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Pharmacology
1. Duration of action of flumazenil is:
A. 5 minute
B. 10 minute
C. 20 minute
D. 30 minute
Key: D
2. Which of the following compounds acts as a
benzodiazepine antagonist?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Furazolidone
D. Naltrexone
Key: A
3. The effect of thiopentone on the CNS is quickly
terminated because of:
A. Rapid metabolism in the CNS
B. Quick first-pass elimination
C. Redistribution
D. Rapid metabolism in systemic circulation
Key: C
4. All of the following benzodiazepines can be used in
elderly and those with liver disease EXCEPT:
A. Lorazepam
B. Oxazepam
C. Triazolam
D. Diazepam
Key: D
5. Which of the following agents binds to GABA
receptor chloride channel complex?
A. Ethanol
B. Alphaxolone
C. Zolpidem
D. Buspirone
Key: C
6. In which of the following disorders, administration of
barbiturates is contraindicated?
A. Anxiety disorders
B. Acute intermittent porphyria
C. Kernicterus
D. Refractory status epilepticus
Key: B
7. Drugs that can be used safely in porphyria are:
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Ketamine
C. Sodium valproate
D. Midazolam
Key: D
8. Flumazenil can reverse the respiratory depression
caused by which of the following?
A. Fentanyl
B. Ketamine
C. Midazolam
D. Propofol
Key: C
9. Which of the following hypnotic drugs facilitates the
inhibitory actions of GABA but lacks anticonvulsant
or muscle relaxing properties and has minimal effect
on sleep architecture?
A. Buspirone
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Zaleplon
Key: D
10. A very potent and short acting benzodiazepine was
given to a patient Kallu for the purpose of causing
hypnosis but the drug caused psychiatric disturbances
in him. Which of the following can be the hypnotic
used?
A. Flurazepam
B. Nitrazepam
C. Temazepam
D. Triazolam
Key: D
11. A 40 years old patient with liver dysfunction is
scheduled for a surgical procedure. Lorazepam can be
used for pre-anaesthetic medication in this patient
without concern for excessive CNS depression
because the drug is:
A. Selective anxiolytic like buspirone
B. Conjugated directly
C. Reversible by administration of naloxone
D. Forming several active metabolites
Key: B
12. Which of the following drugs is contra-indicated in
acute intermittent porphyria?
A. Thiopentone
B. Midazolam
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate
Key: A
13. Action of flumazenil on benzodiazepine receptor is:
A. Agonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Inverse agonist
D. Antagonist
Key: D
14. Which of the following drug is not metabolized by
liver:
A. Flunitrazepam
B. Diazepam
C. Oxazepam
D. Nitrazepam
Key: C
15. Shortest acting benzodiazepine is:
A. Midazolam
B. Alprazolam
C. Lorazepam
D. Diazepam
Key: A
16. Which of the following drug is used as Transcranial
patch for Parkinson’s disease?
A. Levodopa
B. Rotigotine
C. Selegiline
D. Carbidopa
Key: B
17. Which of the following if combined with
rivastagmine, decreases its efficacy?
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
B. Reversible inhibitor of MAO-A
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Atypical antidepressants
Key: C
18. Which of the following agents enhances the
bioavailability of levodopa in patients with
Parkinson’s disease:
A. Amantadine
B. Ropinirole
C. Entacapone
D. Selegiline
Key: C
19. All the following statements regarding levodopa are
correct EXCEPT:
A. In Parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its
efficacy
B. It is a prodrug
C. Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in
Parkinsonism
D. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis
and its therapeutic potential.
Key: D
20. A patient of Parkinsonism is managed with levodopa.
If Vitamin B complex is administered concurrently to
the patient:
A. The action of levodopa in brain will be
potentiated
B. Decarboxylation of l-dopa in brain will be
decreased
C. Side effects will be ameliorated
D. Decreased efficacy will result
Key: D
21. Ropinirole is most useful for the treatment of:
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Wilson’s disease
C. Hoffmann syndrome
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Key: A
22. Drugs used for treatment of Parkinson’s disease
include:
A. Levodopa
B. Bromocriptine
C. Selegiline
D. All
Key: D
23. Drugs causing Parkinsonism include:
A. Bromocriptine
B. Phenothiazine
C. Haloperidol
D. Amantadine
E. Carbidopa
Key: B
24. Entacapone may be useful in patients being treated
with levodopa-carbidopa combination because it:
A. Activates COMT
B. Decreases formation of 3-OMD
C. Inhibits monoamine oxidase type B
D. Inhibits dopamine uptake
Key: B
25. Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa is
not minimized even after combining it with
carbidopa?
A. Involuntary movements
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Cardiac arrhythmia
D. ‘On-off’ effect
Key: A
26. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs
directly activates dopaminergic D2 receptors in the
striatum?
A. Pramipexole
B. Entacapone
C. Benserazide
D. Selegiline
Key: A
27. Entacapone is an anti-Parkinsonism drug. It acts by:
A. Agonism at dopamine receptors
B. Antagonism at dopamine receptors
C. Monoamine oxidase inhibition
D. Cathecol-o-methyl transferase inhibition
Key: D
28. A patient of Parkinsonism, Mr. Khan noticed that the
therapeutic effect of levodopa decreased when he was
given another drug by his physician but no interaction
was seen when he switched over to levodopa-
carbidopa combination. The possible drug prescribed
by his physician can be:
A. Metoclopramide
B. Vitamin B complex
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Isoniazid
Key: B
29. Which of the following drug should not be given
along with levodopa:
A. Carbidopa
B. MAO inhibitors
C. Vitamin B complex
D. Benserazide
Key: C
30. Drug of choice in drug induced Parkinsonism is:
A. Levodopa
B. Benzhexol
C. Amantadine
D. Carbidopa
Key: B
31. In treatment of Parkinsonism, L-Dopa is combined
with carbidopa mainly:
A. To decrease the treatment duration
B. To decrease central side effects of L-Dopa
C. To decrease effectiveness of L-Dopa
D. To increase crossing of L-Dopa through BBB
Key: D
32. Mechanism of action of donepezil is:
A. Centrally acting reversible anticholinesterase
B. Centrally acting irreversible anticholinesterase
C. Irreversible cholinergic action
D. Reversible anticholinesterase
Key: A
33. Anti-Parkinsonism drug that is a selective COMT
inhibitor:
A. Entacapone
B. Ropinirole
C. Pergolide
D. Pramipexole
Key: A
34. A 72-year-old patient with Parkinsonism presents
with swollen feet. They are red, tender and very
painful. You could clear up these symptoms within a
few days if you tell the patient to stop taking:
A. Amantadine
B. Benztropine
C. Bromocriptine
D. Levodopa
Key: A
35. All of the following adverse effects are associated
with carbamazepine except:
A. Teratogenicity
B. Neurotoxicity
C. Decrease in antidiuretic hormone
D. Hypersensitivity
Key: C
36. Which is a treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
in pregnancy?
A. Levetiracetam
B. Carbamazepine
C. Vigabatrin
D. Phenytoin
Key: A
37. A 65 years old male presented to a hospital with focal
seizures. His renal function was normal. Which of the
following is the drug of choice for this patient?
A. Valporate
B. Pregbalin
C. Levetiracetam
D. Oxcarbazepine
Key: D
38. Which among the following is an early sign of
magnesium toxicity?
A. Depression of deep tendon reflexes
B. Respiratory depression
C. Cardiac arrest
D. Decreased urine output
Key: A
39. All of the following are used for myoclonic seizures
except:
A. Sodium valproate
B. Zonisamide
C. Carbamazepine
D. Topiramate
Key: C
40. Fetal hydantoin syndrome is seen if following drug is
used in pregnancy?
A. Phenytoin
B. Alcohol
C. Ethosuximide
D. Phenobarbitone
Key: A
41. Ethosuximide can be used for the treatment of:
A. Generalized tonic clonic seizures
B. Absence seizures
C. Complex seizures
D. Myoclonic seizures
Key: B
42. The drug of choice for prevention of seizures in a
patient with severe preeclampsia is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Magnesium sulphate
C. Diazepam
D. Nifedipine
Key: B
43. All of the following are adverse effects of sodium
valproate EXCEPT
A. Weight gain
B. Alopecia
C. Liver damage
D. Osteomalacia
Key: D
44. First drug to be used in absence seizures is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Valproate
D. Carbamazepine
Key: C
45. Which antiepileptic drug does not act via inhibition of
sodium channels?
A. Vigabatrin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Lamotrigine
D. Phenytoin
Key: A
46. Granulocytopenia, gingival hyperplasia and facial
hirsutism are all possible side effects of one of the
following anticonvulsant drugs?
A. Phenytoin
B. Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbitone
Key: A
47. Drug of choice for myoclonic epilepsy in pregnancy
is:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Phenytoin
Key: B
48. Prolonged use of one of the following anticonvulsant
drugs can produce weight loss:
A. Gabapentin
B. Oxcarbazepine
C. Topiramate
D. Valproic acid
Key: C
49. A patient with recent-onset primary generalized
epilepsy develops drug reaction and skin rash due to
phenytoin sodium. The most appropriate course of
action is:
A. Shift to clonazepam
B. Restart phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks
C. Shift to sodium valproate
D. Shift to ethosuximide
Key: C
50. On chronic treatment with a drug, a patient presents
with gingival hyperplasia and facial hirsutism. The
drug most likely to cause these side effects is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Valproic acid
D. Phenobarbitone
Key: A
51. The most common adverse effect particularly seen in
young children because of the use of sodium
valproate is:
A. Hepatitis
B. Loss of hair
C. Anorexia
D. Tremor
Key: A
52. A patient, Rama was diagnosed to be having febrile
convulsions in the paediatric emergency. Which of
the following can be used for the treatment of this
patient?
A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone
B. Intravenous phenytoin
C. Rectal diazepam
D. Oral sodium valproate
Key: C
53. Status epilepticus is managed best with the use of
which of the following drugs?
A. Intravenous diazepam
B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium
C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone
D. Rectal diazepam
Key: A
54. Antiepileptic drug implicated in causing toxic
epidermal necrolysis/Steven Johnson syndrome is:
A. Felbamate
B. Gabapentin
C. Lamotrigine
D. Vigabatrin
Key: C
55. A young male, Farman suffers from a seizure disorder
which is characterized by tonic rigidity of limbs
followed in 20-30 sec by tremors progressing to
massive jerking of the body. This clonic phase lasts
for 1-3 min. The anti-seizure drug of choice for this
patient is:
A. Clonazepam
B. Ethosuximide
C. Fosphenytoin
D. Valproic acid
Key: D
56. An antiepileptic drug ‘A’ can also be used for the
treatment of post-herpetic neuralgia and pain due to
diabetic neuropathy. Which of the following can be
the agent ‘A’?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Gabapentin
C. Lamotrigine
D. Primidone
Key: B
57. Which of the following will you like to give to a
pregnant patient to decrease the risk of neural tube
defects in the offspring, if your patient is receiving
antiepileptic drugs?
