CCNA – OSI Model Questions

CCNA – OSI Model Questions

Question 1

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)

A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.

B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.

C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-

related control information.

D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.

E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer: A D

Explanation

The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a sequence number, so that the

receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.

The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the requirements to retransmit. For

example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the sender waits

for this acknowledgment before sending the next part.

-> A is correct.

The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an Frame Check Sequence (FCS) to the packet (on Layer

3), not segment (on Layer 4) -> B is not correct.

Packets are created when network layer encapsulates a segment (not frame) with source and destination host addresses and

protocol-related control information. Notice that the network layer encapsulates messages received from higher layers by placing

them into datagrams (also called packets) with a network layer header -> C is not correct.

The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical addressing of devices. Second, the

network layer determines the best path to a particular destination network, and routes the data appropriately.

-> D is correct.

The Physical layer (not presentation layer) translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link -> E is not

correct.

Question 2

Which layer of the OSI reference model uses the hardware address of a device to ensure message delivery to the proper host on a

LAN?

A. physical

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

Answer: B

Explanation

The hardware address of a device or the Media Access Control (MAC) address is added in the Data Link layer. An Ethernet

MAC address is a 48-bit binary value expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits (for example: 00:15:A4:CB:03:CA).

Question 3

Which layer of the OSI reference model uses flow control, sequencing, and acknowledgments to ensure that reliable networking

occurs?

A. data link

B. network

C. transport

D. presentation

E. physical

Answer: C

Question 4

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to

see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A. transport

B. network

C. presentation

D. session

E. application

Answer: E

Question 5

Data transfer is slow between the source and destination. The quality of service requested by the transport layer in the OSI

reference model is not being maintained. To fix this issue, at which layer should the troubleshooting process begin?

A. presentation

B. session

C. transport

D. network

E. physical

Answer: D

Question 6

Which protocols are found in the network layer of the OSI reference model and are responsible for path determination and traffic

switching?

A. LAN

B. routing

C. WAN

D. network

Answer: B

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer

is the problem?

C:\> ping 10.10.10.1

Pinging 10.10.10.1 with 32 bytes of data:

Request timed out.

Request timed out.

Request timed out.

Request timed out.

Ping statistics for 10.10.10.1:

Packets: sent – 4, Received = 0, Lost – 4 (100% loss)

A. data link layer

B. application layer

C. access layer

D. session layer

E. network layer

Answer: E

Explanation

The Network layer is responsible for network addressing and routing through the internetwork. So a ping fails, you may have an

issue with the Network layer (although lower layers like Data Link & Physical may cause the problem).

Question 8

Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three)

A. buffering

B. cut-through

C. windowing

D. congestion avoidance

E. load balancing

Answer: A C D

Explanation

Three types of flow control are buffering, windowing & congestion avoidance:

+ Buffering: If a device receives packets too quickly for it to handle then it can store them in a memory section called a buffer

and proceed them later.

+ Windowing: a window is the quantity of data segments that the transmitting device is allowed to send without receiving an

acknowledgment for them. For example:

With the window size of 1, the sending device sends 1 segment and the receiving device must reply with 1 ACK before the

sending device can send the next segment. This “waiting” takes some time.

By increasing the window size to 3, the sending device will send up to 3 segments before waiting an ACK -> helps reduce the

waiting time.

+ Congestion avoidance: lower-priority traffic can be discarded when the network is overloaded -> minimize delays.

Question 9

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote

server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

A. application

B. presentation

C. session

D. transport

E. internet

F. data link

Answer: A

Explanation

FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.

Question 10

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At

which OSI layer did this happen?

A. session

B. network

C. physical

D. data link

E. transport

Answer: D

Explanation

When using the term “frame” we can easily recognize it belongs to the Data Link layer. In this layer, an Frame Check Sequence

(FCS) field is added to the frame to verify that the frame data is received correctly.

Question 11

As a frame leaves a Layer 3 device, the Layer 2 encapsulation information is changed from what it was when it entered the

device. For what two reasons can this happen? (Choose two)

A. The data is moving from 10BASE-TX to 100BASE-TX.

B. The WAN encapsulation type has changed.

C. The data format has changed from analog to digital.

D. The source and destination hosts are in the same subnet.

E. The source and destination MAC addresses have changed.

Answer: B E

Question 12

Acknowledgement, Sequencing, and Flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?

A. Layer 2

B. Layer 3

C. Layer 4

D. Layer 5

E. Layer 6

F. Layer 7

Answer: C

Q4. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking

to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A. transport

B. network

C. presentation

D. session

E. application

Answer: E

True statements about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network

There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.

The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?

Network Layer

Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?

Network access layer

Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?

FTP

What do switches do?

Prevent Ethernet Collisions, Create less collision domains.

Mac Address

Physical Address, Layer 2 devices,

Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

Hub

Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt

required?

UDP

Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices

using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?

Transport Layer

True statements regarding ICMP packets

TRACERT uses ICMP packets.

They are encapsulated within IP datagrams

Statements that accurately describe CDP

CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

CDP is a datalink layer protocol.

CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.

How does a switch differ from a hub?

A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.

What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?

A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

How does TCP differ from UDP?

TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.

TCP provides synchronized communication.

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the

workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed

toward the server?

ARP

What destination MAC address is used in the ARP request?

ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff

What are two common TCP applications?

SMTP and FTP

Describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method?

...

The operation of the CSMA/CD access method

In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.

After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has

expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.

On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from

another vendor?

CDP

At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by

the show cdp neighbors command operate?

data link

Characteristics that apply to Layer 2 switches?

Decreases the number of collision domains and Implements VLAN.

Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model?

Port security and vlans

To what type of port would a cable with a DB-60 connector attach?

Serial port

Types of flow control

cut-through, windowing & load balancing

A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the

destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?

A. drop the frame

forward it out of all ports except the one that received it

What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the

destination address?

Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

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Exam Questions, Answers, Braindumps (640-821)

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QUESTION 1

Which command will reinitialize the router and totally replace the running

configuration with the current startup configuration?

A. Abc B#reload

B. Abc B# copy tftp startup-config

C. Abc B# copy startup.-config running-config

D. Abc B# copy running-config flash

E. Abc B# setup

Answer: A.

QUESTION 2

Which is the correct fallback sequence for loading the Cisco IOS?

A. ROM, Flash, NVRAM

B. ROM, TFTP server, Flash

C. Flash, TFTP server ROM

D. Flash NVRAM, RAM

Answer: C

QUESTION 3

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You are the network administrator at Abc . Abc users report that they cannot access

resources on the LAN attached to interface e0 of router ABC1 . You want to view the

current IP addressing and the Layer 1 and Layer 2 status of this interface. Which of

the following commands could you use? (Choose three.)

A. ABC1 # show version

B. ABC1 # show protocols

C. ABC1 # show interfaces

D. ABC1 # show controllers

E. ABC1 # show ip interface

F. ABC1 # show startup-config

Answer: C, D, E

Explanation:

showinterfaces is used to see the IP addresses and layer 2 information configured on

the interfaces.

showcontrollers is used to see the layer 1 statistics. It tells about the V.35 cables

whether they are physically attached or not.

showip interfaces is used to see the IP addresses configured on the interfaces.

QUESTION 4

You are a network technician at Abc . You are troubleshooting a LAN connectivity

problem. Which of the following router IOS commands could you use? (Select three

options.)

A. show ip route

B. winipcfg

C. tracert

D. show interfaces

E. traceroute

F. ping

Answer: A D F

Explanation

A: The show ip route command displays the IP route table.

D: The show interfaces EXEC command to display statistics for all interfaces

configured on the router or access server.

F: The ping command tests connectivity to a remote node.

QUESTION 5

You are a technician at Abc . Your newly appointed Abc trainee wants to know what

command she can use to verify the active configuration on a Cisco router. What

would your reply be?

A. Router# show memory

B. Router# show startup-config

C. Router# show running-config

D. Router# show flash

Answer: C

Explanation:

The two commands that list the currently used configuration in a router is reloaded are

show running-config and write terminal.

Reference:

CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-

58720-094-5) page 494

QUESTION 6

You are a technician at Abc . Your newly appointed Abc trainee is troubleshooting a

connectivity problem on the Abc network. She asks you what command she should

use to test application layer connectivity the between source and destination. What

would your reply be?

A. ping

B. telnet

C. traceroute

D. verify

E. trace

Answer: B

Explanation:

Telnet - The standard terminal emulation protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack.

Telnet is used for remote terminal connection, enabling users to log in to remote

systems and use resources as if they were connected to a local system.

I was going to choose answer A (ping), but the keyword in the question is "application

layer". Ping only needs to hit the NIC and that would mean layer 1 (Physical layer).

Reference:

CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-

58720-094-5) page 589

QUESTION 7

You are the network administrator at Abc . Your assistant made a number of errors

when utilizing the router setup mode facility. You want to exit setup mode without

applying the changes that your assistant made. What should you do? (Select two.)

A. Type exit at the setup dialog.

B. Type close at the setup dialog.

C. Press the Ctrl-C key combination.

D. Press the Ctrl-X key combination.

E. Issue the copy startup-config command.

F. Issue the 'write e" command.

G. Issue the "write mem" command

Answer: A, C

Explanation:

The command 'exit' will set you back from wherever you were without saving any

changes. Pressing Ctrl-C will do the same thing.

Incorrect Answers:

B. This is an invalid command

E. This command is used to save the configuration stored on NVRAM to a location.

F. This will have the effect of erasing the running configuration, and setting the router

configuration back to the factory default settings.

G. This is an old command that is still supported on the latest Cisco IOS. It is short for

"write memory" and has the same effect as the "copy running-config startup-config"

command.

QUESTION 8

With regard to bandwidth, which of the following statements are true? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. Bandwidth availability is decreasing.

B. Bandwidth availability is infinite.

C. Bandwidth is used when analyzing network performance.

D. Bandwidth availability is finite.

E. Bandwidth availability is fixed.

Answer: C, D

Explanation:

C is correct because performance analyzing software is notorious for consuming

bandwidth. Most network management devices use SNMP, which consumes

bandwidth. D is correct because although new technologies are providing for more

bandwidth and a network can be engineered to give more priority to different devices,

there is a finite amount of bandwidth available at any given time.

Incorrect Answers:

A. This is incorrect because new technologies are actually increasing the amount of

potential bandwidth.

B. For any given network, the amount of bandwidth available to end users is usually

fixed, and based on the speed of the connection to access connection. For example,

any given PC with a 10/100 NIC will be limited to 100Mbps of throughput at any

given time.

E. This is incorrect because it's always possible to upgrade a scalable technology or

allocate resources differently.

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You configure a serial connection with PPP. When you enter: show int fa 0/0 you see the

interface is up/up and LCP is open but you can't communicate. What is the problem?

To communicate on point to point links between non Cisco devices

Why do you use PPP?

Discarding, Learning, Forwarding

What are the possible RSTP states?

forward it out of all ports except the one that received it



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Disabled, Blocking, Listening, Learning, Forwarding

What are the possible STP states?

destination MAC address

Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?

sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address



Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.

The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router.

No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true

about this command?

Assign the addresses statically on each node.

What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.

In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify?

The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.

What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a

Cisco router running PAT?

outside

When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what?

relays a DHCP request across networks

The ip helper-address command does what?

It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.

An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the

dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration.

What must be done to accomplish this?

Enable port security, create the port as an access port, and statically assign the MAC address to

the address table.

A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate

directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect

their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby,

which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this?

to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN

Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?

Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.

How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?

broadcast storms

If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while

remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?

HDLC is Cisco specific while PPP can be used between vendors

Why would you select PPP over HDLC for a WAN network?

30 seconds

How often does RIP send routing updates?

Network will fragment it

When a frame is too big to fit on an intermediate LAN, what happens?

destination

When placing a standard access list, do you want to placer it as close as possible to source or

destination?

Source address

What do standard access lists filter on?

Source IP, Destination IP, Protocol, Port Numbers

What can extended access list filter on?

defines new port roles and is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct?

discarding

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

discarding and forwarding

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged?

allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN

What is one benefit of PVST+?

converged

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or

fowarding state?

All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting

What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces

when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?

defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?

local DLCI on the subinterface

What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?

This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted

pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

discarding

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

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Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose

three.)

A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.

C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network

media before transmitting.

E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: A,B,E


A. application

B. session

C. transport

D. network

E. data link

F. physica

Answer: D

Explanation:

Only network address contains this information. To transmit the packets the sender uses network

address and datalink address. But the layer 2 address represents just the address of the next hop

device on the way to the sender. It is changed on each hop. Network address remains the same.


A. Internet layer

B. transport layer

C. application layer

D. network access layer



A. TFTP

B. DNS

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C. FTP

D. SNMP

E. RIP

C. FTP

Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment

receipt required?

E. UDP

Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices

using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?

C. Transport

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)

A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.

B. They guarantee datagram delivery.

C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.

D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.

E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

Answer: C,D

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)

A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.

B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.

D. CDP is a network layer protocol.

E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.

F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.

Answer: B,C,E

How does a switch differ from a hub?

A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.

B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.

C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.

D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.

E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.

Answer: B

What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?

A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.

B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.

D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.

F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

Explanation:

HTTP uses TCP port 80.

How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)

A. TCP provides best effort delivery.

B. TCP provides synchronized communication.

C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.

D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.

E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

TCP differs from UDP in the following ways:

TCP provides best effort delivery.

TCP provides synchronized communication.

TCP segments are essentially datagrams.

TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.

TCP uses broadcast delivery.

What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)

A. TFTP

B. SMTP

C. SNMP

D. FTP

E. DNS

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21.

Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)

A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data

simultaneously.

B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before

transmitting.

C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the

CSMA/CD access method.

D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.

E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has

expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.

F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize

with each other prior to transmitting data.

Answer: B,E


another vendor?

A. RTP

B. TCP

C. CDP

D. UDP

Answer: C

The Cisco Unified IP Phone uses CDP to communicate information such as auxiliary VLAN ID, per

port power management details, and Quality of Service (QoS) configuration information with the

Cisco Catalyst switch.

At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed

by the show cdp neighbors command operate?

A. application

B. transport

C. network

D. physical

E. data link

Answer: E

Explanation:

CDP is a device discovery protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all

Ciscomanufactured

devices (routers, bridges, access servers, and switches)

Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)

A. increases the number of collision domains

B. decreases the number of collision domains

C. implements VLAN

D. decreases the number of broadcast domains

E. uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch

port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.


(Choose two.)

A. layer 3 support

B. port security

C. redundant components

D. VLANs

E. PoE

Answer: A,B

Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm?

(Choose two.)

A. a bridge

B. a router

C. a hub

D. a Layer 3 switch

E. an access point

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Routers and layer 3 switches will not propagate broadcast traffic beyond the local segment, so the

use of these devices is the best method for eliminating broadcast storms.



A. drop the frame

B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it

C. forward it out of all ports

D. store it until it learns the correct port

Answer: B

Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?

A. source IP address

B. destination IP address

C. source and destination IP address

D. source MAC address

E. destination MAC address

Answer: E

Explanation:

Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device.

Routers use the destination IP address to make forwarding decisions.



A. drops the frame

B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message

C. sends a message to the router requesting the address

D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address

Answer: D

Explanation:

In this case, it will send out an ARP request for MAC address of the destination IP (assuming it

doesn't already have it in its table) and then address it to the destination's MAC address.

A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the

switch (collision, broadcast)?

A. 4, 48

B. 48, 4

C. 48, 1

D. 1, 48

E. 4, 1

Answer: B

Explanation:

A switch uses a separate collision domain for each port, and each VLAN is a separate broadcast

domain.

Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)

A. 10.1.168.0

B. 10.1.176.1

C. 10.1.174.255

D. 10.1.160.255

E. 10.1.160.0

F. 10.1.175.255

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

Explanation

All IP address in IP ranges between : 10.1.160.1 and 10.1.175.254 are valid as shown below

Address: 10.1.160.0 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000

Netmask:255.255.240.0 = 2011111111.11111111.1111 0000.00000000

Wildcard:0.0.15.25500000000.00000000.0000 1111.11111111

Which implies that

Network: 10.1.160.0/20 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000

HostMin:10.1.160.100001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000001

HostMax:10.1.175.25400001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111110

Broadcast:10.1.175.25500001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111111

Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?

A. 192.168.1.8/29

B. 192.168.1.32/27

C. 192.168.1.40/29

D. 192.168.1.16/28

E. 192.168.1.48/29

Answer: C

Explanation: 248 mask uses 5 bits (1111 1000)

42 IP in binary is (0010 1010)

The base subnet therefore is the lowest binary value that can be written without changing the

output of an AND operation of the subnet mask and IP ...

1111 1000 AND

0010 1010 equals

0010 1000 - which is .40

/24 is standard class C mask.

adding the 5 bits from the .248 mask gives /29

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.

C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0

D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.

E. The network is not subnetted.

Answer: B,D

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?

A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address

B. allows remote management of the switch

C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts

D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

Answer: B

What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)

A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces

B. computes the destination host address

C. determines the next hop on the path

D. updates the destination IP address

E. forwards ARP requests

Answer: A,C

Explanation: Without following these two processes namely switching the packet to appropriate

interface and telling the packet where to go by providing it with a destination IP address, the

purpose of the same would not be solved.

Question 1

On a network of one department, there are four PCs connected to a switch, as shown in the following figure:

After the Switch1 restarts. Host A ( the host on the left ) sends the first frame to Host C (the host on the right). What the first

thing should the switch do?

A. Switch1 will add 192.168.23.12 to the switching table.

B. Switch1 will add 192.168.23.4 to the switching table.

C. Switch1 will add 000A.8A47.E612 to the switching table.

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation

When Switch1 receives the first frame from Host A, it will write Host A’s MAC address into its MAC address table (including

the corresponding port Fa0/4) and flood the frame to all other ports.

Question 2

The user of Host1 wants to ping the DSL modem/router at 192.168.1.254. Based on the Host1 ARP table that is shown in the

exhibit, what will Host1 do?

A. send a unicast ARP packet to the DSL modem/router

B. send unicast ICMP packets to the DSL modem/router

C. send Layer 3 broadcast packets to which the DSL modem/router responds

D. send a Layer 2 broadcast that is received by Host2, the switch, and the DSL modem/router

Answer: B

Explanation

Because Host1 has already had information about DSL modem so it doesn’t need to broadcast an ARP Request to find out the

MAC address of DSL modem. It just needs to send unicast ICMP packets directly to that modem.

Question 3

Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two)

A. amount of RAM

B. bridge priority

C. IOS version

D. IP address

E. MAC address

F. speed of the links

Answer: B E

Question 4

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose

two.)

A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.

B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.

C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.

D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.

E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.

F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

Answer: A D

Explanation

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. Its packets travel from routerA to routerB and router C. Router C (the last router)

then broadcast an ARP frame onto the network looking for the MAC address of Host 2. If Host 2 can answer then router C can

forward the frame. But e0 interface is down so no answer from Host 2 will be received so router C will send a Destination

Unreachable message back to the originator. This message also informs that the middle network is still working correctly.

Also notice that the Destination Unreachable message is an ICMP message.

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the

routers in this network are functioning properly. The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the

routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two)

A. All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.

B. Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-

down timers expire.

C. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to

the 192.168.1.0 network.

D. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route

back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.

E. R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased

rate until the network again converges.

Answer: C D

Explanation

When Fa0/0 on R1 goes down, R1 will try to inform with R2 that its Fa0/0 interface is currently down. R2 in turn will inform to

R3 that Fa0/0 of R1 is down. The split-horizon rule states that “a router never sends information about a route back in same

direction which is original information came”. It means when R1 sends information about its downed network 192.168.1.0, R2 is

not allowed to send back that information to R1 -> C is correct.

But maybe you will ask “Why answer D is also correct when it seems contradictory to answer C?” Yes, it is really contradictory!

This is called the “Poison Reverse” rule:

The poison reverse rule overwrites split horizon rule. For example, if router R2 receives a route poisoning of network 192.168.1.0

from router R1 then router R2 will send an update back to router R1 (which breaks the split horizon rule) with the same poisoned

hop count of 16. This ensures all the routers in the domain receive the poisoned route update.

Notice that the “Poison Reverse” doesn’t send erroneous information to R1 but just only one message to make sure R1 is working

correctly.

For your information, answer B is not correct because if R2 and R3 get an update with a better metric than the originally recorded

metric (1 for R2 and 2 for R3) within the hold-down timer period, the hold-down timer is removed and data can be sent to that

network. It means that now R2 and R3 have a better way to reach R1.

For more information about RIP, please read my RIP tutorial.

Question 6

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)

A. It is locally significant.

B. It is globally significant.

C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.

D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.

E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

Answer: A C

Explanation

The process identifier used in OSPF is locally significant, which means it does not need to be the same on other OSPF routers

and is not passed between routers -> A is correct.

Each process identifier is a unique instance of an OSPF database. We can create many process identifiers as we want (but ranges

from 1 to 65,535) but it is not recommended because the router needs many resources to maintain these OSPF databases -> C is

correct.

Process identifier is a “must” parameter even if we only run only one OSPF process -> D is not correct.

Routers in the same OSPF area can have different process identifier (process ID) because it is only locally significant -> E is not

correct.

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. The FMJ manufacturing company is concerned about unauthorized access to the Payroll Server. The

Accounting1, CEO, Mgr1, and Mgr2 workstations should be the only computers with access to the Payroll Server. What two

technologies should be implemented to help prevent unauthorized access to the server? (Choose two)

A. access lists

B. encrypted router passwords

http://www.9tut.com/rip-routing-protocol-tutorial

C. STP

D. VLANs

E. VTP

F. wireless LANs

Answer: A D

Explanation

Access lists and VLANs can be used to prevent unauthorized to the Payroll Server. By assigning the server to a secure VLAN

and using access list to permit only Accounting1, CEO, Mgr1, and Mgr2 workstations to access that VLAN, we can dramatically

enhance the security of the whole network.

We don’t need to encrypt router password because it only helps prevent unauthorized access to the router, not Payroll server -> B

is not “totally” correct ^^.

Question 8

Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)

A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.

B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.

C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.

D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.

E. It uses the default administrative distance.

F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

Answer: A E

Explanation

The command “ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4″ means that “if there is a packet to the network 172.16.3.0/24 then

route it to 192.168.2.4 first.

The syntax of static route is:

ip route <subnet-mask> <next-hop-IP-address | exit-interface> [metric]

+ destination-network-address: destination network address of the remote network

+ subnet mask: subnet mask of the destination network

+ next-hop-IP-address: the IP address of the receiving interface on the next-hop router

+ exit-interface: the local interface of this router where the packets will go out

+ metric: the distance metric for this route. If not specified, it uses the default administrative distance of 1

Question 9

Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)

A. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1.

B. It uses broadcasts for its routing updates.

C. It is a classless routing protocol.

D. It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1.

E. It supports authentication.

F. It does not send the subnet mask in updates.

Answer: A C E

Explanation

A and E are correct according to the theory of RIP.

RIP version 1 updates are broadcasts, and RIP version 2 updates are multicast to 224.0.0.9 -> B is not correct.

RIP v1 is a classful routing protocol but RIP v2 is a classless routing protocol -> C is correct.

RIPv1 and RIPv2 have the same default administrative distance of 120 -> D is not correct.

RIPv2 is a classless routing protocol so it does send the subnet mask in updates -> F is not correct.

Question 10

How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay network be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing

routing updates?

A. Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface.

B. Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a point-to-point line to support multicast and broadcast traffic.

C. Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet.

D. Configure a single sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces.

Answer: A

Explanation

In Frame Relay, one router’s interface is often connected to many other routers. According to the split horizon rule, it is not

allowed to send and receive routing updates on the same interfaces so we need to configure sub-interface to overcome this

problem.

Question 11

A network administrator is configuring the routers in the graphic for OSPF. The OSPF process has been started and the networks

have been configured for Area 0 as shown in the diagram. The network administrator has several options for configuring RouterB

to ensure that it will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0 /24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks

could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three)

A. Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface on the Ethernet

network.

B. Change the router id of Router B by assigning the IP address 172.16.1.130/24 to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB.

C. Configure a loopback interface on RouterB with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.

D. Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to zero.

E. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of RouterA and RouterC to zero.

F. No further configuration is necessary.

Answer: A C E

Explanation

DR and BDR election is done via the Hello protocol. The router with the highest OSPF priority on a segment will become the DR

for that segment -> A is correct.

In case of a tie, the router with the highest Router ID will win. The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router

and is chosen using the following sequence:

+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface.

+ If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen.

+ The router ID can be manually assigned

In this case, the router ID of RouterB is 198.18.0.101 (regardless that interface does not run OSPF). So if we assign the IP

address 172.16.1.130/24 to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB, the router ID of RouterB is not changed and we can not guarantee

RouterB will take DR role -> B is not correct.

C is correct as mentioned above.

A priority value of zero indicates an interface will not be elected as DR or BDR. So:

+ If we “change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to zero”, RouterB will never be elected as DR -> D is not

correct.

+ If we “change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of RouterA and RouterC to zero”, router A and RouterC will not be

elected as DR for that segment -> E is correct.

For answer F, if there is no loopback interface configured on RouterA or RouterC then F is correct (as RouterB has the highest IP

address on active physical interface 198.18.0.101) but we are not sure about that.

Routing Protocol Administrative distance

Directly connected interface 0

Static route out an interface 1

Static route to next-hop address 1

DMNR - Dynamic Mobile Network Routing 3

EIGRP summary route 5

External BGP 20

Internal EIGRP 90

IGRP 100

OSPF 110

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/EIGRP

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/BGP


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IGRP

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OSPF

IS-IS 115

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) 120

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) 140

On Demand Routing (ODR) 160

External EIGRP 170

Internal BGP 200

Next Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP) 250

Floating Static Route (ex. DHCP-learned) 254

Unknown 255

QUESTION 1

CCNA 120-200

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP

B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a

unique IP subnet.*

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IS-IS

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Routing_Information_Protocol

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exterior_Gateway_Protocol

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/On_Demand_Routing


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/BGP

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Next_Hop_Resolution_Protocol

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DHCP

C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, it must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to

communicate with each other.

