27-12-14 Sr.iit-z (Iz) Co-spark Jee Main (2011) Ptm-16 q'Paper

NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY

INDIASec: Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-SPARK PTM-16 Dt: 27-12-

14IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball

Point Pen. Use of

pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration.

3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry, Physics and

Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is

allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct

response of each question. (1/4) (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating

incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be

made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

Narayana IIT Academy 27-12-14_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ)_JEE MAIN_PTM-16

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response

in any question

will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted

accordingly as per

instruction 5 above.

Sr.IIT-Z (IZ)_JEE-MAIN space for rough work Page 2


CHEMISTRY

1. The major products in the following reaction is

1) 2) 3) 4)

2. How many oxime(s) formed if the smallest ketone and its homologues ketone are

reacted with NH2OH.HCl

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

3.

Find the minimum value of “X” to archive the above reaction

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4



4. Maximum hydration takes place that of

1) 2) 3) 4)

5. Hydrolysis product of is:

1) 2)

3) 4)

6. Enolisation is maximum in case of

1) 2) 3) 4)



7.

1) 2)

3) 4)

8. End product in the following sequence of reaction is

1) 2) 3) 4)



9. is formed by intramolecular aldol condensation of

1) 2)

3) 4)

10.

Major product formed in the above reaction is

1) 2)

3) 4)



11. X and Y are respectively

1) 2)

3) 4) 12. Which is the best hydride donor in Cannizzaro reaction (assume R is Phenyl)?

1) 2) 3) RCOOH 4)

13. A.

B.

Relation between

1) 2) 3) 4) unpredictable



14. , the sum, x + y is

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

15. Which one of the following produces an acetal?1) It is the condensation product from 2 molecules of aldehyde.2) It is the condensation product from 2 molecules of ketone.3) It is the condensation product from 2 molecules of alcohol.

4) It is the product of addition of R-OH to in acidic medium

16. The reduction of =CHCHO with yields majorly

1) 2)

3) 4) 17. - hydroxy carbonyl compound is obtained by the action of dil.NaOH on

1) 2) 3) 4)

18. The high potency sweetener among the following 1) Aspartame 2) Saccarin 3) Sucrolose 4) Alitame

19. The end product of the following sequence of reaction is



1) 2) 3) 4) 20. The following is not a food preservative

1) Sodium benzoate 2) salt of sorbic acid

3) sodium stearate 4) salt of propanoic acid

21. Urotropine is obtained when1) urea reacts with formamide 2) urea reacts with ammonia3) Methanal reacts with ammonia 4) acetone reacts with ammonia

22. What are A, B and C in the following?

1) 2)

3)

4)

23. Which of the following reagents is best reagent used for the conversion shown below?



1) 2)

3) 4)

24.

Product (A) and (B) is differentiated by :

1) 2-4-DNP 2) NaOI 3) Lucas reagent 4)

25. The final product of the following sequence of reaction is

1) 2)

3) 4) 26. The substance used in the birth control pills is

1) Tetracycline 2) Sulphadiazine 3)Novestrol 4) Penicillin

27. Acetylation of the two -OH groups of morphine with acetic anhydride gives

1) codeine 2) heroin 3) cocaine 4) quinine

28. The drug used as an anti depressant is

1) luminal 2) phenalzine 3) mescaline 4) sulphadiazine



29. The IUPAC name of the insectiside lindane is

1) dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane 2) benzene hexachloride

3) hexachloran 4) 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachlorocyclohexane

30. Penicillin G contains

1) phenyl group 2) Benzyl group 3) Benzo group 4) Benzal group

PHYSICS31. What is the ratio of de – Broglie wave lengths of electron in the second & third Bohr’s

orbits in a hydrogen atom? 1) 2/3 2) 3/2 3) 4/3 4) 3/432. The energy of a hydrogen like atom (or ion) in its ground state is -122.4 eV. It may be 1) Hydrogen atom 2) 3) 4) 33. Maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is E when the wavelength of incident light

is . If energy becomes four times when wavelength is reduced to one-third, then work function of the metal is

