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MCQ

AY 1426-1427 (2005-2006)

Most common malformation of head and neck region is:

a. cleft lip and palate*b. hemangiomac. preauricular cystd. malformation of ear

2. Most common type of cleft in males is:

a. unilateral cleft lip aloneb. unilateral cleft palate alonec. unilateral lip and palate*d. Bilateral cleft lip

3. A patient presents with small yellow spots, presentbilaterally on buccal mucosa opposite to posterior teethwithout any other associated complaint. Most probablediagnosis of the condition is:

a. Koplik’s spotb. Fordyce’s granules*c. Melanotic maculed. White sponge nevus

4. A patient presented with asymptomatic, smooth,circumscribed red area in midline anterior to circumvallatepapillae on the dorsum of tongue with microscopic evidenceof epithelial hyperplasia. The most probable diagnosis of thecondition is:

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a. geographic tongueb. hairy tonguec. median rhomboid glossitis*d. lingual thyroid

5. In hairy tongue, there is hypertrophy of:

a. fungiform papillaeb. filiform papillae*c. foliate papillaed. circumvallate papillae

6. A patient present with an asymptomatic soft, fluctuantswelling of the angle of mandible anterior to sternocleido-mastoid muscle which he stated to be present since hischildhood days. Regional lymph nodes are nonpalpable with

normal radiographic pictures of the area and normal bloodand urine examination. Aspiration of swelling shows yellow-brown fluid. Most probable diagnosis in the condition is:

a. thyroglossal duct cystb. salivary gland tumor

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c. branchial cleft cyst*d. follicular ameloblastoma

7. Which of the following condition is characterized bygeneralized intestinal polyposis with pigmentation of faceand oral mucosa:

a. Peutz-Jeghens syndrome*b. Albright syndromec. Gardner syndromed. Neurofibromatosis

8. A 25-year al patient presents with an asymptomatic doughysoft, fluctuant swelling on lateral neck which was present formonth but recently enlarged following an upper respiratorytract infection. Most likely diagnosis of the swelling is:

a. scrofula

b. lymphomac. cervicofacial actinomycosisd. cervical lymphoepithelial cyst*

9. Most characteristic histopathologic feature of keratoacanthoma is:

a. elevation of normal epithelium towards the centralportion of the lesion with an abrupt change in normalepithelium as hyperplastic acanthotic epithelium isreached*

b. hyperplastic squamous epithelium growing intounderlying connective tissue

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c. occasional dysplastic featuresd. epithelium appears to be invading into connective

tissue at deep leading margin of the tumor

10. A patient reported with an asympthomatic white patchon buccal mucosa which cannot be rubbed off. The patchwas present for the last 3 months. Patient is a heavycigarette smoker. Most probable diagnosis of the lesion is:

a. Leukoplasia*b. Candidiasisc. Erythroplakiad. White sponge nevus

11. Site most commonly affected by basal cell carcinomais:

a. buccal mucosab. skin of palm and exposed surface of armsc. skin of upper back aread. skin of middle third of face*

12. A patient with history of tobacco chewing presents withan asymptomatic, exophytic papillary growth on right buccalmucosa. Histologic examination of the lesion reveal marked

epit helial proliferation without invasion into the connectivetissue and parakeratin plugging. Most probable diagnosis is:

a. epidermoid carcinomab. basal cell carcinomac. papilloma

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d. verrucous carcinoma*

13. A patient present with tender swelling in the palatalarea. Associated teeth were normal. Radiographicexamination of the area shows radiolucent area withhoneycomb appearance. Excessive bleeding wasencountered upon entering into the lesion. Most probablediagnosis of the lesion is:

a. radicular cystb. aneurysmal bone cyst*c. hemorrhagic bone cyst

d. mid-palatal cyst

14. Skin lesions of the hereditary hemorrhagictelangiectasia are most common on:

a. armsb. abdomenc. legs

d. face*

15. Characteristic hemorrhagic lesions of the hereditaryhemorrhagic telangiectasia occurs most often on

a. Tongueb. Lips*c. Gingivald. Palate

16. A 70-year old patient present with small, elevated,crusted lesion on right side of nose which he stated to bepresent for last several months and never quite heals. Themost likely diagnosis is:

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a. Epidermoid carcinomab. Verrucous carcinomac. Sebaceous cystd. Basal cell carcinoma*

17. A patient presents with a bilateral greyish white lesionon buccal mucosa which disappear when stretched. Themost likely diagnosis is:

a. Lichen planusb. Leukoplakiac. Leukoedema*

d. White sponge nevus

18. All of the following diseases has been associated withEpstein-Barr virus EXCEPT:

a. Burkitt’s lymphomab. Malignant mixed tumorc. Oral hairy leukoplakia*

d. Infectious mononucleosis

19. An elderly anemic patient complains of back pain.Numerous punched out radiolucencies are evident on skullradiograph. The patient should be suspected of having:

a. Ewing’s sarcomab. Thalassaemiac. Multiple myeloma*d. Malignant lymphoma

20. Basal cell carcinoma frequently involves normal tissuesby spreading by way of:

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a. lymphaticsb. arteriesc. nerve sheathsd. direct invasion*

21. A benign neoplasm which appears as a non-painfulslowly enlarging, submucosal mass with overlying epitheliumexhibiting pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia is most likelya:

a. fibromab. granular cell tumor*

c. papillomad. keratoacanthoma

22. Examination of a child shows enlargement of left sideof tongue showing small, elevated greyish-pink nodulessome of which are fluid filled with rest of oral cavity beingnormal. Most likely diagnosis of the lesion is:

a. neurofibromatosisb. lymphangioma*c. granular cell myoblastomad. cystic fibrosis

23. Biopsy of a smooth, red, protruding lesion at lateral,border of tongue shows stratified squamous epitheliumcovering loose connective tissue that contains many thin-walled engorged, vascular space. Most likely diagnosis is:

a. papillomab. hemangioma*c. lymphangiomad. granular cell myoblastoma

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24. Multiple lesions seen in patients suffering from vonRecklinghaussen’s disease of skin are:

a. neurofibromas*b. neurolemmomasc. hemangiomasd. griant cell tumors

25. Most common site of occurrence of salivary glandtumors is

a. parotid gland*b. sub-maxillary glandc. sub-lingual glandd. minor salivary gland

26. Primary Sjogren’s syndrome consists of keratoconjunctivitis sicca and:

a. Xerostomia*b. Rheumatoid arthritisc. SLEd. Scleroderma

27. Triad of Sjogren’ syndrome consists of:

a. conjunctivitis, stomatitis, rheumatoid arthritis

b. keratoconjunctivitis, xerostomia, rherumatoid arthritis*c. keratoconjunctivitis, xerostomia, osteoarthritisd. conjunctivitis, stomatitis, urethritis