D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, it must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to

communicate with each other.*

E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.*

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to

support this transmission?

A

B

C

D

E

F

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of Switch 1

B. the MAC address of Switch 1

C. the IP address of Host C*

D. the MAC address of Host C

E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface

F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface*

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 4

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme?

(Choose two.)

A. reduces routing table entries.*

B. auto-negotiation of media rates.

C. efficient utilization of MAC addresses.

D. dedicated communications between devices.

E. ease of management and troubleshooting.*

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

A. 172.16.0.0/16*

B. 172.16.0.0/20

C. 172.16.0.0/24

D. 172.32.0.0/16

E. 172.32.0.0/17

F. 172.64.0.0/16

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6


What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

A. 172.1.4.0/25

172.1.4.128/25

172.1.5.0/24

172.1.6.0/24

172.1.7.0/24

B. 172.1.0.0/22

C. 172.1.4.0/24

172.1.5.0/24

172.1.6.0/24

172.1.7.0/24

D. 172.1.0.0/21

E. 172.1.4.0/22*

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7

Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router main?

A. 172.16.0.0/18

B. 172.16.0.0/16

C. 172.16.0.0/20*

D. 172.16.0.0/21

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.*

B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.

C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.

D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.*

E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

A. show ip ospf neighbors

B. show ip ospf database*

C. show ip ospf link-state

D. show ip ospf Isa database

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway?

(Choose two.)

A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0

B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0*

D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1*

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic

protocol is also being used?

A. hop count

B. administrative distance*

C. link bandwidth

D. link delay

E. link cost

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12


A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating

in OSPF.

Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this

configuration statement? (Choose three.)

A. FastEthernet0/0

B. FastEthernet0 /1*

C. Serial0/0*

D. Serial0/1.102*

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13


The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce

the size of the routing table on the Central router.

Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the

LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10 2 0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

C. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

D. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

E. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1*******

F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14

Refer to the graphic.

A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands

will accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0

B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6

C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0*

D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6*

E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0

F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 15

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological

database? (Choose two.)

A. hello packets.*

B. SAP messages sent by other routers.

C. LSAs from other routers.*

D. beacons received on point-to-point links.

E. routing tables received from other link-state routers.

F. TTL packets from designated routers.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

A. It supports VLSM.*

B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.

C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.*

D. It increases routing overhead on the network.

E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.*

F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 17

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110*

D. 120

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. provides common view of entire topology.*

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors.

C. calculates shortest path.*

D. utilizes event-triggered updates.*

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates.

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 19


Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26

LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.*

C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.

D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20

Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for

10.1.5.65?

A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.1.2.2

C. 10.1.3.3*

D. 10.1.4.4

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21

Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes

learned by EIGRP?

A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240

B. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252

C. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252

D. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240

E. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240*

F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22

Refer to the Exhibit.

Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of interfaces R2

as indicated by the command output shown?

A. One interface has a problem.

B. Two interfaces have problems.

C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.*

D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23


Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will

OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.11.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1*

D. 192.168.5.3

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network

192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# router ospf 1*

B. Router(config)# router ospf 0

C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0

D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*

E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0

F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 25

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources.

What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?

A. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16.

B. a static router to network 192.168.10.0/24.

C. a static router to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next

D. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24.

E. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24.*

F. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1 416.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of

a Cisco OSPF router?

A. 16

B. 2

C. unlimited

D. 4*

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

A. a primary router, stored in the topology table.

B. a backup router, stored in the routing table.

C. a backup route, stored in the topology table.*

D. a primary router, stored in the routing table.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28


When running EIGRP, what is required for Router A to exchange routing updates with Router C?

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers.*

B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected.

C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C.

D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29

Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network.

The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route

command, and was able to ping the server.

Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is

the cause of the failure?

A. The network has not fully converged.

B. IP routing is not enabled.

C. A static route is configured incorrectly.*

D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.

E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.

F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated .

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network.

The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF Given

the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this

problem?

Router(config)# router ospf 1

Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

A. The process id is configured improperly.

B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.

C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.*

D. The network number is configured improperly.

E. The AS is configured improperly.

F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the

following are true? (Choose two.)

A. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.*

B. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be

D. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.

E. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.*

F. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 32

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The

routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows

the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information

in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.

C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.*

E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.

F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the

IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval

and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display

the required information?

A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency

B. Router# show ip eigrp topology

C. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces

D. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors*

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34

Refer to the graphic.

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this

problem? (Choose two.)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.

B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.

C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from

being established.

D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.*

E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.

F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.*

Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 35


HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this

problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway

B. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.

D. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.

E. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.*

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 36


A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown.

What is a possible problem?

A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.

B. Interface Fa0/0 Router1 is shutdown.

C. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1.

D. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.*

E. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

F. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37


Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output

from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure?(Choose two)

A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.

B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.

C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.

D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.

E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.*

F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is

configured on S0/0 of RouterA.*

Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 38

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the

exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct

configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the

Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. incompatible IP addresses*

B. insufficient bandwidth

C. incorrect subnet mask

D. incompatible encapsulation

E. Link reliability too low

F. IPCP closed

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39


The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on

192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?

A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.

B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.

C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.

D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.*

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One

route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a

metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router

install in the routing table?

A. the OSPF route

B. the EIGRP route*

C. the RIPv2 route

D. all three routes

E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41


The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of the all Ethernet links is 100Mb/s. A static route

will be established on the Manchester router to the direct traffic toward the internet over the most

direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a router toward the

internet for traffic that originates from workstation on the Manchester LAN?

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2

B. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1

C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1

D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1

E. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2

F. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2*

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 42


The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic

to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.

B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to

C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the

London router.

D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.

E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.*

F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 43


The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol What

two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers

and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two)

A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.

B. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to

C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to*

D. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.

E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to

F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.*

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 44


When running OSPF, What would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.

B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.*

C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.

D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 45

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.

B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.*

C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.

D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.

E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.

F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.

G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.*

Correct Answer: BG

QUESTION 46

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the

same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet

mask meet this requirement?

A. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252

B. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248*

D. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252

E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 47

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three)

A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.*

B. to reduce the complexity of router configuration.

C. to speed up convergence.*

D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches.

E. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth.

F. to reduce routing overhead.*

Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 48

The left provides some routing protocols, while the right gives several Cisco default

administrator distances. Drag the items on the right to the proper locations.

QUESTION 49

Which is true about OSPF router-id? (Choose two .)

A. It is used for type 1 router LSA*

B. router-id needs to be matched on OSPF neighbors

C. Highest IP address of the loopback is used*

D. router-id is 16 bit

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 50

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about how router JAX will choose a path to the

10.1.3.0/24 network when different routing protocols are configured? (Choose three.)

A. By default, if RIPv2 is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed into the

routing table.*

B. The equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL and JAX- NY-ORL will be installed in the routing table if

RIPv2 is the routing protocol.

C. When EIGRP is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed in the routing table

by default.

D. When EIGRP is the routing protocol, the equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL, and JAX-NY- ORL

will be installed in the routing table by default.*

E. With EIGRP and OSPF both running on the network with their default configurations, the EIGRP

paths will be installed in the routing table.*

F. The OSPF paths will be installed in the routing table, if EIGRP and OSPF are both running on the

network with their default configurations.

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 51


What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?

A. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link.

B. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing the

adjacency to go down.

C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.*

D. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 52

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A. It requires the use of ARP.

B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.*

C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.

D. It routes over links rather than over networks.*

Correct Answer: BD

Question:

Refer to the exhibit. After adding R3 router on the network, no routing updates are being exchanged between R3 and the

new location. All other interconnectivity and Internet access for the existing locations of the company are working

properly.

The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration to provide full connectivity between the routers.

Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host. All passwords on all routers are Cisco.

IP addresses are listed in the chart below.

Answer and Explanation:

Its advised that you should read the question properly so as to understand what you are asked to do. Firstly, in this case;

verify the configuration of the newly added router since it does not function properly. Use the show running-config

command from the command line interface of R3 router, (it’s also recommended to use this command on other routers on

the network)

From the output above, we can verify that the Eigrp autonomous number (AS) of 22 configuration on router 3 is wrong.

On other routers it is 212. If the AS numbers on routers in a network are mismatched, this will hinder the routers on that

network from forming adjacency.

To resolve this problem, you re-configure router R3 using the following command:

R3>enable (remember to enter cisco as the password here)

R3#configure terminal

R3(config)#no router eigrp 22 (this will erase the initial configuration)

R3(config)#router eigrp 212

R3(config-router)#network 192.168.60.0


R3(config-router)#no auto-summary

R3(config-router)#end

R3#copy running-configstartup-config (remember to use this command after every configuration)

Verify the configuration on R1 router with the show running-config command:

You will notice that R3 network is missing in the configuration . R3 network address need to be added for it to be

linkable. Use the following command:

R1>enable (remember to enter cisco as password here)

R1#configure terminal

R1(config)#router eigrp 212


R1(config-router)#end

R1#copy running-config startup-config

After configuration, use the ping command from R3 to verify connectivity.

eigrp_1.jpg (50.18 kB, 584x522 - viewed 184 times.)

eigrp_2.jpg (29.84 kB, 291x346 - viewed 174 times.)

http://certforumz.com/index.php?PHPSESSID=86d4f4a60549d3fafb7fcaffde987193&action=dlattach;topic=918.0;attach=3767


http://certforumz.com/index.php?PHPSESSID=86d4f4a60549d3fafb7fcaffde987193&action=dlattach;topic=918.0;attach=3767;image




Question:

To configure the router (R2-RC) click on the console host icon that is connected to a router by a serial console cable

(shown in the diagram as a dashed black line)

Central Florida Widgets recently installed a new router in their office. Complete the network installation by performing

the initial router configurations and configuring RIPV2 routing using the router command line interface (CLI) on the R2-

RC.

Router configuration:

Name of the router is R2-RC

Enable-secret password is cisco1

The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is cisco2

The password to allow telnet access to the router is cisco3

IPV4 addresses must be configured as follows:

Ethernet network 209.165.202.128/27- router has last assignable host address in subnet

Serial network is 192.0.2.16/28- router has last assignable host address in the subnet. Interfaces should be enabled.

Router protocol is RIPV2

Solution:

1. Configure router name:


Router>enable

Router#configure terminal

Router(config)#hostname R2-RC

2. Configure secret password:

R2-RC(config)# enable secret cisco1

3) Configure console Password:

R2-RC(config)#line console 0

R2-RC(config-line)#password cisco2

R2-RC(config-line)#login

R2-RC(config-line)#exit

4) Configure Telnet password:

R2-RC(config)#line vty 0 4

R2-RC(config-line)#password cisco3

R2-RC(config-line)#login

R2-RC(config-line)#exit

5) Assign IP address for Ethernet interface(Fa0/0):

Know or cram this table below; you might be given an opportunity to write it down before the exam:

Bit Value 128 64 32 16 8 4 2 1

BitsBorrowed 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Subnetmask 128 192 224 240 248 252 254 255

SubnetPrefix /CIDR /25 /26 /27 /28 /29 /30

Normal 0 false false false EN-GB X-NONE X-NONE MicrosoftInternetExplorer4

The Ethernet network 209.165.202.128/27: looking at the table above, you can see that the /27 has a bit value of 32

(increment) and mask should be 224 or /27

That means:

Network address: 209.165.202.128

Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224

Broadcast address: 209.165.202.159 (because 128 + 32 - 1 = 159)

Therefore, according to the question; the last assignable host address in this subnet should be: 209.165.202.158. Assign it

to fa0/0 using these commands:

R2-RC(config)# interface fa0/0

R2-RC(config-if)#ip address 209.165.202.158 255.255.255.224

R2-RC(config-if)#no shutdown

R2-RC(config-if)#exit

6) Assign IP address for Serial interface(S0/0/0): (follow the same above)

Serial network 192.0.2.16 /28

Looking at the table above, you can see that the /28 has a bit value of 16 (increment) and mask should be 240 or /28

That means:

Serial network 192.0.2.16

Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240

Broadcast address:192.0.2.31 (because 16 + 16 - 1 = 31)

According to the question the last assignable host address in this subnet is 192.0.2.30. Assign it to s0/0/0 interface using

the following command:

R2-RC(config)# interface s0/0/0

R2-RC(config-if)#ip address 192.0.2.30 255.255.255.240

R2-RC(config-if)#no shutdown

R2-RC(config-if)#exit

7) Configure RIP v2 routing protocol using the following command:

R2-RC(config)#router rip

R2-RC(config-router)#version 2

R2-RC(config-router)#network 209.165.202.128

R2-RC(config-router)#network 192.0.2.16

R2-RC(config-router)#end

R2-RC#copy running-configstartup-config (don’t forget this bit)

Question 1

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)




D It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.


Answer: A C

Question 2


Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol developed for Internet Protocol (IP) networks by the Interior

Gateway Protocol (IGP) working group of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). What is the default administrative

distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 20

E. 130

F. 170

Answer: C

Question 3

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)

A. It supports VLSM.


C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.


E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.

F. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.

Answer: A C E

Explanation

Answer A and C are obviously correct. For answer E, it allows extensive control of routing updates via Link-State

Advertisement (LSA). Administrators can filter these LSAs to meet their requirements easily.

Question 4

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose

two)



C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.

D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.


F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Answer: D F

Explanation

A is not correct because the backbone area of OSPF is always Area 0.

B is not correct because R1 or R3 must be the DR or BDR -> it has to establish neighbor adjacency with the other.

C is not correct because OSPF neighbor relationship is not established based on static routing. It uses multicast address

224.0.0.5 to establish OSPF neighbor relationship.

E is not correct because configure EIGRP on these routers (with a lower administrative distance) will force these routers to

run EIGRP, not OSPF.

D and F are correct because these entries must match on neighboring routers:

- Hello and dead intervals

– Area ID (Area 0 in this case)

– Authentication password

– Stub area flag

Question 5

Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?

A. 224.0.0.5

B. 172.16.0.1

C. 192.168.0.5

D. 223.0.0.1

E. 254.255.255.255

Answer: A

Question 6

RouterD# show ip interface brief

Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this

router?

A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.3

Answer: C

Explanation

The highest IP address of all loopback interfaces will be chosen -> Loopback 0 will be chosen as the router ID.

Question 7

ROUTER# show ip route

192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1

C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0

C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0

O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0

O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0

O 192.168.12.249/30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0

O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?

A. OSPF cost


B. OSPF priority

C. OSPF hop count 5

D. OSPF ID number

E. OSPF administrative distance

Answer: A

Explanation

OSPF uses a metric referred to as cost. The cost of the entire path is the sum of the costs of the outgoing interfaces along

the path. Cisco uses a simple formula to calculate OSPF cost:

OSPF cost = 108 / Bandwidth (byte)

Therefore, a 100 Mbps FastEthernet interface will have the cost of 108 / 100,000,000 (bytes) = 1

Note: Cost for interfaces with bandwidth equal or larger than 10^8 bps is normalized to 1 so a 1Gbps interface will also

have OSPF cost of 1.

For “O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0″ line, the first number in the brackets is the

administrative distance of the information source; the second number is the metric for the route -> In this case the second

number is the OSPF cost.

Question 8

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern

that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance.


As part of examining the router resources the OSPF DRs need to be known.

All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.

Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two)

A. Corp-1

B. Corp-2

C. Corp-3

D. Corp4

E. Branch-1

F. Branch-2

Answer: D F

Explanation

There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router. Each segment will have a DR so we

have 2 DRs.

To select which router will become DR they will compare their router-IDs. The router with highest (best) router-ID will

become DR. The router-ID is chosen in the order below:



In this question, the IP addresses of loopback interfaces are not mentioned so we will consider IP addresses of all active

router’s physical interfaces. Router Corp-4 (10.1.40.40) & Branch-2 (10.2.20.20) have highest “active” IP addresses so

they will become DRs.

Question 9

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose

two)

A. hello packets

B. SAP messages sent by other routers

C. LSAs from other routers

D. beacons received on point-to-point links

E. routing tables received from other link-state routers

F. TTL packets from designated routers

Answer: A C

Question 1

After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?

A. No messages are exchanged.

B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.

C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.

D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

Answer: B

Explanation

HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On

broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.

Although OSPF is a link-state protocol but the full database from each router is sent every 30 minutes (not seconds) -> C and D

are not correct.

Question 2


R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF.

From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?

A. 192.168.0.1

B. 172.16.1.1

C. 172.16.2.1

D. 172.16.2.225

Answer: A

Explanation

The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the following sequence:




In this case, because a loopback interface is not configured so the highest active IP address 192.168.0.1 is chosen as the router

ID.

Question 3

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two)

A. hello packets






Answer: A C

Question 4

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)




D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.


F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Answer: D F

Explanation

To become OSPF neighbors, routers must meet these requirements: Hello interval, Dead interval and AREA number -> D and F

are correct.

Question 5

ROUTER# show ip route

192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks


C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0


O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0

O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0

O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0

O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0

To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?

A. OSPF cost

B. OSPF priority

C. OSPF hop count

D. OSPF ID number

E. OSPF administrative distance

Answer: A

Explanation

The first parameter is the Administrative Distance of OSPF (110) while the second parameter is the cost of OSPF.

Question 6

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)




D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.


Answer: A C

Question 7

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol developed for Internet Protocol (IP) networks by the Interior Gateway

Protocol (IGP) working group of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). What is the default administrative distance of the

OSPF routing protocol?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 20

E. 130

F. 170

Answer: C

Question 8

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic.

There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance.




A. Corp-1

B. Corp-2

C. Corp-3

D. Corp4

E. Branch-1

F. Branch-2

Answer: D F

Explanation

There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router. Each segment will have a DR so we have 2

DRs.

To select which router will become DR they will compare their router-IDs. The router with highest (best) router-ID will become

DR. The router-ID is chosen in the order below:



In this question, the IP addresses of loopback interfaces are not mentioned so we will consider IP addresses of all active router’s

physical interfaces. Router Corp-4 (10.1.40.40) & Branch-2 (10.2.20.20) have highest “active” IP addresses so they will become

DRs.

Question 9

Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?

A. 224.0.0.5

B. 172.16.0.1

C. 192.168.0.5

D. 223.0.0.1

E. 254.255.255.255

Answer: A

Question 10






E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.

F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Answer: A C E

Question 11

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3

What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1

B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3


D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3

E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance

F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas

Answer: D F

Question 12


Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.3

Answer: C

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Answer: B C

Explanation

A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we

use that loopback interface as the router-id) -> B is correct.

The router-ID is chosen in the order below:



-> The loopback interface will be chosen as the router ID of RouterB -> C is correct.

Question 2

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three)

A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Answer: A C D

Explanation

Each of routers running link-state routing protocol learns paths to all the destinations in its “area” so we can say A is correct

although it is a bit unclear.

Link-state routing protocols generate routing updates only (not the whole routing table) when a change occurs in the network

topology so B is not correct.

Link-state routing protocol like OSPF uses Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path -> C is correct.

Unlike Distance vector routing protocol (which utilizes frequent periodic updates), link-state routing protocol utilizes event-

triggered updates (only sends update when a change occurs) -> D is correct but E is not correct.

Question 3

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a

lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance.




A. Corp-1

B. Corp-2

C. Corp-3

D. Corp4

E. Branch-1

F. Branch-2

Answer: D F

Explanation


DRs.







DRs.

Question 4



After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF.

Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose

three)

A. FastEthernet0/0

B. FastEthernet0/1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Answer: B C D

Explanation

The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63″ equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:

+ Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)

+ Network address: 192.168.12.64

+ Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127

Therefore all interface in the range of this network will join OSPF -> B C D are correct.

Question 5

When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?


B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.


D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router

Answer: B

Explanation

To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval, Dead interval and AREA number.

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information

will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, FastEthernet0/0

208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, FastEthernet0/0

B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0


C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0

208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, Serial1/0


D. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0

208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, Serial1/0

Answer: A

Explanation

Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface. The

interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth. For FastEthernet it is 108 / 100 Mbps = 108 / 100,000,000 = 1.

Therefore the cost is 12 (learned from Router_A) + 1 = 13 for both subnets -> B is not correct.

The cost through T1 link is much higher than through T3 link (T1 cost = 108 / 1.544 Mbps = 64; T3 cost = 108 / 45 Mbps = 2) so

surely OSPF will choose the path through T3 link -> Router_E will choose the path from Router_A through FastEthernet0/0, not

Serial1/0 -> C & D are not correct.

In fact, we can quickly eliminate answers B, C and D because they contain at least one subnet learned from Serial1/0 -> they are

surely incorrect.

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use

for this RouterD?


A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.316

Answer: C

Explanation


Question 8

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0?

(choose two)

A. Router(config)#router ospf 1

B. Router(config)#router ospf 0

C. Router(config)#router ospf area 0

D. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

E. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0

F. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Answer: A D

Explanation

In the router ospf

command, theranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number -> A is correct but B is not correct.

To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the “network” statement, not a subnet mask. We also need to assgin an area to this

process -> D is correct.

Question 9

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU

B. Bandwidth

C. Bandwidth and MTU

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load

Answer: B

The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is

Cost = 108 / Bandwidth

so B is the correct answer.

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit. Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core-Router?

Neighbor_ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface

208.149.23.194 1 Full/DR 00:00:33 190.172.32.10 Ethernet1

208.149.23.60 1 Full/BDR 00:00:33 190.172.32.10 Ethernet0

208.149.23.130 1 Full/DR 00:00:39 190.172.32.10 Ethernet0

A. Core-Router is connected more than one multi-access network

B. The router at 208.149.23.130 is a secondary DR in case the primary fails.

C. Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election

D. The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.

Answer: A

Explanation

OSPF elects one DR per multi-access network. In the exhibit there are two DR so there must have more than one multi-access

network.

Question 11

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router?

A. 16

B. 2

C. unlimited

D. 4

Answer: D

Explanation

The default number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router is 4. We can change this

default value by using “maximum-paths” command:

Router(config-router)#maximum-paths 2

Note: Cisco routers support up to 16 equal-cost paths. In detail, the default number of maximum paths is 32 for Cisco CRS-1

routers and 16 for Cisco XR 12000 Series Routers. The range is from 1 to 32 for Cisco CRS-1 routers and 1 to 16 for Cisco XR

12000 Series Routers.

(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios_xr_sw/iosxr_r3.7/routing/configuration/guide/rc37ospf.html)

Question 12

What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a multiaccess network?

A. 10

B. 40

C. 30

D. 20

Answer: A

Explanation

On broadcast multiacess and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds. On NBMA, the default is 30 seconds.

Question 13


A. 120

B. 100

C. 90

D. 110

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios_xr_sw/iosxr_r3.7/routing/configuration/guide/rc37ospf.html

Answer: D

Question 14

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two)

A. hello packets






Answer: A C

Question 1

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three)

A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Answer: A C D

Question 2






E. It allows extensive control of routing updates

F. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.

Answer: A C E

Explanation

Answer A and C are obviously correct. For answer E, it allows extensive control of routing updates via Link-State

Advertisement (LSA). Administrators can filter these LSAs to meet their requirements easily.

Question 3

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to

the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial

configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?


Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

A. The process id is configured improperly.

B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.

C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

D. The network number is configured improperly.

E. The AS is configured improperly.

F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Answer: C

Question 4



After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF.

Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration

statement? (Choose three)

A. FastEthernet0/0

B. FastEthernet0/1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Answer: B C D

Explanation


+ Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)




Question 5

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF

router?

A. 16

B. 2

C. unlimited

D. 4

Answer: D

Explanation

The default number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router is 4. We can

change this default value by using “maximum-paths” command:


Note: Cisco routers support up to 6 equal-cost paths

Question 6

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router?

(Choose two)


A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.

B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.

C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes

D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.

E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Answer: C D

Question 7

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three)

A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.

B. to reduce the complexity of router configuration

C. to speed up convergence

D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

E. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth

F. to reduce routing overhead

Answer: A C F

Explanation

Hierarchical design of OSPF (basically means that you can separate the larger internetwork into smaller

internetworks called areas) helps us create a network with all features listed above (decrease routing overhead, speed

up convergence, confine network instability to single areas of the network).

Question 8

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to

OSPF area 0? (choose two)

A. Router(config)#router ospf 1

B. Router(config)#router ospf 0

C. Router(config)#router ospf area 0

D. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

E. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0

F. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Answer: A D

Explanation

In the router ospf command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number -> A is correct but B is not

correct.

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID

will OSPF use for this RouterD?


A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.316

Answer: C

Explanation


Question 10


A. 120

B. 100

C. 90

D. 110

Answer: D

Question 11

Why R1 can’t establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3 according to the following graphic? (Choose two)

A – Configure EIGRP on these routers with a lower administrative distance

B – All routers should be configured for backbone Area 1

C – R1 and R3 have been configured in different areas

D – The hello and dead interval timers are not configured the same values on R1 and R3

Answer: C D

Explanation

A is not correct because configure EIGRP on these routers (with a lower administrative distance) will force these

routers to run EIGRP, not OSPF.

B is not correct because the backbone area of OSPF is always Area 0.

C and D are correct because these entries must match on neighboring routers:




– Stub area flag

Question 12

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU

B. Bandwidth

C. Bandwidth and MTU

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load

Answer: B

Explanation

The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is

Cost = 108 / Bandwidth

so B is the correct answer.

Question 13

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot

establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf

interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this

problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.

C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.

F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Answer: D

Explanation

D is correct because these entries must match on neighboring routers:




– Stub area flag

In this case Ethernet0 of R1 has Hello and Dead Intervals of 5 and 20 while R2 has Hello and Dead Intervals of 10

and 40 -> R1 and R2 cannot form OSPF neighbor relationship.

Question 14

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database?