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin E
D. Pyridoxine
Key: A
58. Carbamazepine in elderly causes:
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Key: B
59. Pseudolymphoma can result from long-term use of:
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Sodium valproate
D. Phenobarbital
Key: A
60. Management of typical febrile seizures include all the
following except:
A. Tepid sponging
B. Paracetamol and ibuprofen
C. Intermittent diazepam
D. Prophylactic phenobarbitone.
Key: D
61. The drug of choice in treatment of infantile spasms is:
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenytoin
D. None
Key: A
62. Which of the following is not a side effect of
phenytoin?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Osteomalacia
C. Gum hypertrophy
D. Lymphadenopathy
Key: A
63. Drug of choice for Trigeminal neuralgia is:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenobabitone
C. Phenytoin
D. Valproic acid
Key: A
64. Myoclonus in children is best treated by:
A. Clonazepam
B. Sodium Valproate
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Ethosuccimide
Key: B
65. DOC for myoclonic seizure is:
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lamotrigine
D. Valproic acid
Key: D
66. All are the side effects of prolonged phenytoin
therapy EXCEPT:
A. Osteomalacia
B. Gynaecomastia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Gum hyperplasia
Key: B
67. Antiepileptic drug that can cause folate deficiency
anemia is:
A. Valproate
B. Phenytoin
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Carbamazepine
Key: B
68. Which one of the following drugs is used to treat
status epilepticus?
A. Primidone
B. Carbamazepine
C. Diazepam
D. Sodium valporate
Key: C
69. The antiepileptic drug which does not produce
enzyme induction is:
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenytoin sodium
D. Carbamazepine
Key: B
70. Osteomalacia is adverse effect of:
A. Primidone
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproic acid
Key: B
71. Gum hypertrophy is an adverse effect of the following
drug when used at therapeutic levels:
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Sodium evaporate
Key: B
72. Drug of choice in complex partial seizure is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbitone
Key: C
73. Which drug should be avoided in pregnancy?
A. Phenytoin
B. Insulin
C. Heparin
D. Methyle dopa
Key: A
74. Neural tube defect is an adverse effect of:
A. Valproate
B. Phenytoin
C. Diazoxide
D. None
Key: A
75. Lamotrigine has common side effects of:
A. Rash
B. Irritability
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Behavioral disturbances
Key: A
76. Carbamazepine has drug interaction with all of the
following except:
A. Erythromycin
B. Phenytoin
C. Doxycycline
D. Barbiturates
Key: C
77. The drug of choice to control convulsions in
eclampsia is:
A. Pethidine
B. Diazepam
C. Magnesium sulphate
D. Phenytoin
Key: C
78. Best agent for premenstrual syndrome management
is?
A. Progesterone
B. Anxiolytic
C. SSRI
D. Vitamin E
Key: C
79. Antidepressant drug that can be used in nocturnal
enuresis is?
A. Imipramine
B. Fluvoxamine
C. Phenelzine
D. Bupropion
Key: A
80. A schizophrenic patient started on haloperidol 2 days
back, comes with complaints of torticollis and
orofaciolingual movements. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute dystonia
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Parkinsonism
D. Akathisia
Key: A
81. A woman treated with lithium during pregnancy, the
fetus should be tested for:
A. Neural tube defects
B. Cardiac malformations
C. Urogenital abnormalities
D. Scalp defects
Key: B
82. What is the drug of choice for Obsessive
CompulsiveDisorder?
A. Imipramine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Alprazolam
Key: B
83. Which of the following has highest potential to cause
metabolic syndrome?
A. Clozapine
B. Risperidone
C. Quetiapine
D. Aripiprazole
Key: A
84. Which of the following is not a side effect of
paroxetine (SSRIs)?
A. Premature ejaculation
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Decreased libido
D. Diarrhea
Key: A
85. Which of the following is not a mood stabilizer?
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Fluoxetine
Key: D
86. Buspirone is used as a/an:
A. Anxiolytic
B. Sedative
C. Muscle relaxant
D. Anticonvulsant
Key: A
87. Risperidone is most commonly used to treat which of
the following disorders?
A. Dementia
B. Depression
C. Schizophrenia
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Key: C
88. Which of the following is the most common side
effect seen with fluoxetine therapy?
A. Seizure
B. Anxiety
C. Hypotension
D. Loose stools
Key: B
89. Antipsychotic drug induced Parkinsonism is treated
by:
A. Anticholinergics
B. Levodopa
C. Selegiline
D. Amantadine
Key: A
90. Prolactin secretion is inhibited by:
A. Dopamine antagonist
B. GABA
C. Neurophysin
D. Bromocriptine
Key: D
91. Whichof the following drugs has a high affinity for 5-
HT2 receptors in the brain, does not cause
extrapyramidal dysfunction or hematotoxicity, and is
reported to increase the risk of significant QT
prolongation?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Clozapine
C. Olanzapine
D. Ziprasidone
Key: D
92. A 45-year-old male, Sanjeev was brought to the
emergency with severe agitation and aggressive
behavior. He was started on haloperidol and the
patient became responsive and cooperative. After 8
days of treatment, he developed high grade fever,
diarrhea, confusion and muscle rigidity. Which of the
following should be used for the treatment of this
condition?
A. Diazepam
B. Benzhexol
C. Dantrolene
D. High dose of haloperidol
Key: C
93. Drug of choice in intractable hiccups is:
A. Metoclopramide
B. Fluoxetine
C. Selegiline
D. Chlorpromazine
Key: D
94. Dryness of mouth caused by antipsychotic drug is
caused by blockade of:
A. Muscarinic ACh receptors
B. GABA receptors
C. Serotonergic receptors
D. Dopaminergic receptors
Key: A
95. Depression is not a side effect of:
A. Propanolol
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Reserpine
D. Flupenthixol
Key: D
96. Which of the following drug treatment increases thirst
and causes dilute diuresis?
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Lithium
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Clozapine
Key: B
97. Extrapyramidal symptoms are a complication of
treatment with following drugs:
A. Antipsychotics
B. Anti anxiety drugs
C. Anti depressants
D. Anti malarial drugs
Key: A
98. Drug useful in malignant hyperthermia is:
A. Halothane
B. Succinyl choline
C. Dantrolene
D. Haloperidol
Key: C
99. Risperidone acts on which receptor:
A. D2
B. 5 HT2
C. Both
D. NA
Key: C
100. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is caused by:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Clonazepam
C. Haloperidol
D. Fluoxetine
Key: C
101. Drug used to treat extrapyramidal syndrome due to
phenothiazines:
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Benzhexol
C. Clonidine
D. Promethazine
Key: B
102. Coarse tremors, dysarthria and ataxia are side effects
of
A. Lithium
B. Haloperidol
C. Imipramine
D. None
Key: A
103. A young man is with known heroin addiction is
brought in the emergency in unconscious state. On
examination, the patient has decreased bowel sounds,
depressed respiration and pin point pupil. The
treatment of choice for this patient is
A. Oral natrexone
B. IV naloxone
C. Oral diazepam
D. Oral Buprenorphine
Key: B
104. Which of the following is a phase II drug
metabolizing reaction?
A. Acetylation
B. Deamination
C. Hydrolysis
D. Oxidation
Key: A
105. Which of the following drugs may inhibit the hepatic
microsomal P450 responsible for warfarin metabolism
A. Cimetidine
B. Ethanol
C. Phenobarbital
D. Rifampin
Key: A
106. Tricyclic antidepressant side effect
A. Generalized tonic clonic seizures
B. Urinary retention
C. Hypotension
D. Diarrhea
Key: A
107. Which of the following terms best describes an
antagonist that interacts directly with the agonist and
not at all or only incidentally, with the receptor?
A. Pharmacological antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Physiological antagonist
D. Chemical antagonist
Key: D
108. Which of the following terms best describes a drug
that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors
by occupying those receptors without activating
them?
A. Pharmacological antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Chemical antagonist
D. Noncompetitive antagonist
Key: A
109. Phenylephrine causes
A. Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa
B. Increased gastric secretion and motility
C. Increased skin temperature
D. Miosis
Key: A
110. Which among the following is the best inotrope drug
for use in right heart failure?
A. Dobutamine
B. Digoxin
C. Dopamine
D. Milrinone
Key: D
111. All of the following are seen in digitalis toxicity
except:
A. Ventricular bigeminy
B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with fast
ventricular rate
C. Regularization of atrial fibrillation
D. Bidirectional ventricular tachycardia
Key: B
112. Digoxin toxicity is increased by all except:
A. Renal impairment
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Key: B
Precipitating factors for digoxen toxicity
» classically: hypokalaemia*
» increasing age, renal failure, myocardial
ischaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia,
hypernatraemia, acidosis, hypoalbuminaemia,
hypothermia, hypothyroidism
» Drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil,
diltiazem, spironolactone (competes for secretion
in distal convoluted tubule therefore reduce
excretion), ciclosporin. Also drugs which cause
hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics
113. Digoxin is contraindicated in
A. Supraventricular tachycardia
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Key: D
114. Digoxin toxicity increases with
A. Digoxin with quinidine
B. Digoxin with hyperkalemia
C. Digoxin with hypercalcemia
D. None
Key: B
115. Digoxin toxicity is caused by
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hyperuricemia
Key: A, Digoxin toxicity is caused by Hypokalemia
and Digoxin toxicity causes hyperkalemia
116. Digoxin is not indicated in:
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. High output failure
D. PSVT
Key: C
117. Digoxin toxicity causes?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. All
Key: A, thiazides and loop diuretics causes
hypokalemia so lead to digoxen toxicity
118. Adverse effect of Digoxin is
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Key: A
119. Digoxin action is not affected in:
A. Hepatic disease
B. Electrolyte disturbances
C. Renal failure
D. MI
Key: A
120. Digoxin toxicity is caused by
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Acetazolamide
D. All
Key: A
121. All of the following increase chance of digitalis
toxicity except:
A. hypokalemia
B. hypoglycemia
C. hyperkalemia
D. hypothyroidism
Key: A
122. BNP is degraded by:
A. Neutral endopeptidase
B. Elastase
C. Omapatrilat
D. ACE
Key: A
123. Digoxin toxicity is aggravated by:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Key: A, Hypokalemia and Hypercalcemia aggravated
digoxin toxicity
124. Which of the following conditions increases the risk
of digoxin toxicity?