28. Radiographic appearance of salivary glands in Sjogren’ssyndrome is characteristically described as:

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a. sun-ray appearanceb. cherry-blossom or branchless fruit laden tree

appearance*c. honeycomb appearanced. onion-peel appearance

29. Patients affected by Sjogren’s syndrome showsincreased incidence of development of:

a. osteosarcomab. lymphoma*c. multiple myelomad. adenocarcinoma

30. Majority of lymphomas developed in patients of Sjogen’s syndrome are of:

a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

b. Burkitt’s lymphomac. Non-hodgkin lymphoma of B-cell origin*d. Non-hodgkin lymphoma of T-cell origin

31. The common site of occurrence of adenoid cysticcarcinoma is:

a. parotid gland*

b. palatal mucosac. upper lipd. sub-mandibular gland

32. Most suggested etiology of necrotizing sialometaplasiais:

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a. traumab. infectionc. ischaemia*d. neoplastic changes

33. Which of the following salivary gland neoplasm is leastlikely to be found in minor salivary glands

a. papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum*b. adenoid cycstic carcinomac. mucoepidermoid carcinomad. pleomorphic adenoma

34. A 40-year old woman reports the development of painful crater like ulcer on mucosa of left hard palate withinone week following the extraction of maxillary left secondpremolar. Most likely diagnosis is:

a. pleomorphic adenomab. squamous cell carcinomac. necrotizing sialometaplasia*d. adenoid cystic carcinoma

35. An elderly woman present with swelling of lateralaspect of left side of neck which was present for last tenmonths but start increasing in size for the last two monthsand is now painful. There is small ulceration of skinoverlying the mass with distortion of left facial region whenpatient speaks. Differential diagnosis will include all of thefollowing EXCEPT:

a. adenoid cystic carcinomab. pleomorphic adenoma*

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c. mucoepidermoid carcinomad. malignant mixed tumor

36. Toxin produced by streptococci which is responsible forcausing scarlet fever is:

a. first day illnessb. second or third day of illness*c. fifth to seventh day of illnessd. one week after appearance of other clinical signs and

symptoms

37. In miliary tuberculosis, dissemination of microorganismoccur usually via:

a. lymphaticsb. blood streams*c. salivad. pulmonary fluid

38. A patient presents with mild fever, sore throat andulceration of fascial pillars, posterior pharyngeal wall andsoft palate. Most likely diagnosis is:

a. Reiter syndromeb. Herpangina*c. Herpetis gingivostomatitisd. Recurrent rhomboid glossitis

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39. A patient on antibiotic therapy for scarlet feverdevelops white plaques on his oral mucosa which whenscraped with tongue blade leaves a painful bleeding surface,most probable diagnosis is:

a. Blastomycosisb. Candidiasis*c. Herpes simplex infectiond. Syphilis

40. Which of the following is most opportunistic infection?

a. Candidiasis*b. Actinomycosisc. Histoplasmosisd. Blastomycosis

41. “Sulfur granules” are of diagnostic value is suspectedcases of:

a. Candidiasisb. Tuberculosisc. Actinomycosis*d. Histoplasmosis

42. A patient presents with slightly painful white lesions of oral mucosa which when wiped off shows the red surfaceunderneath. The patient is on penicillin therapy for last 12weeks. The most likely diagnosis of lesion is:

a. Actinomycosisb. Candidiasis*c. Lichen planusd. Leukoplakia

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43. Clinical diagnosis of candidiasis is confirmed by:

a. response to vitamin B 12 therapyb. demonstration of mycelia and spores on histologic

examination of scrapings*c. sun-ray arrangement of fungal hyphaed. presence of characteristic “sulfur granules”

44. A patient with severe mycotic infection of head andneck characterized by triad of uncontrolled diabetes, orbitalinfection and meningoencephalitis most probably has:

a. Candidiasisb. Actinomycosisc. Mucormycosis*d. Histoplasmosis

45. The organism most commonly implicated as causative

agents in cases of cellulites is:

a. Staphylococcus sp .b. Streptococcus sp.*c. Neisseria spd. Pheumococcus sp.

46. A middle age patient presents swelling in the left

maxillary area with mild pain on palpation. On examination,left maxillary first molar was missing and patient gives thehistory of traumatic extraction of the tooth about 10 yearago in which one of the root was displaced in the maxillarysinus which was then removed via Caldwell-Luc operation.Overlying skin and other teeth were normal. X-rayexamination shows a radiolucent are in left maxilla which

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was separated from left maxillary sinus anatomically. Mostprobable diagnosis of the condition is:

a. surgical ciliated cyst of maxilla*b. maxillary sinusitisc. carcinoma of maxillary antrumd. retention cyst of maxillary sinus

47. A patient presents with swelling in neck near the angleof mandible on right side which disappear on applyingpressure to it. Intraorally a dome-shaped, bluish swellingpresent in floor of mouth on right side. Most likely diagnosis

of the lesion is:

a. mucoceleb. dermoid cystc. branchial cystd. ranula*

48. Sialoliths are mainly composed of:

a. calcium phosphate*b. calcium oxidec. calcium carbonated. calcium suphate

49. Which of the following cells are most radioresistant?

a. granulocyteb. muscle cell

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c. lymphocyted. epithelial cell*

50. Which of the following tissue is mot sensitive toradiation induced carcinogenesis?

a. Thyroid*b. liverc. salivary glandd. brain

51. Craniofacial dysostosis with syndactyly is also knownas:

a. Crouzon’s syndromeb. Apert syndrome*c. Treacher Collin’s syndromed. Eranceschetti syndrome

52. Triangular frontal defect, parrot’s beak nose,hypertelorism and prognathic mandible are features of:

a. mandibulofacial dysostosisb. craniofacial dysostosis*c. Pierre Robin syndromed. Cleidocranial dysostosis

53. A female patient complains of pain in right ear radiatingtowards the angle of mandible. Clicking sounds werepresent in right temporomandibular joint. Results of palpation and radiographic examination are negative. Themost probable diagnosis is:

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a. osteoarthritisb. rheumatoid arthritisc. myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome*d. traumatic arthritis

54. Which of the following groups of lymph nodes is first toexhibit lymphadenopathy in cases of infectionmonocucleous?

a. axillaryb. cervical*c. inguinal

d. mediastinal

55. An early oral manifestation of infectious mononucleosisis;

a. palatal petechiae*b. oral ulcerationc. inflammation of mucous membrane

d. edema of soft palate and uvula

56. “Philadelphia chromosome” is characteristically seen in:

a. acute lymphocytic leukaemiab. acute monocytic leukaemiac. chronic lymphocytic leukaemiad. chronic myeloid leukaemia*

57. Most common form of leukaemia in children is:

a. acute lymphocytic leukaemia*b. chronic myeloid leukaemia

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c. acute monocytic leukaemiad. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

58. In thrombocytopenic purpura:

a. bleeding time is normal, clotting time is prolongedb. Both bleeding and clotting time are prolongedc. Bleeding time is prolonged, clotting time is normal*d. Both bleeding time and clotting time are norma