(Choose two)

A. hello packets






Answer: A C

Question 15


A. show ip ospf link-state

B. show ip ospf lsa database

C. show ip ospf neighbors

D. show ip ospf database

Answer: D

Question 16

When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?


B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.


D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router

Answer: B

Explanation

To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval, Dead interval and

AREA number.

Question 17

Which is true about OSPF router-id? (Choose two)

A. It is used for type 1 router LSA

B. Highest IP address of the loopback is used

C. router-id needs to be matched on ospf neighbors

D. router-id is 16 bit

Answer: A B

Explanation

OSPF LSA Type 1 (or Router LSA) is generated by all routers in an area to describe their directly attached links. An

example below shows this type of LSA:

As you can see, the LSA Type 1 uses the router ID to advertise itself (1.1.1.1 or 2.2.2.2).

The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the following sequence:


+ If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be

chosen.


ICND2 - Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (200-101)

QUESTION 21

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.

B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.

C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.

D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.

E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.

F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.

G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Answer: BG

Explanation:

http://www.ciscopress. com/articles/article. asp?p=24090&seqNum=6

http://www.ciscopress. com/articles/article. asp?p=24090

QUESTION 22

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A. ipv6 local

B. ipv6 host

C. ipv6 unicast-routing

D. ipv6 neighbor

Answer: C

Explanation:

Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path. Administrative

distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of

most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value. Lowest

Administrative distance will be choose first.EIGRP has 90 , RIP has 120 , OSPF has 110.

Route Source

Default Distance Values

Connected interface

Static route

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway

Protocol (BGP)

Internal EIGRP

IGRP

OSPF

Intermediate System-to-lntermediate System (IS-IS)

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)

On Demand Routing (ODR)

External EIGRP

Internal BGP

Unknown*

QUESTION 23

A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default

characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static

routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in

the IP routing table?

A. the route learned through EIGRP


B. the route learned through OSPF

C. the route learned through RIP

D. the route with the lowest metric

E. all three routes with the router load balancing

QUESTION 24

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set,

what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

RouterDS show ip interface brief

A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.3

Answer: C

Explanation:

OSPF uses the highest IP address of the loopback interfaces first. If there are no loopback

interfaces then OSPF will use the highest IP address of the active interfaces.

QUESTION 25

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the

graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As

part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF

priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.

Which routers are likely to have been elected as PR? (Choose two.)

Answer: A


A. Corp-1

B. Corp-2

C. Corp-3

D. Corp-4

E. Branch-1

F. Branch-2

Answer: DF

Explanation:

There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router.

Each segment will have a DR so we have 2 DRs.

To select which router will become DR they will compare their router-IDs. The router with highest

(best) router-ID will become DR. The router-ID is chosen in the order below:

The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface.

If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router's physical interfaces

will be chosen.

In this question, the IP addresses of loopback interfaces are not mentioned so we will consider IP

addresses of all active router's physical interfaces. Router Corp-4 (10.1.40.40) & Branch-2

(10.2.20.20) have highest "active" IP addresses so they will become DRs.

QUESTION 26

What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the

successor route to that destination network is in active status?

A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the

routing table.

B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.

C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths

to the destination network.

D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: C

Explanation:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f07.shtml

QUESTION 27

Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from

Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64

and 208.149.23.96?


Route e_A# show ip route

<output omitted>

208.149.23.0/27 is subnetted, 2 subnets

0 208.149.23.64 [110/12] via 190.171.23.10, 00:29:52, Serial 1/0

0 208.149.23.96 [110/12] via 19 0.171.23.10, 00:29:52, Serial 1/0

<output omitted>

A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13]

via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0

B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via

190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0

C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via

190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0

D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via

190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Answer: A

Explanation:

Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through

FastEthernet interface. The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth. For

FastEthernet it is 108 / 100 Mbps = 108 / 100,000,000 = 1. Therefore the cost is 12 (learned from

Router_A) + 1 = 1 3 for both subnets - B is not correct. The cost through T1 link is much higher than

through T3 link (T1 cost = 108 / 1.544 Mbps = 64; T3 cost = 108/45 Mbps = 2) so surely OSPF

will choose the path through T3 link -> Router_E will choose the path from Router_A through

FastEthernetO/0, not Serial1/0 - C & D are not correct. In fact, we can quickly eliminate answers B,

C and D because they contain at least one subnet learned from Serial1/0 - they are surely incorrect.

QUESTION 28


A. show ip ospf link-state

B. show ip ospf Isa database

C. show ip ospf neighbors

D. show ip ospf database

Answer: D


http://wwwxiscoxom/en/US/docs/ios/iproute_ospf/command/reference/iro_osp3.html#wp1 01 21 7

3

QUESTION 29


A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

Answer: C

Explanation:

Route Source

Default Distance Values

Connected interface

Static route

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway

Protocol (BGP)

Internal EIGRP

IGRP

OSPF

Intermediate System-to-lntermediate System (IS-IS)

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)

On Demand Routing (ODR)

External EIGRP

Internal BGP

Unknown*

QUESTION 30

The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:

interface fastethernet 0/4

switchport mode access

switchport port-security

switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111

switchport port-security maximum 2

swithcport port-security

What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?

A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1 1 11.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4

simultaneously

B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1 111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4

simultaneously

C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept

D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station

E. The port is effectively shutdown

Answer: BD

Explanation:

http://www.cisco.eom/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12.2/20ewa/configuration/guide/port_

sec. html


QUESTION 31

Refer to the exhibit. Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an

unknown packet?

Switch feonfiig}«tnB«rf«c* f«jcach«ra«t 0/1 \ \ \ \ \3

Switch iconfig-if) *»wi^chpcrt mod* ten mo ( ^~\^>'

Sw2-T,di i config— ifi | switchpozr, j}n*-t*- ^BfijAiSy ■

3ki-c£l ■; cenzig-i i : fsvi-Eeiipcrr,, pari-jeauriLj igninim 3

Switch ■! config-i ft (switch?-: ri poet -security mac-address sticky

Switch teoef ig-ii \ »ihi^Î^ \\

A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages

B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages

C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages

D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Answer: D

Explanation:


sec. html

QUESTION 32

A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise,

the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Hostl to Host2 fails, but the

technician is able to ping the SO/0 interface of R2 from Hostl . The configurations of the hosts have

been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?

A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.

B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.

C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.

D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.

E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to

send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes

along a proper route to the destination node. A remote network is a network that can only be

reached by sending the packet to another router. Remote networks are added to the routing table

using either a dynamic routing protocol or by configuring static routes. Static routes are routes to

networks that a network administrator manually configured. So R should have static route for the

192.168.1.128.

QUESTION 33

Refer to the exhibit. What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source

MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)


Switch# show port- security interface faO/2 0

port becurity :

hnajo lea

Port status ;

Secure -up

Violation Mode ;

Re strict

J h V — 1 V~S .■ — V 1 1 1 ~ 1 >~r - i . — - 1

Ag ing i line

Aging Type ;

inactivity

Secure Stat ic Address Aging :

ui saJoiea

Maximum MAC Addresses ;

2

Total MAC Addresses : 2

Configured MAC Addresses : 0

Sticky MAC Addresses : 2

Last Source Address :Vlan :

0009. 7C10 .8E8C:50

Security Violation Count : 1

A. Send an SNMP trap.

B. Send a syslog message.

C. Increment the Security Violation counter.

D. Forward the traffic.

E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.

F. Shut down the port.

Answer: ABC

Explanation:


sec. html

QUESTION 34

What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?

A. local DLCI on the subinterface

B. remote DLCI on the main interface

C remote DCLI on the subinterface

D. local DLCI on the main interface

Answer: A

Explanation:

To assign a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to a specified Frame Relay subinterface on the

router or access server, or to assign a specific permanent virtual circuit (PVC) to a DLCI, or to apply

a virtual template configuration for a PPP session, use the frame-relay interface-dlci interface

configuration command

QUESTION 35

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A. Administratively shut down the interface.

B. Physically secure the interface.


C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.

D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.

E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Answer: DE

Explanation:

It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the

virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces -> A is not correct. We can not physically secure a

virtual interface because it is "virtual" -> B is not correct. To apply an access list to a virtual terminal

interface we must use the "access-class" command. The "access-group" command is only used to

apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is not correct; E is correct.

The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password

to prevent unauthorized login -> D is correct.

QUESTION 36

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the

192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

192. 168.1 0.64.'26 192.168.10.192.26

1 92 . 1 68 . 1 0 .0/24 is variab ly subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks

D 192.168.10.64/26 [90/2195456] via 192.168.10.9, 00:03:31, SerialO/0

D 192.168.10.0/30 [90/2681856] via 192.168.10.9, 00:03:31, SerialD/0

[90/26S1856] via 192.168.10.5, 00:03:31, SerialD/1

C 1 92 . 1 6 8 . 1 0 .4/30 is directly comiected, S erial 0/ 1

C 1 92 . 1 6 8 . 1 0 .8/30 is directly connected, S eiial 0/0

C 1 92 . 1 6 8 . 1 0 . 1 92 S26 is dire ctly connected, FastEthemetO/0

D 192.168.10.128/26 [90/2195456] via 192.168.10.5, 00:03:31, Seiial0/1

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 .

B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.

C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1 .

D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 .

Answer: C

Explanation:

From the routing table we learn that network 192.168.10.0/30 is learned via 2 equal- cost paths

(192.168.10.9 &1 92. 168. 10. 5) - traffic to this network will be load-balancing.

QUESTION 37


Refer to the exhibit. What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?

Main_Campus

10.2.3.4/30

Main_Campus# show ip iirteface brief

Interface

FastEthernetO/0

FastEthernetO/0.1

FastEthemetOffl.2

FastEthernetO/D.3

Fast Ethernet*) 0.4

SerialOffl

Serial0/1

Main Campus#

| FaO.D

10.2.3.8/30

IP-Address

OK?

Method

unassigned YES

unset 192.168.1.254 YES

manual 192.168.2.254 YES

manual 192.168.3.254 YES

manual 192.168.4.254 YES

manual 10.2.3.5 YES

manual 10.2.3.9 YES

manual Status Protocol up up up up up up up up up up up up up up

A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.

B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.

C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.

D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.

E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Interface fa0/0 breaks into sub interface and Main_Campus router is connected with switch via

fa0/0 .Subinterfaces configured with different subnet mask so its seem switch has multiple vlans

and allow communication between vlan , router and inter-vlan we need to make a trunk port. So B

will be the correct answer.

QUESTION 38

Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All

the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs

have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this co nfiguration?

FaO/0.1 - 172.19.1.254 I24 VLAN 1

FaO/0.2 - 1 72.1 9.2.254 124 VLAN 2

FatV0.3 - 1 72.1 9.3.254 124 VLAN 3

VLAfl2

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:


C-router(config)# router eigrp 123

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router ospf 1

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router rip

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

D. No further routing configuration is required.

Answer: D

Explanation:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk815/technologies_configuration_example09186a00800

949fd.shtml

QUESTION 39

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In

addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route

configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?

network 172.16.100.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

network 172.16.100.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

network 172.16.100.128 0.0.0.31 area 0

default-information originate

A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.

B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.

C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately

because of the lack of a gateway on R1 .

D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0,

172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.

E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed

to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.

Answer: E

Explanation:

First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless

R1 Routing Commands:\

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serialO/0

router ospf 1


of the administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three

networks (172.16.100.0 0.0.0.3, 172.16.100.64 0.0.0.63, 172.16.100.128 0.0.0.31) so the packets

destined for these networks will not be affected by the default route. The default route configured

on R1 "ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0 will send any packet whose destination network is not

referenced in the routing table of router R1 to R2, it doesn't drop anything so answers A, B and C

are not correct. D is not correct too because these routes are declared in R1 and the question says

that "OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2, so network directly connected to router R2

can communicate with those three subnetworks. As said above, the default route configured on R1

will send any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in its routing table to R2; R2 in

turn sends it to R1 because it is the only way and a routing loop will occur.

QUESTION 40

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly.

How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?

network 1 72.1 6.1 00.1 28 0.0.0.31 area 0

default- information originate

A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1 .

B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1 .

C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1 , but will not obtain a default route from R1 .

D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks

will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.

Answer: A

Explanation:

"ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0" is causing a loop, configuration is going to cause a loop and the

link between R1 and R2 will be congested, OSPF will not perform relationship between them. From

its name, OSPF is a Link-State routing protocol, and the link state between R1 and R2 is simply

down or something like that.

The output of the “show ip ospf database” is shown below:

From the output above we can see LSA Type 1 (Router Link State) and LSA Type 3 (Summary Net Link State).

Question 2

Question 3

Explanation


DRs.







DRs.

Question 4

Explanation

The default number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router is 4. We can change this

default value by using “maximum-paths” command:


Note: Cisco routers support up to 16 equal-cost paths

Question 5

Explanation


Question 6

Explanation

A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we

use that loopback interface as the router-id) -> B is correct.

The router-ID is chosen in the order below:



-> The loopback interface will be chosen as the router ID of RouterB -> C is correct.

Question 7

Explanation

The question states that the link to ISP should not participate in OSPF -> answers A, B are not correct.

In answer D, the “network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0” does not cover the IP address of S0/0.103 (10.10.2.21) -> D is not correct.

The default-information originate command advertises a default route to other routers, telling something like “please send me

your unknown traffic”. So in this case, besides a full routing table, other routers will also receive a default route from Core router.

But please notice that Core router needs to have a default route in its routing table. That is why the command “ip route 0.0.0.0

0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14” is added to Core router. By adding the “always” (after “default-information originate” command) the default

route will be advertised even if there is no default route in the routing table of router Core.

Question 8

Explanation


+ Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)




http://www.aiotestking.com/cisco/what-does-the-128-refer-to-in-the-router-output-above/

http://wap.testsnow.net/1/1768/22177.html

http://www.2passeasy.com/dumps/200-101/demo-2.html

Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) (100-101)

QUESTION 41

Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask

255.255.255.224?

A. 192.168.2.63

B. 192.168.2.62

C. 192.168.2.61

D. 192.168.2.60

E. 192.168.2.32

Answer: B

Explanation:

With the 224 there are 8 networks with increments of 32 One of these is 32 33 62 63 where 63 is

broadcast so 62 is last valid host out of given choices.

QUESTION 42

An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will

allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new

configuration?

A. Router# show startup-config

B. Router# show current-config


D. Router# show memory

E. Router# show flash

http://www.aiotestking.com/cisco/what-does-the-128-refer-to-in-the-router-output-above/

http://wap.testsnow.net/1/1768/22177.html

http://www.2passeasy.com/dumps/200-101/demo-2.html

F. Router# show processes

Answer: C

Explanation:

This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin

will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 43

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)

A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.

B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.

D. CDP is a network layer protocol.

E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.

F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.

Answer: BCE

Explanation:

CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators

collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather

hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for

troubleshooting and documenting the network.

QUESTION 44

On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces? (Choose

two.)

A. Router# show interfaces

B. Router# show ip protocols

C. Router# debug interface

D. Router# show ip interface brief

E. Router# show start

Answer: AD

Explanation:

Both these commands will show the current status of the interfaces, either in show or debug mode

both will display the information.

QUESTION 45

Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?

A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19

B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0

C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0

D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0

E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0

F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240

Answer: D

Explanation:

255.255.224 equal /19 in CIDR format hence the answer

QUESTION 46

Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in

the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?

A. R2 and R3

B. R1 and R3

C. R3 and S2

D. R1, S1, S2, and R3

E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3

Answer: C

Explanation:

A Cisco device enabled with CDP sends out periodic interface updates to a multicast address in

order to make itself known to neighbors. Since it is a layer two protocol, these packets are not

routed. So the devices detected would be immediate connected neighbors.

QUESTION 47

Refer to the exhibit. The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been

restarted. At a minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information

between R1 and R2?

A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command.

B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

Answer: B

Explanation:

If the shut down commands are not entered, then CDP can exchange information between the two

routers, else it would fail.

QUESTION 48

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the

newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success

rate of only 60 percent?

HQ

172.16.1.0(24

SO 0 Branch

1010. 10,2/24 ,

S0.O 10.10.10,1/24 E0

l92.16*,2.254/24

Application Server 192.168.2.167/24 tr

Type aicspa S4q>j«ifi4 t« Abo

Sending 5, 100-byce ICHP Eclnos co 192.163.2.167, tinecut is Z seconds:

Succas* r«îl^^^p^^«wfe^3/S) , romd-erip Bin/avoj/max ■ 1/2/4 Bf

Bl inn-.: ping 11? 14t ? 167

Type escape sequence to abort.

2«ndin? S, 100-byca XCHP Bchos to 192. 166. Z . 167, ciMOUt it Z saconds:

Success rate is 100 percent (5/5 J:, rtHind^trip ■in/avg/max

Brandt*

1/1/1

A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.

B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.

C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.

D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.

E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Initially the MAC address had to be resolved, but later on it was confirmed to ping went straight

away

QUESTION 49

What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)

A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces

B. computes the destination host address

C. determines the next hop on the path

D. updates the destination IP address

E. forwards ARP requests

Answer: AC

Explanation:

Without following these two processes namely switching the packet to appropriate interface and

telling the packet where to go by providing it with a destination IP address, the purpose of the same

would not be solved.

QUESTION 50

Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.)

A. examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next

hops for the packets

B. update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops

C. examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next

hops for the packets

D. examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete

paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations

E. update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid

next hops

F. update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their

ultimate destinations

Answer: BC

Explanation:

This is the basic function of the router to receive incoming packets and then forward them to their

required destination. This is done by reading layer 3 headers of inbound packets and update the

info to layer 2 for further hopping.

QUESTION 51

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

Stub Network

Network 10.0.0.0 172.1 < sO/0/0

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.2

A. This is a default route.

B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.

C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.

D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.

E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1 .0 network can

reach network 10.0.0.0.

Answer: AC

Explanation:

This is obviously the default value for the route which is set between the routers and since it is

entered in such a manner that it ensures connectivity between the stub network and any host lying

beyond RouterA.

QUESTION 52

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)

A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.

B. They guarantee datagram delivery.

C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.

D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.

E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 53


No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true

about this command?

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.

B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.

C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.

D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.

Answer: C

160 it's actually network address of /27 so any address within the range of 160 network will be sent

to 192.168.10.2

QUESTION 54

Refer to the exhibit. Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the

network administrator solve this problem?

192.168.1.2/24

A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.

B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.

C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the

original switch.

D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate through a simple

switch mechanism

QUESTION 55

Refer to the exhibit. What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office

network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?

A. routerl(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2

B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2

C. routerl(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1

D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1

Answer: D

Explanation:

The fourth command makes it possible for all hosts beyond R2 and all hosts beyond

R1 to interact with each other, hence it is the most simplest technique.

QUESTION 56

Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Routerl to

network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?

Routerl 192.168.201.1 192.168.201.2 Router2

A. routerl (config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

B. routerl (config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1

C. routerl (config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

D. routerl (config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

Answer: D

Explanation:

Since it has /24 CIDR and it also has a non default administrative distance, the answer has to be

option D.

QUESTION 57

What does administrative distance refer to?

A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers

B. the advertised cost to reach a network

C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set

D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source

Answer: D

Explanation:

Administrative distance is the first criterion that a router uses to determine which routing protocol

to use if two protocols provide route information for the same destination. Administrative distance

is a measure of the trustworthiness of the source of the routing information. The smaller the

administrative distance value, the more reliable the protocol.

QUESTION 58

Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY port on a remote router?

A. router# login

B. router# telnet

C. router# trace

D. router# ping

E. router(config)# line vty 0 5

F. router(config-line)# login

Answer: B

Explanation:

VTY ports are telnet ports hence command B will initiate login to the telnet port.

QUESTION 59

In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify?

A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation.

B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted.

C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.

D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Overload simply means using multiple hosts to access the network using the same translated IP

address.

QUESTION 60

What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a

Cisco router running PAT?

A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.

B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection.

C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table.

D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of

the connection.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Port Address Translation makes the PC connect to the Internet but using different TCP source port

QUESTION 61


No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this

command?

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.

B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.

C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.

D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 62

Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.)

A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for

the packets

B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops

C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for

the packets

D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths

along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations

E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next

hops

F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate

destinations

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 63

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This is a default route.

B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.

C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.

D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.

E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach

network 10.0.0.0.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 64

Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of

a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?

http://www.pass-exams.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/08/clip_image00218.jpg

A. R2 and R3

B. R1 and R3

C. R3 and S2

D. R1, S1, S2, and R3

E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 65

Refer to the exhibit. The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been restarted. At a

minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information between R1 and R2?

A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command.

B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 66

Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface?

(Choose two.)

A. router#show version



B. router#show ip interface

C. router#show protocols

D. router#show controllers

E. router#show running-config

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 67

An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the

administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?

A. Router# show startup-config

B. Router# show current-config


D. Router# show memory

E. Router# show flash

F. Router# show processes

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 68

On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. Router# show interfaces

B. Router# show ip protocols

C. Router# debug interface

D. Router# show ip interface brief

E. Router# show start

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 69

Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?

A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19

B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0

C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0

D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0

E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0

F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 70

Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which

router prompt will be displayed?

A. Router1>

B. Router1#

C. Router2>

D. Router2#

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 61

When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what?

A. local

B. inside

C. global

D. outside

Answer: D

Explanation:


Network address translation or NAT requires the Internet to be considered as an outside interface

else it won't serve the purpose it intends to.

QUESTION 62

The ip helper-address command does what?

A. assigns an IP address to a host

B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server

C. relays a DHCP request across networks

D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue

Answer: C

Explanation:

When the DHCP client sends the DHCP request packet, it doesn't have an IP address. So it uses

the all-zeroes address, 0.0.0.0, as the IP source address. And it doesn't know how to reach the

DHCP server, so it uses a general broadcast address, 255.255.255.255, for the destination. So the

router must replace the source address with its own IP address, for the interface that received the

request. And it replaces the destination address with the address specified in the ip helper-address

command. The client device's MAC address is included in the payload of the original DHCP request

packet, so the router doesn't need to do anything to ensure that the server receives this information.

QUESTION 63

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then saved

the configuration. From a console connection, what password or password sequence is required

for the administrator to access privileged mode on Routerl?

Route r# configure terminal

Router (conf ig) # hostname Routerl

Routerl (config) § enable secret sanfran

Routerl (config) § enable password cisco

Routerl (config) § line irty 0 4

Routerl (conf ig-line) § password sanjose

Routerl (conf ig-line) §

A. Cisco

B. sanfran

C. sanjose

D. either cisco or sanfran

E. either cisco or sanjose

F. sanjose and sanfran

Answer: B

Explanation:

The enable secret password takes precedence over the enable password, so sanfran will be used.

QUESTION 64

The following commands are entered on the router:

Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress

Burbank(config)# line con 0

Burbank(config-line)# login

Burbank(config-line)# password nOwayln

Burbank(config-line)# exit

Burbank(config)# service password-encryption

What is the purpose of the last command entered?

A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process

B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the

configuration files

C. to encrypt the enable secret password

D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router

Answer: B

QUESTION 65

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.

B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.

C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.

D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.

E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

Answer: E

Explanation:

Encryption further adds a level of security to the system as anyone having access to the database

of passwords cannot reverse the process of encryption to know the actual passwords which isn't

the case if the passwords are stored simply.

QUESTION 66

An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the

dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration.

What must be done to accomplish this?

A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.

B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.

C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.

D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the

configuration.

Answer: A

Explanation:

One can configure MAC addresses to be sticky. These can be dynamically learned or manually

configured, stored in the address table, and added to the running configuration. If these addresses

are saved in the configuration file, the interface does not need to dynamically relearn them when

the switch restarts, hence enabling security as desired.

QUESTION 67

A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate

directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their

laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which

three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)

A. Enable port security.

B. Create the port as a trunk port.

C. Create the port as an access port.

D. Create the port as a protected port.

E. Set the port security aging time to 0.

F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.

G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.

Answer: ACF

Explanation:

If port security is enabled and the port is only designated as access port, and finally static MAC

address is assigned, it ensures that even if a physical connection is done by taking out the directory

PC and inserting personal laptop or device, the connection cannot be made to the corporate

network, hence ensuring safety.

QUESTION 68

Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port

B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN

C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port

D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces

Answer: B

Explanation:

You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying MAC

addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to

a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the group of defined

addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure

MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of the port. If a

port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached,

when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of the

identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure MAC

address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a

violation is flagged.

QUESTION 69

How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?

A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.

B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.

C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors.

D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from

spoofing

the server IP address.

Answer: B

Explanation:

When the MAC address is configured as static entry, no other address is allowed.

QUESTION 70

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote

management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit.

However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be

done to fix this problem?

interface vlan 1 login exit

A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1 .

B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1 .

C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.

D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.

E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The default gateway for remote session is 192.168.17.241 and not the one given in the exhibit.

QUESTION 71

Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)

A. 10.1.168.0

B. 10.1.176.1

C. 10.1.174.255

D. 10.1.160.255

E. 10.1.160.0

F. 10.1.175.255

Answer: ACD

Explanation:

All IP address in IP ranges between : 10.1 .160.1 and 10.1.175.254 are valid as shown below

Address: 10.1.160.0 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000 Netmask:255.255.240.0 =

201 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 .1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 .1 1 1 1 0000.00000000 Wildcard^. 0. 1 5.25500000000.00000000.0000

1111.11111111 Which implies that

Network: 10.1.160.0/20 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000

HostMin:10. 1.160. 100001010.00000001. 1010 0000.00000001

HostMax:10. 1.175.25400001010. 00000001. 1010 1111.11111110

Broadcast: 10.1.1 75.25500001 0 1 0.00000001 .1010 1111.11111111

QUESTION 72

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem,

the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what

could be the problem?

ip address 192.168.17.253 255.255.255.240

no shutdown

ip default -gate way 19:

line vty 0 15

192.168.10.64»26

192.168. 10 .8.' 30

Rl^show controllers serial 0/0

HD miit 0, idb=QxD21B4, driver stmture 0xD7640

Buffer srêj 524 HDUnit 0,

V.35 cable

RX ring witli 16 entiles at 0x622800

«Outpnt oniitted»

TXring with 16 entries at 0x623000

«Output oinitted»

ft .168.10.192/26

A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.