1) 2) 3) 4)

34. If the frequency of X-ray emitted from the element with atomic number 31 is , then the frequency of X-ray emitted from the element with atomic number 51 would be (According to Moosley’s law)

1) 2) 3) 4)

35. A potential of 10,000 V is applied across an X-ray tube. Find the ratio of de-Broglie wavelength associated with incident electrons to the minimum wavelength associated with X-rays

(Given e/m= C/kg for electrons)1)10 2) 20 3) 1/10 4) 1/20

36. Photoelectric work function of a metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength falls on it. The photoelectron comes out with a maximum velocity of (Approximately)



1) 10m/s 2) m/s 3) m/s 4) m/s37. An electron revolves round a nucleus of atomic number Z. If 32.4eV of energy is

required to excite an electron from n=3 state to n=4state, then the value of Z is1) 5 2) 6 3) 4 4)7

38. An orbital electron in the ground state of hydrogen has magnetic moment . This orbital electron is excited to 3rd excited state by some energy transfer to the hydrogen atom. The new magnetic moment of the electron is , then1) 2) 3) 4)

39. Half-life of a radioactive substance A is two times the half-life of another radioactive

substance B. Initially the number of nuclei of A and B are and respectively.

After three half lives of A number of nuclei of both are equal. Then the ratio

is:

1) 1/4 2) 1/8 3) 4/1 4) 8/1

40. A radioactive isotope is being produced at a constant rate A. The isotope has a half-life T. Initially there are no nuclei, after a time t>>T, the number of nuclei becomes constant. The value of this constant is

1) AT 2) 3) 4)

41. A bone containing 200g carbon -14 has a rate of 375 decay/min. calculate the time that has elapsed since the death of the living one. Given the rate of decay for the living organism is equal to 15 decay per min per gram of carbon and half-life carbon -14 = 5730 years.1) 27190 years 2) 1190 years 3) 17190 years 4) none of these

42. Two radioactive samples of different elements (half-lives respectively) have

same number of nuclei at t=0. The time after which their activities are same is



1) 2) 3) 4) none of these

43. A nucleus X initially at rest, undergoes alpha decay according to the equation

.What fraction of the total energy released in the decay will be the

Kinetic Energy of the alpha particle?

1) 2) 3) 4)

44. A radioactive material of half-life T was kept in a nuclear reactor at two different

instants. The quantity kept second time was twice of that kept first time. If now their

present activities are respectively then their age difference

equals to

1) 2) 3) 4)

45. In a nucleus if is the net force between two protons, is the net force between

two neutrons and is the net force between a proton and a neutron at a separation of

1 Fermi, Then (neglect gravitational force)

1) 2) 3) 4)

46. Nucleus A is converted into C through the following reaction ;

then

1) A and B are isotopes 2) A and C are isobars



3) A and B are isobars 4) A and C are isotopes

47. A radioactive element disintegrates for a time interval equal to its mean life. The

fraction that has disintegrated is

1) 2) 3) 4)

48. What is the probability of a radioactive nucleus to survive one mean life?

1) 2) 3) 4)

49. A proton has kinetic energy E=100 keV which is equal to that of a photon. The

wavelength of photon is and the De-broglie wave length of proton is . The ratio

of is proportional to

1) 2) 3) 4)

50. In a photoelectric experiment, anode potential with respect to cathode is plotted

against plate current. Select the correct statement from the following (Assuming

intensity of incident radiation is varied at constant frequency)



1) A and B will have different intensities while B and C will have different

frequencies

2) B and C will have different intensities While A and C will have Different

frequencies

3) A and B will have different intensities while A and C will have equal frequencies

4) A and B will have equal intensities while B and C will have different frequencies

51. A pulse of light of duration 100ns is absorbed completely by a small object initially at

rest. Power of the pulse is 30mW and the speed of light is m/s. The final

momentum of the object is

1) 2)

3) 4)

52. Wavelength emitted by an atom, of atomic number Z=11 is . Find the atomic

number for an atom that emits radiation with wavelength (According to

Moosley’s law)

1) Z=6 2) Z=4 3) Z=11 4) Z=44



53. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm.

