ ] [ ]
December [ ] [ ]
PUPIL NUMBER
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]
SCHOOL NUMBER
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]
1
328 [ ]
468 [ ]
368 [ ]
462 [ ]
458 [ ]
2
22.20 [ ]
20.20 [ ]
04.30 [ ]
14.30 [ ]
16.30 [ ]
3
(0,0) [ ]
(5,2) [ ]
(5,4) [ ]
(4,4) [ ]
(7,4) [ ]
4
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
9 [ ]
10 [ ]
11 [ ]
5
528 [ ]
88 [ ]
480 [ ]
556 [ ]
15 [ ]
6
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
7
20 [ ]
80 [ ]
60 [ ]
40 [ ]
5 [ ]
8
10 [ ]
9 [ ]
8 [ ]
7 [ ]
6 [ ]
9
323.73 [ ]
333.27 [ ]
322.37 [ ]
323.27 [ ]
372.32 [ ]
10
2300 [ ]
370 [ ]
3700 [ ]
3070 [ ]
3.7 [ ]
11
57,702,000 [ ]
59,702,000 [ ]
62,302,000 [ ]
55,642,000 [ ]
63,182,000 [ ]
12
5 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
9 [ ]
13
-12 [ ]
-16 [ ]
-20 [ ]
-24 [ ]
-28 [ ]
15
5 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
10 [ ]
11 [ ]
14
10 [ ]
11 [ ]
12 [ ]
13 [ ]
14 [ ]
16
£1.49 [ ]
£2.52 [ ]
£1.12 [ ]
£3 [ ]
£3.36 [ ]
17
157mm [ ]
52cm [ ]
0.451m [ ]
43cm [ ]
0.5m [ ]
18
68 [ ]
850 [ ]
858 [ ]
283 [ ]
285 [ ]
19
Mon [ ]
Tue [ ]
Wed [ ]
Thu [ ]
Fri [ ]
20
200 [ ]
6010 [ ]
221 [ ]
211 [ ]
177451 [ ]
21
1237 [ ]
1327 [ ]
1273 [ ]
7321 [ ]
7777 [ ]
22
5 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
9 [ ]
23
ml [ ]
l [ ]
m [ ]
g [ ]
kg [ ]
24
136 [ ]
132 [ ]
58 [ ]
122 [ ]
112 [ ]
25
177,86 [ ]
177.68 [ ]
178.4 [ ]
174.62 [ ]
432.01 [ ]
26
150 [ ]
384 [ ]
240 [ ]
300 [ ]
280 [ ]
27
1/24 [ ]
1/48 [ ]
1/12 [ ]
1/16 [ ]
1/96 [ ]
28
25 [ ]
45 [ ]
60 [ ]
35 [ ]
84 [ ]
29
4 [ ]
5 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
30
1440 [ ]
60 [ ]
24 [ ]
86400 [ ]
3600 [ ]
31
1/5 [ ]
7/15 [ ]
¼ [ ]
2/5 [ ]
4/15 [ ]
33
6 [ ]
12 [ ]
24 [ ]
16 [ ]
18 [ ]
34
13 [ ]
19 [ ]
11 [ ]
9 [ ]
17 [ ]
35
400 [ ]
330 [ ]
315 [ ]
345 [ ]
250 [ ]
36
Square [ ]
Rhombus [ ]
Rectangle [ ]
Kite [ ]
Trapezium [ ]
37
20p [ ]
35p [ ]
£1.20 [ ]
45p [ ]
9p [ ]
38
5 [ ]
108 [ ]
75 [ ]
80 [ ]
72 [ ]
39
130 [ ]
137.5 [ ]
22.5 [ ]
136.5 [ ]
80 [ ]
40
15 [ ]
45 [ ]
30 [ ]
12 [ ]
10 [ ]
41
2/3 [ ]
1/2 [ ]
3/4 [ ]
1/7 [ ]
6/7 [ ]
42
275 [ ]
220 [ ]
110 [ ]
264 [ ]
70 [ ]
43
91 [ ]
92 [ ]
93 [ ]
94 [ ]
95 [ ]
44
13 [ ]
14 [ ]
15 [ ]
16 [ ]
17 [ ]
45
9.56 [ ]
9.87 [ ]
61.5 [ ]
10.05 [ ]
8.82 [ ]
32
385 [ ]
380 [ ]
390 [ ]
400 [ ]
410 [ ]
Pupil’s Name
School Name
Date of Test
1 B 2 E 3 B 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 D
8 D 9 D 10 C 11 A 12 D 13 D 14 C
15 E 16 E 17 B 18 B 19 D 20 C 21 A
22 B 23 A 24 D 25 B 26 A 27 E 28 E
29 D 30 E 31 B 32 A 33 C 34 E 35 D
36 E 37 B 38 E 39 B 40 B 41 A 42 D
43 C 44 C 45 D
Notes
1 B 1120 - 652 = 468
2 E 4.30pm = 16.30
3 B Centre is at (5,2)
4 A Box plus 5 boxes makes 6 boxes, so 6 boxes equal 42 meaning box must be 7
5 A 6 x 88 = 528
6 B A has 4, C, D, E have 1. Only B has 2
7 D 1/5 = 0.2 = 20% so 2/5 = 0.4 = 40%
8 D 22-15 = 7
9 D 323.27 put numbers in correct columns