B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.

C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.

D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.

E. The serial interface has a full buffer.

Answer: C

Explanation:

since the output is not forthcoming it shows that the type of cable attached is wrong, though the

cable is connected since it shows the cable type. According to the figure DTE cable should connect

to R1 on interface but while examining using show controllers serial 0/0 command it showing that

a DCE is connected so the wrong type of cable is being used.

QUESTION 73

Refer to the exhibit. A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network

administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After

establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY

router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?

172.16.2.5 129

TFTP Seiver

172.16.1.101

255.255.255.240

A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.

B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.

C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.

D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The subnet mast of the TFTP server needs to be in tune with the other network requirements else

it wont be possible.

QUESTION 74

If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining

connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?

A. half-duplex operation

B. broadcast storms

C. network segmentation

D. multicasting

Answer: B

Explanation:

A broadcast storm can consume sufficient network resources so as to render the network unable

to transport normal traffic.

QUESTION 75

Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended

configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network

expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP

address space.

192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 192.168.100.255

What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)

router

500 users 1 92.1 68.1 .0/24 AREA 1

GO ysers 192.168.2.0/24 AREA 2

200 users 192.168.3.0124 AREA 3

J Network Expansion Project Phase 1 Planning

A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.

D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.

E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.

F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.

Answer: ACE

Explanation:

The given IP addresses of areas 1 and 3 along with network masks of 24 cannot accommodate

500 users so are inadequate, while the area 2 is having over capacity so its network mask can be

reduced to 25 to accommodate the only 60 users it has.

QUESTION 76

Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?

A. 192.168.1.8/29

B. 192.168.1.32/27

C. 192.168.1.40/29

D. 192.168.1.16/28

E. 192.168.1.48/29

Answer: C

Explanation:

248 mask uses 5 bits (1111 1 000)

42 IP in binary is (0010 1010)

The base subnet therefore is the lowest binary value that can be written without changing the output

of an AND operation of the subnet mask and IP ...

1111 1000 AND

0010 1010 equals

0010 1000 - which is .40

124 is standard class C mask.

adding the 5 bits from the .248 mask gives 129

QUESTION 77


A. application

B. session

C. transport

D. network

E. data link

F. physical

Answer: D

Explanation:

Only network address contains this information. To transmit the packets the sender uses network

address and datalink address. But the layer 2 address represents just the address of the next hop

device on the way to the sender. It is changed on each hop. Network address remains the same.

QUESTION 78


A. Internet layer

B. transport layer

C. application layer


Answer: D

Explanation:

The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet.

The TCP/IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the

foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World

Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the

Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD's goal was to

bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the

largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model

rather then the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.

TCP/IP Model VS. OSI Model Application Layer 7

Application

Layer 6

Presentation

Layer 5

Session Transport Layer 4

Transport Internet Layer 3

Network Network Access Layer 2

Data Link

Layer 1

Physical

QUESTION 79


A. TFTP

B. DNS

C. FTP

D. SNMP

E. RIP

Answer: C

QUESTION 80

Refer to the exhibit. If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually

eliminated?

A. broadcast domains

B. repeater domains

C. Ethernet collisions

D. signal amplification

E. Ethernet broadcasts

Answer: C

Explanation:

Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device

directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in

the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full

duplex links.

http://www.aiotestking.com/cisco/what-will-the-switch-do-when-it-receives-the-frame-from-host-a-2/

http://www.ccna5ccnp.com/ccna1-v5-1/ccna1-chapter-5-exam-v5-1/

QUESTION 21

Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is

shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame?

(Choose two.)

MAC Address Table

Fa0/1 0000.00bb.bbbb

FaO/2 0000.00cc.occc

0000 .00 1) I). I) I) I) I)

000.00aa.aaaa

0000.00cc.cccc

ETHERNET FRAME

ffff.ffff.fffT

OOOO.OOaa.aaaa

Destination MAC

Source MAC

Data

http://www.aiotestking.com/cisco/what-will-the-switch-do-when-it-receives-the-frame-from-host-a-2/

http://www.ccna5ccnp.com/ccna1-v5-1/ccna1-chapter-5-exam-v5-1/

A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.

B. The MAC address of OOOO.OOaa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.

C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.

D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0.

E. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.

F. The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.

Answer: BD

Explanation:

If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame

directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would have

been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.

QUESTION 22


another vendor?

A. RTP

B. TCP

C. CDP

D. UDP

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Cisco Unified IP Phone uses CDP to communicate information such as auxiliary VLAN ID, per

port power management details, and Quality of Service (QoS) configuration information with the

Cisco Catalyst switch.

QUESTION 23

Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to

switch SW-A through router RT-A?

A. VLAN 1 on RT-A

B. IP routing on SW-A

C. default gateway on SW-A

D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

Answer: C

Explanation:

In order for the switch to reach networks that are not local, such as networks attached to different

interfaces of the router, it will need to set its default gateway to be the IP address of the attached

router.

QUESTION 24



A. drop the frame

B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it

C. forward it out of all ports

D. store it until it learns the correct port

Answer: B

QUESTION 25

At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by

the show cdp neighbors command operate?

A. application

B. transport

C. network

D. physical

E. data link

Answer: E

Explanation:

CDP is a device discovery protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco-

manufactured devices (routers, bridges, access servers, and switches) and allows network

management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices.

With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the Simple Network

Management Protocol (SNMP) agent address of neighboring devices running lower-layer,

transparent protocols.

QUESTION 26

Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)

A. increases the number of collision domains

B. decreases the number of collision domains

C. implements VLAN

D. decreases the number of broadcast domains

E. uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

Answer: AC

Explanation:

Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch

port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 27

Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an

interface? (Choose two.)

A. router#show version

B. router#show ip interface

C. router#show protocols

D. router#show controllers

E. router#show running-config

Answer: CD

Explanation:

Router#show protocols displays status of configured Layer 2 and 3 protocols while show controllers

Displays statistics for interface hardware including the current IP address

QUESTION 28


(Choose two.)

A. layer 3 support

B. port security


D. VLANs

E. PoE

Answer: AB

Explanation:

Benefits of a Hierarchical Network Scalability:

The modularity of the design of hierarchical networks allows you to replicate design elements as

the network grows including the use of layer 3 support on network swithces.

Because each instance of the module is consistent, expansion is easy to plan and implement.

Redundancy: Redundancy at the core and distribution layers ensures path availability in case of

any hardware failure in any of the devices on these layers. Performance: Link aggregation between

levels and high- performance core and distribution level switches allows for near wire speed

throughout the network. Properly designed hierarchical networks can achieve near wire speed

between all devices. Security: Port security at the access level, and policies at the distribution layer

make the network more secure, is important to keep the core layer free from any tasks that may

compromise the speed of the link, all security should be handled at the access and distrubution

layers. Manageability: Consistency between switches at each level makes management more

simple. Each layer of the hierarchical design performs specific functions that are consistent

throughout that layer. Therefore, if you need to change the functionality of an access layer switch,

you could repeat that change across all access layer switches in the network because they

presumably perform the same functions at their layer. Maintainability:

Because hierarchical networks are modular in nature and scale very easily, they are easy to

maintain. With other network topology designs, manageability becomes increasingly complicated

as the network grows. In the hierarchical model, switch functions are different at each layer. You

can save money by using less expensive access layer switches at the lowest layer, and spend

more on the distribution and core layer switches to achieve high performance on the network.

QUESTION 29

Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C.

What will the switch do with the frame?

Host A

Host B

HostC

Host D

Switch 1 switch table

Host MAC Address Port

A ^

00-0A-SA-47-E6-12

0/5

D

01-00-CD-22-03-14

0/9

B

01-1B-25-AB-32-E8 0/2

A. drop the frame

B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2

C. return the frame to Host B

D. send an ARP request for Host C

E. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B

F. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C

Answer: B

Explanation:

An Ethernet switch appeal's to use the same logic as a transparent bridge. However, the internal

logic of the switch is optimized for performing the basic function of choosing when to forward

and when to filter a frame. Just as with a transparent bridge, the basic logic of a LAN switch is

as follows:

Step 1 A frame is received.

Step 2 If the destination is a broadcast or multicast, forward on all ports.

Step 3 If the destination is a nnicast and the address is not in tile address

table, forward on ah ports.

Step 4 If the destination is a unicast and the address is in the address

table, forward the frame out the associated port, unless the MAC

addies s is associated with the incoming port.

QUESTION 30

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?





Answer: B

Explanation:

Switch is a layer 2 device and doesn't use network layer for packet forwarding. The IP address may

be used only for administrative purposes such as Telnet access or for network management

purposes.

QUESTION 31

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose

three.)

A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.

C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network

media before transmitting.

E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE

Explanation:

Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire

pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol

to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached

to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect

collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet-typically 1 0BaseT-is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco

sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps-at most. Full-

duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex

uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver

of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data

transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of

wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don't need to worry about

collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the

single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent

efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full

duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32

What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?

A. 172.19.20.0

B. 172.19.20.15

C. 172.19.20.16

D. 172.19.20.20

E. 172.19.20.32

Answer: C

QUESTION 33

What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A. 172.16.0.0

B. 172.16.128.0

C. 172.16.156.0

D. 172.16.159.0

E. 172.16.159.128

F. 172.16.192.0

Answer: C

Explanation:

Converting to binary format it comes to

11111111.11111111.111111 00.00000000 or

255.255.252.0

Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34

An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26

mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A. 192.168.4.61

B. 192.168.4.63

C. 192.168.4.67

D. 192.168.4.125

E. 192.168.4.128

F. 192.168.4.132

Answer: CD

Explanation:

Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others

lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35

Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet

mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1. Which address could be

assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

A. 192.168.1.31

B. 192.168.1.64

C. 192.168.1.127

D. 192.168.1.190

E. 192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36

What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A. 192.168.23.0

B. 192.168.23.32

C. 192.168.23.48

D. 192.168.23.56

E. 192.168.23.60

Answer: C

Explanation:

convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits

used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets

each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet,

that subnet's first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on

above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37

What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.

B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.

C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.

D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than

use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38

Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The

network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three

subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

Net bits Subnet mask total -ad dresses per subnet m 255.255.240.0 4096 m 255.255.248.0 2048 122

255.255.252.0 1024 m 255.255.254.0 512 m 255 255 255 0 255 255.255 123 128 ,'26 255 255 255 192

64 /27

255.255.255.224 32 /28

255.255.255.240 16

255.255.255.248 8 m

255.255.255.252 4

A. 255.255.255.192

B. 255.255.255.224

C. 255.255.255.240

D. 255.255.255.248

E. 255.255.255.252

Answer: A

Explanation:

Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are

sufficient to accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.

QUESTION 39

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A. The subnet address is 1 0.1 6.3.0 255.255.254.0.

B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.

C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0

D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.

E. The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD

Explanation:

The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits

and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 - 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2,

4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the

broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40

Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses

are available on each of the subnets?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

E. 252

F. 254

Answer: B

Explanation:

/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11 1 11 100 which means 6 subnet

bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

Questions 181. Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit.

According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will

SwitchA handle this frame?

A. It will drop the frame.

B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.

C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.

D. It will flood the frame out all ports.

E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

Answer: E


The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A

sends a data frame to host

D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table

and forward the frame to host D.

B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host

C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.

D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC

address table and forward the frame to host D.

Answer: A

Questions 183. Which two statements describe the operation of the

CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)

A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully

transmit data simultaneously.

B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not

in use before transmitting.

C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to

improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.

D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to

resend the lost data.

E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the

backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit

data.

F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm

and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.

Answer: B,E


A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately

describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)

A. Network Device A is a switch.

B. Network Device B is a switch.

C. Network Device A is a hub.

D. Network Device B is a hub.

E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.

F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.

Answer: A,D,E

Questions 185. On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached

VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?

A. RTP

B. TCP

C. CDP

D. UDP

Answer: C


What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to

switch SW-A through router RT-A?

A. VLAN 1 on RT-A

B. IP routing on SW-A

C. default gateway on SW-A

D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

Answer: C

Questions 187. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that

provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors

command operate?

A. application

B. transport

C. network

D. physical

E. data link

Answer: E

Questions 188. Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose

two.)

A. Increases the number of collision domains

B. Decreases the number of collision domains

C. Implements VLAN

D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains

E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

Answer: A,C

Questions 189. Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the

hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)

A. layer 3 support

B. port security


D. VLANs

E. PoE

Answer: B,D

Questions 190. Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the

graphic.

Host B sends a frame to Host

C. What will the switch do with the frame?

A. Drop the frame

B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2

C. Return the frame to Host B

D. Send an ARP request for Host C

E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B

F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the

frame directly to Host C

Answer: B

Questions 211. At startup, what does a router do if it cannot access a

configuration file?

A. It shuts down in 10 seconds.

B. It enters global configuration mode.

C. It prompts the user to enter setup mode.

D. It displays the prompt for user exec mode.

E. It prompts for the location of the configuration file.

Answer: C

Questions 212. The following commands are entered on the router:

Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress

Burbank(config)# line con 0

Burbank(config-line)# login

Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n

Burbank(config-line)# exit

Burbank(config)# service password-encryption

What is the purpose of the last command entered?

A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process

B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in

plain text in the configuration files

C. to encrypt the enable secret password

D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router

Answer: B

Questions 213. Which IOS command results in the output shown in the

following?

--- System Configuration Dialog ---

At any point you may enter a question mark '?' for help.

Use ctrl-c to abort configuration dialog at any prompt.

Default settings are in square brackets '[]'.

Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog? [yes/no]:

A. router# configure terminal

B. router# configure memory

C. router# copy running-config startup-config

D. router# copy startup-config running-config

E. router# setup

Answer: E

Questions 214. Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY

port on a remote router?

A. router# login

B. router# telnet

C. router# trace

D. router# ping

E. router(config)# line vty 0 5

F. router(config-line)# login

Answer: B

Questions 215. Which of the following are found in a TCP header, but not in

a UDP header? (Choose three.)

A. sequence number

B. acknowledgment number

C. source port

D. destination port

E. window size

F. checksum

Answer: A,B,E

Questions 216. What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?





Answer: B

Questions 217. Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the

graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host

C.

What will the switch do with the frame?

A. drop the frame

B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2

C. return the frame to Host B

D. send an ARP request for Host C

E. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B

F. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the

frame directly to Host C

Answer: B

Questions 218. From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to

create subnets?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Answer: A

Questions 219. A small company has a Class C network address and needs to

create five subnets, each

accommodating 25 hosts. Which subnet mask needs to be configured?

A. 255.255.240.0

B. 255.255.255.128

C. 255.255.255.192

D. 255.255.255.224

E. 255.255.255.240

F. 255.255.255.248

Answer: D

Questions 220. Which IP addresses are valid public Class A host addresses?

Assume the default Class A subnet mask is in use. (Choose two.)

A. 10.154.16.87

B. 11.22.33.44

C. 68.95.255.100

D. 127.0.0.1

E. 128.16.89.72

F. 131.241.78.3

Answer: B,C http://www.testsnow.net/txt/1/1770/22231.html CCNA 640-802 Ver 22-09-2008 page13

http://www.testsnow.net/txt/1/1770/22231.html

http://ccna-exam-preparation.blogspot.com/2009/03/ccna-640-802-ver-22-09-2008-page13_08.html

QUESTION 121

Part of the Certkiller switched LAN is shown below:

Based on the information show above, which device will provide the spanning-treedesignated port role for the Certkiller network

segment that services the printers?

A. Switch Certkiller A

B. Hub Certkiller E

C. Switch Certkiller C

D. Switch Certkiller B

E. Switch Certkiller D

F. None of the switches will provide the designated port role

Answer: C

Explanation:

Designated port A designated port is one that has been determined as having the best (lowest) cost. A designated port will be

marked as a forwarding port.

QUESTION 122

The Certkiller network administrator needs to a switch named CK1 to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched

network. What can be done to ensure that CK1 will always assume the role as the root bridge?

A. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have

B. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network

C. Configure the switch full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex operation

D. Configure the switch so that it has lower priority than other switches in the network

E. None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

Switch having lowest bridge ID will become the root bridge. The bridge ID is how STP keeps track of all the switches in the

network. It is determined by a combination of the bridge priority (32,768 by default on all Cisco switches) and the base MAC

address. The bridge with the lowest bridge ID becomes the root bridge in the network. To elect the desired switch as a root

bridge, set the bridge priority lowest than other switch.

QUESTION 123

Four Certkiller PCs connect to a single switch as shown below:

http://4.bp.blogspot.com/_pJ8Ih_cA_I0/SbQnnnUPfGI/AAAAAAAAANk/14sD8eFd4cA/s1600-h/121.JPG

In the Certkiller network shown above, switch Certkiller 1 has just been restartedand has passed the POST routine. Host

Certkiller A (the one on the left) sends its initial frame to Host Certkiller C. What is the first thing the switch will do as regards to

populating the switching table?

A. Switch Certkiller 1 will add 192.168.23.12 to the switching table

B. Switch Certkiller 1 will add 192.168.23.4 to the switching table

C. Switch Certkiller 1 will add 000B.DB95.2EE9 to the switching table

D. Switch Certkiller 1 will add 000A.8A47.E612 to the switching table


Answer: D

QUESTION 124

CK1 is a switch in the Certkiller network. Why will CK1 never learn the broadcast address?

A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches

B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch

C. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing

D. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame

E. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table

F. None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

There are three different address types:

* Unicast : One source to One destination

* Broadcast: One source to multiple destination

* Multicast: One source to multiple destination joined to group On unicast or broadcast or multicast communication, the source

address is always the unicast address but the destination address can be unicast, broadcast or multicast.

QUESTION 125

DRAG DROP

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in basic switch configurations.

Match the IOS command with theappropriate purpose.

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http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_pJ8Ih_cA_I0/SbQqPaYBKFI/AAAAAAAAAN0/_YwfNpYmilA/s1600-h/125.JPG

Answer:

Explanation:

enable : This command is used to enter into User Privileges Mode

configure terminal: This command is used to enter into global configuration mode

hostname : This command is used to set the hostname of switch

ip default-gateway : This command should enter should enter on global configuration mode to set default gateway of switch.

Interface vlan 1 : Enters into the vlan 1 SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) configuration mode, where you can enter vlan 1 SVI

interface specific configuration

ip add x.x.x.x y.y.y.y : Use to assign the ip address on interface

no shutdown: Brings the interface on up state from administratively down state

QUESTION 126

A Certkiller LAN is displayed in the diagram below:

Host Certkiller B sends a frame to host Certkiller C. What will the switch do with the frame?

A. Drop the frame

B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2

C. Return the frame to host Certkiller B

D. Send an ARP request for host Certkiller C

E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host Certkiller B

F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host Certkiller C

Answer: B

http://4.bp.blogspot.com/_pJ8Ih_cA_I0/SbQqcoJTGII/AAAAAAAAAN8/Xmzrwzl7PhM/s1600-h/125b.JPG

http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_pJ8Ih_cA_I0/SbQq4ClqU2I/AAAAAAAAAOE/icAUSI4rjiY/s1600-h/126.JPG

Explanation:

QUESTION 127

The following was seen on a Certkiller switch.

Certkiller 1 receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to thecommand output shown in the exhibit, how will

Certkiller 1 handle this frame?

A. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.

B. It will drop the frame.

C. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

D. It will flood the frame out all ports.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Switches learn the MAC addresses of PCs or workstation the are connected to their switch ports by examining the source address

of frames that are received on that port. Machines may have been removed from a port ,turned off, or moved to another port on

the same switch or a different switch. This could cause confusion in frame forwarding the MAC address entry is automatically

discard or ages out after 300 seconds if there is not MAC address of destination host in MAC table, switch sends broadcast to

all ports except the source to find out the destination host. In the output there is no MAC address of the given host so the switch

will flood to all ports except the source port, which is port fa 0/3.

QUESTION 128

Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit:

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http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_pJ8Ih_cA_I0/SbQrYf-GmvI/AAAAAAAAAOU/0kETr6RGWgE/s1600-h/127.JPG

Host Certkiller A sends a data frame to host Certkiller D. What will the Certkiller 1 switch do when it receives the frame from

host A?

A. The Certkiller 1 switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.

B. The Certkiller 1 switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host Certkiller A.

C. The Certkiller 1 switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host

D.

D. The Certkiller 1 switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host Certkiller

D.


Answer: D

Explanation:

When switch receives the data frame from the host not having the MAC address already in the MAC table, it will add the MAC

address to the source port on the MAC address table and sends the data frame. If the switch already has the MAC address in it's

table for the destination, as it is in this case, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in it's

MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.

QUESTION 129

Switch Certkiller A receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit.

According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will Switch Certkiller A handle this frame?

A. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.

C. It will flood the frame out all ports.

D. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.

E. It will drop the frame.

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http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_pJ8Ih_cA_I0/SbQr7iw1QGI/AAAAAAAAAOk/d4CZ8kUhAos/s1600-h/129.JPG

F. None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

When frame receives the frame, it checks the source address on MAC table if MACaddress found in MAC table it tries to

forward if not in MAC table adds the Address on MAC table. After checking the source address, it checks the destination address

on MAC table, if MAC address found on MAC table it forwards to proper ports otherwise floods on all ports except the source

port. In this case, the MAC address shown is already in the table so it will be forwarded directly.

QUESTION 130

Please study the exhibit shown below carefully.

Why does the switch have two MAC addresses assigned to the FastEthernet 0/1 port in the switch address table?

A. Either Host3 or Host4 has just had the NIC replaced.

B. Data from Host3 and Host4 has been received by switch port FastEthernet 0/1.

C. Host3 and Host4 are on two different VLANs.

D. Data from two of the devices connected to the switch has been sent to Host3.


Answer: B

Explanation:

Switches learn the MAC addresses of PCs or workstations that are connected to their switch ports by examining the source

address of frames that are received on that port. When more than one device is attached to a switch port, such as via the use of a

hub as shown in this example, the switch will retain the MAC address of each of the known devices on that port

CCNA 200-120

QUESTION 1

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Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

A. 252

B. 253*

C. 254

D. 255

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect

through a switch in the same LAN?

A. ping address*

B. tracert address

C. traceroute address

D. arp address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network

192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given

the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for

the sales server?

A. IP address: 192.168.20.14

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9

B. IP address: 192.168.20.254

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0


C. IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25**************

D. IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240


E. IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240


Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight

LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

A. 0.0.0.240

B. 255.255.255.252

C. 255.255.255.0

D. 255.255.255.224*

E. 255.255.255.240

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The

company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per

subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an

appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.255.128*

C. 255.255.252.0

D. 255.255.255.224

E. 255.255.255.192*

F. 255.255.248.0

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6

When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts?

(Choose two.)

A. network or subnetwork IP address*

B. broadcast address on the network*

C. IP address leased to the LAN

D. IP address used by the interfaces

E. manually assigned address to the clients

F. designated IP address to the DHCP server

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone.*

B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.

C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address.

D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.

E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8


An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI

layer is the problem?

A. data link layer

B. application layer

C. access layer

D. session layer

E. network layer*

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet

address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest

addresses?

A. 192.168.1.56/27

B. 192.168.1.64/26*

C. 192.168.1.64/27

D. 192.168.1.56/26

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10


All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network

addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

A. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26

B. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25*

C. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26

D. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30*

E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30

F. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with

the least amount of wasted addresses?

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.254.0*

C. 255.255.252.0

D. 255.255.248.0

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21

B. 10.0.0.0 /22*

C. 10.0.0.0 /23

D. 10.0.0.0 /24

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network

address?

A. 172.16.16.0*

B. 172.16.24.0

C. 172.16.0.0

D. 172.16.28.0

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23.

You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as

many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

A. 10.188.31.0/27*

B. 10.188.31.0/26

C. 10.188.31.0/29

D. 10.188.31.0/28

E. 10.188.31.0/25

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol

in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP

addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?

A. 8

B. 6

C. 30*

D. 32

E. 14

F. 16

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16

Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a

192.168.176.0/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to

R2? (Choose two.)

A. 192.168.194.160

B. 192.168.183.41*

C. 192.168.159.2

D. 192.168.183.255

E. 192.168.179.4*

F. 192.168.184.45

Correct Answer: BE

CCNA 2 v5.02 R&S Essentials Final Exam 2016

Last update Feb. 2016

1.

What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.

Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

2.

Fill in the blank.

In IPv6, all routes are level ” 1 ” ultimate routes.

3.

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

ingress port buffering

cut-through switching

store-and-forward switching

borderless switching

4.

Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to

networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0




5.

1

3

4

2

6.

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic

switched to by default?

data VLAN ID

native VLAN ID

unused VLAN ID

management VLAN ID

7.

A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5,

TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT

on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of

209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from

209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device

to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443

ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443

ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary.

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

8.

Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9.

A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when

filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN

in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific

network device

in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a

specific server

in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN

10

Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing

protocol configuration mode command.

The ipv6 route command was used.

the ip route command was used.

Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing

protocol.

11

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet

connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1

(config-if)# no switchport

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252

(config)# interface vlan 1

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1

(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4

(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# ip routing

12.

A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in

VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.

Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.

Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

All devices in all VLANs see the frame.

13

the correct answer of question 13 is

1- Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.

2- Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.

3- Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

4- Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database

5- Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best

14.

Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose

two.)

computer type

source TCP hello address

ICMP message type

destination UDP port number

destination MAC address

15

Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224

255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach

resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN

to reach the Internet?

Add an administrative distance of 254.

Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.

Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

16.

How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface

the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface

the highest IPv4 address on an active interface

the lowest MAC address on an active interface

17.

Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share

the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to

use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation

occurs?






switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport port-security violation restrict







switchport port-security violation protect

18.

