11+ Medway Test Revision Guide - How 2 Become

11+ Medway Test Revision Guide

Sample test questions, answers, and explanations for the Medway 11+

Grammar School Test

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ISBN: 9781912370696

First published in 2019 by How2Become Ltd.

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Disclaimer

Every effort has been made to ensure that the information contained within this guide is accurate at the time of publication. How2Become Ltd is not responsible for anyone failing any part of any selection process as a result of the information contained within this guide. How2Become Ltd and their authors cannot accept any responsibility for any errors or omissions within this guide, however caused. No responsibility for loss or damage occasioned by any person acting, or refraining from action, as a result of the material in this publication can be accepted by How2Become Ltd.

The information within this guide does not represent the views of any third party service or organisation.

CONTENTS

Introduction 9

MATHS 15

Maths Test 1 25

Maths Test 2 31

Maths Test 3 39

Maths Test 4 47

Maths Test 5 55

Maths Test 6 63

VERBAL 73

Verbal Test 1 81

Verbal Test 2 91

Verbal Test 3 101

Verbal Test 4 111

Verbal Test 5 119

Verbal Test 6 127

EXTENDED WRITING 135

Writing Exercise 1 147




A Few Final Words 163

INTRODUCTION

Introduction

11

Hello, and welcome to your Medway 11+ Revision Guide. Written by the UK’s leading career and education specialists, this book provides a comprehensive insight into the Medway 11+. It will ensure that students are fully prepared for their test, and allow them to practise using sample questions.

Here at How2Become, we strive to ensure that students and parents are satisfied with our guides, and to produce outstanding books that are packed full of advice and tips, to guarantee that students are fully prepared for their assessment. This book will give you everything you need to know, and more, about the Medway 11+.

WHAT IS THE MEDWAY 11+?

In order for a student to join a Medway grammar school, they will need to pass the Medway 11+. The Medway 11+ is a separate examination to the Kent Test, and the two are not the same. If you currently live outside of Medway, but would like your child to join a Medway grammar school, then they will need to be registered for the Medway Test.

The Medway Test consists of three sections in total:

• Maths.

• Verbal Reasoning.

• Extended Writing.

The format of the test can differ between years, so it’s important to research and ensure that you are preparing for the correct yearly version of the test.

How is the test scored?

Both the maths section of the test, and the verbal reasoning section of the test, are multiple-choice. These tests are marked based on the number of correct answers that the test-taker scores, whereas the extended writing exercise is marked based on specific criteria, such as structure, and language.

Each year that the test takes place, a minimum percentage score is set for the number of children who will progress to grammar school from the Medway area. This can vary between years, and depends on the top scoring pupils in the year group for that test year.

The test is scored as follows:

Extended Writing standardised score × 2 + Mathematics standardised score × 2 + Verbal reasoning standardised score x 1 = Total weighted score.

Medway 11+

12

Guidance on How to Use the Multiple-Choice Answer Sheets

• The majority of the questions in your exam will be multiple-choice questions.

• The multiple-choice test papers are often marked by computers. For this reason, accuracy in filling them in is key.

• At the start of the exam, you will be told to fill in your name and the name of your school, and check things such as your date of birth. Make sure all the information is filled in correctly and accurately.

• Use a pencil to mark your answers in the answer boxes.

• Put a clear line through the box.

• Mark just one answer per question. If you mark more than one box for one question, you will lose the mark even if one of the answers was correct.

• If you make a mistake, use an eraser to rub it out, and then clearly mark the answer you wish to select.

• It is advisable to bring a pencil sharpener to the exam room just in case.

• If you skip a question, come back to it later. Make sure you skip a line of answer boxes so as not to get your answers jumbled up.

• Don’t do any of your workings out on the answer sheet.

• Remember, the question booklets will not be marked, so you must not write any of your answers on them.

• You will not lose any marks for answers that are incorrect, so it makes sense to provide an answer to every single question.

• On the day of the exam you will see that at the top of the answer sheet you are reminded how to fill out your answers. Make sure you have a look at this to remind yourself what to do before you start.

Introduction

13

Example Answer Sheet

Here is a basic example marking sheet which gives you some indication of what you can expect in your assessment. For example, if you chose answer option ‘B’ as the correct answer for question 1 on the English test, you would mark a line in pencil, horizontally through the box (as shown).

How This Book Is Structured

In this book, we’ve not only provided you with a huge number of test questions, but we’ve also done our very best to make the revision process as easy as possible! Both the Verbal and Maths sections of this book contain 6 practice exercises, of 15 questions each. These are all preceded by helpful advice on how to answer each type of question, so that you know how to tackle the sections. Once you’ve finished each run of 15 questions, you’ll be given detailed answers explaining every single question. So, don’t move onto the next section without making sure you understand where you were right, and where you went wrong.

Finally, our extended writing section is broken down to help you understand the different elements of writing a piece of fiction or essay, complete with structural tips, language advice, and even advice on how to write your own dialogue!

Before We Begin

Exams can seem daunting, and every single person experiences pressure in the build up to the exam. However, they don’t need to be scary, or intimidating. The more practice you do, the more prepared you’ll feel, and the more confident you’ll be when walking into the exam room. Using our tips, strategies, and revision advice, we have no doubt that you’ll be able to improve your performance, and ace your Medway 11+.

So, without further ado, let’s begin!

Medway 11+

14

Disclaimer

The questions in this guide are designed to help you practise for the Medway 11+. They are not representative of the exact questions that you’ll see in the exam.

MATHS

Medway 11+

16

The Maths section of the Medway 11+ is designed to test your understanding of basic calculations, numbers, percentages, graphs, ratios, and other such mathematical constructs. All of the questions will be multiple choice in nature, and you will not be permitted to use a calculator.

There are a wide variety of questions which you might encounter during this exam, and they include:

Percentage Questions

These types of questions focus on your ability to understand percentages and how they work. There are lots of different factors to percentage questions, and said questions can ask you to work out a number of different things. You might be asked to calculate:

• A percentage increase.

• A percentage decrease.

• Basic percentage calculations. For example, 50% of 100.

• A monetary discount. For example, 20% discount on a pair of shoes that cost £40.

• The percentage chance of an event/something occurring.

To work out percentages, divide the whole number by 100 and then multiply the percentage you want to find.

Below we’ve included 2 basic percentage questions, to get you started with this type of calculation.

Question 1.

A man walks into a shop and purchases a bag of tomatoes for £6.20. He receives 30% off his final purchase, and pays with a £10 note. How much change does the man receive?

£6.70 £2.80 £5.66 £7.90

A B C D

Answer = C - £5.66

Explanation = 30% of £6.20 = £1.86.

Therefore, we minus £1.86 from £6.20 to get £4.34.

Maths

17

£10 − £4.34 = £5.66.

Question 2.

There are 40 pupils in a classroom. 25% of these pupils fail their test, and will need to resit the test. Upon resitting, another 30% of these pupils fail for a second time.

How many people failed the test at the second attempt?

3 9 5 7

A B C D

Answer = A - 3

Explanation = 25% of 40 = 10 pupils who failed the test the first time round.

30% of this 10 pupils failed the second time. 30% of 10 = 3.

Therefore, 3 pupils failed their second attempt.

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18

Mean, Median, Mode, Range

These types of questions are very common, and focus on groups of numbers. As a refresh, here is how to work out all of the above:

• Mean/Average – add all of the numbers together and then divide by the amount of numbers.

For example: if we had the values of 20, 21, 22, 23, and 24, to find the average we would add all the numbers together - 20 + 21 + 22 + 23 + 24 = 110, and then divide by the total number of values. So, 110 ÷ 5 = 22. The average value here is 22.

• Median – the middle value, when all the numbers are placed in consecutive, ascending order.

For example: if we had the values of 20, 29, 24, 27, 32, 45, and 30, we would first need to place these numbers in consecutive order - 20, 24, 27, 29, 30, 32, 45. The middle number (or median) would be 29, since there are 7 numbers, and there are three on each side of this value.

• Mode – The most frequently occurring number.

For example, if we had the values of 24, 25, 87, 32, 46, 56, and 46, then the mode would be 46 - as this is the most frequently occurring number.

• Range – the highest value minus the lowest value.

For example, if we had the values of 89, 24, 56, 12, 4, and 19, then we would subtract 4 from 89 to find the range, which would be 85.

Usually, you’ll be given a set of data, and then will be asked to work out the above using said data. Below we’ve included two sample questions, to get you practising this:

Question 1.

Sophie has recently come into a great deal of money, and has decided to go shopping. Over the course of the week, Sophie goes shopping every day, and purchases the following items:

Monday – £25.00 on a dress

Tuesday – £62.00 on a pair of shoes

Wednesday – £84.00 on a handbag

Thursday – £65.00 on a t-shirt

Friday - £50.00 on a pair of boots

Maths

19

What was Sophie’s average spend per day?

£58.75 £64.50 £68.70 £57.20

A B C D

Answer = D – £57.20.

Explanation = To work this out, first of all add the total spending.

So, £25 + £62 + £84 + £65 + £50 = £286.

£286 ÷ 5 (5 days) = £57.20

Question 2.

Work out the range of Sophie’s spending.

£69 £58 £59 £70

A B C D

Answer = C – £59

Explanation = To work this out, subtract the smallest figure from the largest figure. So, £84 − £25 = £59.

Ratios

Ratios are another very common type of question in the exam, and you can expect to answer a number of questions based on this.

You’ll normally be asked to work out a value based on a ratio. So, you’ll be given a total figure, let’s say 1,000 litres, and then told that this is divided into oil and water (or another such substance), in a ratio – for example, 20:30. This means that for every 20 litres of oil, there are 30 litres of water. It is important to remember that whichever element is mentioned first will be represented on the left-hand side of the ratio. You then must work out how many litres there are of each substance, using the ratio.

Let’s look at two examples:

Medway 11+

20

Question 1.

Esteban is a maths tutor. Today, he is helping two pupils to prepare for their examination – their names are Sophie and Brian. As a reward for their performance during the lesson, he gives them both some ice cream. Esteban’s tub contains 3,000 litres of ice cream. He splits the ice cream between Sophie and Brian, in the ratio of 30:20 respectively. How many litres of ice cream does Sophie get?

1,400 litres 1,300 litres 1,800 litres 1,000 litres

A B C D

Answer = C – 1,800 litres

Explanation = To work this out, first of all add the total ratio together. So, 30 + 20 = 50.

Then, work out 3,000 divided by 50 = 60. Multiply Sopie’s share by 60 (30 × 60), to get 1,800 litres.

Question 2.

Moira is a florist. In her shop today, she has roses, freesias, and sunflowers. Today, business is bad. Moira only sells 4 roses, and none of the other plants. She now has 180 plants in her shop, in the ratio 4:4:12.

How many sunflowers does Moira have in her shop?

140 78 70 108

A B C D

Answer

Answer = D – 108.

Explanation = To work this out, first of all add up the ratios. 4 + 4 + 12 = 20. Then, work out 180 divided by 20 = 9. Multiply the 12 by 9, to get 108 sunflowers.

Maths

21

Functions

Another common question type that you might see, requires you to work backwards, after being given a number. You’ll be given information about the different steps required, and then must implement these to find the original number. For example, you might be told:

‘I think of a number. I add 7, then minus 29. The final value of the number is 62. What number did I start with?’

This is super easy to work out – all you have to do is work backwards! Remember, when you work backwards you need to reverse the operations, so addition becomes subtraction, division becomes multiplication and vice versa.’

So, 62 + 29 = 91

91 − 7 = 84

So, the number you started with was 84. You can then work forwards, just to check this:

84 + 7 = 91

91 − 29 = 62

Now, have a go at the questions below:

Question 1.

‘I think of a number. I multiply the number by 11, then add 20. I then divide by 3, and multiply by 5. The final value of the number is 70. What number did I start with?

9 4 18 2

A B C D

Answer = D – 2

Explanation = 70 ÷ 5 = 14

14 × 3 = 42

42 − 20 = 22

22 ÷ 11 = 2

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22

Question 2.

I think of a number. I multiply the number by 5, then by 3. I subtract 100, and add 50. The final value of the number is 85. What number did I start with?

17 14 9 12

A B C D

Answer = C – 9

Explanation = 85 − 50 = 35

35 + 100 = 135

135 ÷ 3 = 45

45 ÷ 5 = 9

Missing Values

Missing value questions are very common, and therefore you need to be prepared for them. These questions are relatively simple to work out, and take the following format:

6?2 + 57 = 679.

Your task is to work out the missing value, indicated by a question mark. To work this out, you can reverse the question. If 6?2 + 57 = 679, then the reverse is also true: 679 − 57 = 6?2

Now work this out:

679 − 57 = 622

Therefore, the missing value is 2.

Now, have a go at the questions below:

Question 1.

12? – 68 = 52

7 0 4 6

A B C D

Maths

23

Answer

Answer = B – 0

Explanation = 52 + 68 = 120. Therefore, the missing digit is 0.

Question 2.

12 + 8? = 101

5 2 7 9

A B C D

Answer

Answer = D – 9

Explanation = 101 − 12 = 89. Therefore, the missing digit is 9.

• The following test contains 15 questions.

• When answering the questions, tick the correct answer option.

• Each question is worth one mark in total.

• You have 20 minutes to answer the questions.

• Once you’re finished, check your answers at the end of the section.

Maths

Test 1

Medway 11+

26

Question 1. 16.09 + 5.43 =

21.52 22.56 23.45 22.10

A B C D

Question 2. A bag of sugar has 1,262 g remaining in it. How much is this in kg?

17.89 kg 1.262 kg 1.364 kg 12.62 kg

A B C D

Question 3. The area of a tile is 5 cm × 5 cm = 25 cm². What is this area written in mm²?

1,320 mm² 2,500 mm² 250 mm² 2,200 mm²

A B C D

Question 4. What is a third of £96?