A. Administration of quinidine
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Key: A
125. Drugs that reduce myocardial remodelling in CHF
include all of the following except:
A. Carvedilol
B. Digoxin
C. Enalapril
D. Spironolactone
Key: B
126. Which of the following has been shown to prolong
life in patients with chronic congestive heart failure
but has a negative ionotropic effect on cardiac
contractility?
A. Carvedilol
B. Digoxin
C. Enalapril
D. Furosemide
Key: A
127. Which of the following is the drug of choice in
treating suicidal overdose of digitoxin?
A. Digibind antibodies
B. Lignocaine
C. Magnesium
D. Potassium
Key: A
128. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are useful
in congestive heart failure as:
A. First choice drugs unless contraindicated
B. An alternative to diuretics
C. A substitute for digitalis
D. Adjuncts only in resistant cases
Key: A
129. The most important channel of elimination of digoxin
is:
A. Glomerular filtration
B. Tubular secretion
C. Hepatic metabolism
D. Excretion in bile
Key: A
130. Which of the following drugs can prolong survival in
patients with CHF?
A. Furosemide
B. Inamrinone
C. Losartan
D. Digoxin
Key: C
131. The diuretic of choice for rapid relief of congestive
symptoms in a patient of CHF is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Metolazone
D. Amiloride
Key: B
132. Mechanism of action of digitalis in atrial fibrillation
is:
A. By decreasing cardiac contractility
B. Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition
C. Increase in refractoriness of AV nodal tissue
D. By causing bradycardia
Key: C
133. Sodium-nitroprusside acts by activation of:
A. Guanylate cyclase
B. K+ channels
C. Ca++ channels
D. Cyclic AMP
Key: A
134. Best treatment of severe digitalis toxicity is:
A. Potassium supplements
B. Diphenyl hydantoin
C. Quinidine
D. Fab fragments of digitalis antibodies
Key: D
135. Which of the following drug reduces blood pressure
primarily by directly decreasing heart rate alone:
A. Propanolol
B. Prazosin
C. Alpha methyl dopa
D. Nitroprusside sodium
Key: A
136. The antihypertensive which causes decreased libido
and impotence is
A. Atenolol
B. Enalapril
C. Prazosin
D. Diltiazem
Key: A
137. Alpha methyldopa is primarily used for:
A. Pregnancy induced hypertension
B. Renovascular hypertension
C. First line agent in hypertension
D. Refractory hypertension
Key: A
138. A 50 year old male presents with malignant
hypertension. The drug of choice is:
A. Sodium nitroprusside
B. Sublingual nifedipine
C. Furosemide
D. Enalapril
Key: A
139. Which drug should not be given in pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Hydralazine
D. Methyl dopa
Key: B
140. A 60-year old hypertensive patient on angiotensin II
receptor antagonist (losartan) is posed for hernia
repair surgery. The antihypertensive drug should be:
A. Continued till the day of operation
B. Discontinued 24 hrs preoperatively
C. Discontinued one week preoperatively
D. Administered in an increased dosage on the day
of operation
Key: A
141. An elderly hypertensive has diabetes mellitus and
bilateral renal artery stenosis. The best management
is:
A. Enalapril
B. Verapamil
C. Beta blockers
D. Thiazides
Key: B
142. Postural hypotension is the common side effect of
which of the following?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Alpha receptor blockers
C. Arteriolar dilators
D. Selective β1 blockers
Key: B
143. An anti-hypertensive drug that causes positive
Coomb’s test is:
A. Methyldopa
B. Clonidine
C. Hydralazine
D. Sodium-nitropruside
Key: A
144. The drug of choice in digitalis induced ventricular
arrhythmias is:
A. I.V. Lignocaine
B. Phenytoin
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide
Key: A
145. Drug of choice in pregnancy induced hypertension is
A. Amlodipine
B. Losartan
C. Diuretic
D. Methyldopa
Key: D
146. Centrally acting sympatholytic agent used as
antihypertensive agent is:
A. Propanolol
B. Clonidine
C. Prazosin
D. Phenoxybenzamine
Key: B
147. Treatment of choice in hypertension with diabetes
mellitus is:
A. Beta-blockers
B. Thiazides
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
Key: C
148. Which of the following antihypertensives causes
sedation:
A. Clonidine
B. Hydralazine
C. Losartan
D. Amlodipine
Key: A
149. Nitrates are used for all of the following conditions
except?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Cyanide poisoning
C. Esophageal spasm
D. Renal colic
Key: D
150. Nitroglycerine causes all except:
A. Hypotension and bradycardia
B. Methemoglobinemia
C. Hypotension and tachycardia
D. Vasodilation
Key: A
151. Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with:
A. Dipyridamole
B. Diltiazem
C. Propanolol
D. Verapamil
Key: A
152. You decide not to prescribe sildenafil in a patient
because the patient told you that he is taking an
antianginal drug. Which of the following can it be?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. β adrenergic blockers
C. Organic nitrates
D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
Key: C
153. Verapamil is associated with all of the following
except?
A. Constipation
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Increased PR interval
Key: C
154. Which of the following drugs has been used in the
treatment of angina by inhalation and has a very rapid
onset and brief duration of action?
A. Amyl nitrite
B. Isosorbide mononitrate
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Propanolol
Key: A
155. The drug effective for treatment as well as
prophylaxis of angina pectoris is:
A. Isosorbide dinitrate
B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
C. Diltiazem
D. Dipyridamole
Key: A
156. Which of the following drugs is most likely to
precipitate angina?
A. Amlodipine
B. Nifedipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Verapamil
Key: B
157. Propanolol is contra-indicated in a patient of angina
pectoris who is already receiving:
A. Nifedipine
B. Aspirin
C. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Key: C
158. Calcium channel blockers with predominant
peripheral effects is:
A. Verapamil
B. Diltiazem
C. Amlodipine
D. None of these
Key: C
159. Longest acting nitroglycerine preparation is:
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Amyl nitrite
C. Penta erythrital tetranitrate
D. Isosorbide dinitrate
Key: C
160. A drug lacking vasodilatory properties that is
effective in angina is:
A. Isosorbide dinitrate
B. Metoprolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Verapamil
Key: B
161. A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated
in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure
with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to
use nitroglycerine. Which route of administration
would be most suitable?
A. Sublingual
B. Oral
C. Intravenous bolus injection
D. Slow intravenous infusion
Key: D
162. Glyceryl trinitrate is given by sublingual route
because of:
A. Short t1/2 in plasma
B. High hepatic first pass metabolism
C. High bioavailability by oral route
D. Extensive protein binding
Key: B
163. Calcium channel blockers are useful in all, EXCEPT:
A. Angina
B. Supraventricular arrhythmia
C. Sick sinus syndrome
D. Hypertension
Key: C
164. Drug not to be given in ischemic heart disease is:
A. Atenolol
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Isoproterenol
D. Streptokinase
Key: C
165. Potassium channel opener with anti-anginal activity
is:
A. Nicorandil
B. Dipyridamole
C. Trimetazidine
D. Oxyphedrine
Key: A
166. All of the following drugs act by blocking calcium
channels except:
A. Dantrolene
B. Nicardipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Verapamil
Key: A
167. Amyl nitrite is used by which route?
A. Oral
B. Inhalation
C. IV
D. IM
Key: B
168. Propanolol should not be given to a patient on
treatment with which of the following drug?
A. Nifedipine
B. Nitrates
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Verapamil
Key: D
169. Verapamil is contraindicated in
A. Hypertesion
B. Complete heart block
C. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
D. Angina pectoris
Key: B
170. Enalapril increases the levels of which of the
following?
A. Bradykynin
B. Interferon
C. PAF
D. TNF
Key: A
171. The major clinical use of nimodipine is in:
A. Hypertension
B. Angina pectoris
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Raynaud’s phenomenon
Key: C
172. When nitrates are combined with calcium channel
blockers:
A. Arterial pressure will decrease
B. Heart rate will increase
C. Ejection time will decrease
D. End-diastolic volume will increase
Key: A
173. Calcium channel blocker with maximum effect on
conduction in heart is:
A. Phenylamine
B. Nifedipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Verapamil
Key: D
174. In a patient of congenital prolonged QT syndrome
and intermittent Torsades de pointes, which of the
following should be prescribed:
A. Magnesium sulphate
B. Metoprolol
C. Cardiac pacing
D. Isoprenaline
Key: A
175. The anti-arrhythmic drug of choice in most of the
cases of acute paroxysmal supraventricular
tachycardia is:
A. Adenosine
B. Amiodarone
C. Propanolol
D. Quinidine
Key: A
176. Characteristic adverse effect of quinidine includes:
A. Lupus erythematosis
B. Cinchonism
C. Increase in digoxin clearance
D. Precipitation of hyperthyroidism
Key: B
177. A drug effect that is produced by therapeutic doses of
both timolol and amiodarone is blockade of:
A. Cardiac Na+ channels
B. Cardiac K+ channels
C. Beta-1 adrenoceptors
D. Alpha-adrenoceptors
Key: C
178. Aslam malik developed acute CHF and was put on
digitalis therapy. ECG of this patient revealed the
presence of ventricular extrasystoles. Which of the
following drugs can be administered safely to this
patient in order to counteract this arrhythmia?
A. Lignocaine
B. Quinidine
C. Atropine
D. Amiodarone
Key: A
179. The drug of choice for rapid correction of PSVT in
known asthmatic is:
A. Adenosine
B. Esmolol
C. Neostigmine
D. Verapamil
Key: D
180. Which of the following anti-arrythmic drug decreases
the action potential duration in purkinje fibers?
A. Quinidine
B. Flecainide
C. Amiodarone
D. Lignocaine
Key: D
181. Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias due to
myocardial infarction (MI) is:
A. Quinidine
B. Amiodarone
C. Xylocaine
D. Diphenylhydantoin
Key: C, DOC for ventricular arrhythmias after MI is
lignocaine (lidocaine; xylocaine). DOC for
supraventricular arrhythmias after MI is beta blockers
if cardiac function is adequate.
182. Drug of choice for ventricular premature beats (VPC)
due to digitalis toxicity is
A. Diphenylhydantoin
B. Quinidine
C. Amiodarone
D. Verapamil
Key: A
183. Arrhythmias refractory to the treatment of lignocaine
can be treated by:
A. Sotalol
B. Diltiazem
C. Amiodarone
D. Quinidine
Key: C
184. Quinidine exerts its action on heart by:
A. Ca2+ channel blockade
B. Na+ channel blockade
C. K+ channel opening
D. Cl– channel opening
Key: B
185. Mechanism of action of statins is:
A. Inhibition of HMG-CoA synthase
B. Stimulation of HMG-CoA reductase
C. Indirect increase of LDL receptors synthesis
D. Inhibition of intestinal cholesterol absorption
Key: C
186. In a patient with hypertriglyceridemia and low HDL,
which of the following drug will be best without risk
of myopathy as side effect?