59. Hemophilia A is caused to deficiency of:

a. Factor VIII*b. Factor IXc. Factor Vd. Factor X

60. In hemophilia A:

a. Prothrombine time (PT) is normal, plasma

thromboplastin time (PTT) is normalb. PT is prolonged, PTT is prolongedc. PT is normal, PTT is prolonged*d. PT is prolonged, PTT is normal

61. A patient presents with spontaneous necrotizing ulcersof oral cavity. On laboratory examination, RBC count wasnormal but WBC count was 2,000 with lymphocytes 65%neutrophils 5%, monocytes 28%, eosinophils 2% andbasophils 0%. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. infectious mononucleosisb. agranulocytosis*c. cyclic neutropeniad. leukaemia

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62. A patient presents with petechiae on oral mucosa withgingival bleeding. Blood examination shows platelet count of 30,000/mm 3 with increase in bleeding time and clotretraction time, RBC, TLC are normal. Most probablediagnosis is:

a. hemophiliab. infectious mononucleosisc. thrombocytopenic purpura*d. anemia

63. A middle-aged patient complains of periodic burning of her buccal mucosa. Oral examination shows slightly raised,linear, grayish-white plaque on buccal mucosa. Biopsy of thelesion shows acanthosis, surface keratosis with vacuolationof cells of basal cell layer with cellular inflammatory infiltratelocalized to subepithelial connective tissue. Most likelydiagnosis is:

a. Lichen planus*b. Leokoedemac. Luekoplakiad. Pemphigoid

64. Sudden development of intensely red, wheal-likelesions on oral mucosa which progress to form thin-walledvesicles which ruptures to form ulceration covered byyellowish-white membrane suggests a diagnosis of:

a. Reiter’s syndromeb. Behcet’s syndromec. Erythema multiforme*d. Pemphigus

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65. A patient presents with an asymptomatic whitecorrugated patch present bilaterally on his buccal mucosa.He also reports the occurrence of same kind of lesion in hismother and younger brother. Most likely diagnosis is:

a. Pemphigusb. Leukoedemac. Candidiasisd. White sponge nevus*

66. An elderly patient complains of burning, aching pain,paresthesia, and itching on one side of face. On

examination, small white scars are seen in pre-auricularregion. Most likely diagnosis is:

a. Sphenopalalatine neuralgiab. Bell’s palsyc. Auriculotemporal syndromed. Post-herpetic neuralgia*

67. Dysphagia, sore throat, pharyngeal pain which occursdue to elongated styloid process exerting pressure onpharyngeal wall is known as:

a. Trotter’s syndromeb. Eagle’s syndrome*c. Glossopharyngeal neuralgiad. Orofacial dyskinesia

68. A patient presents with an asymptomatic submucosallump in his tongue. On histopathologic examination, itshows cells with extremely granular eosinophillic cytoplasm.Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia was also present. Mostlikely diagnosis of the lesion is:

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a. lymphangiomab. granular cell myoblastoma*c. hemangiomad. lingual thyroid

69. In which of the following condition, serum alkalinephosphatase levels are increased?

a. Paget;s disease*b. Osteogenesis imperfectac. Osteopetrosisd. Cherubism

70. Diffuse white lesions are seen in the mouth of a 6-month old child who is on antibiotic therapy for the cysticfibrosis. The white patches could be stripped off leaving araw, red surface. The most likely diagnosis of the conditionis:

a. acute herpetic stomatitis

b. diphtheriac. oral thrush*d. herpangina

MCQ in ORL COURSE

Name:_______________________________________Computer#:____________

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1. Dorsum of Nose formed by all of the following EXCEPT:a. Vomer

b. Lower Lateral Cartilagec. Nasal Bonesd. Septal Cartilage

2. Upper lateral cartilage attached with the nasal bonea. Under side of the nasal boneb. Postero Superior part of the bonec. End to endd. Not attached at all

3. Nasal Vestibule lined by the:a. Cuboidal epitheliumb. Columnar epitheliumc. Skind. Pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium

4. The paranasal sinuses drains into the middle meatus of thenose EXCEPT:

a. Sphenoid sinusb. Middle ethmoid sinusc. Maxillary sinusd. Posterior sinus

5. Olfactory cleft lies between the:a. Middle turbinate & cribriform plateb. Superior turbinate & cribriform platec. Superior turbinate & inferior turbinate

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d. Inferior turbinate & cribriform plate

6. True about the nerve supply of the nose:a. Sympathetic supply from superior cervical ganglionb. Parasympathetic supply via nervus intermediusc. Nerve supply is extremely richd. All of the above

7. Type of sphenoid sinus in normal population is usually:

a. Sellarb. Postsellerc. Presellerd. Maximal Pneumatisation

8. Pain in vertexis seen in:a. Ethmoid sinusitis

b. Sphenoid sinusitisc. Frontal sinusitisd. Maxillary sinusitis

9. Nose develops from:a. Second branchial archb. First branchial archc. Third branchial archd. First & second arch

10. Incidence of mucocele is lowest ina. Frontal sinusb. Sphenoid sinus

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c. Maxillary sinusd. Ethmoid sinus

11. Extraction of which tooth commonly leads on tooroantral fistula:

a. Second pre molarb. First molarc. First pre-molard. Second molar

12. Sodium chromogycate is helpful in allergic rhinitisbecause it causes:

a. Desensitizationb. Decongestion of nasal mucosac. Most cell stabilizationd. Vasoconstriction

13. Nasal polyps in a child should arouse the suspicion of:a. Celiac diseaseb. Aspirin hypersensitivityc. Cystic fibrosisd. All the above

14. Aquamous papilloma of the nose arises froma. Turbinates

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b. Vestibulec. Septumd. Any of the above

15. Coincidental malignancy in upper respiratory tract withinverted papilloma is:

a. 2%b. 5%c. 4%d. 0.1%

16. Best approach for surgical excision of invertedpapilloma of nose is:

a. Caldwell-luc’s approachb. External ethmoidectomyc. Intranasal approachd. Lateral rhinotomy

17. Syphilis of nose usually involves the:a. Nasal septumb. Ethmoid sinus

c. Nasal boned. Maxillary sinus

18. Septal perforation may seen in all EXCEPT:a. Tuberculosis

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b. Syphilisc. Leprosyd. Toxoplasmosis

19. Cosmetic rhinoplasty is preferably avoided in:a. Nose with thick greasy skinb. Ethnic nosesc. Over forty years of aged. All of the above

20. Idead nasolabial angle in males is:a. 80b. 100c. 110d. 90

21. Normal masofrontal angle is:a. 105b. 135c. 190d. 125

22. Ideal age for otoplasty in ears is:a. 1 yearb. 5 years

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c. 12 yearsd. 2 years

23. Cribriform plate is a part of:a. Ethmoid boneb. It is a separate bonec. Frontal boned. Vomer

24. Treatment for carcinoma maxillary sinus is:a. Radiotherapyb. Radiotherapy followed by surgeryc. Maxillectomy followed by radiotherapyd. Chemotherapy only