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use?

(Choose two.)

speed of convergence

scalability

ISP selection

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

19

ultimate route

child route

default route

level 1 parent route

20.

What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-

disable state

01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by

MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to

down

01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.

NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.

Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch

port Fa0/8.

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

21.

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution

layers.*

They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.

The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.

They are used for point-to-multipoint links.

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

22.

A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is

automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each

other?

permit ip any host ip_address

permit icmp any any nd-na

permit ip any any

deny ip any any

23

24.

What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.

Cost equals bandwidth.

A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.

Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

25

Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface

numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print

to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What

interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data

VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

outbound

R2 S0/0/1

R1 S0/0/0

inbound

R1 Gi0/1.12

R2 Gi0/1.20

26.

On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100

from the switch?

Switch(config)# no vlan 100

Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100

Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

27.

A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to

accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

28.

What is a function of the distribution layer?

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

network access to the user

fault isolation

high-speed backbone connectivity

29.

A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group

of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement

in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?

static NAT

dynamic NAT

port address translation

DHCP

30.

Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose

three.)

The link interface subnet masks must match.

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.

The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.

The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.

The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

31.

Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state

information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the cost of that link

the type of network link

the link bandwidth

the link next-hop IP address

the link router interface IP address and subnet mask

32.

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

There is no end-to-end addressing.

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.

The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.

33

Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick

for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems

between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.

The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.

The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.

34

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4

address. What is the problem?

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

35.

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

They flood the entire network with routing updates.

They only send out updates when a new network is added.

36.

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing.

Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this

port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1

Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1


Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast


Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk


Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

37.

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.

No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.

Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.

Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing

does.

Configuration of static routes is error-free.

Static routes scale well as the network grows.

38.

When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the

crypto key generate rsa command?

show active SSH ports on the switch

disconnect SSH connected hosts

create a public and private key pair

show SSH connected hosts

access the SSH database configuration

39.

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

40

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The

administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement

explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

41.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?

The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.

The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.

No router ID has been configured on the routers.

The gigabit interfaces are passive.

42

Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

R1(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

43.

Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the

line protocol is down?

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.

There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

A cable has not been attached to the port.

An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.

44.

Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry?

(Choose three.)

access list number between 100 and 199

source subnet mask and wildcard mask

default gateway address and wildcard mask

source address and wildcard mask

destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

access list number between 1 and 99

destination address and wildcard mask

45.

A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25,

192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard

mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL

permit entry?

0.0.0.127

0.0.0.255

0.0.1.255

0.0.255.255

A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks

or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

46.

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message

a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message

a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message

a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message

47.

What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a

neighbor adjacency?

They request more information about their databases.

They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.

They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs

48.

What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from

hosts on public IPv4 networks.

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4

address.

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4

addresses.

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

49.

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should

be different from data VLANs.

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth

contention on data VLANs.

The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.

The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced

50.

Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface

to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip helper-address

ip address dhcp

ip dhcp pool

service dhcp

51.

Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.

IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.

IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.

IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols

52.

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command

will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

53

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains




54.

Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists?

(Choose two.)

show processes

show cdp neighbor

show access-lists

show ip route

show running-config

55.

Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

IPsec

DNS

Telnet

HTTP

ICMP

56.


Which keyword is displayed on the web browser?

NAT works!

Goodjob!

Welldone!

NAT configured!

57


What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?

192.168.0.0/24

192.168.0.0/23

192.168.0.0/22

192.168.0.0/21

58

Fill in the blank.

Static routes are configured by the use of the ” ip route” global configuration command.

NEW QUESTIONS

59. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security

requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address

table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses

60. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco

switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

access – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

access – trunk

dynamic desirable – trunk*

61. Fill in the blank.

The OSPF Type 1 packet is the _________ packet.

ANS: hello

62. Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to

install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

routing protocol

outgoing interface

metric

administrative distance*

63. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2 LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from R1?

782

74

128

65


The default administrative distance for a static route is .

ANS: 1


Static routes are configured by the use of the global configuration command.

ANS: ip route

66. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies,

which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.


Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.*


67. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*

The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.

The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.

68. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network.

Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices

that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose

two.)

-ip access-group 5 out

-access-list standard VTY

permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

-access-list 5 deny any

-access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

-ip access-group 5 in

-access-class 5 in*

69. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches.

What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or

dropped.*

Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.

70. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default

VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

71. Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router

over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the

OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was

issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and

functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use

the OSPF link when it is up?

Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.

Change the administrative distance to 1.

Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.

Change the administrative distance to 120.*

72. Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one for

VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?

SW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.

SW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts on

VLAN 40.

SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B

will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.*

SW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B

will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.

73. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.*

OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.

74. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

Change the native VLAN on both ports.

Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.*

Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.

Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port

with the dynamic desirable command option.

Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.*

75. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC

address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly

to determine which ports are functioning

to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding*

to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows

76. A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at

the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server

is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the

interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80

deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80

deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80*

permit ipv6 any any*

deny ipv6 any any

ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in

ip access-group NoWeb in

77. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and

172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to

neighbors?

router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0*

router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0



78. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

child route

level 1 parent route

default route

ultimate route

79. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

fully specified static route

recursive static route*

directly attached static route

floating static route

80. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?

255.0.0.0

255.255.0.0

255.255.255.0*

255.255.255.224

81. Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 128.107.52.27?

255.0.0.0

255.255.0.0*

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.224

82. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a

trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are

being implemented?

1

5

8

20

25

30

83. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in

which type of router memory?

Flash

NVRAM

RAM*

ROM

84. A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are

configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are

dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

off

restrict

protect*

shutdown

85. A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24

network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this

ACL?

access-group 11 in*

access-class 11 in

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

86. Refer to the exhibit.

What address will summarize the LANs attached to routers 2-A and 3-A and can be configured in a

summary static route to advertise them to an upstream neighbor?

10.0.0.0/24

10.0.0.0/23

10.0.0.0/22

10.0.0.0/21*

87. A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales

staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned

the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the

sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80

deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80*

deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80*

permit ipv6 any any

deny ipv6 any any*

ip access-group WebFilter in

ipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in

88. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64

was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration

file to identify this network?

192.168.5.64

192.168.5.0*

192.168.0.0

No address is displayed.

89. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the interval web server from

all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board Office. The address of the web server is

172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After

implement the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed

the ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers

**named ACLs requite the use of port numbers**

the ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction

90. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are

needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

1

2

3

4

5

6

91. a router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table replesents

the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into

the routing table for specific situation?

answer : metric*

92. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

to have only a link-local IPv6 address*

93. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.*

Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.*


The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way

overall delay less than 150 ms across the network.

VoIP*

95. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default

configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*

96. Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?

S1(config-if)# mdix auto *

97. What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured

for OSPF?

It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.*

98. A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors

on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol*

99. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is

verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

1. The name of the NAT pool is refCount.*

2. A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.*

3. Address translation is working.*

100. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all

options are used.)

A. flash

B. NVRAM

C. RAM

D. ROM

console access

full operating system > flash

limited operating system > ROM

routing table > RAM

startup configuration file > NVRAM

101. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are

used.)

A. step 1

B. step 2

C. step 3

D. step 4

E. step 5

Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks. > step 2

Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link

> step 3

Each router learns about its own directly connected networks. > step 1

Each router increments the hop count for the destination network.

Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database > step 4

Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best

> step 5

102. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch?

(Choose two.)

Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*

Configure SSH for remote management.*

103. Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the

routing table?

0.0.0.0

10.16.100.128

10.16.100.2

110

791

104. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the internal web server from

all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board office. The address of the web server is

172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After

implementing the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.

The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.

Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.

The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

105. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the

2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

1

4

2

3

106. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP

addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799

Source IP: 10.1.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3

Source IP: 10.1.1.10


Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3

Source IP: 192.168.1.1


Source IP: 10.1.1.10

107. Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single

building with a few users?

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

a collapsed core network design

a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers,

each one with very specific functions

108. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs as many switch ports as possible for end

devices and the business is using the most common type of inter-VLAN method. What type of inter-

VLAN interconnectivity is best to use between the switch and the router if R1 routes for all VLANs?

one link between the switch and the router with the router using three router subinterfaces

one link between the switch and the router with the one switch port being configured in access mode

three links between the switch and the router with the three switch ports being configured in access

mode

two links between the switch and the router with the two switch ports being configured in access

mode

109. Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?

flash

NVRAM

RAM

ROM

110. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security

policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be

dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the

interfaces?

off

restrict

protect

shutdown

111. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit

172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

172.16.20.2

172.16.26.254

172.16.47.254

172.16.48.5

112. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency?

(Choose two.)

mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces

a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used

use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces

one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a

GigabitEthernet port

mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers

113. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose

three.)

FF02::5

FF02::6

FF02::A

2001:db8:cafe::1

FF02::1:2

FE80::1

114. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?

65*

115. The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard

mask?

0.0.0.31

0.0.0.255

0.0.0.127*

0.0.0.63

116. As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically

learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of

every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the

close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC

addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses

117. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that

have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best

practices are being implemented?

1

2

3

4

5

6

11

118. A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table

represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to

install into the routing table for this specific situation?

routing protocol

outgoing interface

metric

administrative distance

How often do switches send Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)?

Every 2 sec

Name the STP port states in order

Blocking, Listening, Learning, Forwarding and Disabled

What's the default Cisco Bridge ID?

32768

Which command will show you the Root Bridge and priority for a VLAN?

show spanning-tree vlan x

What's the STP port cost for a 100 Mbps link?

19

When a port that's configured with the _ _ feature receives a BPDU, it immediately transitions to the

errdisable state

BPDU Guard

The _ _ feature effectively disables STP on the selected ports by preventing them from sending or

receiving any BPDUs

BPDU Filter

Which 2 commands will force the switch to become the Root Bridge for a VLAN?

spanning-tree vlan x priority x

spanning-tree vlan x root [primary|secondary]

Contrary to popular belief, the Port Fast feature does not disable Spanning Tree on the selected port

as the port can still send and receive BPDUs. T/F?

True

The Backbone Fast feature provides fast failover when a direct link failure occurs. T/F?

False. Backbone Fast enables immediate expiration of the Max Age timer in the event of an indirect

link failure.

RSTP is not backward compatible w/ the original IEEE 802.1D STP standard. T/F?

False

What are the RSTP port states?

Discarding, Learning, Forwarding

What are the 4 RSTP port roles?

Root, Designated, Alternate, Backup

Which command enables RSTP?

spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

By default, when RSTP is enabled on a Cisco switch, RPVST+ is enabled. T/F?

True

What type of ports does a FastEtherChannel contain?

100Mbps

How many ports can a standard EtherChannel contain?

Up to 8

What are the 2 protocol options you have when configuring EtherChannels on a Cisco switch?

PAgP or LACP

Which of the EtherChannel protocols is Cisco proprietary?

PAgP

PAgP packets are sent to the destination Multicast MAC address 01-00-0C-CC-CC-CC. T/F?

True

What are the 2 port modes supported by PAgP?

Auto, Desirable

What are the 2 port modes supported by LACP?

Active, Passive

If more than 8 links are assigned to an EtherChannel bundle running LACP, the protocol uses the

port priority to determine which ports are placed into standby mode. T/F?

True

LACP auto configs an admin key value on each port config to use LACP. The admin key defines the

ability of a port to aggregate with other ports. Only ports that have the same admin key are allowed

to be aggregated into the same port channel group. T/F?

True

What is the command used to assign a port to a channel group?

Switch1(config-if-range)#channel-group [number] mode

Name 2 FHRP protocols that are Cisco proprietary.

HSRP, GLBP

Name the open standard FHRP protocol.

VRRP

By default, when HSRP is enabled in Cisco IOS software, version 1 is enabled. T/F?

True

Which Multicast address does HSRP ver 2 use to send Hello packets?

224.0.0.102

HSRP ver 1 group #s are restricted to the range of 0-255, whereas ver 2 group #s are 0-4095. T/F?

True

Which parameter can be adjusted in order to influence the HSRP primary gateway election?

HSRP priority

How does HSRP interface tracking influence the primary gateway election process?

It modifies HSRP priority based on int status

Which command can you use to config an HSRP address on an int?

standby [number] ip [virtual address]

Just like HSRP, VRRP has the option of allowing the gateway to use the BIA or a static address as

the MAC address for VRRP groups. T/F?

False

Which command can you use to config a GLBP group IP address on a router int?

glbp [number] ip [virtual address]

Which files would you usually find in DRAM?

Running Config, Full IOS, routing tables

Where is the compressed IOS held?

Flash

You want to boot the router and skip startup config. Which command to modify config reg?

config-register [version]

Which command puts the running config into NVRAM?

copy run start

Which command will copy your startup config onto a network server?

copy start tftp:

You want to boot your router from a network server holding the IOS. How?

boot system [option]

The universal image includes all the feature sets you require, but in order to gain access to the

advanced features you need to buy the appropriate license and verify it on the actual device. T/F?

True

The ROM monitor has a very small code called bootstrap or boothelper to check for attached

memory interfaces. T/F?

True

Which command do you use to view the files stored on the flash memory on a Cisco router?

show flash/dir

What is the purpose of the POST?

Power On Self Test: tests hardware to verify components are present and healthy (memory, CPU,

ASICs...)

You can see the ASN with the show ip _ command

show ip protocols

Every router you want to communicate with in your routing domain must have a different ASN. T/F?

False

What is the purpose of the EIGRP topology table?

Allows all EIGRP routers to have a consistent view of the entire network. All known dest networks

and subnets that are advertised by neighbor EIGRP routers are stored here.

By default, EIGRP uses the _ bandwidth on the path to a destination network and the total _ to

compute routing metrics.

Minimum, Delay

Dynamic neighbor discovery is performed by sending EIGRP Hello packets to the destination

Multicast group address _

224.0.0.10

Eigrp packets are sent directly over IP using protocol # _

88

To populate the topology table, EIGRP runs the _ algorithm.

DUAL

The _ _ includes both the metric of a network as advertised by the connected neighbor, plus the cost

of reaching that particular neighbor.

Feasible Distance

Cisco IOS software supports equal cost load sharing for a default of up to 4 paths for all routing

protocols. T/F?

True, however, up to 6 can be configured via maximum-paths <1-6> command

What EIGRP command can be used to enable unequal cost load sharing?

variance

Name at least 3 reasons for EIGRP neighbor relationships not forming.

Neighbor routers not on a common subnet; mismatched primary/secondary subnets; mismatched K

vals; mismatched ASN; ACLs filtering out EIGRP packets; L1 issues; L2 issues; mismatched auth

params

Which command verifies EIGRP K vals?

show ip protocols

Which command verifies EIGRP packet stats?

show ip eigrp traffic

Name at least 2 common reasons for EIGRP route installation failures.

The same route is received via another protocol with a lower AD; EIGRP summarisation; duplicate

router IDs present within EIGRP domain; routes do not meet the Feasibility Condition

The AD concept is used to determine how reliable the route source is. T/F?

True

By default, EIGRP auto summarises at classful boundaries and creates a summary route pointing to

the Null0 int. T/F?

True

Which command debugs FSM events?

debug eigrp fsm

Which command shows the originating router ID of a specific prefix?

show ip eigrp topology x.x.x.x y.y.y.y

Which command shows the EIGRP event log?

show ip eigrp events

What is the best command to use when debugging various routing issues?

debug ip routing

IPv6 security for EIGRPv6 is built-in. T/F?

True

Because EIGRPv6 uses the Link-Local address of the neighbor as the next-hop address, the global

IPv6 Unicast subnets don't need to be the same in order for a neighbor relationship to be established

between 2 routers that reside within the same AS and are on a common net segment. T/F?

True

Which command to enter EIGRP for IPv6 router config mode?

ipv6 router eigrp [ASN]

Which state is the EIGRP for IPv6 initially in, active or shutdown?

shutdown

How do you enable EIGRP for IPv6 on a router int?

ipv6 eigrp [ASN]

Which of the following affect the calculation of EIGRP metrics when all possible default vals are

used? (Choose 2)

a. Bandwidth

b. Delay

c. Load

d. Reliability

e. MTU

f. Hop count

A and B

How does EIGRP notice when a neighboring router fails?

a. The failing neighbor sends a message before failing.

b. The failing neighbor sends a "dying gasp" message.

c. The router notices a lack of routing updates for a period of time.

d. The router notices a lack of Hello messages for a period of time.

D

Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP feasible distance?

a. A route's feasible distance is the calculated metric of a feasible successor route.

b. A route's feasible distance is the calculated metric of the successor route.

c. The feasible distance is the metric of a route from a neighboring router's perspective.

d. The feasible distance is the EIGRP metric associated with each possible route to reach a subnet.

B. The FD is the metric for the best of those routes. The best route is called the successor route, and

it's added to the IP table.

Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP reported distance?

a. A route's reported distance is the calculated metric of a feasible successor route.

b. A route's reported distance is the calculated metric of the successor route.

c. A route's reported distance is the metric of a route from a neighboring router's perspective.

d. The reported distance is the EIGRP metric associated with each possible route to reach a subnet.

C. A route's RD is the metric used by the neighbor that advertised the route. A router uses it to

determine which routes meet the feasibility condition for whether the route can be a feasible

successor route.

Which of the following network commands, following the command router eigrp 1, tells this router

to start using EIGRP on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and

10.1.120.1?(Choose 2)

a. network 10.0.0.0

b. network 10.1.1x.0

c. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255

d. network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

A and C. The EIGRP network command supports a parameter of a classful network, enabling EIGRP

on all interfaces in that classful network, or an address and wildcard mask. In the latter case, int IP

addresses that match the configured address, when applying ACL-like logic with the wildcard mask,

match the command.

Routers R1 and R2 attach to the same VLAN with IP addresses 10.0.0.1 and 10.0.0.2. R1 is

configured with router eigrp 99 and network 10.0.0.0. Which of the following commands might be

part of a working EIGRP config on R2 that ensures that the 2 routers become neighbors and

exchange routes?(Choose 2)

a. network 10

b. router eigrp 98

c. network 10.0.0.2 0.0.0.0

d. network 10.0.0.0

C and D. The EIGRP network 10.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 command exactly matches the int with address

10.0.0.2 because of the wildcard mask, enabling EIGRP on the int. The EIGRP ASN val must match

both routers. The network 10 command is syntactically incorrect; the entire classful network must be

configured.

Which of the following must occur to config MD5 auth for EIGRP?(Choose 2)

a. Setting the MD5 auth key via some int subcommand

b. Config at least 1 key chain

c. Defining a valid lifetime for the key

d. Enabling EIGRP MD5 auth on an int

B and D. The MD5 key must be configured. It's not configured with an int subcommand, but as part

of a chain. The useful lifetime of a key may be configured, but not required.

In the show ip route command, what code designation implies that a route was learned with EIGRP?

a. E

b. I

c. G

d. R

e. P

f. D

F

Which of the following affects the calculation of OSPF routes when all possible default vals are

used?

a. Bandwidth

b. Delay

c. Load

d. Reliability

e. MTU

f. Hop count

A. OSPF calculates metrics based on the cost associated with each int. OSPF, by default, calculates

int cost based on the bandwidth setting.

OSPF runs an algorithm to calculate the currently best route. Which of the following terms refer to

that algorithm?(Choose 2)

a. SPF

b. DUAL

c. Feasible successor

d. Dijkstra

e. Good old common sense

A and D. OSPF uses the SPF algorithm by mathematician Dijkstra.

Two OSPF routers connect to the same VLAN using their Fa0/0 int. Which of the following settings

on the interfaces of these 2 potentially neighboring routers would prevent the 2 routers from

becoming OSPF neighbors?(Choose 2)

a. IP addresses of 10.1.1.1/24 and 10.1.1.254/25

b. The addition of a secondary IP address on one router's int, but not the other

c. Both router interfaces assigned to area 3

d. One router is configured to use MD5 auth, the other is not config for auth

A and D. Routers must use the same auth type and the same auth key. The subnet # and range of

addresses must be the same subnet.

Which of the following OSPF neighbor states is expected when the exchange of topology info is

complete so that neighboring routers have the same LSDB?

a. Two-way

b. Full

c. Exchange

d. Loading

B. Neighboring OSPF routers that complete the database exchange are considered fuly adjacent and

rest in a Full neighbor state.

Which of the following is true about an existing OSPF designated router?(Choose 2)

a. A newly connected router in the same subnet, with a higher OSPF priority, preempts the existing

DR to become the new DR.

b. A newly connected router in the same subnet, with a lower OSPF priority, preempts the existing

DR to become the new DR.

c. The DR may be elected based on the lowest OSPF Router ID.

d. The DR may be elected based on the highest OSPF Router ID.

e. The DR attempts to become fully adjacent with every other neighbor on the subnet.

D and E. The DR is elected based on the highest OSPF priority. If there's a tie, it's based on highest

OSPF RID. Once the DR is elected, the role can't be taken over by a better router until the DR and

BDR have lost connectivity to the subnet. The DR attempts to be fully adjacent to all other routers on

the subnet as part of the optimized database exchange process.

Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to

start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1 and 10.1.120.1?

a. network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

b. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

c. network 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.255 area 0

d. network 10.0.0.1 0.255.255.0 area 0

B. The network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 command works as it matches all interfaces whose

first octet is 10.

Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to

start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1 and 10.1.120.1?

a. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

b. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.0 area 0

c. network 10.1.1.0 0.x.1x.0 area 0

d. network 10.1.1.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

e. network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

A. The network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 command matches all IP addresses as a result of the

255.255.255.255 wildcard mask so this command enables OSPF in Area 0 on all interfaces.

Which of the following commands list the OSPF neighbors off int s0/0?(Choose 3)

a. show ip ospf neighbor

b. show ip ospf int

c. show ip neighbor

d. show ip int

e. show ip ospf neighbor s0/0

A, B and E

An OSPF router learns about 6 possible routes to reach subnet 10.1.1.0/24. All 6 routes have a cost of

55 and are interarea routes. By default, how many routes are placed in the routing table?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

f. 6

D. The OSPF maximum-paths number router subcommand sets the number of equal cost routes

added to the routing table. This command defaults to a setting of 4.

Which of the following IPv4-to-IPv6 transition methods allows an IPv4-only host to communicate

with an IPv6-only host?

a. 6to4 tunneling

b. Dual-stack

c. ISATAP tunneling

d. NAT-PT

d. Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation translates between IPv4 and IPv6 and vice

versa. The two tunneling methods allow IPv6 hosts to communicate with other IPv6 hosts, sending

the packets through an IPv4 network. Dual-stack allows a host or router to concurrently support both

protocols.

Which of the following tools requires the end user to telnet to a router to gain access to hosts on the

other side of the router?

a. Reflexive ACLs

b. Named ACLs

c. Time-based ACLs

d. Dynamic ACLs

d. Dynamic ACLs require the user to telnet to the router and authenticate using a username and

password, which then causes the router to permit packets sent by the host.

Which of the following summarized subnets represent routes that could have been created for CIDR's

goal to reduce the size of Internet routing tables?

a. 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

b. 200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0

c. 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0

d. 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0

b. Only 200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0, a Class C address, summarizes multiple networks.

Classes:

A: 1-126, 255.0.0.0

B: 128-191, 255.255.0.0

C: 192-223, 255.255.255.0

What command disables the use of Frame Relay LMI messages?

a. no frame relay lmi messages

b. no frame relay status lmi

c. no keepalive

d. no lmi

c. no keepalive

Which of the following IEEE 802.1d port states are stable states used when STP has completed

convergence? Choose 2

a. Blocking

b. Forwarding

c. Listening

d. Learning

e. Discarding

A and B. Listening and Learning are transitory port states, used only when moving from the

Blocking to the Forwarding State. Discarding is not an 802.1d STP port state.

Which of the following are transitory IEEE 802.1d port states used only during the process of STP

convergence? Choose 2

a. Blocking

b. Forwarding

c. Listening

d. Learning

e. Discarding

C and D. Listening and Learning are transitory port states, used only when moving from the

Blocking to the Forwarding state. Discarding is not an 802.1d STP port state. Forwarding and

Blocking are stable states

Which of the following bridge IDs would win election as root, assuming that the switches with these

bridge IDs were in the same network?

a. 32769:0200.1111.1111

b. 32769:0200.2222.2222

c. 4097:0200.1111.1111

d. 4097:0200.2222.2222

e. 40961:0200.1111.1111

C. The smallest numeric bridge ID wins the election.

Which of the following facts determines how often a nonroot bridge or switch sends an 802.1d STP

Hello BPDU message?

a. The Hello timer as configured on that switch.

b. The Hello timer as configured on the root switch.

c. It's always every 2 seconds.

d. The switch reacts to BPDUs received from the root switch by sending another BPDU 2 seconds

after receiving the root BPDU.

B. Nonroot switches forward Hellos received from the root; the root sends these Hellos based on the

root's configured Hello timer.

What STP feature causes an interface to be placed in the Forwarding State as soon as the interface is

physically active?

a. STP

b. RSTP

c. Root Guard

d. 802.1w

e. PortFast

f. EtherChannel

E

Which answer lists the name of the IEEE standard that improves the original STP standard and

lowers convergence time? Choose 2

a. STP

b. RSTP

c. Root Guard

d. 802.1w

e. PortFast

f. Trunking

B and D. The IEEE 802.1w standard, Rapid STP, provides much faster STP convergence.

Which of the following RSTP port states have the same name as a similar port state in traditional

STP? Choose 2

a. Blocking

b. Forwarding

c. Listening

d. Learning

e. Discarding

f. Disabled

B and D. RSTP uses port states of Forwarding, Learning, and Discarding. Forwarding and Learning

states perform the same basic functions as the STP port states with the same names.