10 C 1kg = 1000g so 3.7kg = 3700g
11 A 66482000 - 8780000 =
12 D 1270-147 = 1123, 1123-147=976, 976-147=829, 829-147=682, 682-147=535, 535-147=388, 388-147=241, 241-147=94
13 D 24 to -4 is gap of -24
14 C 6x24=144. So side 12
15 E Prime factors of 99 are 3 and 11
16 E ¼ of £4.48= £1.12. 3x£1.12 = E
17 B Converting all to mm 157, 520, 451, 430, 500 so B is largest
18 B 94 -> 283, 283-> 850
19 D Median middle when in order -6,-5,-2,-1,4 which is Thursday
20 C 6851 / 31
21 A Digits in size order
22 B Largest – smallest = 11 – 5 = 6
23 A millilitres
24 D 36+22=58, 180-58=122
25 B 43.4+1.02 first then x by 4
26 A Easiest to do 240/8 first then x5
27 E 1hour is 1/24 of a day so a quarter hour is 1/96
28 E Ones ending 5 not multiple of 2. 60 not multiple of 7.
29 D Left side 17 – Right side 10 leaves 7
30 E 60x60
31 B 7 Green / 15 total so 7/15
32 A 6h25mins = 360+25mins
33 C Total must be 6x9=54. Leaves 24 for last number
34 E Primes are 2,3,5,7,11,13,17
35 D 10%=£30 so 15%=£45 making total £345
36 E Only shape no equal sides and only 1 parallel pair
37 B 5x0.45=£2.25 so 35p saving
38 E Red is 5 out of total 25. So 1/5 of circle which is 72 degrees
39 B 250mgx90 = 22500mg=22,5g 160-22.5=137.5
40 B 30degrees between each hour. At 7.30 one hour plus hour hand moved on half an hour so
45
41 A 42/63 can divide top and bottom by 7 then 3. Or by 21 directly.
42 D 10% of 1100 is 110 and 1% of 1100 is 11 so 24% is 264
43 C 186/360 x 180 = 186 / 2 = 93
44 C 15 squared is 225
45 D Gap is 0.18. 49 gaps to get to 50th. So 49x0.18=8.82. 50th will be 1.23+8.82
Approximate equivalent percentage
Score %
Score %
Score %
Score %
1 2
12 27
23 51
34 76
2 4
13 29
24 53
35 78
3 7
14 31
25 56
36 80
4 9
15 33
26 58
37 82
5 11
16 36
27 60
38 84
6 13
17 38
28 62
39 87
7 16
18 40
29 64
40 89
8 18
19 42
30 67
41 91
9 20
20 44
31 69
42 93
10 22
21 47
32 71
43 96
11 24
22 59
33 73
44 98
Do not turn the page until you are told to do so
Answers should be marked on the answer sheet using a pencil
Only give one answer to each question
If you become stuck on a question go on to the next and come back if time allows
Use the paper supplied to do any working out necessary
You will have 40 minutes to do the test
Name
DHSB / SPC June 2019
Question 1
The original cost of a television is £176.10
The price is reduced by £14.75
What is the new price?
Question 2
The bar chart shows which pets children have.
How many more have cats than dogs?
Question 3
Chocolate bars are packed in boxes of 12.
A shop buys 16 boxes.
How many chocolate bars are in 16 boxes?
Question 4
+ (4 × ) = 40
What number does stand for?
Question 5
A minibus carries 16 pupils.
How many buses would be needed to take
300 pupils?
Question 6
ABCDEF is a regular hexagon.
What is the size of angle x?
Question 7
The chart shows the number of pupils
choosing their favourite colours.
Which statement is wrong?