25. Sphenopalatine foramen lies posterosuperior to:a. Bulla ethmoidalisb. Middle turbinatec. Superior turbinated. Inferior turbinate

26. Sensory supply of nasal cavity mainly from the:a. Ophthalmic nerveb. Infra orbital nervec. Mixillary nerve

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d. Vidian nerve

27. Radiologically, maxillary sinus is best seen in:

a. Lateral viewb. Oblique viewc. Occipito frontal viewd. Occipitomental view

28. Commonest intracranial complication of sinusitis is:a. Brain abscessb. Canernous sinus thrombosisc. Cortical venous thrombosisd. Meningitis

29. Reduction rhinoplasty is for:a. Hump noseb. Narrow nosec. Crooked nosed. Saddle nose

30. Tripode fracture is seen in:a. Zygomatic boneb. Temporal bonec. Nasal bonesd. Maxilla

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31. Potato nose is seen in:a. Malignancy

b. Sarcoidosisc. Rhinophymad. Rhinosporidiosis

32. Lefort II fracture also known as:a. Rhomboid fractureb. Pyramidal fracturec. Cranio-facial dissociationd. Molar fracture

33. Cranio-facial dislocation is seen in:a. Lefort I fractureb. Lefort II fracturec. Lefort III fractured. None of the above

34. True about nasopharyngeal angiofibroma:a. Benign but locally invasiveb. Seen only in males around pubertyc. High vascular tumord. All of the above

35. Commonest malignant neoplasm of the nose andparanasal sinuses is:

a. Basal cell carcinomab. Squamous cellcarcinomac. Adenocarcinoma

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d. Malignant melanoma

36. Commonest site of inverted papilloma of the nose:a. Lateral wall of the noseb. Nasal septum

c. Floor of the nosed. Roof of the nose

37. Fracture of the skull seen in:a. Lefort I fractureb. Lefort II fracturec. Lefort III fracture

d. Lefort IV fracture

38. Diagnosis of glandular fever is confirmed by:a. Positive monospot testb. Raised liver enzymec. Leucocytosisd. C-reactive protein

39. Scarlet fever rashes are differentiated by:a. These are painfulb. There are slightly tenderc. Rashes appear earlyd. Desquamation

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40. Waldayer’s ring is:a. Lymphatic ring

b. Venous ringc. Arterial ringd. Ring of pigmentation

41. Shoberry tongue is seen in:a. Erysipelasb. Scarlet feverc. Monday feverd. All of the above

42. In Plummer Vinson syndrome most significant

investigation is:a. Serum ironb. Bone marrow ironc. Serum hemoglobind. Serum ferritin

43. Killian Dehiscence leads to:a. Oesophageal diverticulaeb. Pharyngeal pouchc. Laryngoceled. Plummer-vinson syndrome

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44. True about globus syndrome:a. Feeling of lump in the throat

b. Organic lesion presentc. Relieved by anxietyd. Treatment is surgery

45. Difficulty in swallowing fluids than solids seen in:a. Achlasiab. Oesophageal stricturec. Pharyngeal pouchd. Carcinoma oesophagus

46. Acute retropharyngeal abscess in infants is dangerousbecause:

a. Space is smaller in sizeb. Immune system is poorc. Infant’s spine is short and larynx is highd. It occurs bilaterally

47. A fascial space is defined as the area:a. Bone and fasciab. Area bounded by connective tissuec. Area around the glandd. Between muscle and fascia

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48. Retropharyngeal space extends from base of skull to:a. Hyoid bone

b. Bifuraction of tracheac. Angle of mandibled. Cricoid cartilage

49. All are contents of parapharyngeal space except:a. Internal jugular vienb. Part of parotid glandc. Submandibular glandd. Carotid artery

50. Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess due to spasm of the:

a. Buccinatorb. Temporalisc. Masseterd. Medial pterygoid

51. Organism responsible for Ludwig’s angina is:a. Haemolyticus streptococcusb. Albus streptococcusc. Viridans streptococcusd. Aureus streptococcus

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52. Mainstay of treatment in Ludwig’s angina is treated by:a. Supportive treatment

b. Antibioticsc. Incision and drainaged. Radiation

53. Commonest malignancy in nasopharynx is:a. Squamous cell carcinomab. Lymphomac. Adenocarcinomad. Transitional Cell Carcinoma

54. Treatment of carcinoma nasopharynx is:a. Radiotherapyb. Cryosurgeryc. Surgeryd. Chemotherapy

55. Oropharyngeal cancer mainly:a. Carcinosarcomab. Squamous cell carcinomac. Lymphoepitheliomad. Columnar cell carcinoma

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56. Common site of hypopharyngeal tumour is:a. Anterior wallb. Posterior wallc. Post cricoid areasd. Pyriform fossa

57. Incidence of lymph node metastasis in pyriform fossatumour is:

a. 50%b. 95%c. 25%

d. 75%

58. Radiographic finding of plummer Vinson syndrome is:a. Cricoid constrictionb. Post cricoid webc. Enlarged vasculatured. Mass in the pyriform fossa

59. Plummer Vinson syndrome is also known as:

a. Killiam syndromeb. Paterson-Brown Kelly syndromec. Brown syndromed. None of the above

60. Type of apthous ulcer seen in population normally:a. Minorb. Malignantc. Majord. Recurrent

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61. What is inappropriate about granular cell tumour of oralcavity:

a. Common in upper jawb. Common in malesc. Common in fourth decaded. Arises from skeletal muscle

62. All are common sites of papilloma in oral cavityEXCEPT:

a. Anterior pillarb. Buccal mucosac. Soft palated. Alveolus

63. Treatment of geographical tongue is:a. Reassuranceb. B-complexc. Vit. Ad. Iron

64. “Geographical tongue” is due to:a. Folic acid deficiencyb. Idiopathicc. Iron deficiencyd. Vit C deficiency

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65. In “geographical tongue there is hypertrophy of:a. Circumvallate papillae

b. Filiform & fungiform papillaec. Fungiform papillaed. Filiform papillae

66. Median rhomboid glossitis is due to:a. Candida albicansb. Folic acid deficiencyc. Herpes virusd. Iron deficiency

67. All are types of ranula EXCEPT:a. Plungingb. Dermoidc. Simpled. Cavernous

68. Carcinoma soft palate is treated by:a. Radiotherapyb. Cryosurgeryc. Surgeryd. Chemotherapy

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69. True about nerve supply of pyriform fossa:a. Secretomotor fibres go to chorda tympanib. Devoid of any nervec. Poor sensory supplyd. It has rich nerve supply

70. Malignant pleomorphic adenoma is commonest in:a. Minor salivary glandsb. Parotid glandc. Submandibular glandd. Sublingual gland

71. Most common malignant salivary gland tumour inchildren is:a. Muco-epidermoid tumourb. Adenoid cystic carcinomac. Adenocarcinomad. Squamous cell carcinoma