£34 £32 £38 £37

A B C D

Question 5. 41 × 230 =

9,203 9,888 7,893 9,430

A B C D

Maths Test 1

27

Question 6. A pair of shorts that originally cost £30.00 are reduced in the sale by £12.00. What percentage discount has been applied?

40% 30% 60% 20%

A B C D

Question 7. 144 ÷ 9 =

15 16 17 18

A B C D

Question 8. 18 ÷ 0.3 =

22 78 70 60

A B C D

Question 9. 72 + 1?7 = 259

6 2 3 8

A B C D

Question 10. 0.4? − 0.13 = 0.29

3 7 2 5

A B C D

Medway 11+

28

Question 11. Femi is hosting a competition to raise money for charity. He sells raffle tickets at his school with values from 1 to 40. The winning ticket will receive a prize. Millie buys 2 tickets. What is the probability of her winning the prize?

1

62

2

20

1

20

1

40

A B C D

Question 12. Calculate 25% of £96.

£27 £22 £28 £24

A B C D

Question 13. 60.5 ÷ 5.? = 11

2 1 8 5

A B C D

Question 14. 2?− 29 = –6

8 2 5 3

A B C D

Question 15. A sunflower grows to 1,023 mm tall. How tall is this in cm?

0.1023 cm 1.023 cm 102.3 cm 10.23 cm

A B C D

Maths Test 1

29

Answers

Q1. A = 21.52

Explanation = 16.09 + 5.43 = 21.52

Q2. B = 1.262 kg

Explanation = There are 1,000 grams in a kilogram. Therefore, 1,262 g = 1.262 kg

Q3. B = 250 mm2

Explanation = There are 10 millimetres in a centimetre. Therefore, 25 cm = 250 mm.

Q4. B = £32

Explanation = 1

3 × 96 = 32

Q5. D = 9,430

Explanation = 41 × 230 = 9,430

Q6. A = 40%

Explanation = 12 ÷ 30 = 0.4

0.4 × 100 = 40. Therefore, the answer is 40%.

Q7. B = 16


Q8. D = 60

Explanation = 18 ÷ 0.3 = 60

Q9. D = 8

Explanation = 259 − 72 = 187

Q10. C = 2

Explanation = 0.29 + 0.13 = 0.42

Q11. C = 1

20Explanation = If there are 40 tickets, and Millie buys 2 of them, then she’ll have a

2

40

chance of winning. Simplified, this equals 1

20

.

Medway 11+

30

Q12. D = £24

Explanation = 25% of 96 = 0.25

0.25 × 96 = 24

Q13. D = 5

Explanation = 11 × 5.5 = 60.5

Q14. D = 3

Explanation = −6 + 29 = 23

Q15. C = 102.3 cm

Explanation = There are 10 millimetres in a centimetre. Therefore, 1,023 mm = 102.3 cm.

Maths

Test 2






Medway 11+

32

Question 1. Katie is given weekly pocket money for her part-time jobs. Here is how much she earns across six weeks.

£40.60 £32.20 £75.80 £25.00 £15.50 £20.90

Work out the mean.

£26 £27 £35 £32

A B C D

Question 2. Tick one of the following boxes that shows three quarters shaded in:

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D

Question 3. I think of a number. I then multiply it by 4. Next, I subtract 4. The answer is 20.

What was the number I started with?

3 2 5 6

A B C D

Question 4. 2 out of 5 penguins in a zoo are male. There are 40 penguins in the zoo. What fraction of the penguins at the zoo are female?

22

40

24

40

23

40

28

40

A B C D

Maths Test 2

33

Question 5. Mr Franks had his 36th birthday on 5th May, 2018. How old will he be on 5th May, 2026?

44 years old 42 years old 48 years old 46 years old

A B C D

Question 6. Take a look at the following sweet shop price list:

White chocolate mice £0.20 eachBanana sweets £ 0.13 each Strawberry laces £ 0.25 eachLiquorice pieces £ 0.16 each

Martha chose a bag to share between her and her family.

In total she had 12 strawberry laces, 15 white mice, 25 banana sweets and 8 liquorice pieces.

What was the total cost?

£14.56 £12.89 £11.62 £10.53

A B C D

Question 7. What is the smallest even 5-digit number that can be made, by rearranging the following digits: 4 9 3 7 9

35,672 37,994 38,679 32,679

A B C D

Question 8. 679 × 2 =

2,654 1,279 1,358 1,300

A B C D

Medway 11+

34

Question 9. A man walks into a chocolate shop, and spends £4 on a box of chocolate, £2 on flowers, and £3 on a bottle of wine. He pays with a £20 note. How much change does the man receive?

£9 £7 £11 £10

A B C D

Question 10. What is three times six times two?

38 32 30 36

A B C D

Question 11. The maximum temperature in Country A recorded in December is −8°. The temperature range for Country A is 38°. Work out the lowest temperature in Country A.

−38° −48° −46° −32°

A B C D

Question 12. How many factors does the number 54 have?

8 10 12 16

A B C D

Question 13. The average speed of a train for 6 hours was 120 km/h (kilometres per hour). The average speed for the first 3 hours was 80 km/h. What was the average speed of the train for the last 3 hours in km/h?

120 km/h 160 km/h 140 km/h 130 km/h

A B C D

Maths Test 2

35

Question 14. I think of a number. I then multiply it by 9. Next, I add 8. The answer is 80. What was the number I started with?

2 6 8 4

A B C D

Question 15. Minus 657 from 912, then multiply by 5.

2,000 4,000 1,275 869

A B C D

Medway 11+

36

Answers

Q1. C = £35

Explanation = £40.60 + £32.20 + £75.80 + £25.00 + £15.50 + £20.90 = £210

£210 ÷ 6 = £35

Q2. C

Explanation = There are 16 squares total. 3

4 of 16 = 12

Q3. D = 6

Explanation = 20 + 4 = 24

24 ÷ 4 = 6

Q4. B = 24

40Explanation =

2

5 of 40 = 16

40 − 16 = 24

Therefore, 24 of the 40 penguins are female.

Q5. A = 44 years old

Explanation = 36 + 8 = 44

Q6. D = £10.53

Explanation = £3 + £3 + £3.25 + £1.28 = £10.53

Q7. B = 37,994

Explanation = 4 is the only even number. So, this digit must be used last. Order the remaining numbers from smallest to largest.

Q8. C = 1,358

Explanation = 679 × 2 = 1,358

Q9. C = £11

Explanation = 4 + 2 + 3 = £9

£20 − £9 = £11

Maths Test 2

37

Q10. D = 36

Explanation = 3 × 6 = 18

18 × 2 = 36

Q11. C = −46°

Explanation = −8 − 38 = −46

Q12. A = 8

Explanation = 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54 are the factors of 54.

Q13. B = 160 km/h

Explanation = You would travel 720 kilometres in total. 3 hours at 80 km/h is 240 km. Divide the remaining 480 km by 3, to get 160 km/h.

Q14. C = 8


72 ÷ 9 = 8

Q15. C = 1,275

Explanation = 912 − 657 = 255

255 × 5 = 1,275

Maths

Test 3






Medway 11+

40

Question 1. Work out the difference between 12,698 and 3,589.

8,782 9,200 9,208 9,109

A B C D

Question 2. Work out the value of ?, in the following calculation:

654 × 23 = 15,?42

8 9 0 3

A B C D

Question 3. Add together: 5 mm, 0.4 cm, and 0.2 m. Give your answer in cm.

200 cm 20.9 cm 209 cm 2,009 cm

A B C D

Question 4. Sarah goes into the clothing store. She purchases a pair of shoes for £600, a dress for £500, and a handbag for £2,800. The shopkeeper provides her with a 30% discount on the dress. How much does Sarah pay in total, for all the items?

£3,240 £3,750 £3,500 £3,600

A B C D

Question 5. Jasmine is 3 years older than Frank is now. Frank is 62 years old. When Jasmine was 48, how old was Frank?


A B C D

Maths Test 3

41

Question 6. I think of a number.

I subtract 12, and then multiply it by 7.

I halve the number and multiply by 3.

My number is now 84.

What number did I originally start with?

10 20 12 5

A B C D

Question 7. Find the largest possible number that can be made by arranging the following 5 digits - 7 8 3 5 9

98,753 98,653 98,573 98,735

A B C D

Question 8. A car travels at a speed of 50 miles per hour, down a straight motorway. It takes 2 hours and a half hours to reach the end of the motorway. How far does the car travel in 2 and a half hours?

200 miles 125 miles 178 miles 160 miles

A B C D

Question 9. Calculate the value of 672 minus 369, added to 542 minus 500.

340 345 342 336

A B C D

Medway 11+

42

Question 10. Aaron has a bag of marbles. There are eighteen marbles in the bag: 10 red, 3 blue, 1 green, and 4 yellow. Aaron swaps one red marble for an extra blue marble. He then removes one yellow marble, and replaces it with 3 green marbles. What percentage of the bag is now made up of red marbles?

45% 49% 50% 53%

A B C D

Question 11. Miles, Pamela, Mark, and Bernice work in the same office as one another, and all leave work at 4 o’clock exactly. All of them go straight to their homes.

Miles drives home at a speed of 62 miles per hour, for 2 hours. Pamela drives home at a speed of 90 miles per hour, for 100 minutes. Mark drives home at a speed of 68 miles per hour, for 150 minutes. Bernice drives home at a speed of 70 miles per hour, for 170 minutes.

Who arrives home last?

Miles Pamela Mark Bernice

A B C D

Question 12. There are twenty marbles in my bag. 30% of the marbles are red, 20% of them are blue, 40% of them are green, and the final 10% are purple. I add another 10 red marbles to my bag. How many red marbles do I have in the bag?

16 20 17 19

A B C D

Maths Test 3

43

Question 13. Finley draws a graph which shows the flight of his remote-control aeroplane.

1 2 3 4 5 6

10

20

30

40

50

60

00

5

15

25

35

45

55

MINUTES

How long did the whole flight last for?

4 minutes 5 minutes 6 minutes 12 minutes

A B C D

Question 14. What is 679 subtracted from 3,256?

1,890 2,577 2,000 2,200

A B C D

Question 15. Work out the value of 800 ÷ 400, multiplied by 20 × 2.

400 100 80 800

A B C D

Medway 11+

44

Answers

Q1. D = 9,109

Explanation = 12,698 − 3,589 = 9,109

Q2. C = 0

Explanation = 654 × 23 = 15,042

Q3. B = 20.9 cm

Explanation = Convert all the values into centimetres.

0.5 cm + 0.4 cm + 20 cm = 20.9 cm

Q4. B = £3,750

Explanation = £2,800 + £600 = £3,400.

30% of 500 = £150.

£500 − £150 = £350.

£3,400 + £350 = £3,750

Q5. D = 45 years old


Q6. B = 20


28 × 2 = 56

56 ÷ 7 = 8

8 + 12 = 20

Q7. A = 98,753

Explanation = Put the biggest numbers first, in consecutive order.

Q8. B = 125 miles

Explanation = 50 x 2.5 = 125

Maths Test 3

45

Q9. B = 345

Explanation = 672 − 369 = 303. 542 − 500 = 42

303 + 42 = 345

Q10. A = 45%

Explanation = There are 20 marbles left in the bag at a final count. There are 9 red marbles left in the bag. Therefore, 9

20

= 0.45

0.45 × 100 = 45

Q11. D = Bernice

Explanation = In this question, you only need to pay attention to the amount of time they spend driving. Bernice spends 170 minutes driving home, longer than anyone else, regardless of the speed at which she is travelling. Therefore, she arrives home last.

Q12. A = 16

Explanation = 30% of 20 = 6

6 + 10 = 16

Q13. C = 6 minutes

Explanation = The graph indicates that the journey lasted for 6 minutes in total.

Q14. B = 2,577

Explanation = 3256 − 679 = 2,577

Q15. C = 80


20 × 2 = 40

40 × 2 = 80

Maths

Test 4






Medway 11+

48

Question 1. Below are four groups of numbers. Which of these groups contains ONLY prime numbers?

(57, 69, 82, 99) (22, 36, 38, 40) (10, 20, 85, 100) (3, 7, 11, 13)

A B C D

Question 2. Work out the missing values in the following sequence.

8, 10, 13, 17, 22, ?, ?

28, 35 26, 29 32, 38 24, 28

A B C D

Question 3. Work out the missing values in the following sequence.

6, 12, 36, 144, 720, ?, ?

887, 1,562 2,000, 3,000 2,160, 12,960 4,320, 30,240

A B C D

Question 4. What is the lowest common multiple of 5, 6, and 9?

50 84 70 90

A B C D

Question 5. Aaron has a jug containing 2,160 ml of fizzy pop mix. The mix consists of lemonade and cola. The lemonade and cola are divided into the ratio of 80:100. How many millilitres of cola are in the jug?

1000 ml 1,200 ml 1,400 ml 1,800 ml

A B C D

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Question 6. Gemma wants to bake a chicken casserole. She puts her casserole in the oven at 10:12 am and needs to leave it in there for 1 hour and 37 minutes. What time should she get the casserole out?

11:52 am 11:49 am 12:53 pm 11:45 am

A B C D

Question 7. Teresa gives birth to a boy. Her new baby boy, Harrison, weighs 3 kilograms. Given that 1 kilogram is approximately 2 pounds, how much does Harrison weigh in pounds?

5 pounds 6 pounds 10 pounds 12 pounds

A B C D

Question 8. Scarlett goes in to her local supermarket to buy 2,500 grams of sugar. She wants to know how much this would be in kilograms. Work out how many kilograms of sugar Scarlett would need.

2.5 kg 200 kg 25 kg 0.25 kg

A B C D

Question 9. A box has a length of 4 cm, a width of 5 cm and a height of 7 cm. Work out the volume of the box.

170 cm³ 120 cm³ 130 cm³ 140 cm³

A B C D

Question 10. An angle less than 90° is called what?