On a 2960 switch, which of the following commands change the value of the bridge ID? Choose 2

a. spanning-tree bridge-id [value]

b. spanning-tree vlan [vlan-number] root {primary | secondary}

c. spanning-tree vlan [vlan-number] priority [value]

d. set spanning-tree priority [value]

B and C

Which of the following is the most likely organization from which an enterprise could obtain an

administrative assignment of a block of IPv6 global unicast IP addresses?

a. ICANN

b. An ISP

c. Global unicast addresses are not administratively assigned by an outside organization.

d. An RIR

b. One method for IPv6 global unicast address assignment is that ICANN allocates large address

blocks to RIRs, RIRs assign smaller address blocks to ISPs, and ISPs assign even smaller address

blocks to their customers.

Which of the following is the shortest valid abbreviation for

FE80:0000:0000:0100:0000:0000:0000:0123?

a. FE80::100:0:0:0:123:4567

b. FE80::100::123

c. FE80:0:0:100::123

d. FE8::1::123

c. Inside a quartet, any leading 0s can be omitted, and one sequence of 1 or more quartets of all 0s

can be replaced with double colons (::). The correct answer replaces the longer 3-quartet sequence of

0s with ::.

Which of the following answers lists a multicast IPv6 address?

a. FD80::1:1234:5678:9ABC

b. FF80::1:1234:5678:9ABC

c. FE80::1:1234:5678:9ABC

d. 2000::1:1234:5678:9ABC

b. FF80::1:1234:5678:9ABC

Global unicast addresses begin with 2000::/3, meaning the first 3 bits match the value in hex 2000.

Unique local addresses match FD00::/8, and link local addresses match FE80::/10. Multicast IPv6

addresses begin with FF00::/8, meaning the first 2 hex digits are F.

PC1 and PC2 reside on the same VLAN and both use IPv6. When PC1 pings PC2's IPv6 address,

PC1 doesn't know PC2's MAC address. How does PC1 learn PC2's MAC address?

a. DHCP

b. stateless autoconfiguration

c. ARP

d. NDP

d. Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) acts as a replacement for several IPv4 protocols, including

ARP, as well as providing several new functions for IPv6. ARP does not exist in IPv6.

If the interface subcommand ip ospf cost is not used under an interface, what would be the calculated

bandwidth setting of a serial interface?

If the interface subcommand ip ospf cost is not used under an interface, Cisco routers calculate the

OSPF cost with the formula 100 Mbps / bandwidth (Mbps). Given a cost of 64 (line 4 of the output),

the bandwidth is 100 Mbps / 64, or 1.5 Mbps (T1).

There is a requirement to enable IPS and IPSec on a router. What license do you need?

A. ipbasek9

B. securityk9

C. datak9

D. uck9

B

Routing tables can be populated in a number of different ways. Which of the following describes the

static routing route type.

A. Router attached to this network

B. The router interface has a local IP address

C. A system administrator manually enters static routes directly into the configuration

D. Learned by exchanging routing information

E. Used when no explicit route to a destination is found

C

Which of the following commands will display the general status of the EtherChannel interface?

A. show etherchannel summary

B. show interface port-channel

C. show etherchannel port-channel

B

Which of the following commands specifies who the NetFlow collector is?

A. ip flow ingress

B. ip flow-export destination ip-address udp-port

C. show ip flow export

D. ip flow-export version version

B

What are the functions of the active router when there is L3 redundancy?

A. Sends out hello messages

B. Knows the IP address of the virtual router

C. Active forwarding of packets for the virtual router is assumed

D. Default gateway ARP requests are responded to with the virtual router MAC

E. Listens for periodic hello messages

F. If the other router is not heard from, it assumes active forwarding of packets

A B C D

You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue on the Branch router when you realize that a ping test to

the destination network is not successful. The Branch and corresponding HQ router have their

neighbor adjacency set up. What could be the problem?

A. The HQ router isn't advertising the route

B. There is an OSPF area mismatch

C. The HQ router is not enabled for OSPF

D. There is a route missing to the destination in the Branch router`s routing table

E. Layer 2 connectivity is not established between the two routers

A D

Which of the following characteristics belongs to the PPP protocol?

A. Used by Cisco devices on serial lines, by default

B. Supports PAP and CHAP authentication

C. Has a link-quality feature to take down the link if too many errors are detected

D. Used when connecting to a device that is not a Cisco device

B C D

Which troubleshooting steps are used when a trunk is not established?

A. Use the [show interfaces trunk] command to check if a trunk has been established between

switches

B. Use the [show interfaces trunk] command to see if the VLAN membership is assigned correctly

C. Use the [show interfaces trunk] command to check whether the local and peer native virtual

LANs, or VLANs, match

D. Use the [show interfaces trunk] command to verify which Media Access Control, or MAC,

addresses were learned on the interface

A C

What is needed to have multiple routers functioning as a single virtual router?

A. IP routing must be disabled on the primary router

B. The default gateway must be configured on the routers

C. EtherChannel must be configured between the routers

D. The routers must have the same IP address and MAC

D

What happens if there are no boot system commands in the configuration?

A. The router attempts to boot from a network TFTP server

B. The router defaults to loading and running the first valid Cisco IOS image in the Flash memory

C. The router loads the ROM monitor

D. The router parses the startup configuration file in NVRAM

B

Which of the following is describing the Trunk mode of Dynamic Trunking Protocol?

A. Creates a trunk with the neighboring switch based on the DTP request

B. Enables trunking on the interface

C. Trunking cannot take place on the port regardless of DTP requests

D. Sends a DTP communication that it wants to create a trunk with the neighboring switch

E. DTP frames are prevented from being generated from the port

B

What commands describe the implemented outcomes when configuring multiarea OSPF?

A. The [ip ospf area] command can be used to enable OSPF directly on an interface.

B. The [ip ospf cost] command specifies the OSPF cost of directing a packet across the network to

the destination.

C. The [network area] command defines the network boundary and ospf routing process number.

D. The [router ospf] command configures an OSPF routing process.

A D

What are the functions of the standby router when there is L3 redundancy?

A. Sends out hello messages

B. Knows the IP address of the virtual router

C. Active forwarding of packets for the virtual router is assumed

D. Default gateway ARP requests are responded to with the virtual router MAC

E. Listens for periodic hello messages

F. If the other router is not heard from, it assumes active forwarding of packets

E F

Which of the following is valid for Multi-area OSPF design type?

A. Using summarization results in smaller routing tables

B. A better solution for efficient routing

C. Every router is required to process many link-state advertisements (LSAs)

D. Larger routing tables are required

A B

Which actions must be performed to implement SNMP access to the router?

A. Configure a community access string with a read-write privilege to permit access to SNMP

B. Authenticate access to MIB objects and functions as embedded passwords

C. Set the system contact and location of the SNMP agent on the router

D. Obtain values for the 5 minute exponentially moving average of the CPU busy percentage

A C

You are looking for an inexpensive yet secure solution for one of the telecommuting employees to a

corporate site. Which WAN link option would be most suitable?

A. Frame Relay

B. T1/E1 line

C. ATM

D. DSL

E. ISDN

D

Which problems can manifest in a redundant switched topology?

A. Media Access Control, or MAC, database instability

B. Virtual LAN, or VLAN, mismatch errors

C. Broadcast storms

D. Multiple frame transmission

E. Trunk ports failing establishment

A C D

Which options are true regarding the operation of ROM in a Cisco router?

A. POST brings up the router on start-up

B. The ROM monitor includes a low-level operating system that is used for manufacturing and

password recovery

C. Bootstrap tests and troubleshoots the Cisco IOS software

D. Power-on self test or POST tests the basic functionality of the router hardware

B D

A user is experiencing a loss of end-to-end connectivity in an IPv4 network. You have verified that

there is no physical connectivity issue. Logically, what should you check next?

A. Whether the current path is undesirable

B. Whether there is a physical connectivity issue

C. Whether the name resolutions are correct

D. Whether an access control list, or ACL is blocking traffic

A

Which of the following components contains the running copy of the configuration file?

A. Interface

B. ROM

C. Flash

D. RAM

E. CPU

F. NVRAM

D

Identify the commands used to correctly configure multiarea OSPF.

A. OSPF can be enabled universally within an area by using the [ip ospf area] command on any

router within a specific area.

B. The [ip ospf cost] command specifies the OSPF cost of sending a packet on an interface.

C. The [network area] command defines the interfaces on which OSPF runs and defines the area IDs

for those interfaces.

D. Individual routers can only be configured with a single OSFP routing process number using the

[router ospf] command.

B C

Which of the following commands enables NetFlow on interface?

A. ip flow ingress

B. ip flow-export destination ip-address udp-port

C. show ip flow export

D. ip flow-export version version

A

By which methods does spanning tree operate when electing a designated port?

A. All ports transition to blocking while the election of the designated port takes place

B. If necessary, designated port election ties are broken by upstream root cost path

C. Root ports and designated ports transition to the forwarding state

D. When a stable spanning-tree state is reached, Bridge Protocol Data Units, or BPDUs, are

transmitted by designated ports only

C D

Which of the following commands will display information about the specific port channel interface?

A. show etherchannel summary

B. show interface port-channel

C. show etherchannel port-channel

C

How do you config and verify syslog?

R1#logging 192.168.1.1

R1#show logging

How do you monitor Netflow stats?

R1(config)#int s0/0

R1(config-if)#ip flow ingress

R1#show ip cache flow

How do you utilize Netflow data?

Network traffic accounting

usage-based network billing

network planning

security

Denial of Service (DoS)

monitoring capabilities

network monitoring

Describe SNMPv2:

Describe SNMPv3:

v2

Performance, security, confidentiality and manager 2 manager communication were all improved

from v1.

GetBulkRequest for large data requests was added.

Simpler community based security model was added.

v3

Encryption was added.

Cryptographic Security was added.

Clear text passwords were replaced with security encoded passwords.

Main difference --> Upgrades in Security

How do you enable a PAgP EtherChannel?

Switch2(config)#int range fa0/1 - 3

Switch2(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk

Switch2(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode auto

Verify Config and troubleshoot:

Switch2#show EtherChannel summary

Switch2#show EtherChannel detail

Switch2#show pagp neighbor

Switch2#show pagp internal

Switch2#show interfaces port-channel 1 switchport

How do you enable HSRP for virtual router redundancy?

R1(config-if)#int fa0/0

R1(config-if)#standby 10 ip 192.168.1.10

R1(config-if)#standby 10 priority 110

R1#show standby

R1#show standby brief

Which is applied to an ACL on a secure vty line?

Access-group or Access-class?

Access-class, for example:

access-class 105 in

The access-group is applied to an ACL on an interface and will filter packets as they enter/leave the

interface.

Which of the following is a protocol used between the Frame Relay DTE and the Frame Relay

switch?

a. VC

b. CIR

c. LMI

d. Q.921

e. DLCI

f. FRF.5

g. Encapsulation

C. The LMI manages the link between the DTE and the switch, including noticing when a VC comes

up or goes down.

Which of the following statements about Frame Relay are true? Choose 2

a. The DTE typically sits at the customer site.

b. Routers send LMI messages to each other to signal the status of a VC.

c. A frame's source DLCI must remain unchanged, but the frame's destination DLCI is allowed to

change, as the frame traverses the Frame Relay cloud.

d. The Frame Relay encapsulation type on the sending router should match the encapsulation type on

the receiving router for the receiving router to be able to understand the frame's contents.

A and D. The DTE typically sits at the customer site, and the DCE sits at the service provider site.

Frame Relay switches send LMI messages to DTEs (typically routers) to signal VC status. A Frame

Relay frame does not have a source and destination DLCI, but a single DLCI field.

What does DLCI stand for?

a. Data-link connection identifier

b. Data-link connection indicator

c. Data-link circuit identifier

d. Data-link circuit indicator

A

Router R1 receives a frame from router R2 with DLCI value 222 in it. Which of the following

statements about this network is most accurate?

a. 222 represents Router R1

b. 222 represents Router R2

c. 222 is the local DLCI on R1 that represents the VC between R1 and R2

d. 222 is the local DLCI on R2 that represents the VC between R1 and R2

C. The DLCI addresses a VC, not a router. The DLCI value in the frame as it crosses the local link

represents that VC on that link. Because the question refers to a frame crossing the access link

connected to R1, 222 is the local DLCI on R1 that identifies that VC.

A Frame Relay planning diatram shows the number 101 beside R1, 102 by R2, 103 by R3 and 104 by

R4. No other DLCIs are listed. The lead network engineer tells you that the planning diatram uses

global DLCI addressing and that a full mesh of VCs exist. Which of the following are true? Choose 2

a. Frames sent by R1 to R2, as they cross R2s access link, have DLCI 102

b. Frames sent by R1 to R2, as they cross R2s access link, have DLCI 101

c. Frames sent by R3 to R2, as they cross R3s access link, have DLCI 102

d. Frames sent by R3 to R1, as they cross R3s access link, have DLCI 101

B and C. The global DLCIs represent the dLCI the other routers use when sending frames over their

local access links. So, when R1 sends a frame to R2, when the frame crosses R2's access link, the

network has changed the DLCI to R1's global DLCI, 101. Similarly, when R3 sends a frame to R1, as

the frame crosses R3's access link, the frame has R1's global DLCI in it, 101.

FredsCo has 5 sites, with routers connected to the same Frame Relay network. Virtual circuits (VC)

have been defined between each pair of routers. What is the fewest subnets that FredsCo could use

on the Frame Relay network?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

f. 10

A. A single sibnet can be used in any Frame Relay topology, but with a full mesh, a single subnet can

be used with no tricky issues related to routing protocols.

BarneyCo has 5 sites, with routers connected to the same Frame Relay network. VCs have been

defined between each pair of routers. Barney, the company president, will fire anyone who

configures Frame Relay without using point-to-point subinterfaces. What is the fewest subnets that

BarneyCo could use on the Frame Relay network?

a. 1

b. 4

c. 8

d. 10

e. 12

f. 15

D. BarneyCo has a total of 10 VCs. With all of them configured on point-to-point subinterfaces, you

need 1- subnets, because you need 1 subnet per VC.

R1 sends a Frame Relay frame over a VC to router R2. About the same time, a Frame Relay switch

notices that too many packets are trying to exit the Frame Relay network over the access link

connected to R2. Which of the following is the most likely result that could be caused by this

scenario?

a. R1 eventually receives a frame with BECN set

b. R1 eventually receives a frame with FECN set

c. R1 eventually receives a frame with DE set

d. None of the above

A. The frame that experienced the congestion was going from R1 to R2, so the frame with the

Backward (opposite direction) Explicit Congestion Notification (BECN) bit set would go in the

opposite direction, from R2 back to R1.

Imagine 2 Cisco routers, R1 and R2, using Frame Relay. R1 connects to a switch that uses LMI type

ANSI T1.617, and R2 connects to a switch that uses ITU Q.933a. What keywords could be used in

the R1 and R2 config so that the LMIs work correctly?

a. ansi and itu

b. T1617 and q933a

c. ansi and q933a

d. T1617 and itu

e. None of the above

C. However, the routers autodetect the LMI type by default, so not configuring the LMI also works

BettyCo has 5 sites, w/ routers connected to the same Frame Relay network. VCs have been defined

between each pair of routers. Betty, the company president, will fire anyone who configs anything

that could be left as default. Which of the following config commands would get you fired? Choose 3

a. ip address

b. encapsulation

c. lmi-type

d. frame-relay map

e. frame-relay inverse-arp

C, D, and E. The LMI type is autosensed by default. Inverse ARP is on by default, meaning that it

doesn't need to be enabled with the frame-relay inverse-arp command, nor do any static mapping

statements need to be added.

WilmaCo has some routers connected to a Frame Relay network. R1 is a router at a remote site, w/ a

single VC back to WilmaCo's headquarters. The R1 config looks like this:

int s0/0

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

encapsulation frame-relay

Wilma, the company president, has heard that point-to-point subinterfaces are cool and she wants

you to change the config to use it. Which commands do you need to use to migrate the config?

Choose 2

a. no ip address

b. interface-dlci

c. no encapsulation

d. encapsulation frame-relay

e. frame-relay interface-dlci

A and E. The IP address moves to the subinterface, so it needs to be removed from the serial

interface first (no ip address command). The encapsulation stays on the physical interface. The

frame-relay interface-dlci command must be used on the subinterface so that the router knows which

DLCI goes with which subinterface-even if only one DLCI exists.

WilmaCo has another network, w/ the main site router that has 10 VCs connecting to the 10 remote

sites. Wilma now thinks that multipoint subinterfaces are even cooler than point-to-point. The current

config looks like this:

int s0/0

ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0

encapsulation frame-relay

Which commands do you need to use to migrate the config? (DLCIs 101-110 are used for the 10

VCs)

a. interface-dlci 101 110

b. interface dlci 101-110

c. Ten different interface-dlci commands

d. frame-relay interface-dlci 101 110

e. frame-relay interface dlci 101-110

f. Ten different frame-relay interface-dlci commands

F. You can code only 1 DLCI on a frame-relay interface-dlci command, and you need one for each

VC under the multipoint interface.

Which of the following commands lists the info learned by inverse ARP?

a. show ip arp

b. show arp

c. show inverse arp

d. show frame-relay inverse-arp

e. show map

f. show frame-relay map

F

Which of the following are Frame Relay PVC status codes for which a router sends frames for the

associated PVC? Choose 2

a. Up

b. Down

c. Active

d. Inactive

e. Static

f. Deleted

C and E. Up and down are not PVC status codes. Inactive means that the switch thinks a defined

PVC is not working, and deleted means that the DLCI is nto defined at the switch.

Question 1:

Place the DTP mode with its correct description:

Answer:

1) Trunk: Set the switch port to trunk mode and negotiate to become a trunk.

2) Nonegotiate: Specify that the DTP packets are not sent out of this interface.

3) Access: Set a switch port to permanent nontrunking mode.

4) Dynamic Auto: Set the switch port to respond, but not actively send DTP frames.

5) Dynamic Desirable: Make the interface actively attempt to convert the link to a trunk link. (This means the interface is ready

to autonegotiate trunking encapsulation and form a trunk link (using DTP) with a neighbor port in desirable, auto, or on mode.)

Explanation:

Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is the Cisco-proprietary that actively attempts to negotiate a trunk link between two switches.

Below is theswitchport modes (or DTP modes) for easy reference:

Mode Function

Dynamic Auto Creates the trunk based on the DTP request from the neighboring switch.

Dynamic Desirable Communicates to the neighboring switch via DTP that the interface would like

to become a trunk if the neighboring switch interface is able to become a trunk.

Trunk Automatically enables trunking regardless of the state of the neighboring switch

and regardless of any DTP requests sent from the neighboring switch.

Access Trunking is not allowed on this port regardless of the state of the neighboring

switch interface and regardless of any DTP requests sent from the neighboring

switch.

Nonegotiate Prevents the interface from generating DTP frames. This command can be

used only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk. You must

manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a

trunk link.

Question 2:

This is a drag and drop question which is about the correct sequence of steps that a wireless client takes during the process of

association with an access point (AP). Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

Explanation:

Any wireless client attempting to use the wireless network must first arrange a membership with the AP. Membership with the

AP is called an association. The client must send an association request message, and the AP grants or denies the request by

sending an association reply message. Once associated, all communications to and from the client must pass through the AP.

Clients associate with access points as follows:

1) The client sends a probe request.

2) The AP sends a probe response.

3) The client initiates an association to an AP. Authentication and any other security information is sent to the AP.

4) The AP accepts the association.

5) The AP adds the client’s MAC address to its association table.

Question 3:

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

1) Listening: sends and receives BPDUs to determine root, but does not update the MAC address table.

2) Disabled: does not participate in frame forwarding or in STP.

3) Blocking: does not participate in frame forwarding.

4) Fowarding: sends and receives data frames.

5) Learning: populates the MAC address table, but will not forward user data.

Notice: A port begins its life in a Disabled state, moving through several passive states and, finally, into an active state if allowed

to forward traffic.

Question 4 (not sure about the question)

verify that the vlan is assigned to the proper ports

verify that creation of the virtual interface

Verify that there is inter-switch connectivity

verify that switchports are properly pruned

Number of IP Subnets

VLAN to IP mapping

Location of each VLAN

VLAN assignments

CCNA 2

Last update Jan. 2016

A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the

administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router.

Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0*



Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23*

2

Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0

network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host

172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the

administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from

the 172.16.0.0 network?

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*

Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

3

Launch PT – Hide and Save PT


Why is the ACL not working?

The ACL is missing a deny ip any any ACE.

The ACL is applied in the wrong direction.

The access-list 105 command or commands are incorrect.

The ACL is applied to the wrong interface.*

No ACL is needed for this scenario.

4 Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

They are configured in the interface configuration mode.

They can be created with a number but not with a name.

They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.*

They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

5

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have

access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is

accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should

be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would

this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)

access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5

access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www

access-list 105 permit ip any any

R1(config)# interface s0/0/0

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

R1(config)# interface gi0/0

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out ******************

access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20


access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www

access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5

access-list 105 permit ip any any ********************

access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www




R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in

6 What are two possible uses of access control lists in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

limiting debug outputs*

reducing the processing load on routers

controlling the physical status of router interfaces

controlling virtual terminal access to routers*

allowing Layer 2 traffic to be filtered by a router

7 An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host

172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in*


R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in

8 Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs?

(Choose three.)

Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.*

For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.

Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.

Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.*

Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.*

Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.

9 Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL?

(Choose three.)

deny icmp any any

deny ipv6 any any*

permit icmp any any nd-ns*

permit ipv6 any any

deny ip any any

permit icmp any any nd-na*

10 Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)

Both filter packets for a specific destination host IP address.

Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.*

Both include an implicit deny as a final ACE.*

Both can permit or deny specific services by port number.

Both kinds of ACLs can filter based on protocol type.

11

Place the options in the following order:

192.168.15.65 255.255.255.240 ==> the first valid host address in a subnet

192.168.15.144 0.0.0.15 ==> subnetwork address of a subnet with 14 valid host addreses

host 192.168.15.2 ==> all IP address bits must match exactly

192.168.5.0 0.0.3.255 ==> hosts in a subnet with SM 255.255.252.0

192.168.3.64 0.0.0.7 ==> address with a subnet 255.255.255.248

12

Consider the following access list that allows IP phone configuration file transfers from a particular

host to a TFTP server:

R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5

range 1024 5000

R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any



Which method would allow the network administrator to modify the ACL and include FTP transfers

from any source IP address?


R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out

R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20






R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000





R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out

R1(config)# no access-list 105

R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000





R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out ******************

13 What two functions describe uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)

ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.*

ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.*

Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.

ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.

ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.

14 Which feature is unique to IPv6 ACLs when compared to those of IPv4 ACLs?

an implicit permit of neighbor discovery packets*

an implicit deny any any ACE

the use of named ACL entries

the use of wildcard masks

15 Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is

made.

A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE.

Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.*

An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.*

A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default.

A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.*

16 Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?

On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL

can be configured.

In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.

Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after

the routing is completed.*

Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on

routers.

17 What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?

named standard

numbered extended

named extended*

numbered standard

18 Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network

2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 23

permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 23

permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 25

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25*

19

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of

R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1*

packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80

HTTPS packets to PC1

20 If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be

created and applied to it?

4

8*

6

16

12

21 . Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by

172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?

172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255

172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254

172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255

172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255*

22.What packets would match the access control list statement that is shown below?

access-list 110 permit tcp 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 22

SSH traffic from any source network to the 172.16.0.0 network

any TCP traffic from any host to the 172.16.0.0 network

SSH traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination network*

any TCP traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination network

23. What single access list statement matches all of the following networks?

192.168.16.0

192.168.17.0

192.168.18.0

192.168.19.0

access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255



access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255*

24. What is a limitation when utilizing both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs on a router?

IPv6 ACLs perform the same functions as standard IPv4 ACLs.

A device can run only IPv4 ACLs or IPv6 ACLs.

IPv4 ACLs can be numbered or named whereas IPv6 ACLs must be numbered.

Both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs can be configured on a single device, but cannot share the same name.*

25. In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL

placement?

when a router has more than one ACL

when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound

interfaces before the packets exit the interface *

when an outbound ACL is closer to the source of the traffic flow

when an interface is filtered by an outbound ACL and the network attached to the interface is the

source network being filtered within the ACL

26. What method is used to apply an IPv6 ACL to a router interface?

the use of the access-class command

the use of the ip access-group command

the use of the ipv6 traffic-filter command*

the use of the ipv6 access-list command

27. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the access list 10 ACEs if the router is rebooted before

any other commands are implemented?

The ACEs of access list 10 will be deleted.

The ACEs of access list 10 will be renumbered.*

The ACEs of access list 10 wildcard masks will be converted to subnet masks.

The ACEs of access list 10 will not be affected.

28. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of adding the established argument to the end of the ACE?

Any IP traffic is allowed to reach the 192.168.254.0 255.255.254.0 network as long as it is in

response to an originated request.

Any traffic is allowed to reach the 192.168.254.0 255.255.254.0 network.

Any TCP traffic is allowed to reach the 192.168.254.0 255.255.254.0 network if it is in response to

an originated request.*

192.168.254.0 /23 traffic is allowed to reach any network

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Exam Answers

Version 4.0 Quantcast

1. What are two mechanisms that provide redundancy for server farm implementations? (Choose two.)

• Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol

• Hot Standby Routing Protocol

2. The ability to connect securely to a private network over a public network is provided by which WAN

technology?

• VPN

3. Which three statements describe the functions of the Cisco hierarchical network design model?

(Choose three.)

• The distribution layer is responsible for traffic filtering and isolating failures from the core.

• Two goals of the core layer are 100 percent uptime and maximizing throughput.

• The access layer provides a means of connecting end devices to the network.

https://yossihanifahusna.wordpress.com/2011/01/08/ccna-discovery-4-module-1-2-3-4-5-exam-answers-version-4-0-quantcast/

https://yossihanifahusna.wordpress.com/2011/01/08/ccna-discovery-4-module-1-2-3-4-5-exam-answers-version-4-0-quantcast/

4. A network designer is creating a new network. The design must offer enough redundancy to provide

protection against a single link or device failure, yet must not be too complex or expensive to implement.

What topology would fill these needs?