72. Parotid gland tumour associated with pain is:a. Pleomorphic adenomab. Warthim’s tumourc. Adenoid cystic carcinomad. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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73. Most common site of mucoepidermoid tumour is:a. Submandibular glandb. Minor salivary glandsc. Sublingual glandd. Parotid gland

74. Accepted surgery for a benign parotid tumour is:a. Total parotidectomyb. Superficial parotidectomy + neck dissectionc. Superficial parotidectomyd. Enucleation

75. Cystic swelling in a parotid gland is usually caused by:a. Muco-epidemoid tumourb. Pleomorphic adenomac. Warthin’s tumourd. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

76. In a parotid tumour malignancy may be suspected with:a. Facial palsyb. Painc. Skin involvementd. All of the above

77. In Sjogren’s syndrome biopsy taken from:

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a. Palatal glandsb. Monir sublabial glandc. Submandibulard. Lacrimal glands

78. Wide excision of the nerves is indicated in:a. Adenoid cystic carcinomab. Adenocarcinomac. Squamous cell carcinomad. Acinic cell tumour

79. Frey’s syndrome occurs:a. Sialectasisb. After parotidectomyc. Warthin’s tumourd. In pleomarphic adenoma

80. Not true abut pre-epiglottic space:a. To be removed in laryngectomyb. Site for tuberculosisc. Cancer spreads in it easilyd. It contains fat

81. Not true about epiglottis:a. It is elastic cartilage

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b. Forms the boundary of pre epiglottic spacec. Contains some glands alsod. It ossifies in old age

82. Abducters of vocal cords:a. Cricothyroidb. Thyroarytonoidc. Posterior cricoartytenoidd. Lateral cricoarytenoid

83. Unpaired laryngeal muscles:a. Vocalisb. Interarytenoidc. Lateral cricoarytenoidd. Posterior cricoarytenoid

84. all muscles of larynx are supplied by recurrentlaryngeal nerve, except:

a. Oblique arytenoidsb. Thyroarytenoidc. Cricothyroidd. Vocalis

85. Commonest benign tumour of salivary glands:a. Orcocytoma

b. Manomorphic adenomac. Pleomorphic adenomad. None of the above

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86. Delphian lymph node lies on:a. Cricoid cartilageb. Cricothyroid membranec. Thyroid cartilaged. Epiglottis

87. all are main functions of larynx EXCEPT:a. To control the air flowb. Phonationc. Generation of speechd. To protect the lungs

88. Microlaryngoscopy is usually done with an objectivelens with focal length of:

a. 200 mmb. 400 mmc. 100 mmd. 300 mm

89. Vocal nodules present usually seen at:a. Anterior 2/3 & posterior 1/3 junction

b. Middle of the cordc. At the junction of anterior 1/3 & posterior 2/3 of the

cordd. Posterior 1/3 of the cord

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90. Most appropriate about spastic dysphonia:a. Seen in childrenb. Macrolaryngeal surgery cures the diseasec. It is stress relatedd. Hereditary

91. Diplophonia usually seen in:a. Vocal polypsb. Dysphonia plica ventricularisc. Contact ulcerd. Papilloma of larynx

92. Length of vocal cord in adult males:a. 3.5 cmb. 2.5 cmc. 1 cmd. 2 cm

93. Treatment of choice in early glottic cancer is:a. Chemotherapyb. Radiotherapy

c. Toral laryngectomyd. Surgery followed by radiotherapy

94. Origin of laryngocele from:a. Vocal folds

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b. Ventricular foldsc. Ventricled. All of the above

95. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is:a. aortic aneurysmb. Mitral stenosis surgeryc. Surgery of patent ductus arteriosisd. Subclavian artery aneurysm

96. Right recurrent laryngeal paralysis due to all EXCEPT:a. Carcinoma of apex of lung

b. Aortic aneurismc. Thyroid surgeryd. Carcinoma of oesophagus

97. Dead space is reduced in tracheotomy:a. 15%b. 30 - 50%c. 10%d. 20%

98. Tracheal rings incised in tracheostomy are:a. Third & fourthb. Fifth & sixth

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c. Second & thirdd. First & second rings

99. Carotid body tumour is confirmed by:a. Ultrasoundb. Tomographyc. CT scand. Angiography

100. Commonest occult primary site is:

a. Tonsilb. Pyriform fossac. Nasopharynxd. Base of tongue

101. Occult nodes are maximum in:

a. Pyroform fossa tumoursb. Base of tongue malignancyc. Supraglottic tumoursd. Glottic tumours

102. Regurgitation of undigested good after a long time of swallowing is seen in:

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a. Plummer Vinson syndromeb. Pharyngeal pouchc. Peptic ulcerd. Cardiac achlasia

103. Malignant changes occur in leukoplakia with:

a. Hyperkeratosisb. Dyskeratosisc. Dysplasiad. Simple keratosis

104. The best method to secure a tracheostomy tube is:

a. Tapeb. Bandagec. Suturingd. All of the above

105. Nasopharynx extends from base of skull to:

a. Base of tongueb. Styloid processc. Level of hard palated. Cricoid cartilage

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106.Hyoid bone gives stability to hypopharynx through:a. Superior constrictorb. Middle constrictorc. Inferior constrictord. All the constrictor

107.Chief artery of tonsil comes from:a. Ascending pharyngeal arteryb. Facial arteryc. Palatine arteryd. Dorsal lingual artery

108.Palatine tonsils lie in:a. Hard palateb. Eustachian tubec. Facial pillarsd. Soft palate

109.Common symptom of laryngitis is:a. Painb. Dysphoniac. Burning sensationd. Foreign body sensation

110.Ludwig’s angina is infection of:

a. Submental spaceb. Parapharyngeal spacec. Retropharyngeal spaced. Submandible space

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111.Tuberculosis of the larynx affect the:a. Anterior part of the larynxb. Posterior part of the larynxc. Entire larynxd. None of the above

112.Tonsillar bed formed by all EXCEPT:a. Buccopharyngeal membraneb. Suprerior constrictor musclec. Pharyngobasilar fasiad. Inferior constrictor muscles

113.Most common malignancy of the tongue:a. Metastaticb. Malignant melanomac. Basal cell carcinomad. Squamous cell carcinoma

114.Most common site of salivary calculi:a. Submandibular glandb. Lingual glandc. Parotid glandd. Minor salivary glands

115.Paul-Bunnel test is for:

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a. Leukemiab. Diphtheriac. Glandular feverd. All of the above

116.Peritonsillar abscess most commonly occurs around whichpart of the tonsil:a. Anterosuperiorb. Lateralc. Anteroinferiord. Posterosuperior

117.Normal length of the styloid process is:a. 1.5 cmb. 2.5 cmc. 3.5 cmd. 4 cm

118.Which of the laryngeal cartilage does not ossify:a. Epiglottisb. Cuneiform cartilagec. Corniculate cartilaged. All of the above

119.Lining epithelium of vocal cords:

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a. Stratified squamous epitheliumb. Simple squamous epitheliumc. Transitional epitheliumd. Cuboidal epithelium

120.Inspiratory strider seen in obstruction of:a. Larynxb. Tracheac. Bronchusd. Bronchiole

121.Most common histological type of laryngeal malignancy:

a. Adenocarcinomab. Transitional cell carcinomac. Squamous cell carcinomad. None of the above

122.Angioneurotic edema is:a. Type I reactionb. Type II reactionc. Type III reactiond. Type IV reaction

123.Most common type of oesophageal malignancy:a. Adenocarcinoma

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b. Squamous cell carcinomac. Transitional cell carcinomad. None of the above

124.Occult nodes commonly seen in malignancy of:a. Nasopharynxb. Larynxc. Oesophagusd. Lungs

125. Commonest type of malignancy of auricle and externalauditory:a. Adenocarcinomab. Squamous cell carcinomac. Malignant melanomad. Transitional cell carcinoma

126.The cartilage of pinna made up of:a. Hyaline cartilageb. Fibrous cartilagec. Elastic cartilaged. Mixed cartilage

127.External auditery meatus is cartilaginous in its:a. Outer one third

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b. Outer two thirdc. Outer one forthd. Outer half

128.Boils of external auditory canal are very painful due to:a. Associated perichondritisb. Close attachment of skinc. It is extremely rich in sensory supplyd. Presence of cerumenous glands

129.Depth of the middle ear is the least in:a. Mesotympanumb. It is equalc. Epitympanumd. Hypotympanum

130.The vascular structure lie below the floor of middle ear is:a. Internal jugular veinb. Internal carotid arteryc. Jugular bulbd. Emissary vein

131.Processus cochleariform contains:a. Stapedius tendonb. Apex of cochlear

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c. Tensor tympani tendond. Semi circular canal

132.Secondary tympanic membrane is:a. Covers the oval windowb. There is no such entityc. Covers the round windowd. False tympanic membrane

133. Promontary is performed by:a. Medial semicircular canalb. Lateral semicircular canalc. Basal turn of cochlead. Superior semicircular canal

134.Fallopian canal is:a. Internal auditory meatusb. Facial nerve canalc. External auditory canald. Eustachian tube

135.Stapedious is inserted to:a. Neck of stapesb. Foot plate of stapesc. Head of stapes

d. Crura of stapes

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136.Eustachian tube length is:a. 48 mmb. 40 mmc. 24 mmd. 36 mm

137.Swallowing movements opens the Eustachian tube through:a. Levator palati

b. Tensor palatic. Tensor tympani muscled. Palatoglossus

138.Cartilagenous part of Eustachian tube is:a. Outer half b. Medial two third

c. Outer two thirdd. Middle third

139.The fluid near to consistency of CSF:a. Cortilymphb. Perilymphc. Endolymphd. Prilymph & endolymph

140.Reissener’s membrane is between the:a. Scala media and scala tympanib. Scala vestibule and scala tympanic. Scala media and scala vestibuli

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d. Cochlea and vestibule

141.Tympani membrane functions best when the middle earpressure is:a. slightly higher than external ear

b. equal to external ear pressurec. slightly lower than external eard. None of the above is correct

142.Pain in the ear may be due to diseases of all parts of earEXCEPT:a. External auditory canal

b. Middle earc. Cochlead. Auricle

143.Most common symptom of ear disease is:a. Painb. Tinnitusc. Discharged. Deafness

144.Semicircular canal stimulated by:a. Linear movementb. Gravity

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c. Angular movementd. Vigorous exercise

145.Perforation of tympanic membrane with ragged edges isseen in:a. Chronic otitis mediab. Bass traumac. T.M. traumad. Myringotomy

146.Pain and tenderness in the region of tragus are usuallycaused by:

a. Furuncleb. Mastoiditisc. Waxd. Temporamandibular joint dysfunction

147.Lining of the eustachian tube is:a. Cuboid epitheliumb. Transitional epitheliumc. Squamous epitheliumd. Ciliated columnar epithelium

148.Preferred frequency of tuning fork for hearing test is:a. 512

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b. 204c. 256d. 102

149.The Rinne test will be negative in conductive deafness of:a. 5-10 dbb. 0 - 5 dbc. 10 - 15 dbd. more than 15 db

150.Absolute bone conduction measures:a. Middle ear functionb. External ear functionc. Inner ear functiond. Middle and inner ear function

151.Absolute bone conduction is reduced in:a. Perceptive deafnessb. Conductive deafnessc. Psycogenic deafnessd. Malignant otitis media

152.Pharyngeal opening of Eustachian tube is at:a. Posterior end of superior turbonateb. Posterior end of middle turbonate

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c. Posterior end of inferior turbonated. Below the inferior turbonate

153.Weber’s test is lateralized when the hearing loss is:a. 7 dbb. 5 dbc. more than 15 dbd. more than 10 db

154.Masking is applied in better ear if the difference in thresholdof two years is:a. 20 - 30 dbb. 30 - 40 dbc. 40 db or mored. more than 20 db

155.False about speech audiometry:a. It predicts the usefulness of hearing aidsb. It predicts the benefits of operationsc. It is very useful in functional deafnessd. It is a valuable method to access actual disability

156.Impedance audiometry is useful in:a. Ossicular discontinuityb. Eustachian tube obstruction

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c. Sercretory otitis mediad. All of the above

157.Recruitment denotes lesions of:a. Cochleab. Central connectionsc. Middle eard. Cochlea nerve

158.All are true about acoustic reflexes EXCEPT:a. It can help in localizing the facial nerve lesionsb. It is useful in malingerersc. It is very useful in Meniere’s diseased. Tensor tymapani contraction can be tested by stimulating

cornea with cold air

159.Most effective test in functional hearing loss is:a. Stenger’s testb. Lombard’s testc. Evoked response audimetryd. Delayed speech feedback

160.Fatiguable nystagmus is seen in:a. Vestibular typeb. Ocular type

c. Central typed. Cochlear type

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161.In caloric test, the interval between two irrigation is:a. 10 seconds

b. 40 secondsc. 5 secondsd. 2 seconds

162.Caloric test is carried out in supine position with head raisedabout:a. 20 °

b. 40°

c. 10 °

d. 30 °

163.Perichondritis of the auricle usually caused by:a. Streptococcusb. Staphylococcusc. E. Colid. Pseudomonas

164.Ceruminous glands are present in external auditory canal in:a. Outer thirdb. Entire canalc. Outer half d. Outer two third

165.Most common benign tumour of external auditory meatus:a. Osteomab. Adenomac. Papilloma

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d. Ceruminoma

166.Primary cause of osteoma of external auditory canal is:a. Otitis externalb. Swimming in cold waterc. Traumad. Long standing otitis media

167.Commonest organism responsible for otitis externa in tropicsis:a. Streptococcusb. H. influenzac. Staphylococcusd. Pseudomonas