A Red received five more votes than yellow
B There are thirty pupils in the class
C Four people like blue best
D More voted for green than orange
E Nobody has black as their favourite colour
Question 8
The marks in a Maths test were:
25 26 26 22 28 23
27 25 26 27 25 26
28 29 24 25 26 29
25 26 27 23 23 21
What is the mode of these numbers?
Question 9
What does the 2 in the number 3567.23 stand
for?
Question 10
I am thinking of a number. One fifth of my
number is 6.
What is one half of my number?
Question 11
How many times can 117 be subtracted from
1200 before we get to zero?
Question 12
-14 -31 -48 -65
How large is the step between successive
numbers in this sequence?
GO STRAIGHT ON GO STRAIGHT ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
02468
10121416
Dog Cat Hamster Rat
Pet 0
2
4
6
8
10
Blue Red Yellow Green Others
A B
C F
x
D E
Question 13
What is the area of this shape?
Question 14
There is 5.5g of sugar in every 10g of jam.
How much sugar is in 600g of jam?
Question 15
A B C D E
Which shape has 3 of reflective symmetry?
Question 16
The ages of the members of a club are given
on the histogram below.
How many members were aged 25 or older?
Question 17
Which of these lengths is longest?
42cm 0.4m 147mm 0.351m 33cm
Question 18
What is the 5th term in this sequence?
871 794 717 ___ ___
Question 19
John is fair haired, has blue eyes and wears
glasses. In which section would you put his
name?
Question 20
What units would you use to measure the
volume of a cup?
Question 21
If two angles of a triangle add up to 890, what
is the size of the third angle?
Question 22
What is 6 x (4.1 + 1.07)?
Question 23
I buy 13 chocolate bars costing 23p each.
How much change would I get from £5?
Question 24
What fraction of an hour is 4 minutes?
Question 25
Which of the following is a multiple of 2, 3
and 11?
144 2311 132 123 124
Question 26
What is the missing number?
8 x 5 -9 = 6 x 5 + ?
Question 27
What is the largest number you can make
using the digits 7, 6, 9 and 0?
GO STRAIGHT ON GO STRAIGHT ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
0
10
20
30
40
5 10 15 20 25 30 350 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
5 cm 4 cm
2 cm
9 cm
23 35
17 9
Blue-eyed
Wear glasses
Dark
Haired A
BC
DE
Question 28
How many seconds in 24 hours?
Question 29
In a bag there are 63 counters. 5
9 of the
counters are blue. How many blue counters
are there?
Question 30
The sun rose at 05:37 and set at 21:10. How
many minutes were there between sunrise
and sunset?
Question 31
The mean shoe size for six boys was 5. Five of
the boys had sizes 4, 5, 6, 7, 4. What was the
shoe size of the sixth boy?
Question 32
Which number is in the wrong place?
Question 33
A car costing £50,000 decreases in value by
15% in one year.
What is its new value?
Question 34
5 gallons = 22.82 litres
Which is nearest to 1 gallon?
4.528 4.448 4.645 4.565 4.504
Question 35
For a train journey t tickets cost c = 6 + 10t.
How many tickets can I get for £50?
Question 36
36 pencils cost £7.92.
What is the cost of each pencil?
Question 37
16 cards each have a letter on them. The
chart below shows how many with each letter
on them.
I pick a card with an F on it and don’t put it
back.
If I pick another card, what is the probability it
will have a E on it?
Question 38
Through what angles does the hour hand of a
clock rotate between 3am and 11:30am?
Question 39
Which fraction is 28
35 equivalent to?
Question 40
6% of children wear glasses. If there are 1450
children at a school, how many wear glasses?
Question 41
A full sweet jar weighs 180.5g. The jar
contains 120 sweets. Each sweet weighs
450mg.
How much does the empty jar weigh?
Question 42
The centre pages of a book are numbered 28
and 29. How many pages are in the book?
Question 43
What is the 100th number in this sequence?