A. Fibric acid derivatives
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Atrovastatin
D. Clofibrate
Key: B
187. HDL is specifically increased by:
A. Lovastatin
B. Niacin
C. Gemfibrozel
D. Probucol
Key: B
188. Which of the following drugs is best for reducing
proteinuria in a diabetic patient?
A. Metoprolol
B. Enalapril
C. Chlorthiazide
D. Clonidine
Key: B
189. Vagal stimulation of heart causes?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Increased RR interval in ECG
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Increased force of contraction
Key: B
190. ACE inhibitors (Captopril, Enalapril) causes:
A. Persistent cough & Taste changes
B. First dose hypotension
C. Angioedema
D. All
Key: D
191. Drugs causing constipation are:
A. Verapamil & Ferrous sulphate
B. MAO-Inhibitors
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. All
Key: D
192. Drug is absorbed fast if given in
A. Lipid form
B. Aqueous form
C. Charged form
D. Oxidized form
Key: B
193. Beta blockers are not used in
A. Migraine
B. Peripheral vascular disease
C. Angina pectoris
D. Hypertension
Key: B
194. Dipyridamol decrease platelet aggregation by:
A. Inhibiting thromboxane A2
B. Inhibiting degradation of adenosine
C. Inhibiting adenosine uptake
D. Potentiation of PGI1
Key: C
» Dipyridamole inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme and
blocks uptake of adenosine. This increase platelet
CAMP and potentiates prostaglandin I2. This
interferes with platelet aggregation.
195. GABA agonist is:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenytoin
C. Sodium valporate
D. Lamotrigine
Key: C
196. Which drug causes SLE like syndrome?
A. Albutolol
B. Proctalol
C. Haloperidol
D. Phenybutazone
Key: B
197. SLE is caused by:
A. Rifampicin
B. Procainamide
C. Digitalis
D. Acetazolamide
Key: B
198. The analgesics that shouldnot be used in acute gout is:
A. Aspirin
B. Indomethacin
C. Naproxen
D. Diclofenac
Key: A
199. Mechanism of action of rifampicin
A. Inhibits RNA synthesis
B. Inhibit DNA synthesis
C. Inhibit protein synthesis
D. Activate DNA- dependent RNA polymerase
Key: A, Rifampicin binds strongly to the beta subunit
of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and
thereby inhibits RNA synthesis
200. Which of the following is true about muscarinic
receptors?
A. M1- bronchus
B. M2-heart
C. M3-nerves
D. M1 endothelium
Key: B
201. Captopril causes cough by
A. Inhibit bradykinin metabolism
B. Histamine release
C. Local irritation in the throat
D. Stimulation of cough centre
Key: A, The action of ACE inhibitors to inhibit
bradykinin metabolism contributes significantly to
their hypotensive action and is apparently responsible
for some adverse side effects, including cough and
angioedema.
202. Which of the antimicrobial drug doesnot act on cell
wall :
A. Griseofulvin
B. Cycloserine
C. Penicillin
D. Bacitracin
Key: A
203. The drug that causes obstructive jaundice is:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Carbon tetrachloride
C. Tetracycline
D. Methyldopa
Key: A
204. The drug that is not effective in UTI caused by
pseudomonas is:
A. Nalidixic acid
B. gentamycin
C. Ceftazidime
D. Norfloxacin
Key: A
205. Osteoporosis is a complication of the long term use
of:
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Warfarin
Key: A, Drugs causing osteoporosis
Glucocorticoids and Heparin
206. Tachyphylaxis means
A. Responsiveness gradually decreases as a
consequence of continued drug administration
B. Responsiveness gradually increases as a
consequence of continued drug administration
C. Responsiveness diminishes rapidly after
administration of a drug
D. Responsiveness increases rapidly after
administration of a drug
Key: C, with some drugs, the intensity of
response to a given dose may change during the
course of therapy; in these cases, responsiveness
usually decreases as a consequence of continued
drug administration, producing a state of relative
tolerance to the drug’s effects. When
responsiveness diminishes rapidly after
administration of drug, the response is said to be
subject to tachyphylaxis.
207. The anesthetic agent that raises the blood pressure and
pulse rate is
A. Ketamine
B. Halothane
C. Ether
D. Enflurane
Key: A
208. Grey baby syndrome is the adverse effect of:
A. Aspirin
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Erythromycin
Key: C
209. In PSVT, the drug of choice is:
A. Adenosine
B. Propanolol
C. Lignocaine
D. Epinephrine
Key: A
» Management of PSVT:
Perform carotid sinus massage
IV adenosine (6 to 12 mg) or verapamil (2.5 to
10mg)
210. Which of the following is not a catecholamine:
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Phenylephrine
Key: D
211. AV block is not caused by:
A. Hydralazine
B. Digoxin
C. Clonidine
D. Verapamil
Key: A
212. Digoxin toxicity is increased by
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Key: B
213. What is not true about digoxin?
A. Doesnot cross placenta
B. Hyperkalemia may be caused by acute digitalis
overdose or severe poisoning
C. Vomiting is common in patients with digitalis
overdose
D. Atropine is effective for digoxin induced
bradycardia or AV block
Key: A
214. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor is
A. Vancomycin
B. Amphotericin B
C. Octreotide
D. Tetracycline
Key: A, Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis by
binding firmly to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of
nascent peptidoglycan penta-peptide, preventing
further elongation of peptidoglycan and cross-linking.
The peptidoglycan is thus weakened and the cell
becomes susceptible to lysis. The cell membrane is
also damaged, which contributes to the antibacterial
effect.
215. Which of the following has least glucocorticoid
activity:
A. Fludrocortisone
B. Dexamethasone
C. Triamcinolone
D. Betamethasone
Key: C
216. Flumazenil is a/an:
A. Benzodiazepine antagonist
B. Benzodiazepine agonist
C. Adrenergic blocking agent
D. Opiate antagonist
Key: A
217. Antidote of diazepam is
A. Flumazenil
B. Naltrexone
C. Naloxane
D. N acetylcysteine
218. Potassium loss is least with
A. Frusemide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Spironolactone
D. Thiazide
Key: C
219. Which of the following drug does not act on
Pseudomonas:
A. Ofloxacine
B. Azithromycin
C. Imipenam
D. Ceftazidine
Key: B
220. NSAID induced peptic ulcer is treated with:
A. Misoprostol
B. Omeprazol
C. Famotidine
D. Sucralfate
Key: A
221. Which of the following drug cannot be given in renal
failure:
A. Doxycycline
B. Vancomycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Chloramphenicol
Key: B
222. Which of the following is not a feature of ethambutol
toxicity:
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Retrobulber neuritis
C. Color vision defect
D. Hyperuricemia
Key: A
223. All are the long acting bronchodilators except:
A. Salbutamol
B. Adrenaline
C. Salmeterol
D. Terbutaline
Key: B
224. Which of the following is not used in petit mal
epilepsy?
A. Benzodiazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Sodium valporate
D. Ethosuximide
Key: B
225. Pancreatitis is a side effect of:
A. Asparaginase
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Valporic acid
D. All of the above
Key: D
226. In coronary artery disease the role of beta blocker in
decreasing the symptoms is by:
A. Decreasing the heart rate
B. Increasing the coronary blood flow
C. Decreasing cardiac force
D. Preventing exercise induced tachycardia
Key: D
227. Cyclosporin acts by inhibiting the production of:
A. Interleukin-1
B. Interleukin -2
C. Interleukin 6
D. Macrophages
Key: B
228. Which of the following anti-malarial drugs can also
be used in nocturnal leg cramps?
A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Proguanil
D. Artemether
Key: A
229. Severe acne is treated with:
A. Topical retinoic acid
B. Topical steroid
C. Oral tretinoin
D. Systemic steroid
Key: C
230. Which of the following is not a second line ATT
drug:
A. Kanamycin
B. Cycloserine
C. 5 flucytosine
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: C
231. Which of the following drug acts on motilin receptor:
A. Erythromycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Norfloxacin
D. Chloramphenicol
Key: A
232. Milk –alkali syndrome is caused by:
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Aluminum trisilicate
D. Aluminum hydroxide
Key: A
233. Most common cause of interstitial nephritis is:
A. Cloxacillin
B. Methicillin
C. Carbenicilline
D. Penicillin
Key: B, Use of Methicillin leads to interstitial
nephritis in about 33% of cases if treatment continues
for more than 10 days.
234. Serum level should be looked for drugs with:
A. Hit and run drugs
B. Wide therapeutic index
C. More side effects
D. Narrow therapeutic index
Key: D
235. Albendazole is used in all except:
A. Ascariasis
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Cysticercosis
D. Schistosomiasis
Key: D
236. Single-strand breaks in DNA during DNA replication
is mediated by:
A. DNA ase I
B. Ligase
C. Topoisomerase I
D. Restricition endonuclease
Key: C, Topoisomerase I is an enzyme which produce
reversible single-strand breaks in DNA during DNA
replication.
237. Clindamycin inhibits :
A. Protein synthesis
B. DNA gyrase
C. Cell wall
D. Lysosomal enzyme
Key: A, Clindamycin inhibits protein synthesis in
susceptible bacteria by binding to 50 S subunits of
bacterial ribosomes and preventing peptide bond
formation.
238. Which of the following drugs acts on u receptors in
central nervous system:
A. Pentazocine
B. Pethidine
C. Buprenorphine
D. Morphine
Key: D
239. Advantages of parenteral route:
A. Hepatic first pass effect is minimized
B. Maximize concentration at the site of action
C. Convenience for use
D. Side effects are minimised
Key: A
240. Which type of pain does morphine remove
A. Visceral
B. Somatic
C. Both
D. None
Key: C
241. Reflex bradycardia can occur with
A. Reserpine
B. Methyldopa
C. Verapamil
D. Nimodipine
Key: A
242. Glucagon is given in the poisoning of
A. Propanolol
B. Atropine
C. Carbimazole
D. OP
Key:
A
243. Long term effect of steroid are all except
A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Cushingoid state
D. Diabetes mellitus
Key: B
244. Tapering of steroid is done in case of long term
therapy
A. To prevent adrenal hyper secretion
B. To prevent hypertension
C. To prevent activation of HPA axis
D. To prevent adrenal suppression
Key: D
245. Which of the following is not an immunosuppressant
being used in chemotherapy:
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Cyclosporine
C. Prednisolone
D. Methotrexate
Key: B, Among following immunosuppressant
cyclosporine is not used in cancer chemotherapy.