Acute Concave Perpendicular Obtuse

A B C D

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Question 11. Emma has a box of shoes. 39 of these shoes have stiletto heels. 78 of the shoes have flat heels. 20 of the shoes have Cuban heels. There are 13 more shoes in the box, and they all have mid-length heels. What percentage of the shoes have stiletto heels?

39% 26% 73% 31%

A B C D

Question 12. Dwayne is travelling from New York to California. He sets off at 12:52 pm. The plane stops off at Chicago airport, touching down at 15:38, where Dwayne waits for half an hour, before boarding another flight straight to California. He arrives at his final destination at 19:57 exactly. How long was Dwayne in the air for during his trip?

450 minutes 500 minutes 395 minutes 280 minutes

A B C D

Question 13. The government have announced that the new minimum wage for people over the age of 25 is £10.60 per hour. Jason is 26 years old. In his first year with his company, he earns 20% more than the minimum wage, working 5 days a week, for 6 hours every day, for 52 weeks. In his second year with his company, he earns exactly minimum wage, working 5 days a week, for 6 hours every day, for 52 weeks.

How much money has Jason earned after 2 years of working at his company?

£38,900.60 £35,200.20 £36,379.20 £35,672.80

A B C D

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Question 14. If a = 95, b = 7, and c = 12, work out the value of a − b × c.

524 11 1,056 84

A B C D

Question 15. Jordan went to the shops, and bought 15 bags of sweets. 10 of the bags were on a special offer, of 5 bags for £1. The rest of the sweets cost £2.40 per bag. How much money did Jordan spend on sweets?

£12 £16 £14 £17

A B C D

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Answers

Q1. D = (3, 7, 11, 13)

Explanation = Prime numbers are numbers that are only divisible by 1 and themselves.

Q2. A = 28, 35

Explanation = The sequence follows the pattern of: +2, +3, +4, +5, etc.

So, 22 + 6 = 28

28 + 7 = 35

Q3. D = 4,320, 30,240

Explanation = The sequence follows the pattern of ×2, ×3, ×4 , ×5, etc.

So, 720 × 6 = 4,320, and 4,320 × 7 = 30,240

Q4. D = 90

Explanation = The lowest common multiple of 5, 6 and 9, is 90.

Q5. B = 1,200 millilitres

Explanation = 2,160 ÷ 180 = 12.

12 × 100 = 1200 millilitres

Q6. B = 11:49 am

Explanation = 10:12 am + 1 hour and 37 minutes = 11:49 am

Q7. B = 6 pounds

Explanation = If 1 kilogram = 2 pounds, and Harrison weighs 3 kilograms, then this is equal to 6 pounds.

Q8. A = 2.5 kg

Explanation = 2,500 grams = 2.5 kg

Q9. D = 140 cm³

Explanation = 4 × 5 × 7 = 140

Q10. A = Acute

Explanation = Angles of less than 90° are acute angles.

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Q11. B = 26%

Explanation = There are 150 shoes total. 39 ÷ 150 = 0.26

0.26 × 100 = 26

Q12. C = 395 minutes

Explanation = 12:52 to 15:38 = 2 hours and 46 minutes.

15:38 + 30 minutes = 16:08.

16:08 to 19:57 = 3 hours and 49 minutes.

2 hours and 46 minutes + 3 hours and 49 minutes = 395 minutes

Q13. C = £36,379.20

Explanation = 20% of £10.60 = £2.12.

£10.60 + £2.12 = £12.72 per hour in first year.

£12.72 × 6 = £76.32 per day in first year.

£76.32 × 5 = £381.60 per week in first year.

£381.60 × 52 = £19,843.20 in first year

For second year:

£10.60 × 6 = £63.60 per day in second year.

£63.60 × 5 = £318 per week in second year.

£318 × 52 = £16,536 in second year.

£19,843.20 + £16,536 = £36,379.20

Q14. B = 11

Explanation = 7 × 12 = 84

95 - 84 = 11

Q15. C = £14

Explanation = The special offer means that Jordan gets 10 bags for £2. There are 5 bags remaining, at £2.40 each. So:

£2.40 × 5 = £12

£12 + £2 = £14






Test 5

Maths

Medway 11+

56

Question 1. Esteban is visiting his local shop. Whilst at the shop, he buys a burrito, which burns his mouth. Esteban successfully sues the shopkeeper for one quarter of the shopkeeper’s yearly earnings. The shopkeeper makes £78,950 per year. How much money does Esteban get as a result of his lawsuit?

£19,737.50 £22,345.80 £24,600.22 £29,400.60

A B C D

Question 2. Below is a recipe which shows how to make a smoothie for 6 people.

• 900 ml apple juice

• 3 mangoes• 3 bananas• 6 oranges• 300 ml of milk

How many bananas would you need, in order to make a smoothie for just 2 people?

6 1 2 3

A B C D

Question 3. There are 40 children in Pamela’s class. She splits the class up into three groups - brown-haired children, black-haired children, and blonde-haired children. There are 15 children with blonde hair in the class. 20% of the class have brown hair. How many children have black hair?

12 22 17 9

A B C D

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Question 4. Niall has become the boss of a new company. He’s got a budget to buy abandoned factories to increase the company’s output. Each factory can facilitate 160 employees. How many factories will Niall need, to accommodate 2,200 employees?

18 14 10 13

A B C D

Question 5. Bethany is ten years older than Michael, who is four years younger than Jane. If Bethany is 62 years old, how old is Jane?


A B C D

Question 6. John is building a ship. He plans to use the ship to sail the open seas. John will need staff to help him operate this ship. Currently, he has £20,450 saved up to help pay potential crewmen. This money will last for a year in total. Unfortunately, John is also subject to pirate tax on his yearly staff wage, which means that he loses 30% of this to the governing body of the high seas.

If each seaman that John hires is paid £4,000 per year, how many members of crew can he hire?

2 4 8 3

A B C D

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Question 7. Naomi has decided to build a greenhouse. On Monday, she plants eighteen freesias. On Tuesday, she plants seventeen roses. On Wednesday, she plants twelve violets, and on Thursday she plants fourteen tulips.

What is the average number of plants that Naomi planted per day? Round your answer to the nearest whole number.

15 20 26 34

A B C D

Question 8. Work out the missing numbers in the following sequence:

12, 120, 10, 100, 8, ?, ?

100, 4 90, 12 25, 5 80, 6

A B C D

Question 9. Benjamin believes that roulette is a skill-based game. His friend does not believe him. In order to prove his point, Benjamin takes his friend into the local casino. Benjamin’s friend walks into the casino with £50 total, and lots of doubt. When he walks out of the casino, he has increased his total money by 80%, and is now a believer. How much money does Benjamin’s friend now have?

£90 £60 £75 £80

A B C D

Question 10. How many numbers containing ‘4’ will you find, between 10 and 100?

4 21 18 24

A B C D

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Question 11. Jeanette is having an argument with her friend. She claims that she can walk 5 metres with 10 books balanced on her head. Jeanette’s friend begs to differ. Jeanette decides to try this out. Jeanette’s friend calculates that Jeanette has a 0.25 chance of success. What is the percentage chance of Jeanette dropping the books?

30% 80% 75% 40%

A B C D

Question 12. Imran has purchased a bag of sweets. There are 42 sweets in the bag, divided into fizzy and non-fizzy. The ratio of fizzy to non-fizzy sweets is 2:4 How many fizzy sweets are in the bag?

18 20 14 22

A B C D

Question 13. Which of the following brackets contains only factors of 24?

(3, 6, 8, 12) (2, 5, 8, 12) (2, 7, 9, 12) (4, 8, 16, 32)

A B C D

Question 14. If 16 + a = 69, and b − a = 132, what is 16 + a + b?

200 300 254 260

A B C D

Question 15. If a −19 = 46, b − a = 32, and c + b = 104, what is 19 + ac + b?

652 489 683 571

A B C D

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Answers

Q1. A = £19,737.50

Explanation = 1

4 of £78,950 = £19,737.50

Q2. B = 1

Explanation = Since 3 bananas is the ingredients for 6 people, to convert this to 2 people you would divide by 3.

3 divided by 3 is 1.

Q3. C = 17

Explanation = There are 40 children total. If 15 of them have blonde hair, and 20% (8) of them have brown hair, then the remainder is 40 − 23 = 17

Q4. B = 14

Explanation = 2,200 ÷ 160 = 13.75. Therefore Niall would need 14 factories for all the employees.

Q5. D = 56 years old


52 + 4 = 56

Q6. D = 3

Explanation = 30% of 20,450 = 6,135

20,450 − 6,135 = £14,315 total for crew wages.

£4,000 × 3 = £12,000. There would not be enough money left to pay for an extra crew member.

Q7. A = 15

Explanation = 18 + 17 + 12 + 14 = 61

61 ÷ 4 = 15.25. Rounded = 15

Q8. D = 80, 6

Explanation = The sequence follows two patterns. The first pattern is applied to every other number, and subtracts 2 each time. 12, 10, 8, 6. The second pattern subtracts 20 each time. 120, 100, 80, etc.

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Q9. A = £90

Explanation = 80% of 50 = 40. £50 + £40 = £90

Q10. C = 18

Explanation = 14, 24, 34, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 54, 64, 74, 84, 94

Q11. C = 75%

Explanation = If Jeanette has a 0.25 chance of success, then she has a 25% chance of succeeding. Therefore, she has a 75% chance of failing.

Q12. C = 14


7 × 2 = 14

Q13. A = (3, 6, 8, 12)

Explanation = 3, 6, 8, and 12 are all factors of 24. All of the other brackets contain at least one number that is not a factor of 24

Q14. C = 254

Explanation = 69 −16 = 53

Therefore, a = 53

b − 53 = 132

Therefore, b = 185

16 + 53 + 185 = 254

Q15. D = 571

Explanation = a − 19 = 46. a = 65

b − 65 = 32. b = 97

c + 97 = 104. c = 7

19 + (65 × 7) + 97 = 571






Test 6

Maths

Medway 11+

64

Question 1. Michael is giving out party invites. There are 35 people in his class total – 12 girls and 23 boys. Michael is inviting 40% of his classmates to his party. Of the 12 girls in the class, 75% have received an invite from Michael. How many boys are invited to Michael’s party?

9 7 3 5

A B C D

Question 2. Andrew’s football club, Ficshire Warriors, compete in the Ficshire Premier Championship. Last season, they played 30 games in total. They won 40% of these, receiving 3 points for a win. They drew 20% of these, receiving 1 point for a draw. They lost the rest of the games, receiving 0 points for a loss. They were amongst the four teams with the lowest points in the league.

The bottom three teams in the Ficshire Premier Championship are kicked out of the league. The points totals for the bottom four teams last season were as follows:

Northshire Rovers – 40 points.

Eastshire Terriers – 41 points.

F.C. Ficville – 41 points.

Ficshire Warriors – ???

Work out how many points the Ficshire Warriors achieved over the course of the season.

42 45 47 48

A B C D

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Question 3. The area of a piece of card is calculated as:

9 cm × 5.5 cm = 49.5 cm2

What is the area of the card in mm2?

4,950 mm2 4,550 mm2 4,660 mm2 495 mm2

A B C D

Question 4. Randy is participating in a community clear up. He must tidy litter from a field that is 45 metres in width, and 90 metres in length. What is the area of the field that Randy has to tidy?

4,150 m2 4,050 m2 4,550 m2 450 m2

A B C D

Question 5. Wayne and Pamela are going horse riding. Unfortunately, Pamela gets terrible pain in her back from riding horses, and therefore they need to see a specialist prior to their expedition.

When they visit the medical specialist, he recommends that Pamela purchases some new equipment, which will assist with the pain.

His recommendations are as follows:

- She needs two special saddles, for £19.50 each.

- A new pair of riding boots, for £30.

- A pair of saddlebags, for £10.

When Wayne goes to the shop to buy the above items, he discovers that he can receive a 60% discount if he buys an extra pair of saddlebags. If Wayne takes this up, how much money will be knocked off his final purchase?

£52.10 £29.20 £53.40 £27.60

A B C D

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Question 6. Jane and Michael are sharing a single bag of sweets. There are 130 sweets in the bag. Jane and Michael split the 130 sweets between them, in the ratio of 4:6. How many sweets does Jane get?

52 36 16 20

A B C D

Question 7. Leah is fascinated with ladybirds. She counted how many ladybirds

she could find each day for a week. Her results are shown in the pictogram below.

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Key: = 4 ladybirds

How many ladybirds did Leah see altogether?

72 86 54 34

A B C D

Question 8. What is the average number of ladybirds that Leah saw per day?

7 14.4 17.2 20.5

A B C D

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Question 9. Evan has been making mistakes at work. His boss is extremely unhappy with him, and has informed him that the next time he makes an error, he’ll get a warning. Today, Evan realises that he’s made another mistake. His boss is in a good mood, so Evan estimates that there is a 2/5 chance he’ll receive a warning.

What is the percentage chance of Evan getting a warning?

40% 70% 100% 90%

A B C D

Question 10. James goes to the store, where he buys a pen for £6.40, a rubber for £8, and two bags of sweets at £5.40 each. How much change will James receive if he pays with a £50 note?

£20 £26.70 £32 £24.80

A B C D

Question 11. Eight children took a test. Their scores were as follows:

56 50 52 61 67 60 60 32

What was the mean score?

52.4 60 54.75 59

A B C D

Question 12. Louise is taking part in a charity boxing match. In order for the match to go ahead, she needs to persuade people to book seats to watch the event. The venue has informed Louise that, in order for them to host the match, she will need to sell five hundred and twenty-five pounds worth of tickets.

It costs £3.50 to book a seat at the venue. How many tickets will Louise need to sell, for the event to go ahead?

185 150 100 170

A B C D

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Question 13. Brian gets 60 signatures from his colleagues, declaring the need for better fire drills. There are 300 people in his company. The rest of the employees refuse to sign.

What percentage of the workforce did not sign Brian’s petition?

80% 90% 72% 68%

A B C D

Question 14. What is (679 – 272 ) − (450 – 229)?