The smallest wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the

nearest integer) is

1) 802 nm 2) 823 nm 3) 1882 nm 4) 1648 nm

54. Electrons with de Broglie wavelength fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cut-0ff

wavelength of the emitted X-rays is

1) 2) 3) 4)

55. Which one of the following statement is wrong in the context of x-rays generated from

X-ray tube?

1) Wavelength of characteristic X-rays decreases when the atomic number of the

target increases.

2) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the

target.

3) Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the electric power given to the X-

ray tube.

4) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy of the electrons

in the X-ray tube.



56. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is . The wavelength of the second spectral line in the Balmer series of singly

ionized helium atom is:1) 2) 3) 4)

57. is radioactive substance having half-life of 4 days. Find the probability that a

nucleus undergoes decay after two half-lives.

1) 1 2) 3) 4)

58. In the options given below, let E denote the rest mass energy of a nucleus and n a

neutron. The correct option is

1) 2)

3) 4)

59. Which of the following processes represents a - decay?1) 2) 3) 4)

60. A radioactive sample consists of two distinct species having equal number of atoms initially. The mean lifetime of one species is and that the other is . The decay products in both cases are stable. A plot is made of the total number of radioactive nuclei as a function of time which of the following figures best represents the form of this plot?



1) 2)

3) 4)

MATHEMATICS61. Box A contains 3 red and 2 black balls. Box B contains 2 red and 3 black balls. One

ball is drawn at random from Box A and placed in Box b. Then one ball is drawn at

random from the Box B and placed in A. The probability that the composition of balls

in the two boxes remain unaltered isSr.IIT-Z (IZ)_JEE-MAIN space for rough work Page 18


1) 2) 3) 4)

62. If , the relationship between and (is)

1) 2)

3) 4) Cannot be decided

63. In a group of 25 people everybody is proficient either in mathematics or in statistics or

in both. Out of them 19 people are proficient in mathematics and 16 are proficient in

statistics. If a person is selected at random, the probability that he is proficient both in

Mathematics & statistics

1) 2) 3) 4)

64. A letter is taken out at random from the word ASSISTANT and another from

STATISTICS. The probability that they are the same letters is

1) 2) 3) 4)

65. A has 3 tickets of lottery containing 3 prizes and 9 blanks. B has 2 tickets of another lottery containing 2 prizes and 6 blanks. The ratio of their chances of success is

1) 2) 3) 4)

66. Out of tickets consecutively numbered, three are drawn at random. The chance

that the numbers on them are in A.P.



1) 2) 3) 4)

67. If A, B and C are three events of a random experiment such that P(A) = 0.3, P(B) =

0.4, P(C) = 0.8,

1) [0.32,0.52] 2) [0.23,0.48] 3) [0.19,0.44] 4) [0.21,0.19]

68. A and B alternatively throw a pair of symmetrical dice. A wins if he throws 6 before B

throws 7 and B wins if he throws 7 before A throws 6. If A begins, The probability of

his winning is

1) 2) 3) 4)

69. A bag contains coins. It is known that ‘n’ of these have a head on both the

sides, whereas the remaining coins are fair. A coin is picked up at random from

the bag and tossed. If the probability that the toss result is a head is 31/42, then value

of ‘n’ is

1) 10 2) 8 3) 6 4) 2570. The chance that doctor A will diagonise disease X correctly is 60%. The chance that a

patient will die by his treatment after correct diagnosis is 40% and the chance of death



after wrong diagnosis is 70%. A patient of doctor A who had disease X died. The

probability that his disease was diagonised correctly is

1)5/3 2) 6/13 3) 2/13 4) 7/13

71. If the integers ‘m’ and ‘n’ are chosen at random from 1 to 100 then the probability that

a number of the from is divisible by 5 is

1) 2) 3) 4)