246. Amlodipine is
A. K+ channel blocker
B. Na+ channel blocker
C. Ca+ channel blocker
D. None
Key: C
247. Mechanism of action of Bisphosphate in osteoporosis:
A. Increased release of Ca+ from bone
B. Increase blood Ca+ level
C. Increase Ca+ deposition on bones
D. Inhibit the osteoclastic resorption of bone
Key: D,
248. Active form of folic acid is:
A. Folvin
B. Folate
C. Folinic acid
D. Folvate
Key: C
249. Clarithromycin is a
A. Aminoglycoside
B. Beta lactam antibiotic
C. Cephalosporin
D. Macrolide
Key: D
250. Drug of choice for acute attack of Migraine:
A. Ergotamine
B. Sumatriptan
C. Fluphenaline
D. Propanolol
Key: B
251. The drug of choice in AML is
A. Cytarabine and daunorubicin
B. Methotrexate
C. Cyclosporine and cyclophosphamide
D. Azathioprine and levamisol
Key: A
252. The antagonist of lorazepam is:
A. Flumazenil
B. Domperidone
C. Bromocriptine
D. Propanolol
Key: B
253. Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of:
A. Potency
B. Safety
C. Toxicity
D. Efficacy
Key: B
254. The drug of choice for schiostosmiasis is
A. Levimasole
B. Praziquental
C. Piperazine
D. Albendazole
Key: B
255. Which of the following causes hypoglycemia:
A. Acute alcohol intoxication
B. Diazoxide
C. Thiazide
D. Domperidone
Key: A
256. Which of the following is false regarding ipratropium
bromide:
A. Increased intraocular pressure
B. Used by inhalation
C. Scratching in trachea
D. Dryness of mouth
Key: A
257. Which of the drug is excreted in urine?
A. Digoxin
B. Streptomycin
C. Cefotaxime
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: A
258. Which of the following drug doesnot cause
peripheral neuropathy:
A. Ethambutol
B. INH
C. Rifampicin
D. Streptomycin
Key: C
259. Which of the following is not a side effects of
haloperidol:
A. Hypomania
B. Akathesia
C. Dystonia
D. Dyskinesia
Key: A
260. Which of the following is not a side effects of
clofazimine:
A. Anemia
B. Skin pigmentation
C. GI disturbance
D. Icthyosis
Key: A
261. Most cardiotoxic :
A. Procaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Lidocaine
Key: B
262. Oral contraceptives failure is seen with the concurrent
use of:
A. Ethambutol
B. Propanolol
C. Cimetidine
D. Rifampicin
Key: D
263. Dimethyl polysiloxane acts as :
A. Defoaming agent
B. Local antacids
C. Systemic antacids
D. Ulcer healing agents
Key: A, Dimethyl polysiloxane is a silicon polymer
which reduces the surface tension and collapses the
froth (antifoaming agent). It is not absorbed from
intestine and is pharmacologically inert.
264. Which of the following is not used in
organophosphate poisoning:
A. Atropine
B. Pralidoxime
C. Physostigmine
D. Hospitalization
Key: C
265. In organophosphate poisoning all are used except:
A. Charcoal
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. PAM
Key: B
266. Which of the following is a ‘specific’ opiod
antagonist:
A. Naltrexone
B. Methadone
C. Nalorphine
D. Naloxone
Key: D, Naloxone is a competitive antagonist of all
types of opioid receptors and has no agonist activity
even at high doses. Usual dose is 0.4 to 0.8 mg IV
267. The action of d- tubocurarine is potentiated by:
A. Streptomycin
B. Cephalexine
C. Tetracycline
D. Doxycycline
Key: A, action of competitive blockers( d-
tubocurarine) is potentiated by aminoglycoside
antibiotics particularly streptomycin.
268. The drug of choice in myasthenia gravis is :
A. Atropine
B. Neostigmine
C. Physostigmine
D. Rocuronium
Key: B
269. Discoloration of urine is not seen with the use of:
A. Quinidine
B. Methylene blue
C. Rifampicin
D. Phensuximide
Key: A
270. Which ATT drug is completely avoided in pregnancy:
A. Streptomycin
B. Pyrazinamide
C. INH
D. Rifampicin
Key: A
271. Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is not
hepatotoxic:
A. Streptomycin
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethionamide
D. Pyrazinamide
Key: A
272. Antiplatelet drug
A. Warfarin
B. Streptokinase
C. Low dose aspirin
D. Tranexamic acid
Key: C
273. Drug of choice for pulmonary edema:
A. Frusemide
B. Steroid
C. LMW heparin
D. Nitrates
Key: A
274. Ototoxicity is caused by
A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazides
C. Triamterine
D. Acetazolamide
Key: A
275. True about HIV in pregnancy:
A. Deformity in baby are more common
B. Postpartum infection is common
C. Nevirapine significantly reduces transmission
D. Cesarean section has no role.
Key: C
276. Cardiomimetic action of catecholamines through
A. Stimulation of beta receptors
B. Acetylcholine
C. Atimulation of alpha receptors
D. Activation of sodium channels
Key: A
277. Multi drug resistance in TB means resistance to at
least
A. All primary drugs
B. Rifampin+ pyrazinamide+ethambutol
C. Rifampin+ pyrazinamide+isoniazid
D. Rifampin+ isoniazid
Key: D
278. Propanolol is not used in:
A. Hypertension
B. Migraine
C. Varient angina
D. Thyrotoxicosis
279. Propranolol is contraindicated in
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Asthma
C. Cardiac neurosis
D. GI bleeding
Key: B, Propranolol is a nonselective beta blocker .
Beta 2 blocking may exacerbate shortness of breath
by causing bronchoconstriction.
280. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when:
A. Given after prolonged fasting
B. Along with an H2 blocker
C. Given with meals
D. Given before meals
Key: D
281. A 25 years old male experienced severe flushing, fall
in blood pressure after consumption of alcohol. This
attack can be precipitated by simultaneous intake of
all of the following drugs along with alcohol except:
A. Cefamandole
B. Metronidazole
C. Dexamethasone
D. Chlorpropamide
Key: C
282. Acetylcysteine is used in the treatment of:
A. Paracetamol toxicity
B. Chloroform toxicity
C. Carbon tetrachloride toxicity
D. All of the above
Key: A
283. Which of the following drugs causes gingival
hyperplasia, hirsutism and osteomalacia as side
effects?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Furosemide
Key: C
284. All are cell wall synthesis inhibitors except:
A. Vancomycin
B. Cefotaxim
C. Tetracycline(protein synthesis inhibitor)
D. Imipenem
Key: C
285. All of the following are used in AIDS except
A. Nevirapine
B. Zidovudine
C. Saquinavir
D. Gancyclovir ( it is antiviral for CMV not for
HIV)
Key: D
286. Drug of choice for MRSA(Methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus ):
A. Neomycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Streptomycin
D. Clindamycin
Key: B
287. Drug used for radical cure for malaria is:
A. Chloroquine
B. Primaquine
C. Sulphamethoxazole
D. Pyrimethamine
Key: B, Primaquine- radical cure and terminal
prophylaxis of infections with P vivax and P ovale
288. Alfa glucosidase inhibitor is
A. Metformin
B. Sulphonylurea
C. Acarbose
D. Rosiglitazone
Key: C
289. Renal toxicity is not seen in
A. Chlortetracycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Cephadroxil
D. Gentamicin
Key: B, Tetracycline given alone with diuretics may
produce nitrogen retention. Tetracyclines other than
doxycycline may accumulate to toxic level in patients
with impaired kidney function.
290. The potency of the steroid in the decreasing order is:
A. dexamethasone- prednisolone – hydrocortisone –
cortisone
B. dexamethasone- hydrocortisone- prednisolone –
cortisone
C. dexamethasone- prednisolone- cortisone-
hydrocortisone
D. Prednisolone-dexamethasone- hydrocortisone –
cortisone
Key: C
291. Bradycardia is the sideeffect of all the following
except:
A. Verapamil
B. Nifedipine
C. Digoxin
D. Propanolol
Key: B, Nifedipine is vascular selective calcium
channel blocker vasodilation and reflexly
tachycardia
292. Mechanism of action of aspirin is:
A. COX inhibition
B. Anticholinergic action
C. DPA agonist action
D. Selective COX-2 inhibition.
Key: A
293. Mechanism of action of trimethoprim is:
A. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibition
B. Protein synthesis inhibition
C. Cell wall damage
D. G-6 PD inhibition
Key: A
294. Which of the following drugs is not a dihydrofolate
reductase inhibitor?
A. Pyrimithamine
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Trimethoprim
D. Methotrexate
Key: B
295. Which of the following is not given in falciparum
malaria?
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Fansidar
C. Quinine
D. Primaquin
296. Which of the following is a somatostatin analogue?
A. Vasopressin
B. Leuprolide
C. Prolactin
D. Octreotide
Key: D
297. Drug of choice for T. solium is:
A. Mebendazole
B. Niclosamide
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Levimasole
Key: B
298. Which of the following is not an anti-cancer drug?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Carmustine
C. Mechlorethamine
D. Ondansetron
Key: D
299. Which of the following is a nephrotoxic drug?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Amphotericin
C. Tetracycline
D. All
Key: D
300. All the following are used in absence seizure except
A. Ethosuximide
B. Phenytoin
C. Sodium valporate
D. Clonazepam
Key: B, Ethosuximide and Sodium valporate are drug
of choice for absence seizure. Clonazepam is a long-
acting drug with documented efficacy against absence
seizure.
301. The drugs causing ototoxicity among the following
drugs are :
A. Nalidixic acid
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin (aminoglycoside)
D. Dapsone
Key: C
302. The drug not excreted through kidney among the
following is:
A. Digoxin
B. Ofloxacin
C. Streptomycin
D. Digitoxin
Key: D, Digitoxin is excreted through liver and
digoxin through kidney.
303. Which class of antiarrythmic drugs does verapamil
belong to?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
Key: D
304. All are the sideeffects of pyrazinamide except:
A. Drug fever
B. Hepatic failure
C. Arthalgia
D. Optic neuritis
Key: D
305. The drug of choice in cholera is
A. Doxycycline
B. Tetracycline
C. Amoxycillin
D. Azithromycin
Key: B
306. The usual dose of tinidazole in giardiasis is
A. 500 mg TDS for 5 days
B. 300 mg BD for 3 days
C. 2gm single dose
D. 500mg TDS for 7 days
Key: C
307. Which of the following is not used as an
antiparkinsonian drug?