292 168 186 229

A B C D

Question 15. If a + 56 = 60, and b + a = 42, then work out the value of c when b + a + c = 89

51 47 32 39

A B C D

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Answers

Q1. D = 5

Explanation = There are 35 people in the class total, and 40% of them have been invited. 14 invites total.

75% of 12 = 9. Which means 9 girls were invited

14 – 9 = 5 boys were invited.

Q2. A = 42 points

Explanation = 40% of 30 = 12 wins

12 × 3 = 36 points

20% of 30 = 6 wins

6 × 1 = 6 points

36 + 6 = 42 points

Q3. A = 4,950 mm2

Explanation = There are 100 square millimetres in a square centimetre. Therefore, the area of the card is 4,950 mm2.

Q4. B = 4,050 m2

Explanation = 45 × 90 = 4,050 m2

Q5. C = £53.40

Explanation = £19.50 × 2 = £39

£39 + £30 + £20 = £89

60% of £89 = £53.40

Q6. A = 52


13 × 4 = 52

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Q7. A = 72

Explanation =

Mon = 16

Tues = 14

Wed = 21

Thurs = 9

Fri = 12

16 + 14 + 21 + 9 + 12 = 72

Q8. B = 14.4

Explanation = If 72 ladybirds were seen throughout the week, we need to work out the average number of ladybirds seen per day.

72 ÷ 5 = 14.4

Q9. A = 40%

Explanation = 2/5 = 0.40 × 100 = 40%

Q10. D = £24.80

Explanation = £6.40 + £8 + £10.80 = £25.20

£50 - £25.20 = £24.80

Q11. C = 54.75

Explanation = 56 + 50 + 52 + 61 + 67 + 60 + 60 + 32 = 438

438 ÷ 8 = 54.75

Q12. B = 150

Explanation = 525 ÷ 3.50 = 150

Q13. A = 80%

Explanation = 240 people did not sign

240 ÷ 300 = 0.8 which is equal to 80%

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Q14. C = 186

Explanation = 679 – 272 = 407

450 – 229 = 221

407 – 221 = 186

Q15. B = 47

Explanation = a – 56 = 60. Therefore a = 4

b + 4 = 42. Therefore b = 38

4 + 38 + c = 89. Therefore c = 47

VERBAL REASONING

Medway 11+

74

The Verbal Reasoning section of the Medway 11+ is designed to test your understanding of language, words, literary phrases, and comprehension. There are a wide variety of questions which you might encounter during this exam, and they include:

Antonyms and Synonyms

These types of questions focus on your understanding of words and their meanings.

An antonym is a word which means ‘the opposite’ of another. So, for example, if we had the word ‘tall’ then the antonym of this would be ‘short’. We know that ‘tall’ and ‘short’ are direct opposites of one another.

During your exam, a common question type will be as follows:

Which answer option is an antonym of the word PEACEFUL?

Yellow Annoyed Violent Understandable

A B C D

The answer in this case would be C – Violent. The question will try to trip you up slightly. Option B (annoyed) is not quite the opposite of peaceful, but it could be perceived this way. However, we can see that option C is far more suitable, and in this case is the right answer.

A synonym is a word which means ‘exactly the same’ or ‘almost the same’ as another word. So, for example, if we had the word ‘greedy’ then a common synonym of this would be ‘selfish’. You can see that these two words are not exactly the same, but they are more or less the equivalent of one another.

During your exam, a common question type will be as follows:

Which answer option is a synonym of the word HARD?

Mouldy Generic Green Firm

A B C D

In this case, the answer would be D – Firm, since this is the closest in meaning to the word in the question.

Verbal Reasoning

75

Odd One Out

During your exam, it’s also common to see ‘odd one out’ questions, which require you to pick one answer that doesn’t match with the rest of the questions. These can be according to category, colour, location, type … anything that doesn’t match with the rest of the words. For example, you might see a question such as:

Identify which of the following words is the odd one out:

Sausage Burger Gherkin Ribs

A B C D

In this case, the obvious answer would be C – Gherkin. All of the other words are made from/types of meat, whereas a gherkin is a vegetable.

Similarly, you may also be asked questions such as:

The prefix below will only go with three of the words, to make a new word. Identify which answer option the prefix cannot be combined with:

Art-

indicate istic iculate fully

A B C D

In this case, the answer would be A – indicate. Artindicate is not a word, whereas if we combine the prefix with the other words we get: artistic, articulate, and artfully.

Word Relationships

Word relationships are another popular form of question. In these types of question, you’ll need to identify the relationship between a pair of words, and apply it to an answer option. For example:

Below there are two pairs of words. Only one of the answers will go equally well with both these pairs:

(Forge, Fake) (Hospital, Penicillin)

Nurse Doctor Rhubarb Wrestling

A B C D

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In this case, the answer would be B – Doctor, since the term doctor refers to both medical facilities, and the act of forging or faking something.

Missing Words

Another common form of question, is to identify the missing word from a sentence. This is relatively simple, and usually takes the following format:

Identify which of the answer options best fits into the sentence.

Mary and Bethany visited the ______ store. Whilst there, Mary bought 4 dresses. Meanwhile, Bethany purchased a handbag and a pair of shoes.

grocery clothing opticians dentist

A B C D

In this case, the answer would be B – clothing, since we know that Mary and Bethany purchased clothes from said store.

Reading Comprehension

During your verbal test, you may also be asked to take a reading comprehension exercise. This is one of the hardest elements of verbal reasoning, and requires you to a) skim read effectively and b) have good attention to detail. Reading comprehension exercises will generally take the following format:

You’ll be given a passage, of 7-8 paragraphs in length. Each of the paragraphs will be numbered, from 1-8 (or however many paragraphs there are in the text overall). Following this, you’ll be given a series of questions based on what you’ve read, and you will need to answer the questions by referring back to the text.

The questions will focus on elements such as literary techniques (such as alliteration or similes), the author’s intention when using certain phrases, or just factual details from the text itself.

Let’s look at an example of one such passage, and the questions that follow it:

P1. Max had been performing magic tricks since he was eight years old. Now, entering adulthood, he considered himself to be competent at his craft. By no means was he an expert – he would still fumble a trick every now and then and would have to save it at the last minute. However, he was experienced enough to perform in front of audiences of up to 300 people.

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P2. However, tonight was different. He was usually nervous before a show, but this particular evening greeted him with the topsy-turviest tummy he’d felt in years. Max had practised all his tricks, as he always did. However, he couldn’t shake the feeling that something was going to go terribly wrong in his performance tonight.

P3. “It’s nothing. Just do your best,” Max muttered to himself, as he donned his cape and top hat. “Time to go.” The curtains parted, revealing an empty room. Max was stunned by the rows of vacant seats – not a soul in sight. It was at that moment that he realised, he had turned up for the show a night early.

Question 1

What is the name of the technique used in the following phrase: Topsy-turviest tummy.

Alliteration Personification Onomatopoeia Metaphor

A B C D

In this case, the answer would be A – Alliteration. Alliteration is the use of words with the same first letter, consecutively, to create a particular sound.

Now, let’s look at another question based on the same extract.

Question 2

What is Max’s ‘craft’?

Football Parcel wrapping Magic tricks Stunts

A B C D

The answer to this, of course, is C – Magic tricks. We know even from the first sentence that Max is performing magic tricks.

Let’s look at a final question from the same text.

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Question 3

In paragraph 3, Max mutters to himself, ‘It’s nothing, just do your best’. What do you think is the purpose of Max talking to himself in this way?

Max is trying to persuade anyone

who might be listening that he is a confident

person.

Max believes that there are other people in the

room with him, but they’ve in fact all

left.

Max is making a sarcastic joke

about his magical abilities.

Max is trying to reassure himself

that nothing will go wrong.

A B C D

The answer is D – Max is trying to reassure himself that nothing will go wrong. We can tell this, because this line is preceded by Max’s doubts about the performance, and is followed by him saying, ‘Time to go.’

Skim reading during the comprehension exercise is very important. You need to be able to locate the answer quickly and efficiently, using the paragraph prompts provided. You will not have time to go back and read through the passage for every question, so it’s important to practise your speed reading skills as much as possible prior to the examination.

Literary Terms and Techniques

The questions you will be asked in the exam will be testing the knowledge you have gained throughout your English studies at school. The questions require an understanding of things such as:

• Similes;

• Metaphors;

• Alliteration;

• Word Definitions;

• Prefixes and Suffixes;

• Homophones;

• Spelling;

• Grammar and Punctuation.

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Make sure you have a basic understanding of these things, so that you know how best to make use of them yourself, and spot them in passages of text for the highest marks.

Below is a list of common literary techniques that you may come across or be expected to look out for during the exam. Have a look and see how many of them you recognise. We have given a brief definition of each one to refresh your memory.

AllegoryStories in which the characters represent abstract ideas or qualities.

AlliterationRepetition of first consonant sounds such as ‘beautiful baby boy’.

HyperboleA wild exaggeration, such as ‘I am so hungry, I could eat a horse’.

Iambic Pentameter

Ten-syllable lines of poetry, of which every other syllable is stressed.

Imagery Descriptions of sight, sounds, touch, taste and smell.

MetaphorA figure of speech that identifies something as being the same as another, unrelated thing, such as ‘The road was a ribbon of moonlight’.

Satire Work that makes fun of something or someone.

Simile Drawing parallels or comparisons between two things, such as ‘I was cold as an ice cube’. Often denoted by using the words ‘as’ or ‘like’.

OnomatopoeiaUse of words that sound like what they mean, such as ‘buzz’, ‘bang’.

OxymoronA phrase that is made up of two opposite words, such as ‘organised chaos’.

PersonificationGiving human characteristics to an inhuman object, such as ‘the car accelerated, enraged.’

Pun The use of a word that plays on multiple meanings.

Irony Language that conveys certain ideas, by saying the opposite.

• The following test contains one extract, and 15 questions.



• You have 10 minutes to read the text, and 15 minutes to answer the questions.


Test 1

Verbal Reasoning

Medway 11+

82

P1. Mimi sighed audibly as she trudged her way through the grassy, marshy fields. The sky was as drab and uninspiring as her father’s journey playlist. Even the trip there was never-ending. Why did her family insist on dragging her to these tragically monotonous events? They didn’t even give her a choice, branding her as ‘anti-social’ if she didn’t attend every single one.

P2. I’m hardly social when I’m here anyway, she thought. I just plug my headphones in and try desperately to imagine I’m somewhere at least vaguely more compelling, with enthralling company. Or even on my own, for that matter.

P3. She failed to see the point of these strangely optimistic, elated people – all oddly beaming at each other – trying to coax someone, anyone, into purchasing decrepit pieces of furniture and long-discarded hand-me-downs for a pitiful sum.

P4. “One day you’ll understand, Mimi,” her mother would say, “one day you’ll stop being a miserable teenager and realise all the incredible treasures just waiting to be uncovered, and appreciate all the wonderful, joyful people to chat to.” Mimi disagreed. No matter how old and dull she became, she would never find the thought of dragging herself through stalls of musty clothes and rusty trinkets thrilling. Did people seriously think it was realistic to find anything of any discernible value at these kinds of events?

P5. Her parents would try and excite her by recalling stories of folk who purchased some inconspicuous knick-knack, only to find out later that it was worth millions and would instantaneously change their lives forever. They would march about the never-ending fields, her father whistling to himself joyfully, and her mother on an overly optimistic and frankly misguided mission to discover some unbelievable hidden gem.

P6. At least I’ve got Toby here with me, Mimi thought. My one small source of joy and amusement. On this occasion, however, Toby wasn’t being particularly well-behaved. Although a loyal companion, he had never responded particularly well to any kind of training. He would often tug on the lead when taken for walks with the family, dragging his poor owners along with him, and then stop abruptly and root himself to a spot at other times, refusing to move.

P7. Toby’s obedience had long been an issue that the family had tried hard to overcome, yet no matter what they tried, he seemed hell-bent on doing whatever he could to resist any kind of training. Mimi caught a glimpse of her dad – stumbling, staggering, sweating – being hauled along mercilessly by Toby. For the first time in the day she cracked a slight smile, and almost started to snigger. She suddenly realised what she was doing and quickly reverted to the unimpressed, slightly overcompensating, wanton expression – just to make sure no one thought that she was actually enjoying herself.

Verbal Reasoning Test 1

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P8. Mimi decided to put her dad out of his misery and offered to take Toby’s lead, so that her parents could continue rummaging around the stalls. See, I am a thoughtful daughter, she thought to herself, I’m never actually appreciated for these kinds of gestures. “Be careful with him Mimi, he’s very energetic today,” her dad warned. “I know Dad - I think I can handle it,” Mimi retorted sarcastically. She soon realised her dad’s caution was not to be scoffed at, as Toby proceeded to drag her from right to left, forcing her to increase her pace to a tremendously tumultuous jog within seconds of taking the lead.

P9. Mimi had soon lost sight of her parents. Before she knew it, she was being bustled through stall after stall, occasionally knocking something off a rail or a table. She heard a few angry voices shout “Oi!” or “Come back here!” but she didn’t dare to turn around for fear of getting tangled in Toby’s lead, or worse, losing him completely. Her parents wouldn’t forgive her if she let him run off. Her mum would definitely be ‘mortified’ and most certainly ‘feel humiliated’ as she often proclaimed to do, even after the most minor of situations.

Medway 11+

84

Question 1. Who is Toby?

Mimi’s father Mimi’s dog Mimi’s mother Mimi’s brother

A B C D

Question 2. What kind of event are Mimi and her family attending?

A boot fair A music festival A sports event A public trial

A B C D

Question 3. In paragraph 7, ‘stumbling, staggering, sweating’ is used within a sentence. What literary technique is being utilised here?

Irony Simile Alliteration Personification

A B C D

Question 4. Which word within the text most strongly implies that Mimi does not believe that her mother will find anything valuable at the fair?