• partial mesh

5. Refer to the exhibit. If the firewall module has been correctly configured using best practices for

network security, which statement is true about the security design for the network?

• Servers in the DMZ are protected from internal and external attacks.

6. Which statement is true about a DMZ in a traditional network firewall design?

• Servers in the DMZ provide limited information that can be accessed from external networks.

7. What network connection would be most cost efficient while still meeting the security and connectivity

needs of this teleworker?

• DSL VPN connection with a dialup backup link

8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic

from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet

access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

• interface fa0/1, outbound

9. Refer to the exhibit. The server broadcasts an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway.

If STP is not enabled, what is the result of this ARP request?

• Switch_A and Switch_B continuously flood the message onto the network.

10. What are two best practices in wireless LAN design to ensure secure wireless access to the corporate

network? (Choose two.)

• Use a separate WLAN for employees.

• Configure WPA.

11. In a well-designed, high-availability network, which device significantly affects the most users if a

failure occurs?

• small workgroup switch in the network access layer

12. Which two statements are true regarding network convergence? (Choose two.)

• In a large network, using the EIGRP or OSPF routing protocols rather than RIPv2 may improve

convergence time.

• Route summarization improves convergence time by minimizing the size of the routing table.

13. Centralizing servers in a data center server farm can provide which benefit over a distributed server

environment?

• It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center.

14. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the ACL shown have on network traffic, assuming that it is

correctly applied to the interface?

• All Telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination is denied.

15. Which Cisco IOS function can be configured at the distribution layer to filter unwanted traffic and

provide traffic management?

• access control lists

16. What kind of ACL inspects outbound UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic and allows inbound access only to

traffic that belongs to these established sessions?

• reflexive ACL

17. Which three functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network model?

(Choose three.)

• summarizing routes from the access layer

• isolating network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two devices are part of the access design layer? (Choose two.)

• FC-AP

• FC-ASW-2

19. What is true about implementing a centralized server farm topology?

• provides defined entry and exit points so that filtering and securing traffic is easier

20. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?

• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down, and a log message is sent.

21. Which two considerations are valid when designing access layer security?(Choose two.)

• SSH is more secure than Telnet to administer network devices.

• Disabling unused ports on the switches helps prevent unauthorized access to the network.

22. What address can be used to summarize only networks 172.16.0.0/24, 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24,

and 172.16.3.0/24?

• 172.16.0.0/22

23. Which two items in a physical WLAN design can be identified through a site survey? (Choose two.)

• the types of antennas that are required

• the access point hardware that is required

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly describe the benefits of the network access layer

design that is shown? (Choose two.)

• If host A sends a broadcast message, only hosts in VLAN10 receive the broadcast frame.

• Segmenting all voice traffic on a separate VLAN facilitates the implementation of QoS.

25. What are three ways to ensure that an unwanted user does not connect to a wireless network and view

the data? (Choose three.)

• Disable SSID broadcasting.

• Use authentication between clients and the wireless device.

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

Quantcast

1. During an evaluation of the currently installed network, the IT staff performs a gap analysis to

determine whether the existing network infrastructure can support the desired new features. At which

stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach does this activity occur?

• Plan Phase

2. Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services strategy is usually completed before an organization issues

a Request For Proposal (RFP) or Request For Quotation (RFQ)?

• Prepare Phase

3. What is the purpose of SNMP?

• to facilitate the exchange of information between devices and the NMS

4. During an analysis of a customer network, several possible opportunities for network improvement are

identified. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services does this process occur?

• Design Phase

5. What provides the initial data for the Optimize Phase?

• performance monitoring

6. Which two statements are true regarding the response to an RFQ?(Choose two.)

• it should strictly conform to the formatting requirements specified by the RFQ.

• The response helps the customer compare pricing with other potential contractors.

7. What are two disadvantages of using a bottom-up approach instead of a top-down approach to network

design? (Choose two.)

• It can result in an inappropriate network design.

• It does not take into account the business goals of the company.

8. What is a business constraint that may impact the WAN design of a company?

• company policy requiring the use of specific vendor networking equipment due to partnerships

9. What is the purpose of preparing a business case?

• to justify the financial investment in implementing the technology change

10. What is the purpose of creating a prioritized list of technical requirements?

• defines the project scope

11. A network engineer is analyzing the network of a potential client company to identify problems and

determine whether a network upgrade or addition is needed. Which role in the sales team is this engineer

assuming?

• pre-sales engineer

12. Which two statements best describe the responsibilities of an account manager? (Choose two.)

• acts as the primary point of contact between the company and the client

• directs the sales teams and support personnel

13. What is the purpose of system-level acceptance testing?

• to check that the newly installed network meets the business goals and design requirements

• to justify the financial investment required to implement the technology change

14. What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?

• It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations.

15. When should a network baseline be performed within the stages of the Cisco Lifecycle Services?

• Operate Phase

16. What are two benefits of using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach to network

design? (Choose two.)

• incorporates organizational requirements

• clarifies design goals from the perspective of applications and network solutions

17. Which software component is installed on network devices that are managed through SNMP?

• management agents

18. A network engineer working for a contracting company is informed of a pre-bid meeting with a

potential client. What purpose does the network engineer have for attending the pre-bid meeting?

• to clarify project scope and timelines not included in the original request for proposal

19. A major corporation has decided to hire someone to upgrade their network infrastructure. A network

consulting company wants the job. What document must the network consulting company obtain to learn

about the business goals, the project scope, the requirements for the new network and the expected

deliverables?

• Request for Proposal

20. A corporation (client) wants a network upgrade and is putting out a request for services to various

network consulting companies (contractors). A RFQ is required. Which statement is true concerning the

RFQ?

• sent from the client to the contractors in place of a RFP when the technical specifications of a project are

known

21. Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services involves proactive management to identify and resolve

issues before the organization is affected?

• Optimize Phase

22. Why is it important to prioritize business goals when developing network design?

• to adhere to the best opportunities to contribute to the success of the business

23. Which two items help identify business goals and priorities before a new network project starts?

(Choose two.)

• motivation

• profitability

24. A network engineer working for ABC company is writing a response to an RFP for a network upgrade

and must create an executive summary. Which statement describes the basic components of an executive

summary?

• quick overview of the problem, the recommended solution, and the justification for ABC company

doing the job

25. In a network management architecture, which statement best describes a management agent?

• software running on a managed device to collect network information and allow that device to be

managed by a management station


1. It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or involved in

a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design Requirements

Document?

• Project Goal

• Project Scope

• Technical Requirements

• Current State of the Network

2. Which two pieces of information does the network designer need to determine if the Cisco IOS of a

router requires an upgrade? (Choose two.)

• amount of NVRAM installed

• model number of the router

• number of interfaces and installed HWICs

• installed Cisco IOS feature set and version

• error statistics for each interface

3. Which three pieces of information need to be considered when selecting the proper Cisco IOS version

for an upgrade? (Choose three.)

• processor ID

• interface type

• amount of DRAM

• bootstrap version

• device make and model

• size of system flash memory

4. What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface card in a

router? (Choose two.)

• Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.

• Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes the card.

• Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.

• Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.

• Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely

5. The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is

hotswappable. What does this mean?

• The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge could damage the

card.

• The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled down.

• The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this technology.

• The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is replacing.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge about a

poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network administrator discover

from the command output? (Choose two.)

• One connected device has router capability.

• The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.

• None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP address.

• Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.

• Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?

• The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.

• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.

• The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.

• The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.

• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.

8. An administrator wants to download a new Cisco IOS software version to the local router. Which

command performs this task?

• copy tftp flash

• copy flash run

• copy start tftp

• copy flash tftp

• copy tftp start

9. Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco IOS

image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the show version

command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the router to run this Cisco

IOS image?

• There is not enough DRAM and flash.

• There is enough DRAM and flash.

• There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.

• There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.

10. Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)

• identify coverage areas

• determine primary AP locations

• determine what AP equipment should be purchased

• determine how many users will access the WLAN

• identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions improve the weaknesses of the topology shown, assuming that

each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)

• Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.

• Implement a reduntant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server Farm.

• Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a redundant link to the

DMZ.

• Implement reduntant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.

• Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.

12. A company is beginning to analyze their new Cisco IOS upgrade requirements. What is one of the

router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new Cisco IOS version?

• processor type

• storage space in NVRAM

• interfaces and modules to be supported

• compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software

13. An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop fluctuates

from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that area. Which three factors

need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)

• type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop

• number of users in the area

• location of the AP

• list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP

• number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee

• location of walls and filing cabinets in the office

14. The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic. Before

upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the new requirements.

Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)

• number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany

• routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs

• size of DRAM and flash on each device

• routers that will support HWICs and VWICs

• system bootstrap version on each router and switch

• modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS

15. A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued to

upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What could be the

problem?

• There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.

• The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.

• The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.

• The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.

• The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a logical

diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be determined from the output

shown?

• The device with the ID of ISP is a router on the Internet.

• The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.

• The designer cannot telnet to the attached switch.

• The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.

17. A production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What three facts can be

determined? (Choose three.)

• POST occurred normally.

• The boot process was interrupted.

• There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.

• A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.

• A configuration file was not located in NVRAM or from a TFTP server.

• The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

18. During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company wireless

network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from radiating out into the

parking lot?

• change the channel on the wireless AP

• connect the wireless AP to a firewall

• change the type of antenna attached to the AP

• move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN

• move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch

19. A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this phase

of the project?

• eliminate the need for a site survey

• shorten the timeframe of the project

• lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices

• determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced

• To determine what existing network devices require upgrades to meet the new

20. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by the

value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?

• version

• file format

• feature set

• hardware platform

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

• R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.

• R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.

• The version of the IOS is 12.3.

• Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.

• A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.

22. During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak usage and the estimated

number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what step of the site survey process?

• the defining of customer requirements

• the identification of coverage areas

• the determining of preliminary AP locations

• the measurement of signal strength

23. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the IOS on

R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer failed?(Choose two.)

• The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.

• There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.

• Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.

• The copy command was incorrectly entered.

• The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.

24. In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network consulting team

detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers, provide network

diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the network?

• network requirements

• project scope

• overall project goal

• state of the network


1. In addition to the technical considerations, what other major factor is used to evaluate the success of

a network installation?

• final project costs

• maintenance costs

• user satisfaction

• statistics describing the performance of network devices

2. Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays? (Choose

two.)

• IP telephony

• live video webcasts

• audio file downloads

• online banking services

• file archival and retrieval

3. What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)

• NBAR

• NetFlow

• AutoQoS

• Wireshark

• Custom Queuing

4. In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its

importance and technical requirements?

• STP

• QoS

• RTP

• TCP

• VPN

5. What are two characteristics of voice over IP traffic? (Choose two.)

• Voice packets tend to be small.

• Voice packets must be processed in real time.

• Voice packets can effectively use TCP reliability features.

• Voice traffic can survive packet drops and retransmission delays.

• Voice packets must be converted to analog before being sent across the IP network.

• Voice packets automatically receive a higher priority value than other types of packets.

6. What are two things that a network designer can do to determine current and anticipated network

traffic flows? (Choose two.)

• Survey end users to obtain customer input.

• Upgrade the Cisco IOS software in all networking devices to optimize traffic flow.

• Limit the analysis to host-to-server traffic because host-to-host traffic is unimportant.

• Run a network traffic analysis to determine which applications are in use and by whom.

• Conduct an inventory of all networking devices that includes model numbers and memory

configurations

7. A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which two

factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)

• Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when processing voice traffic.

• Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.

• Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.

• Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or switches.

• The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.

8. Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network. The

security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can be implemented

to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive internal networks. Which

three features should the security administrator recommend? (Choose three.)

• firewalls

• priority queuing

• access control lists

• intrusion detection systems

• DHCP

• 128-bit WEP

9. The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a

connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus network.

Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these requirements?(Choose two.)

• voice-enabled firewall

• PoE switches and patch panels

• redundant backbone connectivity

• voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge

• separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented

10. When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be followed?(Choose

two.)

• Confirm that network jitter is minimal.

• Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.

• Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.

• Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.

• Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms.

11. What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on demand?

• implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order

• implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed

• install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm

• configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability

12. When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to ensure

that traffic is properly prioritized?

• define QoS policies

• define traffic classes

• determine traffic patterns

• identify traffic requirements

• identify networking equipment

13. Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)

• RTP should be used.

• Traffic is predictable.

• Packets are small in size.

• Transfers are throughput intensive.

• Response-time requirements are low.

14. Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)

• the type of ISP services needed

• the capabilities of end-user devices

• the areas where network congestion may occur

• the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers

• locations where high-bandwidth connections are required

15. Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)

• A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.

• A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.

• A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.

• A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.

• A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer switch.

16. Which service can be provided by the NetFlow Cisco utility?

• network planning and mapping

• IDS and IPS capabilities

• peak usage times and traffic routing

• network billing and accounting application

• security and user account restrictions

• source and destination UDP port mapping

17. Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and no

other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?

• high

• normal

• medium

• default

18. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show

queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the output of this

command? (Choose two.)

• queue traffic definitions

• priority list protocol assignments

• type of queuing being implemented

• number of packets placed in each queue

• queuing defaults that have been changed

• queuing has not been applied to this interface

19. An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these

protocols?

• IDS

• VPN

• WLAN

• firewall

• real-time video

20. A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements are

true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)

• PoE switches must be purchased.

• More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.

• Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.

• QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.

• VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on the

bottom?

• A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4

• A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3

• A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3

• A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1

• A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2

• A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1

22. A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60 days

old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the entire

transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?

• atomic

• consistent

• durable

• isolated

23. What is the primary goal of QoS?

• classification of traffic

• filtering and queuing voice traffic

• reducing bandwidth requirements

• providing priority service to selected traffic

24. Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?

• ToS

• CoS

• DSCP

• IP precedence

25. A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the system goes down before

the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a record of this transaction after the system

failure so that the customer will still receive the tickets and the credit card account will be debited

accordingly?

• atomic

• consistent

• durable

• isolated

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent switching loops,

to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which two protocols would be needed

to provide the support? (Choose two.)

• HDLC

• HSRP

• PPP

• RSTP

• VTP

27. network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming applications. Which two

protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources and minimize latency by incorporating

QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)

• RTCP

• HSRP

• RSTP

• RTP

• RPC

28. Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when compared to traditional

telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)

• manages phones centrally

• utilizes centralized call routing

• creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones

• requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer

• requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones

29. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve

performance? (Choose two.)

• link speed

• delay

• packet routing

• jitter

• packet addressing


1. Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?

• Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.

2. What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the Distribution

layer?

• It does not support route summarization.

3. When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands.

What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?

• voice-level quality of service

4. Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)

• PoE

• VLANs

• QoS traffic classification and marking

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?

• All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.

6. Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless

roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)

• use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing

• coverage

7. What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)

• redundant power availability

• SNMP

• switch clustering

8. A company lists this equipment in their network design:

Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches

One 5500 security appliance firewall

Two Catalyst 6509 switches

Two lightweight access points

Two Catalyst 2960 switches

Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user

connectivity? (Choose two.)

• lightweight access points

• Catalyst 2960 switches

9. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)

• access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20

access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21

access-list 101 permit ip any any

• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.

10. Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?

• Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a

switch or router

11. on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be

incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones?(Choose two.)

• Cisco wireless LAN controller

• lightweight access points

12. What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?

• packet switched

13. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches

shown?

• provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails

14. What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?

• provides QoS classification and marking

15. When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?

• securing the network devices

16. What characteristic of a network supports high availability

• redundancy

17. What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?

• switch

18. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?

• site survey

19. Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?

• scalability

20. What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?

• tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage

21. What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for

availability?

• fast convergence

22. A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for an organization. The

designer recommends adding network security devices in front of the server farm, although network

security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise Edge for two years. What type of attack can be

effectively prevented with this recommendation?

• internal attack

23. Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the enterprise

headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network

• administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the backup Frame

Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is allowed. Which statement is

true about the routing configuration on branch office edge routers?

• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.

24. An automobile sales company is establishing a new, small sales showroom in a downtown area. To

update the inventory database, the new sales office will need a WAN connection to the headquarters that

is located in the suburban area. The WAN connection should be around a 4 Mb/s connection. Which

WAN service will provide the most economical approach to meet the requirement?

• DSL

25. A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters of an

organization and its branch offices. In this context, what is one advantage of choosing Frame Relay over a

T1 line?

• flexible bandwidth

1. Which three of the following components are common to routers, switches, and

computers? (Choose 3)

RAM

CPU

motherboard

keyboard

2. Which two types of ports do routers have? (Choose 2.)

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printer

console

network

CD-ROM

USB

3. Which two statements best describe the functions of a router in a network?

(Choose 2.)

Routers maintain their routing tables and ensure that other routers know of

changes in the network.

Routers use the routing table to determine where to forward packets.

Routers strengthen the signal over large distances in a network.

Routers create larger collision domains.

Routers use ICMP to communicate network information from the router’s own

routing table with other routers.

4. Which three of the following statements about the path determination process are

accurate? (Choose 3.)

Routers evaluate the available paths to a destination

The routing process uses metrics and administrative distances when evaluating

network paths.

Dynamic routing occurs when the network administrator configures

information on each router.

Dynamic routing occurs when information is learned using routing information

that is obtained from routing protocols.

A default route holds an explicit route to every network.

The routing table holds multiple entries per network

5a. The router de-encapsulates the frame and uses the protocol information of the

frame to determine that the network layer packet will pass to the IP process.

Step 1

Step 2

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Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

5b. If the destination network is on a directly attached network, the router will use

the ARP process to obtain the MAC address of the host and forward it to the

network segment. If the network is reachable through another router, the router will

use the MAC address of the next-hop router and forward the packet out the interface

indicated in the routing table.

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

5c. The router checks the destination address in the IP header. Either the packet is

destined for the router itself or it needs to be forwarded. If the packet needs to be

forwarded, the router searches its routing table to determine where to send the

packet.

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

5d. The outgoing interface process encapsulates the packet appropriately to the

media and sends the packet onto the network segment.

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

5e. The router receives a packet on one of its interfaces.

Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

Step 4

Step 5

6. Which of the following contains routing information that helps a router in

determining the routing path?

IP Address

MAC Address

routing table

routing protocol

7. Which three of the following statements describe the function of routing tables?

(Choose 3.)

Routing tables provide an ordered list of known network addresses.

Routing tables are maintained through the transmission of MAC addresses.

Routing tables contain metrics that are used to determine the desirability of the

route.

Routing table associations tell a router that a particular destination is either

directly connected to the router or that it can be reached via another router (the

next-hop router) on the way to the final destination.

When a router receives an incoming packet, it uses the source address and

searches the routing table to find the best path for the data from that source.

Although routing protocols vary, routing metrics do not.

8a. This entry comes from having interfaces attached to network segments. This

entry is obviously the most certain; if the interface fails or is administratively shut

down, the entry for that network will be removed from the routing table.

Static routing

Dynamic routing




Default route

Directly connected network

8b. This is an optional entry that is used when no explicit path to a destination is

found in the routing table. This entry can be manually inserted or be populated from

a dynamic routing protocol.

Static routing

Dynamic routing

Default route


8c. These routes are entered manually by a system administrator directly into the

configuration of a router.

Static routing

Dynamic routing

Default route


8d. These routes are learned by the router, and the information is responsive to

changes in the network so that it is constantly being updated.

Static routing

Dynamic routing

Default route


9. Which three metrics are most commonly used by routing protocols to determine a

network path? (Choose 3.)

hop count

bandwidth

delay

packet length

distance


quantity

10. Which three statements accurately describe a distance vector protocol? (Choose

3.)

IGRP was developed by Cisco to address the issues associated with routing in

medium-size LANs.

Examples of this protocol include RIP and IGRP.

This protocol determines the direction and distance to any network in the

internetwork.

Using this protocol, a router needs to know the entire path to every network

segment.

This process is also known as “routing by rumor.”

11. Which three statements accurately describe a link-state routing protocol?

(Choose 3.)

The link-state database is used to calculate the paths with the highest

bandwidths on the network.

Link-state routing protocols respond quickly to network changes.

In link-state routing protocols, each router periodically sends messages to the

network, listing the routers to which it is directly connected and also

information about whether the link to each router is active.

Link-state routing protocols send periodic updates (link-state refreshes) at long

time intervals, approximately once every 30 minutes.

In link-state routing protocols, every router tries to build its own internal map

of the network topology.

Link-state routing protocols send periodic updates even if no network changes

have occurred.

12. All computers function using the _____.

base-10 system

decimal system

numeric system

binary system



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13. The decimal number 10 converts to the binary number _____.

10

1010

110

1000

14. Which of the following binary octets has an LSB of 0? (tip: LSB stands for least

significant bit, a fancy name of the right-most bit)

01100011

10100101

10011010

10011001

15. IP addresses are represented using _____.

32-bit binary numbers

16-bit decimal numbers

8-bit binary numbers

8 sets of 4-bit decimal numbers

16. 2 to the fifth power is _____.

2 X 5

128

2 multiplied by itself 5 times

none of the above

17. The decimal number 205 converted into a binary number is _____.

11011101

11001001

11000101

11001101



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18. The binary equivalent of decimal number 452 is _____.

111000100

110000100

111001100

101000100

19. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11000111?

218

199

179

208

20. The binary number 11101000111 converted into a decimal number is _____.

1183

1873

1638

1863

21. How many octets does a Class A network have in the host field?

3

2

1

4

22. What is the practical minimum number of bits that can be borrowed to form a

subnet?

1

2

3

4





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23. Using 6 subnet bits, how many usable subnets are created?

58

60

64

66

24. How many host addresses can be used in a Class C network?

253

254

255

256

25. What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create a subnet for

a Class C network? (hint: Number of Valid Hosts On A Subnet = (2 to the power of the

number fo host bits) – 2, leave 2 bits for host field in order to get 2 hosts per subnet.)

2

4

6

8

26. A subnet mask tells the router to look at which portions of an IP address?

mask and host bits

host and network bits

host and subnet bits

network and subnet bits

27. If a router does not match the appropriate address portions to a number on its

routing table, it _____.

sends the packet back to the sender

passes the packet to the next router in the hierarchy

adds that number to its table

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discards the packet

28. Which of the following subnet masks falls on octet boundaries?

255.0.0.0

255.255.0.0

255.255.255.0

all of the above

29. Which two of the following are binary default subnet masks? (Choose 2.)

11111111.00000000.00000000.00000000

11111111.11111111.01000000.00000000

11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000

255.255.224.0

30. Which part of the IP address 172.17.128.47 does the subnet mask 255.255.0.0

tell the router to look for?

172.17.128.47

172.17.128

172.17

10.172.47

31. 255.255.224.0 translates into the binary number _____.

11111111.00000000.11100000.00000000

11111111.11100000.00000000.00000000

11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000

11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000

32. To see how many bits you should borrow from the host portion of the network

address to give you the number of subnets you need, you should _____.

subtract the number of subnets you need from the host portion

add the bit values from right to left until the total (decimal value) is just greater

than the number of subnets you need






add the bit values from left to right until the total (decimal value) is just greater

than the number of subnets you need

none of the above

33. How should you power up a Cisco router?

Press the Reset button.

Turn the power switch to “on.”

Connect the fiber cable to another router.

Attach the power cable plug to the router power supply socket.

34. When you start a Cisco router, what should you see on the console?

Cisco IOS debug messages

the Diagnostic Console menu

Cisco IOS software output text

a graphical picture showing the real-time status of the LED

35. What is the primary purpose of setup mode on a Cisco router?

to display the current router configuration

to complete hardware and interface testing

to bring up a minimal feature configuration

to fully configure a Cisco router for IP routing

36. Which statement best describes what the user EXEC mode commands allow you

to configure on a Cisco router?

You cannot configure anything; the user mode commands are used to display

information.

The user EXEC mode allows you to perform global configuration tasks that

affect the entire router.

The user EXEC mode commands allow you to enter a secret password so that

you can configure the router.

The user EXEC mode commands allow you to configure interfaces,

subinterfaces, lines, and routers.

37. Which Cisco IOS command is used to return to user EXEC mode from the



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privileged EXEC mode?

exit

quit

disable

userexec

38a. Provides a list of commands and the arguments associated with a specific

command

context-sensitive help

console error messages

command history buffer

38b. Allows recall of long or complex commands or entries for reentry, review, or

correction




38c. Identifies problems with router commands incorrectly entered so that you can

alter or correct them




39. What information does the show running-config command provide on a Cisco

router?

current (running) configuration in RAM

system hardware and names of configuration files

amount of NVRAM used to store the configuration

version of Cisco IOS software running on the router

40. Which Cisco IOS command displays the configuration of the system hardware

and the software information?

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show version

show interfaces

show startup-config

show running-config

41a. Router(config-if)#

Line

Router

Interface

Controller

Subinterface

41b. Router(config-line)#

Line

Router

Interface

Controller

Subinterface

41c. Router(config-subif)#

Line

Router

Interface

Controller

Subinterface

14d. Router(config-router)#

Line

Router

Interface


Controller

Subinterface

41e. Router(config-controller)#

Line

Router

Interface

Controller

Subinterface

42. If you enter a major command on a Cisco router, what happens?

The router returns you to user EXEC mode.

The router returns a list of possible commands.

The router invokes a global configuration command.

The router switches you from one configuration mode to another.

43. Which Cisco IOS command creates a message to be displayed upon router

login?

hostname hostname

banner motd message

hostname interface description

description interface description

44. If both the enable secret and the enable password commands are configured on

your router, how do you get to the # prompt?

Enter the enable secret command.

Enter the enable password command.

Enter either the enable secret or the enable passwordcommand.

Enter both the enable secret and the enable passwordcommands.

45. Which Cisco IOS command will you use to set the console session timeout to 15

minutes and 30 seconds?