1.15 2.1 3.05 4.0 ____
GO STRAIGHT ON END OF TEST
0
1
2
3
4
5
A B C D E F
27
21
13
1 2
Odd numbers Prime numbers
Mark answers with a thin line like this [ 0 ]
DATE OF BIRTH
Day Month Year
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] January [ ] 1998 [ ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] February [ ] 1999 [ ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] March [ ] 2000 [ ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] April [ ] 2001 [ ]
[ 4 ] May [ ] 2002 [ ]
[ 5 ] June [ ] 2003 [ ]
[ 6 ] July [ ] 2004 [ ]
[ 7 ] August [ ] 2005 [ ]
[ 8 ] September [ ] 2006 [ ]
[ 9 ] October [ ] 2007 [ ]
November [ ] 2008 [ ]
December [ ] 2009 [ ]
PUPIL NUMBER
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]
SCHOOL NUMBER
[ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 0 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 2 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 3 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 4 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 5 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 6 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 7 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 8 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ] [ 9 ]
1
£155.65 [ ]
£161.65 [ ]
£161.35 [ ]
£161.85 [ ]
£151.65 [ ]
2
6 [ ]
8 [ ]
14 [ ]
7 [ ]
12 [ ]
3
256 [ ]
144 [ ]
120 [ ]
160 [ ]
192 [ ]
4
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
9 [ ]
10 [ ]
5
21 [ ]
20 [ ]
19 [ ]
18 [ ]
17 [ ]
6
600 [ ]
1080 [ ]
1200 [ ]
1000 [ ]
720 [ ]
7
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
8
27 [ ]
26 [ ]
28 [ ]
24 [ ]
25 [ ]
9
2 ones [ ]
2 tenths [ ]
2 hundred [ ]
2 thousand [ ]
2 tens [ ]
10
10 [ ]
15 [ ]
20 [ ]
12 [ ]
18 [ ]
11
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
8 [ ]
9 [ ]
10 [ ]
12
17 [ ]
14 [ ]
27 [ ]
54 [ ]
23 [ ]
13
10 [ ]
26 [ ]
36 [ ]
24 [ ]
12 [ ]
14
300 [ ]
318 [ ]
330 [ ]
324 [ ]
244 [ ]
15
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
16
9 [ ]
17 [ ]
26 [ ]
58 [ ]
53 [ ]
17
42cm [ ]
0.4m [ ]
147mm [ ]
0.351m [ ]
33cm [ ]
18
567 [ ]
717 [ ]
563 [ ]
640 [ ]
486 [ ]
19
A [ ]
B [ ]
C [ ]
D [ ]
E [ ]
20
grams [ ]
kilograms [ ]
litres [ ]
centimetres [ ]
millilitres [ ]
21
43 [ ]
44.5 [ ]
91 [ ]
89 [ ]
180 [ ]
22
32.44 [ ]
31.2 [ ]
31.02 [ ]
148.67 [ ]
26.232 [ ]
23
£2.99 [ ]
£2.01 [ ]
£4.77 [ ]
£2.50 [ ]
£4.17 [ ]
24
1/12 [ ]
1/6 [ ]
1/15 [ ]
1/4 [ ]
1/10 [ ]
25
144 [ ]
2311 [ ]
132 [ ]
123 [ ]
124 [ ]
26
1 [ ]
2 [ ]
3 [ ]
4 [ ]
5 [ ]
27
7690 [ ]
9076 [ ]
9760 [ ]
9670 [ ]
7906 [ ]
28
86,400 [ ]
3600 [ ]
43,200 [ ]
24,400 [ ]
48,000 [ ]
29
24 [ ]
35 [ ]
7 [ ]
45 [ ]
48 [ ]
30
768 [ ]
600 [ ]
933 [ ]
742 [ ]
900 [ ]
31
5 [ ]
4 [ ]
8 [ ]
7 [ ]
6 [ ]
32
27 [ ]
21 [ ]
13 [ ]
1 [ ]
2 [ ]
33
£6750 [ ]
£39,250 [ ]
£6850 [ ]
£42,500 [ ]
£38,250 [ ]
34
4.528 [ ]
4.448 [ ]
4.645 [ ]
4.565 [ ]
4.504 [ ]
35
3 [ ]
4 [ ]
5 [ ]
6 [ ]
7 [ ]
43
12 [ ]
95 [ ]
96.05 [ ]
94.25 [ ]
95.2 [ ]
36
24p [ ]
13p [ ]
22p [ ]
23p [ ]
27p [ ]
37
1/4 [ ]
1/5 [ ]
2/15 [ ]
1/8 [ ]
4/15 [ ]
38
750 [ ]
2550 [ ]
1050 [ ]
2400 [ ]
900 [ ]
39
2/3 [ ]
40/50 [ ]
14/27 [ ]
56/68 [ ]
4/7 [ ]
40
87 [ ]
115 [ ]
92 [ ]
1058 [ ]
46 [ ]
41
125g [ ]
165.05g [ ]
126.5g [ ]
161.45g [ ]
40.5g [ ]
42
54 [ ]
55 [ ]
56 [ ]
57 [ ]
58 [ ]
Pupil’s Name
School Name
Date of Test
1 C 2 A 3 E 4 C 5 C 6 C 7 A