Inconspicuous Misguided Unbelievable Amused

A B C D

Question 5. Which of the following words best describes people’s reaction to Mimi accidentally knocking things over?

Irate Curious Confused Regaled

A B C D


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Question 6. Mimi dared not turn her head around while running from the stalls. Why?

She was worried that she might lose

Toby.

She was too embarrassed.

She didn’t have time.

She was scared of something behind

her.

A B C D

Question 7. What is it that Mimi often does while she’s in the company of others?

Chews gum.Watches television

programmes on her phone.

Listens to music in her headphones.

Runs away and hides.

A B C D

Question 8. What is meant by, “Mimi decided to put her dad out of his misery” in paragraph 8?

Mimi wanted to make her dad

miserable.

Mimi took Toby’s lead to give her

dad a break from him.

Mimi told her dad to go home.

Mimi shouted at her dad.

A B C D

Question 9. Which of the following words would best describe Toby?

Violent Diligent Disobedient Vicious

A B C D

Medway 11+

86

Question 10. What is meant by the phrase “energetic” in paragraph 8?

Toby is always tired.

Toby is full of energy.

Toby is hungry.Toby won’t stop

barking.

A B C D

Question 11. According to the passage, what is Mimi’s one small source of amusement?

Her music in her headphones.

Her parents. Toby. Her dad’s playlist.

A B C D

Question 12. In paragraph 9, the word ‘mortified’ is written in inverted commas. Why is this?

To show sarcasm.

To show that the word is a

quotation from Mimi’s mother.

To make the word stand out.

To show that Mimi is thinking about it.

A B C D

Question 13. In paragraph 1, there is the sentence “Even the trip there was never-ending.” What is the name for the literary technique used in this sentence?

Sarcasm Metaphor Simile Hyperbole

A B C D


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Question 14. In paragraph 1, there is the sentence, “The sky was as drab and uninspiring as her father’s journey playlist.” What is the name for the literary technique used in this sentence?

Simile Hyperbole Metaphor Alliteration

A B C D

Question 15. In paragraph 3, there is the phrase “a pitiful sum”. What does this mean?

A lot of money. Not a lot of money. Sadness. Disappointment.

A B C D

Medway 11+

88

Answers

Q1. B = Mimi’s dog

Explanation = The passage makes it clear that Toby is a dog, with the statement: ‘Although a loyal companion, he had never responded particularly well to any kind of training. He would often tug on the lead when taken for walks with the family, dragging his poor owners along with him...’

Q2. A = A boot fair

Explanation = The passage states, ‘...the thought of dragging herself through stalls of musty clothes and rusty trinkets thrilling. Did people seriously think it was realistic to find anything of any discernible value at these kinds of events?’

Q3. C = Alliteration

Explanation = The words ‘stumbling, staggering, sweating’ all begin with s. When used consecutively, this is called alliteration.

Q4. B = Misguided

Explanation = The passage states, ‘...her mother on an overly optimistic and frankly misguided mission to discover some unbelievable hidden gem.’ In this instance, the word misguided is used to highlight Mimi’s scepticism.

Q5. A = Irate

Explanation = The passage states, ‘Before she knew it, she was being bustled through stall after stall, occasionally knocking something off a rail or a table. She heard a few angry voices shout “Oi!” or “Come back here!” This shows that people are angry, or irate, at Mimi’s behaviour.

Q6. A = She was worried that she might lose Toby.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘but she didn’t dare to turn around for fear of getting tangled in Toby’s lead, or worse, losing him completely.’

Q7. C = Listens to music in her headphones.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘I just plug my headphones in and try desperately to imagine I’m somewhere at least vaguely more compelling, with enthralling company.’


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Q8. B = Mimi took Toby’s lead to give her dad a break from him.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘Mimi decided to put her dad out of his misery and offered to take Toby’s lead, so that her parents could continue rummaging around the stalls.’

Q9. C = Disobedient

Explanation = The term ‘disobedient’ is the most accurate way of describing Toby. We can see this via the following example, ‘Although a loyal companion, he had never responded particularly well to any kind of training. He would often tug on the lead when taken for walks with the family, dragging his poor owners along with him, and then stop abruptly and root himself to a spot at other times, refusing to move.’

Q10. B = Toby is full of energy.

Explanation = The passage highlights Toby’s level of energy, by stating, ‘Toby proceeded to drag her from right to left, forcing her to increase her pace to a tremendously tumultuous jog within seconds of taking the lead.’

Q11. C = Toby

Explanation = The passage states, ‘At least I’ve got Toby here with me, Mimi thought. My one small source of joy and amusement.’

Q12. B = To show that the word is a quotation from Mimi’s mother.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘Her mum would definitely be ‘mortified’ and most certainly ‘feel humiliated’ as she often proclaimed to do, even after the most minor of situations.’

Q13. D = Hyperbole

Explanation = The phrase ‘never ending’ is hyperbole - it is not meant to be taken literally. Of course, we know that the trip there will eventually come to an end, and therefore it’s clear that Mimi is exaggerating.

Q14. A = Simile

Explanation = In this sentence, the literary technique being used is a simile. Mimi is comparing one thing to something else.

Medway 11+

90

Q15. B = Not a lot of money.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘...purchasing decrepit pieces of furniture and long-discarded hand-me-downs for a pitiful sum.’ This is a clear reference to monetary value, and the phrase ‘pitiful’ indicates a reference to a lower amount.






Test 2

Verbal Reasoning

Medway 11+

92

P1. All year the thought of it has been tormenting me. I really can’t be bothered with sports day this year. I’m rubbish at sports: I can’t run, can’t jump, can’t throw, and I certainly can’t do a combination of all three. I’ll just make a fool of myself in front of everyone: my classmates, my teachers, and my parents – not to mention the parents of everyone else in my class! I need to weasel my way out of it somehow.

P2. Sports day is fast approaching, and my anxiety has well and truly peaked this weekend. If I fake one more injury, the suspicions will be too high. It’s not like they can prove anything though, right? If I twist my ankle whilst running, I twist my ankle whilst running. So what if it’s happened twice already? In reality, the law of probabilities doesn’t actually make it any less likely to happen this time around just because it’s happened before. As a matter of fact, it might actually be more likely, because clearly, I have some kind of functional problem with my left ankle. I should probably get that checked out.

P3. The thing is, I’m just way too much of an awkward person to do it again. I’m not a good liar. I know I’m not. As soon as I’ve made my claim, I get so extraordinarily paranoid that someone might see me walk normally for one step, or question me just a bit too much to the point where I end up giving in and ashamedly admitting to exactly what it is I’ve done. Then they’d abuse me even more. I wouldn’t hear the end of that.

P4. The words don’t come out the same when I’m lying. As soon as I start to lie, people gain this unnatural ability to be able to see right through me. I become transparent. They start piecing together all the reasons why I might be faking it, (one in particular), and that’s when the doubt comes creeping into their minds.

P5. No, I can’t do it this time. I vividly remember feeling extremely on edge even last year. It’s not worth the risk of having them find me out, and then being even more humiliated. I have to just knuckle down and participate. That’s it then – I’m doing it. I’m going to have to get through the whole day without being taken off to the safe and secure nest of the injury gazebo. I can’t get away with it again.

P6. Why did they even pick me for long jump? My legs are about as short as the trees they had severed into stumps last year to make the place brighter. Just means less places to hide for me. No, I’m almost certain I get picked for long jump every year because they enjoy watching me suffer. Everyone knows I’m terrible at sports, and not only do they not do anything about it, I’m convinced that it’s all a conspiracy, and I’m actually just a morbid source of entertainment for the staff.

P7. As if long jump wasn’t bad enough, they’ve actually put me forward for relay and shotput this year. Shotput. If this was the Olympics we’d be bottom of the leaderboard with these kinds of preposterous selections. The fact that they have


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chosen me for shotput honestly just confirms my suspicions that they actually enjoy my suffering. If I don’t get a heavy ball to the head, I’d be very much surprised. I can see it coming already.

P8. I think the worst part of it all, is that I don’t understand why I’m so woeful at any kind of physical activity. I must have been a menace to society in a past life to have to tolerate this kind of cruelty in my current one. It’s the fact that no one quite gets it either. I’ve given up telling my mum; her advice is honestly more frustrating than anything else. “Keep practising, and you’ll get better one day.” Okay, thanks Mum, really practical stuff. I wish she would just have me home-schooled or something. Imagine that. Waking up every day and not even having to leave the house. Just safe in this little bubble.

P9. I better start psyching myself up. I need to do it for longer than I do for my everyday routine. I’m going to have a lot more to contend with tomorrow than usual. I can’t let them see my fear and weakness. I’m just going to act completely nonchalant, as if I haven’t even given it a second thought. I’ll just get my activities out the way, and then skulk away and relax somewhere, out of view. I’ve already scoped out the situation and have a few places in mind. I need to be as fast as a cheetah, and as stealthy as a tiger. I can do this.

Medway 11+

94

Question 1. What does Jimmy worry about people discovering in paragraph 3?

That he doesn’t want to participate

in the activities.

That he is faking an injury.

That he cheated last year.

That he is an awkward person.

A B C D

Question 2. What does the expression “knuckle down” refer to in paragraph 5?

Jimmy getting involved in the

activities to the best of his

abilities.

Jimmy getting in a fight.

Jimmy faking an injury to his ankle.

Jimmy punching the ground to

show his might.

A B C D

Question 3. In paragraph 7, what is Jimmy suspicious of?

That the schoolteachers

enjoy seeing him suffer.

That he’s going to injure himself.

That the contest has been rigged.

That he’ll be disqualified.

A B C D

Question 4. What day is approaching that Jimmy is worried about?

Sports day Saturday Prom night Exam day

A B C D


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Question 5. In paragraph 8, the writer uses the phrase ‘Okay, thanks Mum, really practical stuff.’ What is the name of this literary technique?

Personification Sarcasm Simile Metaphor

A B C D

Question 6. What sport has Jimmy been put forward for this year?

Tennis Javelin Shotput Football

A B C D

Question 7. Which of the following words best describes Jimmy?

Nonchalant Terrified Prepared Callous

A B C D

Question 8. In paragraph 6, the writer states that ‘My legs are about as short as the trees they had severed into stumps…’ What is the name of the literary technique used here?

Personification Metaphor Simile Semantic Field

A B C D

Question 9. What word best describes Jimmy in paragraph 6?

Paranoid Uncontrollable Composed Disinterested

A B C D

Medway 11+

96

Question 10. Why does the writer use the word ‘transparent’ in paragraph 4?

To show how people can literally

see through Jimmy.

To show that Jimmy is a good

liar.

To show that people see

through Jimmy’s lies.

To show that Jimmy is

unreadable.

A B C D

Question 11. In paragraph 8, the writer uses the phrase ‘Just safe in this little bubble’. What is the name of the literary technique being used here?

Metaphor Simile Rhyme Personification

A B C D

Question 12. Which of the following is Jimmy not worried about?

Making a fool of himself.

Sports day.Getting caught

faking an injury or illness.

Breaking his leg.

A B C D

Question 13. According to paragraph 8, what is the worst part of it all?

Having to put up with the fear every

evening.

Enduring the pain every day.

Having to fake injuries to avoid participating in

shotput.

Not understanding why he’s so

terrible at sports.

A B C D


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Question 14. What is Jimmy convinced about in paragraph 6?

That there’s a conspiracy.

That he’ll be safe during the shotput.

That he will be able to fake an

injury.

That the school staff will want him to represent the

school at national level.

A B C D

Question 15. What can’t Jimmy get away with again, as mentioned in paragraph 5?

Staying at home. Getting in a fight.Feigning or staging

an injury.

Complaining to the staff about the

bully.

A B C D

Medway 11+

98

Answers

Q1. B = That he is faking an injury.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘I’m not a good liar. I know I’m not. As soon as I’ve made my claim, I get so extraordinarily paranoid that someone might see me walk normally for one step, or question me just a bit too much to the point where I end up giving in and ashamedly admitting to exactly what it is I’ve done.’ This is in reference to Jimmy faking his injury.

Q2. A = Jimmy getting involved in the activities to the best of his abilities.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘I have to just knuckle down and participate.’ The phrase ‘knuckle down’ is also commonly used to denote focusing and concentrating on a particular task.

Q3. A = That the schoolteachers enjoy seeing him suffer.

Explanation = In paragraph 7, the author states, ‘The fact that they have chosen me for shotput honestly just confirms my suspicions that they actually enjoy my suffering. If I don’t get a heavy ball to the head, I’d be very much surprised.’

Q4. A = Sports day

Explanation = The passage in question is in reference to sports day. We can infer this via the constant reference to various sporting activities and physical exertion.

Q5. B = Sarcasm

Explanation = In this sentence, the writer is being sarcastic .The writer states, ‘her advice is honestly more frustrating than anything else. “Keep practising, and you’ll get better one day.” Okay, thanks Mum, really practical stuff.’ This is used to indicate his frustration with his mum’s attitude, and his scepticism over her advice.

Q6. C = Shotput

Explanation = In paragraph 7, the author states, ‘As if long jump wasn’t bad enough, they’ve actually put me forward for relay and shotput this year.’

Q7. B = Terrified

Explanation = Throughout this passage, Jimmy shows a strong level of fear and apprehension. Therefore, the best word to describe him, would be ‘terrified’.


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Q8. C = Simile

Explanation = This literary technique is known as a simile. The author is comparing one thing, to something else.

Q9. A = Paranoid

Explanation = The passage states, ‘I’m convinced that it’s all a conspiracy, and I’m actually just a morbid source of entertainment for the staff.’ Therefore, he is showing clear signs of paranoia.

Q10. C = To show that people see through Jimmy’s lies.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘As soon as I start to lie, people gain this unnatural ability to be able to see right through me. I become transparent.’ Thus, we can see that the word ‘transparent’ is not being used literally here - it’s a figure of speech to indicate that Jimmy is a poor liar.