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set exec timeout 15 30

console timeout 15 30

timeout 15 30

exec-timeout 15 30

46. Which Cisco IOS command configures a serial port in slot 0, port 1 on a

modular router?

interface serial 0-0-1

interface serial 0 0 1

interface serial 0/0/1

interface serial 0/0-1

47. Which Cisco IOS command should you use to set the clock speed to 64 kbps on

a serial interface on a Cisco router?

clock rate 64

clock speed 64

clock rate 64000

clock speed 64000

48. A serial interface displays “Serial1 is up, line protocol is down.” Which two

situations may cause this error? (Choose 2.)

The clock rate has not been set.

The interface has been manually disabled.

No cable is attached to the serial interface.

There are no keepalives.

There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

49. Which two of the following would be considered a physical threat? (Choose 2)

A user leaving their password in their desk.

Someone turning off the power to the switch to block network access.

Someone turning off the air conditioning system in the network closet.

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Someone breaking into the cabinet that contains the network documentation.

50. Which four of the following can be protected with a password? (Choose 4)

Console access

VTY access

TTY access

User level access

Exec level access

51. Which of the following is the most secure method of remotely accessing a

network device?

http

telnet

ssh

rmon

snmp

52. Which of the following describes the Cisco Router and Security Device

Manager ?

It is a PC based management system that can be used to configure features like

DHCP sever.

It is a WEB based management system that can be used to configure features

like DHCP sever.

It is a server based management system that can be used to configure features

like DHCP sever.

It is a client based management system that can be used to configure features

like DHCP sever.

53. Where do the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager files reside?

The PC

The Router

The local client

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A Network server

54. What the two of the following are functions of DHCP? (Choose 2.)

DHCP dynamically assigns host names to client devices

DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to client devices.

DHCP dynamically assigns a default gateway to client devices.

DHCP dynamically assigns security access levels to client devices.

55. Which of the following describes the DHCP server provided by Cisco IOS?

It is a full DHCP server

Its support is limited to assigning IP addresses to clients.

It has to get is DHCP information for a master DHCP server.

It has limited DHCP support and can only assign IP addresses and default

gateways to clients.

56. Which of the following are required DHCP parameters when configuring a

DHCP server on a Cisco router? (Choose 2)

Pool Name

Domain Name

Default Router

DNS Server Address

WINS Server Address

DHCP Network and Subnet

57. Which command can be used to see if an address in the DHCP pool is already in

use by another device?

sh ip dhcp bindings

sh ip dhcp database

sh ip dhcp mapping

sh ip dhcp conflict

58. Which of the following is a Cisco IOS tool that can be used for secure remote

access to another device?

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SSH

SDM

ping

Telnet

traceroute

59. Which command would you use to see who has Telnet sessions to your router?

show user

show telnet

show sessions

show connections

60. Which of the following would you use to suspend a Telnet sessions?

end keyword

suspend keyword

CTRL-Shift-6 key sequence

CTRL-Shift-Del key sequence

A host receives a frame and computes the checksum, and determines that

the frame is damaged. The frame is discarded. At what layer of the OSI

model did this happen?

Data link

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for creating packets?

Network

Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of

which OSI layer?

layer 4

A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should

acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this

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communication session?

decrease the window size

Which term applies to the Transport layer's Protocol Data Unit (PDU):

Segment

Which of the following are associated with the application layer of the OSI

model?

Telnet

Routers operate at layer __. LAN switches operate at layer __. Ethernet

hubs operate at layer __. Word processing operates at layer __.

3,2,1, none

If a switch has three computers connected to it, with no VLANs present,

how many broadcast and collision domains is the switch creating?

one broadcast and three collision

When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?

data, segment, packet, frame, bit

What is the purpose of flow control?

two provide a means for the receiver to govern be amounts of data sent by

the sender

The following names are given to packets at various stages in the

encapsulation process.

1. Packets

2. Bits

3. Segments

4. Frames

To which OSI model layer do the packet names correspond?

Network, Physical, Transport, Data Link

Which two of the following statements accurately describe full-duplex

Ethernet?

It is collision free.

It uses direct point-to-point connections between the sender and receiver.

Which two of the following statements accurately describe half-duplex

Ethernet?

It sends both signals along the same wire.

It uses built-in loopback and collision detection.

The employees using your network have complained about slow data

transfers. You have decided to upgrade to full-duplex Ethernet. What

requirements do you have to meet to run it? (Select two.)

Full-duplex NICs.

Network media that can provide 10 or 100 Mbps data transport between

nodes.

You want to enable full-duplex on your Ethernet network. Which of the

following would you do? (Select two.)

Disable loopback and collision detection.

Make sure each switch port has only a single device connected.

An Ethernet network meets the specifications for Ethernet 100BaseTx.

Connected to a port on the switch is a single server. The switch port is

configured for auto-detect. What is the available bandwidth on the server

cable segment?

100 Mbps if the server NIC is half duplex; 200 Mbps if the server NIC is

full duplex.

What is the purpose of the backoff on an Ethernet network?

It is the random amount of time a device waits before retransmitting after a

collision.

Which of the following mechanisms are used on Ethernet networks to

control access to the transmission medium? (Select two.)

Backoff interval.

Collision detection.

What is the first thing that happens when a collision occurs on an Ethernet

network?

The device that detected the collision transmits a jam signal.

Which of the following are true about Gigabit Ethernet? (Select two.)

Can use both copper and fiber optic.

Uses CSMA/CD

You want to implement an Ethernet network using the 1000BaseT standard

using the minimum hardware specifications possible. Which of the

following should you include in your plan? (Select two.)

Cat5e twisted pair cable

RJ-45 connectors.

You want to implement an Ethernet network using the 100BaseFX standard

using the minimum hardware specifications possible. You need to support

distances of up to 1,000 meters. Which of the following should you include

in your plan? (Select two.)

Single-mode fiber optic cable.

LC connectors.

You manage a small network with two buildings, 1,000 meters apart. You

want to connect the two buildings together with a switch. You are

concerned about electromagnetic interference on the cable connecting the

two buildings. What should you include in your plan? (Select two.)

Fiber optic cables with LC connectors.

1000BaseLX Ethernet.

Which part of a MAC address is called the organizationally unique

identifier (OUI)?

The first 24 bits, or 3 bytes

What prevents a sending host on one side of the connection from

overflowing the buffers in the receiving host?

Flow control

You want to implement a network medium that is not susceptible to EMI.

What type of cabling should you use?

Fiber-optic cable

You have the following binary number: 10110111. What are the decimal

and hexadecimal equivalents?

183/B7

What type of RJ45 UTP cable do you use to connect a PC's COM port to a

router or switch console port?

Rolled

What is the maximum distance of 100BaseTX?

100 meters

In the operation of CSMA/CD, which host(s) have priority after the

expiration of the backoff algorithm?

All hosts have equal priority.

Which of the following is correct?

Full-duplex Ethernet uses one pair of wires.

Full-duplex Ethernet uses to pairs of wires.

Half-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires

Full-duplex Ethernet uses three pairs of wires.

Full-duplex Ethernet uses to pairs of wires.

Which of the following statements is false with respect to full duplex?

There are few collisions in full -- duplex mode.

How does a host on an Ethernet network know when to resume

transmissions after a collision has occurred?

The hosts will attempt to resume transmission after a time delay has

expired.

What must happen if a DHCP IP conflict occurs?

The administrator must fix the conflict by hand at the DHCP server

The binary equivalent of the decimal number 192 is:

11000000

You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration,

including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information.

Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?

DHCP

When discussing reserved IP addresses which of the following is

interpreted to mean "all networks?"

Network address of all 1s

Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses

per network ID?

Class C

Which of the following describes a web browser?

provides a way to look at and interact with information on the Internet

Match the following protocols with their port numbers:

FTP » 5 : port 21

News » 6 : port 144

Telnet » 2 : port 23

TFTP » 1 : port 69

DNS » 8 : port 53

POP3 » 4 : port 110

UDP » 7 : port 17

TCP » 3 : port 6

Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?

DNS

How does a DHCP client ensure that no other computer has its assigned IP

address?

Ping to its own address to see if a response is detected.

The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer

of the DoD model is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model?

Internet

If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the

subnetwork this host belongs to?

172.16.45.12

What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address

200.10.5.68/28?

200.10.5.64

What is the class of address, the subnet address, and the host address of the

following IP address: 172.16.10.5 255.255.248.0?

Class B, 172.16.8.0, and 10.5.

When discussing reserved IP addresses which of the following is

interpreted to mean "all networks?"

Network address of all 1s

What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts

on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?

30

You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of

host addresses available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow

from the host field to provide the correct subnet mask?

5

Which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce

the waste of IP addresses?

/30

You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29.

What is the broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN?

192.168.192.15

You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29.

Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the

LAN attached to the router interface?

6

Which privileged EXEC commands begin with the letters ac? (Select all

that apply)

access-enable

access-template

What information does the privileged exec show lacp command display?

Port channel information

How many commands in global configuration mode begin with the letters

"de"?

3

Which of the follow partial commands are unique, first-level commands in

global configuration mode (i.e. recognized as valid commands without

typing additional characters)? (Select all that apply)

al

q

rm

Which of the following parameters are valid second-level parameters for

the ip command in FastEthernet interface configuration mode? (Select all

that apply)

access-group

dhcp

igmp

Which of the following commands are complete commands (i.e. they do not

require additional parameters or keywords)? (Select all that apply)

Branch1#show version

Branch1#conf t

Branch1(config-if)#duplex half

You are working with a single active router. You would like to gather

information about the router. Use the CLI to answer the following

questions:

What's the iOS version?

How much Non-volatile RAM is available on the router?

How much DRAM does the router have?

How many serial interfaces does the router have?

12.4

191 KB

256 MB

4

If you wanted administrators to see a message when logging into the router,

which command would you use?

banner motd

In the Setup dialog, what do the square brackets ([ ]) indicate?

Default settings

What command will take you from privileged mode to user mode?

disable

Which of the following commands will configure all the default VTY ports

on a router?

Router(config)#line vty 0 4

Which command will show you whether a DTE or a DCE cable is plugged

into serial 0?

show controllers s 0

Which command is used to manually encrypt your passwords?

Service password-encryption

Which command is used to manually encrypt passwords on a Cisco router?

Router(config)#service password-encryption

Which of the following is a correct combination of file type and default

location in a Cisco router?

IOS/flash memory

Which switch IOS command allows access to high-level commands, such

as debug?

enable

Which command will delete the contents of NVRAM on a router?

erase start

For security reasons, you want to prevent the Toronto router from sharing

any information about itself with neighboring devices. What should you

do?

From global configuration mode on Toronto, type no cdp run.

You are physically seated at a Host connected to the console of the Seattle

router as shown in the exhibit. You need to know what IP address has been

configured on the E0 interface on the New York router. What are your

options? (Select two.)

Telnet to Toronto. From privileged mode type show cdp neighbors detail.

Telnet to New York. From privileged mode, type show interface E0.

You are working with a router connected to your network. You would like

to gather information about the devices connected to this router. Use the

necessary commands to answer the following questions: Which device is

connected to the Memphis FastEthernet0/1 interface? Which device is

connected to the Memphis Serial0/0/1 interface? What is the IP address of

the device connected to the Memphis Serial0/0/0 interface? What is the IP

address of the device connected to the Memphis FastEthernet0/0 interface?

Which remote port connects Branch3 to the Memphis router? Which remote

port connects Miami to the Memphis router? Which platform is running on

the device connected to the S0/0/2 interface?

Branch3

Miami

172.16.224.2

192.168.30.130

GigabitEthernet0/1

Serial0/0/0

1841

You are configuring a router that has a previous configuration. You need to

turn CDP on for the entire router, but turn it off for the serial 0/0/1

interface. Match the correct command on the left with the configuration

task on the right.

Enter global configuration mode > router#config t

Turn CDP on for the router > router(config)#cdp run

Enter interface configuration mode > router(config)#int s0/0/1

Turn CDP off for the interface > router(config-if)#no cdp enable

Which of the following commands would you use to modify the CDP

packet exchange interval to send CDP packets every 30 seconds?

cdp timer 30

What is the difference between data packets and route update packets?

Data packets transport user data through the internetwork and route update

packets are used to update neighbor routers about network connections.

Which of the following is the best description of the operation of split

horizon?

Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from

which the original update came.

What metric does RIPv2 use to find the best path to a remote network?

Hop count

____________________ is the process of using protocols to find and

update routing tables on routers.

Dynamic routing

State the three classes of routing protocols:

Distance-vector Routing

Protocols Link-state Routing Protocols

Hybrid Routing Protocols

Which of the following is true about route poisoning?

It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity.

Two connected routers are configured only with RIP routing. What will be

the result when a router receives a routing update that contains a higher-cost

path to a network already in its routing table?

The update will be ignored and no further action will occur.

What command will prevent RIP routing updates from exiting an interface

but will still allow the interface to receive RIP route updates?

Router(config-router)#passive-interface s0

Which command displays RIP routing updates?

debug ip rip

Which of the following information will enable a router to route packets?

All of the above.

Which of the following statements about RIP are true? (Select two.)

RIP uses hop counts as the cost metric.

RIP is susceptible to the count-to-infinity problem

When the network is using RIPv2 for the routing protocol, which address is

used to send router updates?

Multicast address

You are configuring the PDX router to maximize available bandwidth. You

realize that because the network connected to the Ethernet interface does

not contain any RIP-enabled devices, RIP updates do not need to be sent

out this interface. Which command can you use to prevent RIP updates

from being sent out the E0 interface?

pdx(config-router)#passive-interface e0

How do link-state routing protocols determine the topology of the network?

Each router initially exchanges LSP messages which are used to build a

topological database.

Which of the following are components of a link-state routing protocol?

(Select three.)

Routing table of paths and ports

SPF tree

Hello packets

What are the common elements of a network hierarchy used by link-state

routing protocols? (Select two.)

Autonomous System

Area

Which of the following are true about the link state routing method? (Select

three.)

Link state routers send updates immediately.

Convergence is faster than with the distance vector method.

Network traffic due to sharing routing information is less than with the

distance vector method.

Which of the following techniques are used to overcome problems inherent

with the link state routing method? (Select three.)

Areas.

Time stamps, sequence numbers, or aging timers.

Designated (authoritative) routers.

How are distance vector routing protocols different from link-state routing

protocols? (Select three.)

Distance vector routing algorithms do not calculate the exact topology of a

network.

Link-state routing protocols are faster to converge than distance vector

routing protocols.

Distance vector routing protocols are easier to implement than link-state

routing protocols.

Which of the following are true about the distance vector method of sharing

routing table information? (Select two.)

The entire routing table is sent to other routers.

Routers send routing information only to their neighbor routers.

Which of the following are true about the distance vector routing method?

(Select three.)

Distance vector routing is susceptible to routing loops.

Distance vector routers share the entire contents of their routing table with

their neighbors.

Distance vector routers have less hardware and software requirements than

link state routers.

Which of the following methods of preventing the count-to-infinity

problem with distance vector routers will send a hop count of 16 back up

the path from which the information was obtained?

Split horizon with poison reverse

One method of preventing routing loops is to not send information about a

route back to the router from which the information came. What is this

technique called?

Split horizon

Hold downs use triggered updates to help prevent routing loops by letting

routers know of changes in the network. Which of the following events can

reset the hold-down timer? (Select two.)

The hold-down timer runs out.

The hold-down timer receives notification of a change in network status.

Which of the following methods of preventing routing loops prevents

routing table changes from taking place too quickly and prevents downed

links from being added back into the routing table?

Hold-downs

Which of the following best describes the Platform as a Service (PaaS)

cloud computing service model?

PaaS delivers everything a developer needs to build an application onto the

cloud infrastructure.

Which of the following cloud computing solutions will deliver software

applications to a client either over the Internet or on a local area network?

SaaS

Which of the following is not true regarding cloud computing?

Cloud computing requires end-user knowledge of the physical location and

configuration of the system that delivers the services.

Which of the following are benefits of EIGRP? (Select two.)

Operates within a controlled hierarchy.

Supports multiple protocols.

Low use of network resources.

Uses an open standard.

Supports multiple protocols.

Low use of network resources.

Which of the following are benefits of EIGRP? (Select two.)

Operates within a controlled hierarchy.

Uses an open standard.

Supports manual route summarization.

Rapid convergence.

Supports manual route summarization.

Rapid convergence.

To configure EIGRP on a router, what are the minimum commands you

must use? (Select two.)

router eigrp 12

network 1.0.0.0

You want to configure Router B to run EIGRP. The networks attached to

both interfaces S0 and S1 on router B are to be advertised with

Autonomous System 100. Which set of commands should you enter?

router eigrp 100

network 172.16.0.0

network 172.17.0.0

Which of the following are true of EIGRP configuration to enable two

routers to become adjacent? (Select two.)

Authentication parameters must match.

The AS number used to configure EIGRP must match.

You have configured Router A, Router B and Router C as show in in the

exhibit. Users in network 10.1.1.0 claim they cannot access resources in

network 192.168.2.0. What is the problem?

Router C has been configured with the incorrect AS number.

You have configured Router A, Router B and Router C as shown in the

exhibit. Users in network 10.0.0.0 report that they have no trouble

accessing resources within their own network, but claim they cannot access

a database located on subnet 192.168.0.0. Users all the other networks

claim they are having no problems accessing the database. What is the

problem?

Router A has been configured with an incorrect network address.

You just configured Router_London as show in in the Exhibit. The router is

part of EIRGP autonomous system 200. Both directly connected networks

172.17.0.0 and 172.18.0.0 are to be advertised to neighbor routers within

AS200. When testing your router, you discover the neighboring routers

have no entries in their routing table for your subnets. What is the problem?

The AS has been incorrectly configured.

You are reviewing the configuration of a router that uses EIGRP for its

routing protocol. Shown below is the output from the show ip protocols

command:

Routing Protocol is "eigrp 1"

Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is not set.

Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not set.

EIGRP metric weight K1=1, K2=0, K3=1, K4=0, K5-0

EIGRP maximum hopcount 100

EIGRP maximum metric variance 2

Redistributing: eigrp 1

EIGRP NSF-aware route hold timer is 240s

Automatic network summarization is in effect

Maximum path: 5

Routing for Networks:

192.168.1.0

192.168.2.0

192.168.3.0

Routing Information Sources:

Gateway Distance Last Update

192.168.1.12 90 00:55:50

192.168.2.15 90 00:55:50

Distance: internal 90 external 170

Based on the output, what is true of this configuration?

EIGRP will load balance on up to 5 unequal-cost routes.


routing protocol. Shown below is the output from the show ip protocols

command:

Routing Protocol is "eigrp 1"

Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is not set

Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not set

Default networks flagged in outgoing updates

Default networks accepted from incoming updates

EIGRP maximum hopcount 100

EIGRP maximum metric variance 2

Redistributing: eigrp 1

EIGRP NSF-aware route hold timer is 240s

Automatic network summarization is in effect

Maximum path: 5

Routing for Networks:

192.168.1.12 90 00:55:50

192.168.2.15 90 00:55:50

Distance: internal 90 external 170

Based on the output, what is true of this configuration? (Select two.)

The routing process has 2 neighbors.

EIGRP is sharing information about 3 networks.

You are reviewing the configuration for a router that uses EIGRP for its

routing protocol. Shown below is the output from the show ip eigrp

topology all-links command:

Router# show ip eigrp topology all-links

IP-EIGRP Topology Table for process 77

Codes: P - Passive, A - Active, U - Update, Q - Query, R - Reply, r - Reply

status

P 172.16.90.0 255.255.255.0, 2 successors, FD is 46251776

via 172.16.80.28 (46251776/46226776), Ethernet0

via 172.16.81.28 (46251776/46226776), Ethernet1

via 172.16.80.31 (46277376/46251889), Serial0


via 172.16.82.28 (307200/281600), Ethernet1

via 172.16.80.28 (308500/281600), Ethernet0

via 172.16.80.31 (332800/307900), Serial0

Based on the output, which of the following is true for the route to network

172.16.81.0/24?

The route through Ethernet1 is the successor route.


routing protocol.. Shown below is the output from the show ip eigrp





status


via 172.16.80.28 (46251776/46226176), Ethernet0

via 172.16.81.28 (46251776/46226176), Ethernet1

via 172.16.80.31 (46277376/46251889), Serial0


via 172.16.82.28 (307200/281600), Ethernet1

via 172.16.80.28 (308500/281600), Ethernet0

via 172.16.80.31 (332800/307900), Serial0

Based on the output, what will happen when both successor routes to

network 172.16.90.0/24 are lost?

The router will recalculate the route to network 172.16.90.0/24.







status


via 172.16.80.28 (46251776/46226176), Ethernet0

via 172.16.81.28 (46251776/46226176), Ethernet1

via 172.16.80.31 (46277376/46251000), Serial0


via 172.16.82.28 (307200/281600), Ethernet1

via 172.16.80.28 (308500/281600), Ethernet0

via 172.16.80.31 (332800/307900), Serial0

Based on the output, what will happen when both successor routes to

network 172.16.90.0/24 are lost?

The route through Serial0 will automatically be used.







status


via 172.16.80.28 (46251776/46226176), Ethernet0

via 172.16.81.28 (46251776/46226176), Ethernet1

via 172.16.80.31 (46277376/46251000), Serial0

via 172.16.81.31 (46277400/46251800), Serial1

Based on the output, which of the following are true? (Select two.)

Serial0 is a feasible successor route

Ethernet0 and Ethernet1 are successor routes

You have configured EIGRP routing on Router A. A partial configuration is

shown below:

hostname RouterA

!

interface FastEthernet 0/0

ip address 192.168.1.65 255.255.255.224

duplex auto

speed auto

!

interface FastEthernet 0/1

ip address 192.168.1.97 255.255.255.240

duplex auto

!

interface Serial 0/1/0

ip address 10.21.177.85 255.255.255.252

encapsulation ppp

!

router eigrp 100

network 192.168.1.0

network 10.0.0.0

auto-summary

!

RouterA is connected to RouterB through the serial link. When you check

the routing table on RouterA, you see a single route reported learned

through EIGRP to network 192.168.1.0/24. You want RouterA to have

routes to the individual networks connected to RouterA. How should you

modify the configuration of RouterA?

Use the no auto-summary command.

Which of the following are true of OSPF configuration to enable two

routers to become adjacent? (Select two.)

Hello and dead timer intervals must match on all routers.

The area assigned to each network must match.

You have configured two routers, LondonA and LondonB for OSPF

routing. Serial0/0 on LondonA is connected to Serial0/1 on LondonB. The

partial configuration of each router is shown below:

When you check the routing table on LondonA, you find that it has not

learned about network 172.17.1.16 from LondonB. What is the problem?

The areas defined in the network statements do not match.

You have configured to routers, LondonA and LondonB for OSPF routing.

Serial0/0 on LondonA is connected to Serial0/1 on LondonB. The partial

configuration of each router is shown below: When you check the routing

table on LondonA, you find that it has not learned about network

172.17.1.16 from LondonB. What is the problem?

The IP address assigned to Serial0/0 on LondonA is not the same subnet as

the Ip address assigned to Serial0/1 on LondonB.

You have configured two routers, LondonA and LondonB for OSPF

routing. Serial0/0 on LondonA is connected to Serial0/1 on LondonB. The

partial configuration of each router is shown below: When you check the

routing table on LondonA, you find that it has not learned about network

172.17.1.16 from LondonB. What is the problem?

Wildcard mask values for the network statements are incorrect.

The Houston router is connected to the Dallas router with a serial link. You

have configured both routers with OSPF. You use the debug ip ospf events

command and see the following output: What is the problem?

The hello timer configured on the Dallas router is incorrect.

You have configured OSPF routing on RouterA. A partial configuration is

shown below: RouterA is connected to RouterB through the serial link.

What routes will RouterB have in its routing table that it has learned from

RouterA?

172.16.1.64/27 and 172.16.1.96/28

You have configured OSPF routing on RouterA. A partial configuration is

shown below: RouterA is connected to RouterB through the serial link.

When you check RouterA, it is not learned of any routes connected to

RouterB. What should you do to correct the problem?

Add a network statement that uses a network of 172.16.1.32 and a wildcard

mask of 0.0.0.31.

Using route distribution, routers within an autonomous system can use

different AS numbers to communicate routing information.

True

True or False: Routers that belong to different AS automatically share

routing information, and they don't become neighbors.

False

You need the IP address of the devices with which the router has

established an adjacency. Also, the retransmit interval and the queue counts

for the adjacent routers need to be checked. What command will display the

required information?

show IP EIGRP neighbors

What conditions must be met for Neighborship establishment?

Hello or ACK received

Which command will display all the EIGRP feasible successor routes

known to a router?

show ip eigrp topology

You want to use a routing protocol that utilizes the benefits of both distance

vector and link state. Which routing protocol will you use?

EIGRP

What is the default administrative distance of a static route if you use an

exit interface instead of a next hop address?

0

With which network type will OSPF establish router adjacencies but not

perform the DR/BDR election process?

Point-to-point

What is the administrative distance of OSPF?

110

Correctly identify the type of routing protocols required for the following

protocols:

EIGRP <==> ______

IGRP <==> ______

RIP <==> ______

OSPF <==> ______

Hybrid or Advanced Distance vector

Distance vector

Distance vector

Link state

A switch has a port that is alternating between green and amber. Which

condition could this indicate?

The port is experiencing errors

What command will display the forward/filter table?

show mac address-table

What will a switch do with a frame received on a port that has a destination

MAC address not in the mac address-table?

The switch will flood the data out all ports, except the port from which the

data originated.

What does a switch do when a frame is received on an interface and the

destination hardware address is unknown or not in the filter table?

Floods the network with the frame looking for the device

How does a switch populate the switch table?

by reading the source hardware address of a frame

Which of the following will prevent a broadcast storm?

Loop avoidance scheme

MMC which of the following are Layer 2 switch functions?

Address learning.

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN?

To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments

Which statement describes a spanning-tree network that has converged?

All switch and bridge ports are in either the forwarding or blocking state.

Which protocol will find all links in a network and shut down redundant

links?

STP

Documents

CCNA – OSI Model Questions