168.Abnormally patent Eustachian tube may be seen in all of thefollowing EXCEPT:a. Marked weight lossb. Adenoid enlargementc. Debilitating diseases in old aged. Congenital

169.Unilateral secretory otitis media in an adult may seen in:a. Grandular feverb. Parapharyngeal tumourc. Aids

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d. Carcinoma nasopharynx

170.Commonest bacterial isolate in acute suppurative otitis

media is:a. Pneumococcusb. H. influenzac. E. Colid. Staphylococcus

171.Chief complaint in chronic middle ear effusion in adult is:a. Pain in earb. Blocked feeling in earc. Tinnitusd. Deafness

172.All points towards chronic middle ear effusion EXCEPT:a. Reduced mobility of drumb. Flat tympanogramc. Conductive deafnessd. Red tympanic membrane

173.Cholesteatoma commonly erodes all of the followingEXCEPT:a. Fallopian canalb. Cochleac. Incus

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d. Lateral semicircular

174.Characteristic discharge in attico-antral disease is:

a. Purulent dischargeb. Mostly stained dischargec. Mucopurulent discharged. Mucoid discharge

175.Commonest material used in myringoplasty is:a. Perichondriumb. Cartilagec. Temporalis fasciad. Dura matter

176.Symptomless multiple osteomas of external auditorymeatus:a. Should be excisedb. No treatmentc. Radiationd. Chemotherapy

177.Mastoid cell always present in infants is:a. Facial cellsb. Mastoid antrumc. Perisinus cell

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d. Labyrinthine cells

178.Sudden disappearance of symptoms in Gradenigo syndrome

indicates:a. Improper antibioticsb. Psychogenic causec. Intracraniald. Complete cure of disease

179.Gradenigo syndrome consist all EXCEPT:a. Pain and headacheb. Diplopiac. Ear discharged. Fascial plasty

180.Evening rise of temperature with rigors after mastoidsurgery occurs in:a. Tubercular otitis mediab. Lateral sinus thombosisc. Meningitisd. Extradural abscess

181.Tobey Ayer test is positive in:a. Otitic hydrocephalusb. Petrositis

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c. Lateral sinus thrombosisd. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

182.Griesinger sign seen in:a. Bezold’s abscessb. Lateral sinus thrombosisc. Acute mastoiditisd. Citelli’s abscess

183.Voice in otosclerosis:a. High, well modulated voiceb. Loud, harsh speechc. Low, well modulated voiced. Medium, harsh speech

184.Tympanic membrane in chronic non-active otosclerosis inmost cases:a. Slightly congestedb. Pinkc. Yellowd. Normal

185.Main symptom of otosclerosis are:a. Deafness and vertigob. Deafness and heaviness of ear

c. Tinnitis and vertigod. Deafness and tinnitus

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186.Family history is positive in otosclerosis is about:a. 20%b. 50%c. 10%d. 30%

187.Manifestation of otosclerosis is usually at the age of:a. 15 - 20 years

b. 20 - 35 yearsc. 10 - 25 yearsd. never before 30 years

188.Most commonly affected area in otosclerosis is:a. Post fenestramb. Ante fenestram

c. Annular alignmentd. Foot plate of stapes

189.Hearing aid gives best results in:a. Sensory deafnessb. Mixed deafnessc. Neural deafnessd. Conductive deafness

190.Conchlear implant is useful in:a. Mixed deafnessb. Sensorineural deafnessc. Total deafness

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d. Unilateral sensorineural deafness

191.Feedback in hearing aid is more common in a:a. Ear level hearing aidb. Body worm hearing aid

c. Low tone hearing aidd. All of the above

192.Acute middle ear effusion is a variety of:a. CSOMb. Mastoiditisc. Catarrhal otitis media

d. None of the above

193.After acute unilateral labyrinthine failure the normalfunctions usually come in:a. 1 dayb. 6 monthsc. 2 weeksd. 6 weeks

194.Treatment of acute suppurative otitis media:a. Local antibioticsb. Systemic antibioticsc. Both of the above

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d. Local antibiotics and steroids

195.Deafness in Meniere’s disease is:

a. Conductiveb. Fluctuating sensorineuralc. Mixedd. Unilateral conductive deafness

196.Meniere’s disease bilateral in:a. 40%b. 80%c. 10%d. 90%

197.Lermoyez syndrome is variant of:a. Presbyacusisb. Meniere’s diseasec. Vestibular neuronitisd. Otosclerosis

198.Acoustic neuroma arise usually from:a. Inferior vestibular nerveb. Cochlear nervec. Nervous intermediusd. Superior vestibular nerve

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199.In cerebellopontine angle tumours, acoustic neuromacomprise of:a. 60%b. 80%c. 51%d. 10%

200.Hardest bone is:a. Squamous partb. Bony labyrinthc. Tympanic part

d. Petrous part

201.Common fracture of temporal bone is:a. Longitudinalb. Obliquec. Mixedd. Transverse

202.Type of deafness in longitudinal fracture of temporal bone is:a. Sensorineural deafnessb. Central deafnessc. Conductive deafnessd. Mixed deafness

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203.Barotrauma occurs if the pressure difference betweennasopharynx and middle ear is above:a. 60 mm of Hgb. 120 mm of Hgc. 90 mm of Hgd. 30 mm of Hg

204.All are true about transverse fracture of temporal boneEXCEPT:a. Facial nerve commonly involvedb. Sensorinueral deafness

c. Conductive deafnessd. These fractures are less common

205.Noise trauma first of all involves the frequency range of:a. 1 - 3 K Hzb. 4 - 6 K Hzc. 1 - 2 K Hz

d. 3 - 14 K Hz

206.Sound level in factory of 8 hours shift should not exceed:

a. 65 dbb. 50 dbc. 45 dbd. 85 db

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207.MacEwen’s triangle corresponds to:a. Mastoid tipb. Cochleac. Mastoid antrumd. All of the above

208.Most dangerous type of labyrinthisis:a. Circumscribed labyrinthisisb. Purulent labyrinthisisc. Paralabyrinthisisd. Serous labyrinthisis

209.Main disadvantage of modified radical mastoidectomy is:a. Facial palsyb. Intracranial complicationsc. Large cavityd. Severe deafness

210.Main disadvantage of combined approachtympanomastoidectomy is:a. High rate of complicationsb. Deafnessc. Large cavityd. Recurrence of cholesteatoma

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211.Bezoid’s abscess is:a. Digastric abscessb. Zygematic abscessc. Abscess posterior to mastoid processd. Subperiosteal abscess

212.Gradenigo’s syndrome is diagnostic of:a. Mastoiditisb. CSOMc. Petrositisd. Masked mastoiditis

213.Nerve supply of tensor tympani:a. Trigeminal nerveb. Greater auricular nervec. Chorda tympani nerved. Facial nerve

214.Air bubbles in secretary otitis media are seen when the fluidis:a. Purulentb. Haemorrhagicc. Mucoidd. Serous