8 B 9 B 10 B 11 E 12 A 13 B 14 C
15 B 16 C 17 A 18 C 19 D 20 E 21 C
22 C 23 B 24 C 25 C 26 A 27 C 28 A
29 B 30 C 31 B 32 D 33 D 34 D 35 B
36 C 37 B 38 B 39 B 40 A 41 C 42 C 43 E
Notes
1 C £176.10-14.75. Write out as sum or take the 0.75 first giving £175.35 then take the £14 giving
£161.35
2 A 14-8 = 6
3 E 12 x 16. Use written multiplication method to get 192
4 C Box plus 4 boxes makes 5 boxes, so 5 boxes equal 40 meaning box must be 8
5 C 300 /16 give 18 remainder 12 meaning 19 buses are needed
6 C Outside angles 60 so inside 120. Or sum is 720 so each is 720/6
7 A It is 7 more
8 B Mode is the one which appears most often in the list
9 B The 2 is in the tenths column
10 B If one fifth of a number is 6 then the number must be 5 x6 = 30; therefore 1/2 of the number
is 15
11 E Use repeated subtraction so 10 times. Or spot 10x117 and check 11x117
12 A -14 to -31 is a drop of 17; check with -31 to -48; also 17
13 B Split into 2 rectangles; 2x9 and 2x4 or 4x4 and 5x2. Or large rectangle 9 x 4 take small
rectangle 5 x 2
14 C 600g is 60x10g so sugar is 60x5.5g = 330g
15 B A 1ine of symmetry; B 3 lines of symmetry; C1 line of symmetry; D 2 lines of symmetry; E 0
lines of symmetry
16 C 17 + 9 = 26
17 A Converting all to mm 420, 400, 147, 351, 330 so A is largest
18 C 991 to 864 is a drop of 77, 717-77 = 640; 640-77=563
19 D Has to not be in the Dark haired circle and in the Blue-eyed circle and wear glasses circle
20 E Needs to be a volume unit, a litre is too big so millilitres is appropriate
21 C 180 – 89 = 91
22 C Brackets first 4.1+1.07=5.17, then 5.17x6=31.02 (can double then triple for x6)
23 B 13x23=299p £5-£2.99=£2.01
24 C 4/60 = 1/15
25 C 124, 144, not a multiple of 11; 2311, 123 odd; 132 works
26 A Left side 8x5-9=31. Right side 6x5+?=30+? So ?=1 to make sides equal
27 C Digits in size order 9760
28 A 12x60=720; 720x60=43 200; 2x 43 200 = 86 400
29 B 1/9 of 63 = 63/9=7; so 5/9 of 63 is 5x7=35
30 C 05:37 -> 06:00 is 23minutes. 06:00 ->21:00 is 15h=900minutes; 21:00->21:10 is 10 minutes
Total 23+900+10=933 minutes
31 B Six boys mean 5 means total = 6 x 5 = 30. 4+5+6+7+4=26 so last boy must be 4
32 D 1 is not a prime number and so is in the wrong place
33 D 10% of 50,000 is 5000. 5% will be 2500 so 15% is 7500. 50000-7500=£42 500
34 D 22.82/5=4.564 so nearest 4.565 short division
35 B 50 = 6 +10t; so 50-6=10t; t=4 remainder 4 so 4 tickets. Alternatively use trial and
improvement
36 C £7.92/36 = £0.22
37 B Total number of cards with one D taken = 1+2+4+4+2+2=15. Probability of F is then
3/15=1/5
38 B 12 hours in the day so each hour the hour hand moves through 360/12=30; in 8.5h it will
rotate through 255
39 B 28/35 = 4/5 (divide top and bottom by 7). Cancelling down 40/50 also gives 4/5
40 A Could find 10%=145 and 1%=14.5 then 6% =145-4x14.5=87
41 C 450mg=0.45g; 120x0.45=54g so jar weighs 180.5g-54g=126.5g
42 C p28 represents half the pages in the book so 56 total
43 E Step up of 0.95. from 1st to 100th there are 99 steps so 99 x 0.95 + 1.15 =95.2
Approximate equivalent percentage
Score %
Score %
Score %
Score %
1 2
12 28
23 53
34 79
2 5
13 30
24 56
35 81
3 7
14 33
25 58
36 84
4 9
15 35
26 60
37 86
5 12
16 37
27 63
38 88
6 14
17 40
28 65
39 91
7 16
18 42
29 67
40 93
8 19
19 44
30 70
41 95
9 21
20 47
31 72
42 98
10 23
21 49
32 74
43 100
11 26
22 51
33 77
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