Q11. A = Metaphor

Explanation = A metaphor is defined as, ‘a figure of speech in which a word or phrase is applied to an object or action to which it is not literally applicable.’ In this case, Jimmy is using the metaphor of a bubble to describe a place (his home) where he is safe and unbothered.

Q12. D = Breaking his leg.

Explanation = At no point in the passage does Jimmy reference his worry about breaking a leg.

Q13. D = Not understanding why he’s so terrible at sports.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘I think the worst part of it all, is that I don’t understand why I’m so woeful at any kind of physical activity.’

Q14. A = That there’s a conspiracy.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘I’m convinced that it’s all a conspiracy, and I’m actually just a morbid source of entertainment for the staff.’

Q15. C = Feigning or staging an injury.

Explanation = The passage states, ‘I’m going to have to get through the whole day without being taken off to the safe and secure nest of the injury gazebo. I can’t get away with it again.’ Therefore, Jimmy is referencing faking an injury.

Verbal Reasoning

Test 3






Medway 11+

102

P1 My city. The beautiful backstreets bustle, and the gorgeous alleyway aroma drifts and flows and fills my nostrils, as I scamper, satisfied, along the cold stone pavements. I feel a rush of warmth inside of me as I catch a glimpse of my friends. I see their nude tails whip violently, excitedly, around the corner and I scurry to catch them. To be reunited once again with Todd, Marsha, George and oh … there’s my brother, Harry. Why did he have to be here? Regardless, we have the gang all together again, like it should be.

P2 We all pause for a moment to catch precious breath and I look up at the people above. They look empty, like hollow marching clones, clumping and thumping their enormous bodies around, drifting aimlessly into one brightly lit shop after another. I strain my eyes staring for so long in a seemingly timeless daze, that yellows and reds and blues start to merge into one strange aura of colour and light, and I lose all awareness of the commotion around me.

P3 I don’t think I will ever tire of living here. At least that’s one thing I can be sure of. As for my friends, I eventually snap myself out of my hazy restful state to find that they have completely deserted me. Not to worry, I think, I’m fine here on my own at the moment. I do seem to have a habit of losing myself in my own thoughts, only to find that everyone else has already long gone.

P4 As I continue to make my way down the street, I decide to have a bit of fun. I start to dodge in and out of people’s feet and legs, even sometimes accidentally brushing my tail gently against them. This makes them scream with terror. Sometimes they jump up and run away, and I watch them as they disappear into the distance. I really don’t know what it is about me that induces such a reaction, but I guess bigger isn’t always better. I rule this city. No doubt.

P5 I quickly dart back into the familiar alley to escape from the people’s voices. The drones, the piercing laughter, it is all starting to get a bit much for me. Dinner. What’s on the menu tonight? Every night is a surprise for me, I can tell you that! No ordering and waiting for hours on end, no deliberating over this and that. No, I’m not a time waster. Life is too short, as they say. I know, I know – it’s a cliché but it’s entirely true. At least in my opinion. Got to experience everything you possibly can, meet people. I cross paths with the type of personalities that spark my imagination in this city every single day.

P6 Finding something to eat proves more difficult than it sounds tonight. To be honest it does seem to be getting a lot tougher as of late. All I want is something small, just to tickle my stomach. Although I wouldn’t say no to a warm, hearty meal – haven’t had one of those in a while. Still, I go on. Must be the early hours of the morning by now. The city never sleeps, eh? Well I certainly do. I delight in curling up in the deliciously pungent sewer.


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P7 I pick my favourite spot to settle down and find Marsha and Todd already resting close by. We eventually all fall asleep to the disappointed rhythms of our empty, rumbling stomachs. Sounds like they haven’t had much luck with dinner tonight either.

P8 Within minutes of drifting off, the intense pang in my stomach wakes me again. This sort of thing seems to be turning into a routine just lately. The pain is sharper than usual this time, and every muscle in my body feels tired and sore. I plead with myself just to relax and drift back into sleep for probably an hour, to no avail.

P9 I decide to have a bath to try and ease the aches and pains and help me relax a little more. I indulge in a thick, warm bath in one of my favourite corners of the sewer. I admittedly feel a little better but as soon as I step out I realise that the relief was short-lived. I eventually give in and decide that I will have to force myself up and head back into the city on another mission for nutrition.

P10 I should probably have asked my friends to come with me this time. Many hands make light work as they say. I didn’t want to wake them, though, and I’m not sure where my brother or George are. I’ll probably end up bumping into one of them in one of our usual spots. The trouble for us is that people seem to be throwing away less and less. The streets are tidier, and the bins are emptier. It may be a nicer environment for the humans – but do they ever think of how it affects us?

Medway 11+

104

Question 1. What literary technique is made use of three times in paragraph 1?

Metaphor Alliteration Simile Personification

A B C D

Question 2. What literary technique is made use of in lines 2 and 3 of paragraph 2?

Onomatopoeia Metaphor Iambic Pentameter Alliteration

A B C D

Question 3. “I lose all awareness of the commotion around me.” Select one of the below words which is a synonym for ‘commotion’.

Unification Scarcity Filth Disorder

A B C D

Question 4. Take a look at paragraphs 3, 4 and 5 and select which of the following statements is true.

The main character doesn’t

like his home.

The main character’s friends

deserted him because he was annoying them.

The main character retreats,

as the street becomes too

noisy.

The main character has a

very specific taste in food.

A B C D

Question 5. Who does the main character settle down with in paragraph 7?

Martha and Todd Martha and Rob Marsha and Todd John and Eric

A B C D


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Question 6. In paragraph 6, the narrator says ‘just to tickle my stomach’. What is this supposed to mean?

That the narrator would like

someone to tickle their stomach.

That the narrator would like even just a little bit of

food.

That the narrator does not want

food.

That the narrator is ticklish.

A B C D

Question 7. In paragraph 10, the narrator uses the idiom, ‘many hands make light work’. What does this mean?

Possessing multiple hands will make work easier.

If you work hard you’ll get everything you want from life.

A task is accomplished quicker if more

people help.

If you want something doing,

do it yourself.

A B C D

Question 8. From the information in the passage, what animal is the narrator most likely to be?

A honey badger A rat An ant An owl

A B C D

Question 9. In the first paragraph, the narrator speaks of their brother, Harry. Which of the following words best describes the narrator’s opinion of Harry?

Disdain Adoration Indifference Envy

A B C D

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Question 10. Which of the following words would describe the people’s reaction to the narrator?

Love Fear Frustration Indifference

A B C D

Question 11. Which of the following statements about paragraph 8 is true?

The narrator manages to get

some sleep.

The narrator fails to get any sleep.

The narrator is in good health.

The narrator is not hungry.

A B C D

Question 12. What is it in paragraph 10 which has started to become a problem for the narrator and their friends?

Humans are staying up later.

The streets are being renovated.

The streets are getting tidier.

The streets are getting more dangerous.

A B C D

Question 13. What does the narrator describe their breath as in paragraph 2?

Bated Strained Precious Cold

A B C D

Question 14. What meal is the narrator looking forward to in paragraph 5?

Breakfast Lunch Dinner Supper

A B C D


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Question 15. What are the humans doing in paragraph 2?

Dancing Running Standing still Shopping

A B C D

Medway 11+

108

Answers

Q1. B = Alliteration

Explanation = The passage uses alliteration three times in the first paragraph, with the phrases, ‘beautiful backstreets bustle’, ‘alleyway aroma’ and ‘scamper, satisfied’.

Q2. A = Onomatopoeia

Explanation = Lines 2 and 3 state, ‘They look empty, like hollow marching clones, clumping and thumping their enormous bodies around, drifting aimlessly into one brightly lit shop after another.’ The use of the phrase ‘clumping and thumping’ mimics the sound of the ‘enormous bodies’.

Q3. D = Disorder

Explanation = The word ‘commotion’ is a synonym for ‘chaos’ or ‘disorder’.

Q4. C = The main character retreats, as the street becomes too noisy.

Explanation = In paragraph 5, the passage states, ‘I quickly dart back into the familiar alley to escape from the people’s voices. The drones, the piercing laughter, it is all starting to get a bit much for me.’ While paragraph 3 does state that the narrator’s friends have deserted him, it does not give a reason for this.

Q5. C = Marsha and Todd

Explanation = In paragraph 7, the author states, ‘I pick my favourite spot to settle down and find Marsha and Todd already resting close by.’

Q6. B = That the narrator would like even just a little bit of food.

Explanation = In paragraph 6, the author states, ‘Finding something to eat proves more difficult than it sounds tonight. To be honest it does seem to be getting a lot tougher as of late. All I want is something small, just to tickle my stomach.’ Therefore, this is clearly a reference to food.

Q7. C = A task is accomplished quicker if more people help.

Explanation = The idiom ‘many hands make light work’ is used to illustrate that the more people there are assisting with a task, the easier the task will become.

Q8. B = A rat

Explanation = Based on the passage, the author is most likely to be a rat. The humans’ reaction to the character, the fact that he/she lives in the sewer, and the likelihood of said species living in the city - means we can assume this.


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Q9. A = Disdain

Explanation = The narrator clearly does not get on with Harry, as the passage states, ‘There’s my brother, Harry. Why did he have to be here?’

Q10. B = Fear

Explanation = The humans in the extract are clearly afraid of the narrator, as shown by the statement, ‘I start to dodge in and out of people’s feet and legs, even sometimes accidentally brushing my tail gently against them. This makes them scream with terror.’

Q11. B = The narrator fails to get any sleep.

Explanation = The narrator states, ‘I plead with myself just to relax and drift back into sleep for probably an hour, to no avail.’ This indicates that the narrator does not get any sleep.

Q12. C = The streets are getting tidier.

Explanation = The narrator explains that, ‘The trouble for us is that people seem to be throwing away less and less. The streets are tidier, and the bins are emptier. It may be a nicer environment for the humans – but do they ever think of how it affects us?’

Q13. C = Precious

Explanation = The narrator states, ‘We all pause for a moment to catch precious breath and I look up at the people above.’

Q14. C = Dinner

Explanation = In paragraph 5, the narrator makes clear reference to dinner, stating, ‘Dinner. What’s on the menu tonight? Every night is a surprise for me, I can tell you that!’

Q15. D = Shopping

Explanation = The narrator describes the humans as, ‘drifting aimlessly into one brightly lit shop after another.’




• You have 15 minutes to complete the test.


Test 4

Verbal Reasoning

Medway 11+

112

Question 1. Insert the missing word in the below sentence.

If you are _____ at the written tests, you will progress to the next stage.

okay failed success successful

A B C D

Question 2. If the following words were arranged in alphabetical order, which word would be second?

Believe. Beast. Belief. Bereaved

Believe Beast Belief Bereaved

A B C D

Question 3. Which answer option does NOT make a word when added to the following prefix?

Mis-

interpret judge handle merise

A B C D

Question 4. The following sentence has one word missing. Which ONE word makes the best sense when placed in the sentence?

He had to serve eight years of his sentence before he would be _____.

sentenced custody released rehabilitation

A B C D


113

Question 5. The following sentence has two words missing. Which TWO words make the best sense when placed in the sentence?

Marketing is a process that allows an organisation to _____ its resources on the opportunities that will allow it to _____ sales and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage.

concentrate / direct

direct / lose

focus / increase

process / increase

A B C D

Question 6. Which of the following words is the odd one out?

Bench Stool Chair Sit

A B C D


Ear Leg Mouth Nostril

A B C D


Water Lake River Pool

A B C D


Car Train Garage Motorbike

A B C D

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In-

decent direct appropriate abusive

A B C D

Question 11. What word pair shown has the most similar relationship to …

Colour : Spectrum

Verse : Rhyme Waves : Sound Tone : Scale Nature : Atmosphere

A B C D

Question 12. Which one word has a meaning that extends to, or includes, the meaning of all the other words?

Gymnastics Swimming Running Training

A B C D

Question 13. A word is hidden amongst the sentence. It has four letters and is hidden at the end of one word and in the beginning of the next word. What word is hidden?

For the last time, I will not tell you again.

Thel Fort Note Tell

A B C D


115


Giraffe Lion Antelope Buffalo

A B C D


Forever New Fresh Recent

A B C D

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Answers

Q1. D = successful

Explanation = The word ‘successful’ is the only word which matches with the rest of the sentence.

Q2. C = Belief

Explanation = Beast starts with ‘Bea’, therefore this would be first. We then have Believe and Belief, both of which have the same first 5 letters. However, Belief then has an f, where Believe has a v. Therefore, Belief would be second.

Q3. D = merise

Explanation = Mismerise is not a word. This would need to be spelled as ‘mesmerise’. If we add the prefix to the other words, we get: misinterpret, misjudge, mishandle.

Q4. C = released

Explanation = The word ‘released’ is the only word which matches with the rest of the sentence.

Q5. C = focus / increase

Explanation = Marketing is a process that allows an organisation to focus its resources on the opportunities that will allow it to increase sales and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage.

Q6. D = Sit

Explanation = All of the other words refer to types of furniture/seats, whereas the word ‘sit’ refers to the actual action of sitting. Therefore, this is the odd one out.

Q7. B = Leg

Explanation = All of the other words refer to parts of the face, whereas the leg is on the lower part of one’s body.

Q8. A = Water

Explanation = All of the other words refer to bodies of water, whereas water is what the other words consist of.


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Q9. C = Garage

Explanation = All of the other words refer to vehicles or methods of transport. A garage is a place where vehicles are stored.

Q10. D = Abusive

Explanation = Inabusive is not a word. If we add the prefix to the other words, we would get: indecent, indirect, inappropriate.

Q11. C = Tone : Scale

Explanation = Colour is measured on a spectrum, just as tone is measured on a scale.

Q12. D = Training

Explanation = All of the other words are sports. Training is not a sport - it is the action of preparing for or bettering yourself.

Q13. B = Fort

Explanation = If you take the first word ‘For’ and the first letter of the second word, you get ‘Fort’.

Q14. B = Lion

Explanation = All of the other animals listed are herbivores. A lion is carnivore.