A. Phenothiazine
B. Entacapone
C. Levodopa
D. Chlorpropmide
Key: D
308. Which is not used for the treatment of kalaazar?
A. Amphotericin
B. Pentamidine
C. Sodium stibogluconate
D. Quinidine
Key: D
309. During metabolism, alcohol is reduced to
A. Acetaldehyde
B. Acetone
C. Formaldehyde
D. Ether
Key: A
310. Which of the following is the protease inhibitor
antiviral drug:
A. Zidovudin
B. Lamivudin
C. Indinavir
D. Nevirapine
Key: C
311. The mechanism of action of aminoglycosides is:
A. Inhibition of 50s ribosome
B. Inhibition of 30s ribosome
C. Inhibition of cellwall synthesis
D. a and b
Key: B
312. The first dose effect is seen with
A. Enalapril
B. Nifedipine
C. Verapamil
D. Propanolol
Key: A, Severe hypotension can occur after initial
doses of any ACE inhibitor in patients who are
hypovolemic due to diuretics, salt restriction, or
gastrointestinal fluid loss.
313. Which of the following drugs used in peptic ulcer
causes black coating of tongue?
A. Sucralfate
B. Bismuth
C. Ranitidine
D. Omeprazole
Key: B, Bismuth can cause black tongue and black
stools in some users of the drug, when it combines
with trace amount of sulfur in saliva and the GI tract.
314. Which of the following drug is the most appropriate
for the treatment of a patient with diabetes and
hypertension?
A. Beta-blocker
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. ACE inhibitor
D. None
Key: C, ACE inhibitors, antihypertensives, are
important in controlling nephropathy in diabetes.
315. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
A. DNA gyrase
B. Cell wall synthesis
C. 50s ribosome
D. Mycolic acid synthesis
Key: A, Fluoroquinolones are DNA gyrase inhibitors.
316. Which of the following benzodiazepines is a short
acting one?
A. Oxazepam
B. Lorazepam
C. Diazepam
D. Nitrazepam
Key: A
317. The shortest half-life among benzodiazepines is of
A. Midazolam
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Lorazepam
Key: A, Shortest acting benzodiazepines –TOM
(triazolam, oxazepam, midazolam)
318. Which of the following is not given during
pregnancy?
A. Warfarin
B. Insulin
C. Heparin
D. Nalidixic acid
Key: A, Warfarin is teratogenic and heparin is safe
319. Most potent steroid among the following is:
A. Hydrocortisone
B. Budesonide
C. Dexamethasone
D. Beclomethasone
Key: C
320. The long acting anti-protozoal is:
A. Secnidazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Tinidazole
D. Omeprazole
Key: A
321. Pralidoxime is used in the treatment of poisoning of
A. Organophosphate
B. Morphine
C. TCA
D. Paracetamol
Key: A
322. OCP failure occurs in all except
A. Rifampin
B. Barbiturates
C. Ketoconazole
D. Chloroquine
Key: D, Chloroquine is not an enzyme inducer
323. Which drug is the hepatic enzyme inducer?
A. Propanolol
B. Phenylephrine
C. Phenytoin
D. Pefloxacin
Key: C
324. Corticosteroid doesnot cause
A. Myopoathy
B. Avascular necrosis
C. Cataract
D. Peptic ulcer
Key: D
325. Which drug induces its own metabolism?
A. Phenytoin
B. IV diazepam
C. Carbamazepine
D. Lorazepam
Key: C
326. Coronary steal syndrome is caused by
A. Enflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Halothane
Key: B, Isoflurane relaxes previously constricted
isolated porcine coronary artery segments, causes
coronary steal. Coronary steal (with its symptoms
termed coronary steal syndrome or cardiac steal
syndrome) is a phenomenon where an alteration of
circulation patterns lead to a reduction in the blood
directed to the coronary circulation.
327. Mechanism of action for local anesthetics
A. Sodium channel inactivation
B. GABA mediated CL-channel activation
C. GABA mimetic action
D. Prolongation of sodium channel activation
Key: A, Local anesthetics reversibly block impulse
conduction along nerve axons and other excitable
membranes that utilize sodium channels as the
primary means of action potential generation. This
action can be used clinically to block pain sensation
from- or sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses to-
specific areas of the body.
328. Which drug is contraindicated in a child with
shortness of breath
A. Ipratopium
B. Nidocromil
C. Propanolol
D. Beclomethasone
Key: C, Propanolol is a nonselective beta blocker.
Beta 2 blocking may exacerbate shortness of breath
by causing bronchoconstriction.
329. Gum hypertrophy is the adverse effect of
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Phenytoin
C. Reserpine
D. Methyldopa
Key: B, Phenytoin toxicity: Nystagmus, Diplopia,
Ataxia, Gingival hyperplasia, Hirsutism
330. Which is NRT I(Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse
Transcriptase Inhibitors ):
A. Efavirenz
B. Delaverdine
C. Enfuvertide
D. Didanosine
Key: D
331. Morphine for pain is not to be used in:
A. MI
B. Postoperative pain
C. Terminal cancer pain
D. Biliary colic
Key: D, Morphine can aggravate conditions like
biliary colic, diverculitis and pancreatitis and is
therefore contraindicated in these conditions.
332. Which of the following drug is not used for managing
status epilepticus:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Thiopentone sodium
D. Carbamazepine
Key: D, Carbamazepine is effective in the
management of generalized tonic clonic and partial
seizure types. It is not effective in status epilepticus.
333. Which of the following drug is contraindicated to
treat hypertension with pregnancy?
A. Enalapril
B. Methyldopa
C. Nifedipine
D. Labetalol
Key: A, In humans, ACE inhibitors (enalapril) can
cause fetal and neonatal morbidity and mortality when
administered to pregnant women. ACE inhibitors
should be discontinued as soon as possible when
pregnancy is detected. Captopril and enalapril are
associated with transient anuric renal failure and
oligohydraminos.
334. Which of the following is a fourth generation
cephalosporin?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cefaclor
C. Cefepime
D. Cefuroxime
Key: C, Cefepime and cefpirome are the fourth
generation cephalosporin.
335. Dobutamine increases:
A. Heart rate
B. Cardiac output
C. Blood pressure
D. Plasma volume
Key: B, Dobutamine directly stimulates beta-1
receptors of the heart to increase myocardial
contractility and stroke volume, resulting in increased
cardiac output.
336. Ingestion of which of the following drug by mother
may cause the infant to have cleft lip, spinal bifida
and ASD:
A. Isotretinoin
B. Valporate
C. Phenytoin
D. Carbamazepine
Key: B, Fetal valporate syndrome
337. Ciprofloxacin / Fluoroquinolones are contraindicated
in children because?
A. They cause arthropathy
B. They cause mental retardation
C. They cause agranulocytosis
D. All of the above
Key: A
338. Most common cardiac defect caused due to lithium is:
A. Ebstein’s anomaly
B. HOCM
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Eisenmenger syndrome
Key: A, Use of lithium during pregnancy increases
incidence of neonatal goiter and congenital
cardiovascular malformations, especially Ebsteins
anomaly
339. Half-life of IV plain insulin is ….. Minutes:
A. 5 to 9 minutes
B. 15 to 30 minutes
C. 30 to 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Key: A
Drug of choice in cold urticaria is:
A. Cyproheptadine
B. Terfinadine
C. Fexofinadine
D. Astemizole
Key: A, Cyproheptadine is an antihistaminic used in
cold urticaria and as an appetite stimulant
340. Chloroquine is most effective against which stage of
malarial parasite:
A. Merozoites
B. Tissue schizonts
C. Blood schizonts
D. Gametocytes
Key: C, Chloroquine inhibits the erythrocytic stage of
Plasmodium. It interrupts erythrocytic schizogony
(blood schizonts).
341. Ipratropium bromide is useful in bronchial asthma
because it is
A. Anticholinergic
B. Vasodilator
C. Antiallergic
D. Mast cell stabilizer
Key: A, It is an anticholinergic drug used as a
bronchodilator inhalation spray for management of
bronchial asthma. Dryness of mouth and irritation of
trachea are common side effects.
342. For legionella infection, the drug of choice is:
A. Erythromycin
B. Cefuroxime
C. Tetracycline
D. Sulfamethoxazole
Key: A
343. Which one of the following drugs increases
gastrointestinal motility?
A. Glycopyrrolate
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Fentanyl
Key: C
344. Antipsychotic drug induced parkinsonism is treated
by
A. Anticholinergic
B. Levodopa
C. Selegiline
D. Amantadine
345. The drug not avoided in G6PD?
A. chloramphenicol
B. quinidine
C. nitrofurantoin
D. streptomycin
Key: D
346. The aspirin is used in MI because?
A. decreases thromboxane synthesis
B. has analgesic effect
C. reduces prostaglandin synthesis
D. reduces cardiac work
Key: a
347. OCP produces which of the following in the liver?
A. cholangiosarcoma
B. adenoma
C. cirrhosis
D. atropic changes
Key: b
348. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in
pregnancy?
A. clonidine
B. Enalapril
C. methyldopa
D. hydralazine
Key: B
349. The side effect of phenytoin are?
A. Gum hypertrophy
B. alopecia
C. subungual exostosis
D. onycholysis
Key: a
350. Drug used for treatment of Methicillin Resistant
Staphylococcus Aureus
A. Teicoplanin
B. Vancomycin
C. Both
D. None
Key: c
351. Mechanism of action of Aspirin is inhibition of
A. Thromboxane A2 Synthesis
B. Phosphodiesterase
C. HMG- CoA Reductase
D. Pancreatic Lipase
Key: A
352. MAO of local anesthetics
A. Blocking Na and Preventing depolarisation
B. Inhibiting Aldose reductase
C. Increasing degradation of Adrenaline
D. None of the above
Key: A
353. Ceftriaxone is
A. II Generation short acting
B. III generation long acting
C. active against beta lactamase
D. IV generation used orally
Key: B
354. Which of the following is a Prodrug
A. Enalapril
B. Dopamine
C. Ampicillin
D. Prednisolone
Key: A
355. Drug of choice for Herpes
A. Acyclovir
B. Zidovidine
C. Indinavir
D. Ribavirin
Key:
356. Treatment of bacterial vaginosis. Drug of choice is
A. Ampicillin
B. Metronidazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Fluconazole
Key:
357. Drug with high degree of Photosensitivity is
A. Tetracycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Minocycline
D. Methacycline
Key: B
358. The Drug to be avoided in the first trimester of
pregnancy?
A. Warfarin
B. INH
C. Quinine
D. Methyldopa
Key: A
359. Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Flumazenil
C. Beta-carboline
D. Gabapentin
Key: C, Beta-carboline: An inverse agonist is an agent
that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but
induces a pharmacological response opposite to that
agonist.