215.Sound intensity required to elicit stapedial reflex is morethan:a. 45 - 65 dbb. 70 - 90 dbc. 90 - 100 dbd. 30 - 45 db

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216.Cochlear microphanics generated by:a. Tympanic membraneb. Cochleac. Organ of

d. All of the above

217.Maximum amount of conductive deafness caused bysecretary otitis media:a. 10 - 25 dbb. 15 - 30 dbc. 25 - 40 db

d. 40 - 55 db

218.Which of the following s absent in Bat ear:a. Helisb. Antihelixc. Tragusd. Lobule

219.Treatment of traumatic perforation of the tympanicmembrane is:a. Local antibioticsb. Systemic antibioticsc. Steroid drops

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d. Observation

220.Most common symptoms of acoustic neuroma is:

a. Painb. Unilateral deafnessc. Tinnitusd. Vertigo

221.Lermoye syndrome is variant of:a. Otosclerosisb. Otitis mediac. Mastoiditis

d. Meniere’s disease

222.Sudden development in patient having tinnitus & hearingloss followed by loss of tinnitus and improvement in hearingseen in:a. Ossicular otosclerosisb. Lermoyez syndromec. Cochlear otosclerosisd. Masked mastoiditis

223.Earliest syndrome of drug induced ototoxicity:a. Low pitched tinnitusb. High pitched tinnitus

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c. Sensorineural deafnessd. Any of the above

224.Vestibular neuronitis caused by:a. Fungusb. Virusc. Bacteriad. Malignancy

225.Which of the following is most common site of extraduralabscess following otitis media is:a. Temporal lobeb. Cerebellumc. Frontal lobed. Occipital lobe

226.Most common cause of tinnitus is:

a. Otitis mediab. Meniere’s diseasec. Glamus tumoursd. Idiopathic

227.Intensity of the whispering is:a. 5 dbb. 20 dbc. 30 dbd. 40 db

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228.Intensity sound of normal conversation:a. 40 dbb. 60 dbc. 50 dbd. 30 db

229.230.

MCQ in ORL COURSE

Name:_______________________________________Computer#:____________

1. In an audiogram speech frequencies are:a. 125, 250, 500 Hzb. 250, 500,1000 Hzc. 500, 1000, 2000 Hzd. 1000, 2000, 3000 Hz

2. Following are the features of acute mastoidectomy EXCEPT:a. Earacheb. Post-auricular swellingc. Conductive deafnessd. Painful movements of the pinna

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3. All of the following statements are correct about facial nerveEXCEPT:

a. It crosses lateral to styloid processb. Lies below horizontal semicircular canalc. Lies behind the pyramid in the posterior wall of the

middle eard. Chorda tympani branch arises from its tympanic

segment

4. All of the following muscles are supplied by facial nerveEXCEPT:

a. Masseterb. Buccinatorc. Stylohoidd. Orbicularis Oculi

5. All of the following muscles are supplied by VIIth nerveEXCEPT:

a. Stapediusb. Posterior belly of digastricc. Platysmad. Tensor Tympani

6. Ramsay Hunt syndrome includes all EXCEPT:a. Facial paralysisb. Vesicles in the external ear canal and tympanic

membranec. Vesicles on soft palated. Pharyngeal paralysis

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7. Facial paralysis in acute otitis media is due to the followingEXCEPT:

a. Cholesteatomab. Bony erosion of fallopian tubec. Pre-existing dehiscence of facial canald. Infection of retrofacial cells

8. All are true about otosclerosis EXCEPT:a. Onset is between 20 – 40 years of ageb. Causes slowly progressive hearing loss

c. Endolymphatic pressure is raisedd. More common in white races

9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerningMeniere’s disease?

a. Other name for the disease is Hydrops of middleear.b. It is characterized by attacks of vertigo, tinnitus and

conductive hearing loss.c. It is common in femalesd. With repeated attacks of vertigo, cochlear function gets

reduced.

10. Main constituents of the nasal septum are:a. Quadrangular cartilageb. Vomerc. Perpendicular plate of ethmoidd. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone

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11. Which of the following is NOT true to nasal synechiaa. Often follows intranasal surgeryb. Epistaxis is the presenting featurec. Can lead to sinusitisd. Recurrence is common after removal

12. Following are the features of atrophic rhinitis EXCEPT:a. Crusting and bleeding from noseb. Offensive smellc. Anosmia

d. Narrow nasal chambers

13. Purulent discharge in superior meatus is due toinfection of:

a. Maxillary sinusb. Anterior ethmoid sinusesc. Posterior ethmoid sinuses

d. Sphenoid sinus

14. Septal performation is NOT seen in:a. Leprosyb. Wegener’s granulomac. Tuberculosisd. Rhinoscleroma

15. Most common malignancy of paranasal sinuses is:a. Adenocarcinomab. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

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c. Squamous cell carcinomad. Malignant Melanoma

16. Abduction of vocal cord is brought about by:a. Thyroarytenoidb. Vocalisc. Cricothyroidd. Posterior cricoarytenoid

17. External laryngeal nerve supplies which of the followingmuscle(s):

a. Posterior cricoarytenoidb. Thyroarytenoidc. Oblique arytenoidd. Cricothyroid

18. The following laryngeal cartilages may showcalcification EXCEPT:

a. Cricoidb. Thyroidc. Arytenoidd. Epiglottis

19. Contact ulcer of the larynx is caused by:a. Tuberculosisb. Syphilisc. Vocal abuse

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d. Fungal infection

20. All are true about Plummer-Vinson syndrome

(Sideropenic dysphagia) EXCEPT:a. May be associated with carcinoma of hypopharynx or

oesophagus.b. Dysphagia is due to cervical oesophageal web.c. Associated with iron-deficiency anaemia.d. More common in males.

21. Most common benign tumour of the parotid gland in an

adult is:a. Haemangiomab. Warthin’s tumourc. Pleomorphic adenomad. Oxyphil adenoma

22. The most common malignant tumour of the salivary

glands is:a. Squamous cell carcinomab. Muco-epidermoid carcinomac. Malignant mixed tumourd. Cylindroma

23. Which of the following is NOT true of Pleomorphicadenoma?

a. It is slow-growing painless tumourb. Local recurrence is common after enucleationc. Most of the benign mixed tumours occur in

submandibular gland

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d. Treatment is wide surgical excision

24. Which of the following is NOT true of Warthin’s tumour?

a. Seen more often in menb. Affects age group of 40 - 60c. Rapidly growingd. Affects tail of parotid gland

25. All are true about Thyroglossal cyst EXCEPT:a. Presents as smooth, cystic swelling at or just below the

hoid bone.b. Should be removed because of danger of infection and

malignant change.c. Requires excision of mid-portion of hoid bone if

recurrence is to be avoided.d. Originates from the 2 nd brachial cleft.

26. A cystic midline swelling in the neck can be result of thefollowing EXCEPT:

a. Branchial cystb. Dermoid cystc. Thyroglossal cystd. Sebaceous cyst

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