Q15. A = Forever

Explanation = All of the other words refer to something that has just occurred or taken place. The term ‘forever’ has a completely different meaning.

Verbal Reasoning

Test 5






Medway 11+

120

Question 1. Which word is the odd one out?

Ostrich Parrot Penguin Dodo

A B C D


Un-

assuming fathomable usual draught

A B C D

Question 3. Three of the four sentences have the same meaning. Which one sentence has a different meaning?

Mike spent £180 during his shopping trip.

During his shopping trip,

Mike spent £180.

The shopping trip cost Mike £180.

Mike made £180 from his shopping

trip.

A B C D


An-

tarctic aerobic ability droid

A B C D


121

Question 5. Fill in the missing words so that the sentence reads correctly.

He _____ the telephone and then _____ it to his mother.

heard / shouted answered / spoke picked / threw answered / passed

A B C D

Question 6. Fill in the missing word so that the sentence reads correctly.

_____ going to be in big trouble when they get home.

Thair Their They’re There

A B C D


Imp-

ortant plough udent act

A B C D

Question 8. Which of the following is the odd one out?

Trumpet Violin Harp Guitar

A B C D

Question 9. Fill in the missing word so that the sentence reads correctly.

A submarine is a vehicle that is ____ of independent operation underwater.

evolved incapable immovable capable

A B C D

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Question 10. Three of the four sentences have the same meaning. Which one sentence has a different meaning?

It was a little girl who was pushed over by the tall

boy.

The tall boy pushed over a little

girl.

The little girl pushed over the

boy.

The little girl fell over as a result of being pushed by

the tall boy.

A B C D


Im-

age agine moral significant

A B C D

Question 12. The following sentence has one word missing. Which ONE word makes the best sense when placed in the sentence?

The man _____ that he wanted to go home.

understood delighted decided informed

A B C D

Question 13. The following sentence has one word missing. Which one word makes the best sense when placed in the sentence?

The weather forecaster informed the public of the _____ rain.

potential insignificant presumptious likelihood

A B C D


123


Circle Rectangle Sphere Pentagon

A B C D

Question 15. Which letter is missing from the following words?

HER ( _ ) RAG and BLUR ( _ ) ALL

R T S B

A B C D

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Answers

Q1. D = Dodo

Explanation = The Dodo is extinct. All of the other animals listed are not extinct.

Q2. D = draught

Explanation = Undraught is not a word. When combined with the prefix, the other words make up: unassuming, unfathomable, and unusual.

Q3. D = Mike made £180 from his shopping trip.

Explanation = All of the other sentences refer to Mike spending £180. Option D refers to him receiving £180.

Q4. C = ability

Explanation = Anability is not a word. In order to make a word from this, it would need to be spelled as ‘inability’.

Q5. D = answered / passed

Explanation = He answered the telephone and then passed it to his mother.

Q6. C = They’re

Explanation = The term ‘they’re’ is a contraction of ‘they are’. ‘They are going to be in big trouble ...’

Q7. B = plough

Explanation = Implough is not a word. When combined with the prefix, the other words make up: important, impudent, impact.

Q8. A = Trumpet

Explanation = Trumpet is the odd one out, since all of the other instruments use strings.

Q9. D = capable

Explanation = A submarine is a vehicle that is capable of independent operation underwater.


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Q10. C = The little girl pushed over the boy.

Explanation = All of the other sentences refer to the little girl being pushed over by the boy. In option C, the girl pushes over the boy, not the other way round.

Q11. D = significant

Explanation = Imsignificant is not a word. This would need to be spelled as ‘insignificant’. If we add the prefix to the other words, then we would get: image, imagine, immoral.

Q12. C = decided

Explanation = The man decided that he wanted to go home.

Q13. A = potential

Explanation = The weather forecaster informed the public of the potential rain.

Q14. C = Sphere

Explanation = A sphere is the only 3D shape on the list.

Q15. D = B

Explanation = If we add the letter B to these words, we get: Herb, Brag, Blurb, and Ball

Verbal Reasoning

Test 6






Medway 11+

128


Rose Lily Daisy Petal

A B C D

Question 2. Which letter is missing from the following words?

FEE ( _ ) ARE and PLEA ( _ ) ATE

D R M L

A B C D


Now Cow Low How

A B C D


In-

decisive reference destructible convenience

A B C D


Swim Run Sprint Sit

A B C D


129

Question 6. Choose one letter that can be moved from the word on the left to the word on the right, making two new words.

DRINK FREE

D I R N

A B C D

Question 7. Choose one letter that can be moved from the word on the left to the word on the right, making two new words.

RULER STAY

R U L E

A B C D

Question 8. Which five letter word can be placed in front of the following words to make a new word?

making wood stick box

Chair Broom Match Hatch

A B C D

Question 9. The sentence below has a word missing. Which one word makes the best sense when placed in the sentence?

The news reporter had very little time to _____ his interview with the famous actor.

conduct fix make reach

A B C D

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January December February August

A B C D

Question 11. Which of the following sentences has a different meaning to the other three sentences?

On the floor was a man, who was pushed over by

the bouncer.

The bouncer pushed a man to

the floor.

The man was pushed to the floor

by a bouncer.

The bouncer was pushed by a man, who then fell to the

floor.

A B C D

Question 12. Below there are two pairs of words. Only one of the answers will go equally well with both these pairs.

(Dog Woof) (Tree Wood)

Animal Bark Tail Sycamore

A B C D


Dragon Dog Dolphin Donkey

A B C D


Sight Height Eight Night

A B C D


131


Un-

interested able anticipated different

A B C D

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Answers

Q1. D = Petal

Explanation = All of the other words are types of flower, whereas a petal is part of a flower.

Q2. A = D

Explanation = If we add the letter d to these words, we get: feed, dare, plead, and date.

Q3. C = Low

Explanation = The word low is the odd one out, because it has a different sound to the rest of the words.

Q4. B = reference

Explanation = Inreference is not a word. If we add the other words to the prefix, we get: indecisive, indestructible, and inconvenience.

Q5. D = Sit

Explanation = All of the other words refer to acts which require physical exertion/exercise, whereas sit does not.

Q6. A = D

Explanation = If we move the letter d from drink, and move it to free, then we get rink, and freed.

Q7. A = R

Explanation = If we move the (final) r from ruler, and move it to stay, then we get rule, and stray.

Q8. C = Match

Explanation = The word match can be added in front of these words, to create: matchmaking, matchwood, matchstick, matchbox.

Q9. A = conduct

Explanation = The news reporter had very little time to conduct his interview with the famous actor.


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Q10. D = August

Explanation = All of the other months are during the winter. August is during the summer.

Q11. D = The bouncer was pushed by a man, who then fell to the floor.

Explanation = All of the other sentences refer to the bouncer pushing a man. In option D, the man pushes the bouncer.

Q12. B = Bark

Explanation = Option B is the only word which works with both pairs. Bark refers to a part of a tree, and is also the sound that a dog makes.

Q13. A = Dragon

Explanation = All of the other animals/creatures listed here are real. A dragon is fictional.

Q14. C = Eight

Explanation = Eight is the odd one out, as all of the other words have a different sound.

Q15. D = different

Explanation = Undifferent is not a word. In order to make this a word, it would need to be spelled as ‘Indifferent’. If we add the other words to the prefix, we would get: uninterested, unable, and unanticipated.

EXTENDED WRITING

Medway 11+

136

The third test that you will need to sit as part of the Medway 11+ exam, is an extended writing exercise. The extended writing exercise will require the candidate to produce a piece of factual or fiction-based writing, which demonstrates skills such as:

• Sentence fluency.

• Grammar, spelling, and punctuation.

• Creativity.

• The ability to follow a structure when writing.

The final point on the above list is arguably the most important of all. While different examination boards will place varying importance on different things, all of them will expect a piece of writing which has a clear beginning, middle, and end. Likewise, the format will vary between years. In some years you’ll be given 20 minutes to write, in other years you will be given 50 minutes to write. That being said - don’t sacrifice quality for quantity. A shorter piece, with a beginning, middle, and end, will score higher than a longer piece that follows no structure at all.

In this section, we’ll give you some fantastic tips on how to approach the extended writing exercise, and produce a piece of work which will really impress the examiners.

To start off, let’s look at the potential things that you might be asked to write about.

Fiction vs Reality

As mentioned, the format of the writing element can differ between years. Sometimes, you might be asked to write a fictional story. At another time, you might be asked to write a story about an experience you’ve had. Below are two different titles, to illustrate what we mean:

Write a story about sailing the seas as a pirate.

If you received the above title, then you know that you’ll need to think creatively and use your imagination.

Alternatively, you might get a title that looks like this:

Write a story about the last time you went abroad.

Naturally, writing this extract might require you to use your memory, rather than your imagination. However, the examiners will still want to see you be creative. Being creative doesn’t mean that you have to make things up - it’s about using language to describe things and make them sound poetic. Later in this section, we’ll give you some top tips on how to do this.

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Planning your story

In the vast majority of examination years, you will be given at least 5 minutes planning time before you start writing, once you’ve seen the essay title that is. It’s essential to use this time wisely. Planning your story will make a huge difference - it will mean that you can use your notes as a reminders of plot points, characters, and for ideas. While it’s true that some people find it easier to ‘just write’, ultimately you want to try and create a story which flows and makes sense, and planning the different elements will help you to do this. Since you’re under time pressure, having notes in front of you with basic ideas can make all the difference.

Before you start writing, using a separate piece of paper, think about the following:

Characters. Of course, this is a major part in any story or extract. You need to get your characters in place, because they are the ones who will drive the story forward. Try to think of at least 2 major characters, and 1 minor character. For example:

• Aaron.

• Jane.

• Timothy

Now that you’ve got those characters, write one or two lines about them. For example:

Aaron, aged 18, has red hair and likes motorcycles. Best friends with Jane.

Above we have a very basic character profile. Now, we need some conflict! Conflict is ultimately what creates good writing material. So, we have Aaron, who likes motorcycles. Now, let’s create Jane:

Jane, aged 19, has blonde hair and hates loud noises. Best friends with Aaron.

By the fact that Jane ‘hates loud noises’ we can infer that she wouldn’t be a fan of motorcycles, because they are noisy. Therefore, we immediately have an interesting conflict. If Aaron likes motorcycles, and Jane doesn’t, and the pair of them are best friends, then they will have a disagreement over what they want to do. Here’s where Timothy comes in:

Timothy, aged 40, has black hair and runs a motorcycle show.

So now we have a character and an event that immediately heightens the sense of conflict. If Timothy is running a motorcycle show, and Aaron and Jane can’t agree on whether to attend, we have our very first plotline. Will they attend? And if they do, what will happen? This also links into our next important planning point ...

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Where is the story set? It’s important to give your story a time and place. You may have heard the expression ‘write about what you know’. Although in some ways this has become cliché, the truth is that ‘writing about what you know’ is hugely important. Once you know a certain place, you will be able to describe said place in a unique and interesting way. Human beings are naturally perceptive - we pick up on tiny details around us that might seem insignificant at the time, but actually have enormous value when written. Bringing out these details will help your story come to life.

Once you’ve decided on the setting of the story, and the main characters, you already have all the tools in place for an introduction. However, there’s still a bit you need to plan.

The plot. Plotting is a complex and difficult process, and for actual writers it can sometimes take years to get a plot fully realised! However, you don’t need to be scared, because you aren’t publishing a full-length novel! In this case, you just need to plan out a basic story, with a beginning, middle, and end. Your notes will be incredibly valuable here, because the last thing you want to do is lose your sense of plot halfway through the work. If you can, it’s wise to try and write out 6 or 7 bullet points to summarise the plot - then you can start building on these bullet points as the work progresses. For example:

• Jane and Aaron argue over whether to attend the motorcycle show.

• Jane agrees to go to the motorcycle show, as long as Aaron goes with her to the library next weekend.

• Aaron and Jane make the trip to the motorcycle show.

• Aaron and Jane meet Timothy. Jane likes Timothy, Aaron doesn’t.

• Aaron steals one of the motorbikes to impress Jane.

• Aaron doesn’t know how to stop the bike, and ends up falling off and injuring himself.

• Aaron and Jane visit the hospital - ending the story.

Hopefully this all gives you a basic idea of how to structure a simple, easy plot. Of course, if you want to write about aliens, fantasy, or magic then you can - be creative - but oftentimes it’s easier to structure a work that is based in reality, even if the story itself is fictional.

Now that you’re done planning, there’s two more essential details that you need to decide upon, and that’s the literary point of view, and the tense. Below we’ve explained a little bit more about these.

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139

Narrative Point of View

When writing an extract, you should ideally aim to write in either first person, or third person.

First person refers to the act of talking about yourself, or as if you were a character. For example:

‘I went to the shops and bought a packet of sweets.’

Second person refers to the act of talking to an audience. This is commonly used in advertising. For example:

‘You can buy this product at HALF PRICE!’

Second person is normally used when the narrator is talking directly to the reader, you don’t normally see this in fiction. The use of second person is much more restrictive.

Third person is where the narrator talks about the characters from an omniscient perspective. For example:

‘Timothy went to the shops and bought a packet of sweets.’

There are different quirks and advantages to the different narrative points of view, and none are considered ‘better’ than the others. In some cases, it might come down to the title of the essay. For example, if the question asks you: ‘Describe what happened the last time you went on holiday’ then it wouldn’t make much sense to write in anything other than first person, ‘I’ ‘me’ ‘we’.

If you are writing a fictitious account, then there are advantages to each method. First person allows you to give a stronger, more unique perspective on a certain character - after all you are essentially acting as that character, and giving them a voice. While third person doesn’t limit you when it comes to characterisation, it’s slightly more detached. However, what third person does allow you to do is to be more creative with the plot - since the narrator can see things that the characters cannot.

Ultimately, both first person and third person can work equally well, and it’s simply a matter of preference as to which you’d like to use.