360. All of the following are hallucinogens except
A. LSD
B. Phencyclidine
C. Mescaline
D. Methylphenidate
Key: D, Methylphenidate is a psychostimulant drug
used for treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity
disorder.
361. One of the following is not pencillinase susceptible
A. Amoxicillin
B. Pencillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
Key: D, Cloxacillin is a penicillinase resistant
penicillin.
362. Which one of the following is used in therapy of
Toxoplasmosis?
A. Artensunate
B. Thiacetazone
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Pyrimethamine
Key: D
363. Which one of the following drugs is "Topoisomerase
I" inhibitor?
A. Doxorubicin
B. Irinotecan
C. Etoposide
D. Vincristine
Key: B
364. All of the following drugs cause definite hemolysis in
a glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient
patient except?
A. primaquine
B. nitrofurantoin
C. naphthalene
D. ciprofloxacin
Key: D
365. Digoxin is not indicated in?
A. atrial flutter
B. atrial fibrillation
C. high output failure
D. PSVT
Key: C
366. SLE like syndrome is most commonly associated with
the administration of the following drug?
A. rifampicin
B. procainamide
C. digitalis
D. phenytoin
Key: B
367. Volume of distribution of drugs is altered in all
except?
A. athletes
B. pregnancy
C. older age
D. neonate
Key: B
368. Digoxin is eliminated from the body by?
A. tubular filtration
B. hepatic conjugation
C. glomerular filtration
D. oxidation
Key: C
369. Chills, fever, and muscle aches are common reactions
to which one of the following antiviral drugs?
A. Acyclovir.
B. Ganciclovir.
C. Oseltamivir.
D. Interferon.
Key: D
370. A 57-year-old man is being treated for an atrial
arrhythmia. He complains of headache, dizziness, and
tinnitus. Which one of the follo wing antiarrhythmic
drugs is the most likely cause?
A. Amiodarone.
B. Procainamide.
C. Propranolol.
D. Quinidine.
Key: D, The clustered symptoms of headache,
dizziness, and tinnitus are characteristic of
cinchonism
371. Drug of choice for cisplatin induced emesis is
A. Metoclopramide
B. Domperidone
C. Ondansetron
D. Octreotide
Key: C
372. Drug used for the Rx of malignant hyperthermia due
to inhaled anesthesia interaction with Neuruscular
blockers
A. Baclofen
B. Diazepam
C. Dantrolene
D. Tubocurarine
Key: C
373. Long acting insulin is ?
A. Insulin Detemir
B. Insulin Lispro
C. Insulin aspart
D. Insulin glulisine
Key: A
374. Which of the following steroids can be administered
for maturity of surfactant in preterm labor.
A. Beclomethasone
B. Betamethasone
C. Prednisolone
D. Hydrocortisone
Key: A
375. Digoxin toxicity
A. Increase K
B. Increase Mg
C. Decrease Ca
D. Alkalosis
Key: D
376. Which drug DO NOT cause gynaecomastia
A. Digoxin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Cimetidine
D. Androgen
Key: D
377. Acetazolamide is:
A. Competitive and reversible carbonic anhydrase
inhibitor
B. Non-competitive and reversible carbonic
anhydrase inhibitor
C. Competitive and irreversible carbonic anhydrase
inhibitor
D. Non-competitive and irreversible carbonic
anhydrase inhibitor
Key: B
378. Thiazides can cause:
A. Hyperkalemic paralysis
B. Hypouricemia
C. Hypolipidemia
D. Impotence
Key: D
379. Free water clearance is decreased by?
A. Vincristine
B. Vinblastine
C. Chlorpropamide
D. Furosemide
Key: D
380. Which diuretic could be considered appropriate for
combining with ACE inhibitors?
A. Spironolactone
B. Eplerenone
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Amiloride
Key: C
381. Spironolactone is contraindicated with which of the
following drugs?
A. Enalapril
B. Atenolol
C. Verapamil
D. Chlorthiazide
Key: A
382. Regarding furosemide true statement is:
A. Acute pulmonary edema is an indication
B. Acts on PCT
C. Mild diuresis
D. Given only by parenteral route
Key: A
383. Intravenous furosemide is used for rapid control of
symptoms in acute left ventricular failure. It provides
quick relief of dyspnoea by:
A. Producing bronchodilation
B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating
blood volume
C. Causing venodilation
D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility
Key: C
384. Most potent loop diuretic is:
A. Furosemide
B. Bumetanide
C. Torsemide
D. Ethacrynic acid
Key: B
385. Which of the following diuretics can result in
metabolic acidosis?
A. Indapamide
B. Furosemide
C. Hydrochlorthiazide
D. Acetazolamide
Key: D
386. Long-term use of which diuretic agent can result in
gynaecomastia?
A. Amiloride
B. Spironolactone
C. Triamterene
D. Acetazolamide
Key: B
387. A 50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes
of renal colic with high calcium renal stones. The
most useful diuretic in the treatment of recurrent
calcium stones is:
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Hydrochlorthiazide
D. Acetazolamide
Key: C
388. A 46-year-old male, Jorawar Singh presented to the
emergency with muscle weakness and cramping. He
has been taking hydrochlorothiazide for recently
diagnosed hypertension. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of his symptoms?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypoglycemia
Key: C
389. Furosemide should not be administered with NSAIDs
because latter:
A. Prevent platelet aggregation
B. Inhibit prostacyclin synthesis
C. Decrease sodium reabsorption
D. Increase the secretion of furosemide in urine
Key: B
390. All of the following diuretics inhibit Na+ – K+ – 2Cl
symporter, EXCEPT:
A. Furosemide
B. Thiazide
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Mersalyl
Key: B
391. Which of the following diuretics cause Hypercalcemia
and can be used in recurrent renal calcium stones?
A. Spironolactone
B. Furosemide
C. Chlorthiazide
D. Mannitol
Key: C
392. Which one is a mineralocorticoid antagonist?
A. Thiazide
B. Cyproterone acetate
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone
Key: D
393. In cirrhotic ascites, which diuretic is preferred?
A. Furosemide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Spironolactone
D. Any of the above
Key: C
394. Aldosterone action is on:
A. Proximal tubule
B. Distal tubules
C. Loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
Key: D
395. Thiazide diuretic does not cause:
A. Hyper calcaemia
B. Hypo magnesemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyperuricemia
Key: C
396. Potassium sparing diuretics acts on:
A. Na+ K+ pump
B. Aldosterone receptor
C. Carbonic anhydrase
D. Na+ Cl– symporter
Key: B
397. Drug causing deafness is:
A. Thiazide
B. Spiranolactone
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Triamterene
Key: C
398. Drug that can be used for producing alkalinization of
urine is?
A. Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Furesemide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Spironolactone
Key: C
399. In a patient on cisplatin therapy, which of the
following diuretics would be preferred?
A. Mannitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Thiazide
D. Furosemide
Key: A
400. Spirolactone is contraindicated with enalapril because
it causes
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Key: A
401. Loop diuretics acts on:
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
Key: C
402. Which of the following is the drug of choice for the
treatment of Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic
Hormone secretion?
A. Demeclocycline
B. Vasopressin
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Chlorpropamide
Key: A
403. Selective V2 receptor agonist useful for the treatment
of central diabetes insipidus is:
A. Arginine vasopressin
B. Desmopressin
C. Lypressin
D. Terlipressin
Key: B
404. Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus is:
A. Desmopressin
B. Leuprolide
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Insulin
Key: A
405. A 33-year-old male, Ali presents to OPD your office
with fatigue, muscle weakness and headache. His
blood pressure is 170/120 mmHg and his heart rate is
100/min. Laboratory evaluation reveals hypokalemia,
metabolic alkalosis and decreased plasma renin
activity. On CT scan, a mass was noted on left
suprarenal gland. Patient was prescribed a drug for
few weeks and the symptoms subsided. Laboratory
values and blood pressure returned to normal values.
The likely drug given to this patient is?
A. Clonidine
B. Propanolol
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Spironolactone
Key: D
406. A 37-year-old woman presents to the emergency
room complaining of general tingling sensation all
over her body and spasm of her right hand for 1 hour.
Her spasm is worsening and she feels as her body
becomes more rigid. She had undergone subtotal
thyroidectomy 2 weeks ago and the incision is healed
and clean. Blood tests reveal very low serum calcium
level. What should be the immediate therapy to
reverse her symptoms?
A. Vitamin D
B. Calcitonin
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Levothyroxine
Key: C
407. A 62-year-old man presents to the clinic with rashes
all over his body and painful joints. Last month, he
was diagnosed with arrhythmia. He is taking one
medication for it. Laboratory tests reveal anti-histone
antibodies. Which of the following drugs is most
likely responsible for this condition?
A. Hydralazine
B. Metoprolol
C. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
Key: A
408. A 4-year old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother
complaining of fever and abdominal pain since
yesterday. Today, she looks uncomfortable during
micturition. On examination, her temperature is 99.4,
her pulse is 100/min. and her suprapubic area is soft
and tender. Her blood analysis shows increased
neutrophils. Her urinalysis is positive for organisms
and leukocytes. What is the drug of choice for this
condition?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Co-trimoxazole
D. Rifampin
Key: C
409. A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes
presents to his physician for a follow up. He
complains of recurrent hypoglycemic reactions to his
medications. Which of these medications is most
likely responsible for this patient's hypoglycemic
reactions?
A. Glyburide
B. Metformin
C. Acarbose
D. Rosiglitazone
Key: A
410. A 75-year-old man presents to the office for
evaluation of new symptoms. He has a history of
cancer and takes chemotherapeutic treatment. Now he
complains of dyspnea and mild fatigue since last
week. Examination reveals temperature of 98.3 F,
pulse of 80/min, blood pressure of 140/86 and
respiratory rate of 22/min. On chest auscultation,
there are crackles on both lung bases with no
wheezes. A chest x-ray shows bilateral diffuse
interstitial markings. Which of the following agents is
responsible for this patient’s new features?
A. Bleomycin
B. Cisplatin
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Etoposide
Key: A
411. A 24-year-old man presents to the clinic with a
complaint of grey-colored penile discharge and
burning micturition for 2 days. His medical, surgical
and family histories are unremarkable. Examination
reveals a purulent discharge that can be seen by
squeezing his penis. Penile swab shows Gram-
negative diplococci within neutrophils. What is the
most appropriate treatment?
A. Oral doxycycline
B. IV ceftriaxone
C. IV ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
D. IV penicillin
Key: C
412. A 22-year-old female with a history of acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops low
grade fever, headache and blurred vision.