72. A natural number ‘x’ is chosen at random from the first 1000 natural numbers. If [.]

denotes the greatest integer function then the probability that is

1) 33/1000 2) 34/1000 3) 32/1000 4) 31/1000

73. If n positive numbers are taken at random and multiplied together, then the probability

that the last digit of the product is ‘0’ is

1) 2) 3) 4)

74. If and , then is

1) 1/12 2) 1/6 3) 1/15 4) 1/9

75. If and are the probabilities of three mutually exclusive events, then

1) [0,1] 2) 3) 4)



76. In a test, an examinee either guesses or copies or knows the answer to a multiple

choice question with four choices. The probability that he makes a guess is and the

probability of his answer is correct given that he copied it is . The probability that he

knows the answer to the question given that correctly answered it is

1) 2) 3) 4)

77. If a , then the probability that the graph of the function is strictly above the X-axis is

1) 2) 3) 4)

78. Two numbers , are selected such that and . Find the probability

that the selected numbers satisfy the inequation .

1) 2) 3) 4)

79. A lot contains 20 articles. The probability that the lot contains exactly 2 defective articles is 0.4 and the probability that it contains exactly 3 defective articles is 0.6. Articles are drawn from the lot at random one by one, without replacement and tested till all defective are found. The probability that the testing procedure ends at the 12th testing is

1) 2) 3) 4)

80. A coin is tossed (m + n) times. (m>n) The probability of getting at least ‘m’ consecutive heads is

1) 2) 3) 4)

81. If a and b are chosen randomly from the set consisting of numbers 1, 2, 3,4,5,6 with

replacement. Then the probability that is



1)1/3 2)1/4 3) 1/9 4) 2/9

82. Two persons A and B agree to meet at a place between 11 to 12 noon. The first one to

arrive waits for 20 minutes and then leave. If the time of their arrival be independent

and at random, the probability that A and B meet

1) 2) 3) 4)

83. 100 boys are randomly divided into two groups containing 50 boys each. The

probability that the two tallest boys are in different groups is

1) 50/99 2) 49/99 3) 25/99 4)

84. 3 white balls 5 black balls are placed in a bag and three men draw a ball in succession

(the balls drawn not being replaced), until a white ball is drawn, the ratio of their

respective chances is

1) 27:18:11 2) 11:18:27 3) 18:11:27 4)18:27:11

85. A three figure number is formed by the digits 4,5,6,7,8 (no digit being repeated in any

number). The probability that the number formed is divisible by 9 is

1) 2) 3) 4)

86. 10 pairs of shoes are there in a closet. Four shoes are selected at random. The

probability that there will be at least one pair is



1) 2) 3) 4)

87. A letter is known to have come from TATANAGAR or CALCUTTA. On the envelope two consecutive letters TA are visible. The probability that the letter has come from CALCUTTA is

1) 2) 3) 4)

88. A box contains 24 identical balls of which 12 are white and 12 are black. The balls are

drawn at random from the box one at a time with replacement. The probability that a

white ball is drawn for the 4th time on the 7th draw is

1) 2) 3) 4)

89. There are four machines and it is known that exactly two of them are faulty. They are

tested one by one in a random order till both the faculty machines are identified. Then

the probability that only two tests are needed is

1) 2) 3) 4)

90. In a shooting test, the probabilities for 3 persons A, B, C to hit the target are and

. If all if them simultaneously aim at the target, The probability for exactly two

persons hitting the target is

1) 2) 3) 4)




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27-12-14 Sr.iit-z (Iz) Co-spark Jee Main (2011) Ptm-16 q'Paper