Tense

You also need to decide on the tense in which your book is written. Most of the time, the safest choice is to write in the past tense - that is to describe events that have already happened:

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‘Aaron stared at Jane. Her face was red with anger.’

The vast majority of fiction is written in this way - it’s generally considered the easiest and most natural format of writing. That being said, it’s still possible to write in the present tense:

‘I am staring at Jane. Her face is red with anger.’

Or, alternatively, if the essay title demands it, you may need to write in future tense. For example, if you’re given a title such as:

‘Describe what you will do during your next summer holiday.’

In this case, you’d have to write in the future tense, ‘We will go to Spain’ or ‘we shall go to Spain’ etc.

Now, let’s look at some tips on structure, and the actual writing.

Writing Tips

Writing is complex and difficult process, and in this way it is very hard to ‘teach’ somebody how to write. That being said, your preparation for the extended writing exercise doesn’t have to be stressful. Ultimately, writing should be an enjoyable experience, and it’s a great way to express yourself. The key to getting good marks, of course, is in expressing yourself ‘the right way’. Here are some tips on things to keep in mind, and things to avoid.

Use adjectives sensibly. Often, one of the first things that you are taught as a young writer is to be creative and use as many adjectives as possible. This is great for getting your brain thinking imaginatively and assigning qualities to objects, but doesn’t necessarily translate so well to a good, final piece of writing. As an example, let’s look at a sentence:

‘Marvin approached the door, his knees knocking together with trepidation. He was devastated in fear. His hand trembled as he clutched the door handle - he was shaking so hard he could barely move. He grasped the doorknob, with trembling fingers, and pushed his way into the black chasm of the bedroom.’

While on the surface of it, this might seem like a creative way of saying ‘Marvin opened the door’, the reality is that conveying fear in this way actually reduces from it. The image of Marvin’s knees knocking together is wholly unrealistic - this wouldn’t happen as described. Likewise, describing the room as a ‘black chasm’ when it is in fact just a bedroom, takes away from what the author is trying to illustrate. Let’s now look at a more succinct and accurate description of this:

Extended Writing

141

‘Marvin approached the door. His palms were sweating. He put his hand on the doorknob, and hesitated. He breathed in the cool air of the landing, just for a moment, and then pushed his way into the bedroom.’

Hopefully the above demonstrates that you don’t need to use adjectives to write creatively. This concept is known as ‘show don’t tell’. Instead of telling us that Marvin is afraid, it’s better to actually show us this via his actions. Think about what happens when you are actually scared. You begin to breathe a bit heavier, perhaps you sweat a little. Little things like this make all the difference. We can see that Marvin hesitates, because he’s scared. We don’t need to be told it.

Real people, real behaviour. One of the things which often causes writers to lose marks on exercises such as this, is that the characters’ behaviour doesn’t exactly match either what they would do in real life, or the rest of their characterisation. For example, let’s look at the story of Aaron and Jane again, focusing specifically on point 4: Aaron and Jane meet Timothy. Jane likes Timothy, Aaron doesn’t.

Based on the above, how do you think Aaron would react to Timothy? How would Aaron show his dislike of Timothy? A clue, the answer is not ‘he would punch him in the face’. Random acts that aren’t consistent with characterisation can break the immersion of a piece, and make it hard to read. The intrigue of writing, even writing fantasy, is placing realistic people with human characteristics and traits, in circumstances or situations where they need to react - and seeing how they react. Again, it’s the little details that tell a good story.

Structure. As we’ve mentioned, having a beginning, middle, and an end is really important. It makes it easier for the reader to understand where they are in the story, and makes it easier for the reader to follow the work. Let’s look at these three facets in more details:

Beginning. Your beginning should introduce the characters, and the location. This is easy enough to do, and there are no set rules on how you should or shouldn’t do this. Some people like to really spell out the place and setting. For example:

Chapter 1

It was 10 am on Saturday morning, in the town of Ficshire. Jane and Aaron were sitting in Jane’s front room. They were having an argument.

Alternatively, you can introduce the story in a more subtle way:

Chapter 1

‘Why on earth would there be a motorcycle show in Ficshire? That’s stupid.’

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Aaron glared at Jane. He held up the poster and waved it in her face. ‘It says it right here. Motorcycle show, East Ficshire, 11 am next Saturday.’

Jane frowned. ‘Well we’re not going,’ she said.

You can see here how we’ve introduced a) the location, b) the names of the characters, and c) the premise of the plot, all through a few lines of dialogue. More on this later!

You could follow up on this by having the pair squabble over whether to go, and then having them actually make the trip to the show later in the week.

Middle. The middle of your story is where the real action happens. In this, ideally you want the central ‘conflict’ to take place, or the experience of the event itself. The main bulk of the story will form ‘the middle’, and this is where you have the chance to really be creative and express yourself.

Ending. Ending your story on the right note is really important. There’s lots of ways to end a story, and one of the most popular is to use the ‘cliffhanger approach’. This is where the story leaves the reader on edge, guessing what’s going to happen next. For example:

Aaron stared at the bandage on his leg. Jane held his hand.

‘You’re so stupid,’ she said, smiling.

Aaron frowned. He released his hand from Jane’s, and leaned back on the bed. ‘I’ve got something to tell you about Timothy,’ he said.

This leaves the reader guessing, and is an exciting way to wrap up. However, you don’t have to end on a cliffhanger. Just make sure that if you don’t use the cliffhanger approach, there aren’t too many ‘unanswered questions’ left in your work - as this could annoy the examiner.

Dialogue

Finally, we have dialogue. Dialogue refers to the actual written-speech element of a piece of work, it’s essentially where people speak to each other. There’s no rule on how much or how little dialogue you need to have in your extract, as different people have different preferences. However, one thing to bear in mind is that dialogue is an extremely useful way of conveying information. Implementing ‘show don’t tell’ is much easier if you can use dialogue to illustrate a certain point.

Using the previous example:

‘Why on earth would there be a motorcycle show in Ficshire? That’s stupid.’

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Aaron glared at Jane. He held up the poster and waved it in her face. ‘It says it right here. Motorcycle show, East Ficshire, 11 am next Saturday.’

Jane frowned. ‘Well we’re not going,’ she said.

You can see here how Jane is annoyed by the prospect of them attending a motorcycle show, and we don’t need either a narrator to tell us ‘Jane was annoyed’ or even Jane saying ‘I am annoyed’ to show this. We can see she’s annoyed by the use of the word ‘stupid’ and the word ‘frowned’. Likewise, we can see that Aaron wants to attend the show, via his behaviour and actions.

Let’s look at another example:

‘Hi there,’ Timothy said, smiling. ‘I’m the manager here.’

Jane blushed furiously. She pushed her hair back over her shoulder. Timothy was wearing an open neck shirt. He was carrying a motorcycle wrench.

Aaron scraped his feet along the floor. ‘Doesn’t seem like you’re an expert on motorcycles to me,’ he mumbled.

You can see here how easy it is to ‘connect the dots’ with writing. We don’t need to be told that Timothy is handsome, or that Jane likes him - we can do this via Jane’s blushing, and via Aaron’s sulky reaction to him. We can even see it in Jane’s pushing her hair back over her shoulder. It’s the little details that tell the biggest story. Likewise, it’s the little details that give character to your characters.

Think about how real people speak

One of the reasons why dialogue is so difficult to write, is because it’s hard to mirror real speech in literary format. And in some ways, you don’t want to mirror real speech. In real life, we speak with lots of pauses. When written, this would become very disjointed. However, there’s still things that you can do to make your written dialogue as true to life as possible. Take a look at the below sentences. Read them out loud:

A. ‘Hello, Mum. I am going to the cinema. I will see you later.’

B. ‘Hi, Mum. I’m going to the cinema. I’ll see you later.’

Which of the following do you think sounds the best? If you answered B, you’d be correct. Option A sounds robotic and unnatural – people don’t speak like this. In real life, we contract our words and phrases – ‘I am’ becomes ‘I’m’ and ‘I will’ becomes ‘I’ll’. This is one way that you can improve your dialogue – by shortening the phrases, as real people do when speaking.

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Use dialogue tags sparingly

A dialogue tag is a small phrase that connotes either the way a sentence is spoken, or who is speaking it. This can apply to a simple ‘he said/she said’, or more creative uses, for example:

James’s face was red with anger. ‘I’m going to hit you,’ he growled menacingly.

In the above, the phrase ‘growled menacingly’ is there to show the reader about how James said the sentence. The problem with dialogue tags is that, if the sentence preceding the tag is good enough, or clear enough, then most of the time you won’t need the tag. In the above, we certainly don’t need the final phrase, since we know that James is angry, and the fact that he wants to hit someone is more than enough to demonstrate that he’s acting menacingly.

Sometimes, dialogue tags are necessary. This is often the case where there are more than three people in one conversation, in which case it’s important to show the reader who is speaking. However, when it’s a two-way conversation, repeated use of dialogue tags can take away from the impact of the work. For example:

‘Get out of my house, James. Get out right now!’ Mary yelled.

‘I won’t leave, Mary, and you can’t make me,’ James replied.

‘Then I’ll call the police, James! I promise you, I’ll call them right now,’ said Mary.

‘Okay, have it your way, Mary. Call them,’ said James.

‘Do you really want to be arrested, James?’ asked Mary.

‘I don’t care, Mary,’ replied James.

The repetition of the dialogue tags in the above extract creates a serious problem – the result is that the whole conversation reads in a fragmented and distorted manner, and is difficult to read. When it’s a conversation between two people, you don’t need the dialogue tags, because the reader can follow the sentence just fine on their own – without any prompts. Likewise, you should avoid naming people over and over again – you can see in the above extract that James is referring to Mary, and Mary is referring to James, and the result is unrealistic and disjointed. People simply don’t speak like this in real life – because they don’t need to.

Here’s how this looks without some of the tags:

‘Get out of my house, James. Get out right now!’ Mary yelled.

‘I won’t leave, and you can’t make me,’ James replied.

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‘Then I’ll call the police! I promise you, I’ll call them right now.’

‘Okay, have it your way. Call them.’

‘Do you really want to be arrested?’

‘I don’t care,’ replied James.

You can see here how just removing three of the tags from the middle of the extract makes the extract read far better and more fluently than before, and the end result is a better piece of writing.

Practice Tasks

Now, have a go at some creative writing yourself. We’ve included some practice tasks, with titles and things to include.

Journey Abroad

Write a story about your favourite holiday. In your story, you should include the following:

- A conversation between yourself and someone you met on holiday.

- An unexpected scenario that you encountered.

- Your experience on the flight or trip.

- What type of food you ate.

- Whether you enjoyed the trip, and whether you would visit again.

- What your parents thought of the trip.

This story should be written in first person.

Exercise 1

Extended Writing

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https://www.how2become.com/11-plus-extended-writing/

TO SUBMIT YOUR ESSAY.

Pirate Job Interview

Imagine a captain of a pirate ship, who is preparing for an expedition to foreign shores. In your story, you should include the following:

- Why he/she decided to become a pirate, and where they are headed on their expedition.

- What type of people they want to recruit for their crew.

- Where the interviews took place, and what type of questions and tasks the crew members had to complete.

- Details about the successful crew members, what they looked like, and what their skills were.

- An account of their journey to foreign shores.

This story should be written in third person, and should finish on a cliff-hanger.

Exercise 2

Extended Writing

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Dinosaur Dilemma

Your friend has called you round to his house – he’s found a dinosaur in his back garden, but he doesn’t know what to do with it! He wants you to help him hide the dinosaur. In your story, you should include the following:

- What type of dinosaur your friend has found, and what it looks like.

- Conversations between you and your friend.

- The problems of keeping a growing dinosaur hidden from the rest of the world.

- How your friend reacts when you tell him that the dinosaur should be taken to the local zoo.

- How you think the rest of the world would react to finding out about the dinosaur.

- The problems you and your friend encounter, when he brings the dinosaur to school.

This story should be written in first person.

Exercise 3

Extended Writing

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Exercise 4

Extended Writing

Video Game Vortex

You are playing your favourite video game, when you suddenly get sucked into the screen! Suddenly, you’re a character in the game. In your story, you should include the following:

- How you reacted to finding yourself in this strange, but familiar, new world.

- How the other characters in the game reacted to you suddenly appearing.

- How you plan to get out of the game, and escape to the real world.

- How the main villain of the game planned to try and keep you in the game world.

- What challenges you faced, and how you overcame them.

This story can be written in either first person or third person. It should not end on a cliff-hanger.

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A Few Final Words

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You have now reached the end of your Medway 11+ Guide. We have no doubt that you will feel more competent in Maths, Verbal Reasoning, and Extended Writing. We hope you have found this guide an invaluable insight into the different types of questions that you will face during the Medway 11+.

For any type of test, there are a few things to remember to help you perform at your best …

REMEMBER – THE THREE P’S!

1. Preparation. You want to do your utmost to ensure the best possible chance of succeeding. Be sure to conduct as much preparation prior to your assessment, to ensure you are 100% prepared to complete the test successfully. Not only will practising guarantee improved scores, but it will also take some of the pressure off leading up to that all important test. Like anything, the more you practise, the more likely you are to succeed.

2. Perseverance. Everybody comes across times whereby they are set back or find obstacles in the way of their goals. The important thing to remember when this happens, is to use those setbacks and obstacles as a way of progressing. If you fail at something, consider ‘why’ you have failed. This will allow you to improve and enhance your performance for next time.

3. Performance. Your performance will determine whether or not you are likely to succeed. Attributes that are often associated with performance are self-belief, motivation and commitment. Self-belief is important for anything you do in life. It allows you to recognise your own abilities and skills and believe that you can do well. Believing that you can do well is half the battle! Being fully motivated and committed is often difficult for some people, but we can assure you that, nothing is gained without hard work and determination. If you want to succeed, you will need to put in that extra time and hard work.

Work hard, stay focused, and secure your place in a Medway Grammar School!

Sincerely,

The How2Become Team

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