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) testing for Cryptococci
antigen is positive. Which of these drugs can be given
orally to treat Cryptococcal meningitis?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Caspofungin
C. Fluconazole
D. Metronidazole
Key: C
413. A 19-year-old man with a history of
immunodeficiency disease develops fever.
Prophylactic measures including some medications
are initiated. A few days later, the patient develops
acute renal failure. Which of these drugs is most
likely responsible?
A. Acyclovir
B. Amphotericin B
C. Ampicillin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: B
414. A 62-year old woman with a history of type 2
diabetes complains of nausea and bloating for the last
three months. Gastric emptying studies confirm the
diagnosis of diabetic gastroparesis. What is the first
line therapy for this patient?
A. Clindamycin
B. Metoclopramide
C. Omeprazole
D. Ondansetron
Key: B
415. A 45 year old man is admitted to the hospital for a
scheduled surgery. Two days later, he develops fever,
chills, cough and chest pain. This hospital has
reported several cases of methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the last 3 months.
What should have been given to this patient to prevent
his infection with MRSA?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Gentamicin
D. Vancomycin
Key: D
416. A 72 year old woman presents to her physician
complaining of abdominal pain, frequent and burning
micturition. After physical examination and
laboratory tests, she is diagnosed with urinary tract
infection. She is prescribed gentamicin.
What is the most likely complication attributed to this
antibiotic?
A. Hepatic toxicity
B. Hearing loss
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Agranulocytosis
Key: B
417. A 45 year old man who was diagnosed with malaria
and received anti-malarial medication presents to the
office with progressive fatigue and loss of appetite.
He also mentions that he noticed that his urine has
become dark lately. Urine analysis is positive for both
bilirubin and urobilinogen. Blood studies show serum
total bilirubin of 4.3 mg/dL, hemoglobin
concentration of 8.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 30%.
Which medication is used to treat this patient?
A. Atovaquone
B. Chloroquine
C. Doxycycline
D. Primaquine
Key: D
418. A 9-year-old boy presents to his physician with a
complaint of headache, sore throat and fever. After
taking history, the physician warned the parents
recommending that they should never administer
aspirin to the boy for the risk of having a disease that
is characterized by which of the following?
A. Bronchospasm
B. Gastritis
C. Chronic diarrhea
D. Seizures
Key: D, Reye's syndrome is a rare side effect of
aspirin especially in those who are recovering from a
flu or chickenpox. It affects mainly the liver and the
brain. It causes seizures and hepatomegaly.
419. MAO of amphotericin-B
A. Acts on DNA
B. Acts on RNA
C. Acts on sterols in membrane
D. Alters protein synthesis
Key: C
420. A 52-year old woman with a history of type 2
diabetes mellitus comes to the physician because of
facial swelling around her lips and eye. On her last
visit 3 weeks ago she was diagnosed with
hypertension and appropriate pharmacotherapy was
initiated. An image of the woman’s eyes is shown.
Which of the following agents could account for the
adverse drug reaction in this patient?
A. Clonidine
B. Atenolol
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Lisinopril
Key: D
421. Postural (Orthostatic) hypotension is a significant
problem with all of the following agents except?
A. phenoxybenzamine
B. mecamylamine
C. guanethidine and prazosin
D. it is a problem with all of the above
Key: D
422. Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents has the
longest duration of action?
A. quinidine
B. amiodarone
C. verapamil
D. Lidocaine
Key: B
423. A 56-year old man at risk of symptomatic atrial
fibrillation/flutter is placed on prophylactic
pharmacotherapy. The ECG tracing below shows the
response before (solid line) and 2-weeks after (broken
line) commencement of treatment. Which of the
following agents was most likely prescribed for this
patient?
A. Verapamil
B. Metoprolol
C. Quinidine
D. Flecainide
Key: C
424. The vasodilator action of nitrates involves the
formation of ______ and an increase in the amount of
_____ in the vascular smooth muscle cell?
A. ATP, calmodulin
B. NO, troponin
C. NO, cGMP
D. disulfide bonds, calcium
Key: C
425. With respect to the treatment of angina, ALL
members of this drug class would cause reflex
tachycardia?
A. calcium blockers
B. beta blockers
C. nitrates
D. all of the above
426. Compensatory increases in heart rate and renin release
that occur in heart failure may be alleviated by which
of the following agents?
A. Milrinone
B. Lisinopril
C. Atenolol
D. Dobutamine
Key: C
427. A 60-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with
acute heart failure and pulmonary edema. Which of
the following drugs would be most useful in treating
the pulmonary edema?
A. Lisinopril
B. Dobutamine
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone
Key: C
428. Which of the following reduces myocardial oxygen
demand by decreasing contractility and heart rate?
A. Atenolol
B. Nifedipine
C. Prazosin
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Key: A
429. A 54-year-old man is admitted to the emergency
department. He has taken more than 50 digoxin
tablets (0.25 mg each), ingesting them about 2 hours
before admission. His pulse is 54 b/min, and the ECG
shows third-degree heart block. Which of the
following is the most important therapy to initiate in
this patient?
A. SC cardioversion
B. Digoxin immune Fab
C. Lidocaine
D. Potassium salts
Key: B
430. A 54-year-old woman had a myocardial infarction.
Which of the following would be appropriate
prophylactic antiarrhythmic pharmacotherapy?
A. Quinidine
B. Procainamide
C. Verapamil
D. Metoprolol
Key: D
431. A 58-year-old woman is being treated for chronic
suppression of a ventricular arrhythmia. After 2
months of pharmacotherapy, she complains about
feeling tired all the time. Examination reveals a
resting heart rate of 10b/min lower than her previous
rate. Her skin is cool and clammy. Laboratory test
results indicate low thyroxin and elevated thyroid-
stimulating hormone levels. Which of the following
agents is most likely to have caused these signs and
symptoms?
A. Amiodarone
B. Procainamide
C. Verapamil
D. Quinidine
Key: A
432. A 54-year-old woman is being treated for an atrial
arrhythmia. She complains of headache, dizziness and
tinnitus. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs
is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Amiodarone
B. Procainamide
C. Verapamil
D. Quinidine
Key: D
433. A 56-year-old woman complains of chest pain
following any sustained exercise. She is diagnosed
with atherosclerotic angina. She is prescribed
sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute chest
pain. Which of the following adverse effects is likely
to be experienced by this patient?
A. Hypertension
B. Throbbing headache
C. Bradycardia
D. Sexual dysfunction
Key: B
434. A 56-year-old woman complains of chest pain
following any sustained exercise. She is diagnosed
with atherosclerotic angina. She is prescribed
sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute chest
pain. Which of the following adverse effects of
sublingual nitroglycerin can be prevented by atenolol?
A. Dizziness
B. Throbbing headache
C. Methemoglobinemia
D. Reflex tachycardia
Key: D
435. A 68-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with
hypertension and started on monotherapy designed to
reduce peripheral resistance and prevent sodium and
water retention. Since commencing treatment he has
developed a persistent cough. Which of the following
drugs would have the same benefits but would not
cause the cough?
A. Lisinopril
B. Nifedipine
C. Prazosin
D. Losartan
Key: D
436. A 68-year-old man has been successfully treated for
exercise-induced angina for several years. He recently
has been awakened at night with chest pain. Which of
the following drugs would be useful in preventing this
patient’s nocturnal angina?
A. Amyl nitrite
B. Nitroglycerin (sublingual)
C. Nitroglycerin (transdermal)
D. Esmolol
Key: C
437. A diabetic woman with CHF and asthma.
A. Alpha-blocker i.e. Phenoxybenzamine
B. beta-blocker or Ca++-blocker
C. diuretic
D. cardiac glycoside or ACE inhibitor
.
Key: D
438. An obese 76 year old hypertensive male.
A. Alpha-blocker i.e. Phenoxybenzamine
B. beta-blocker or Ca++-blocker
C. diuretic
D. cardiac glycoside or ACE inhibitor
Key: C
439. A woman with diffuse Pheochromocytoma.
A. Alpha-blocker i.e. Phenoxybenzamine
B. beta-blocker or Ca++-blocker
C. diuretic
D. cardiac glycoside or ACE inhibitor
Key: A
440. A hypertensive 43 yr old male with supraventricular
tachycardia.
A. Alpha-blocker i.e. Phenoxybenzamine
B. beta-blocker or Ca++-blocker
C. diuretic
D. Cardiac glycoside or ACE inhibitor
Key: B
441. Parentally administered antiarrhythmic with an
extremely short half-life (15-20 secs).
A. Adenosine
B. Flecainide
C. Metoprolol
D. Verapamil
Key: A
442. Class IC agent producing marked slowing of AP
conduction.
A. Adenosine
B. Phenytoin
C. Flecainide
D. Verapamil
Key: C
443. Orally effective agent with actions similar to
Lidocaine
A. Adenosine
B. Phenytoin
C. Flecainide
D. Metoprolol
Key: B
444. Useful for suppressing the activity of the SA node,
may cause constipation
A. Phenytoin
B. Flecainide
C. Metoprolol
D. Verapamil
Key: D
445. Useful for suppressing the activity of the SA node,
may cause depression and sleep disturbances.
A. Adenosine
B. Phenytoin
C. Flecainide
D. Metoprolol
Key: D
446. The efficacy of beta blockers in hypertension:
A. is almost entirely due to inhibition of renin
secretion
B. is lower in whites than in blacks
C. can be enhanced by concurrent administration of
a diuretic
D. Compromised by adverse CNS effects ie.
stimulation & convulsions
Key: C
447. Minoxidil (Loniten) lowers vascular resistance
by_____ and is also used in the treatment of______.
A. opening K+ channels, baldness
B. opening K+ channels, angina
C. closing K+ channels, baldness
D. increasing cellular NO and cGMP, angina
Key: A
448. Problems associated with the use of ACE inhibitors
include all of the following except:
A. Hypertension
B. Potassium retention
C. Glossitis
D. Dry cough
Key: A
449. An agent whose cardiac actions include a strong
inotropic effect, but a relatively weak chronotropic
effect is:
A. Dobutamine
B. norepinephrine
C. epinephrine
D. isoproterenol
Key: A
450. Which of the following agent(s) are associated with
gingival hyperplasia?
A. calcium blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Phenytoin
D. none
Key: C
451. A 53-year-old woman is being treated for atrial flutter
subsequent to a myocardial infarction. After
commencing treatment she experiences prolonged
depression, bradycardia and wheezing. Which of the
following agents was the patient prescribed?
A. propranolol
B. phenytoin
C. Flecainide
D. verapamil
Key: A
452. Which of the following is an undesired effect
associated with the use of Cholestyramine?
A. increased VLDL
B. increased LDL
C. decreased HDL
D. decreased triglycerides (TGs)
Key: A
453. The primary action of which of the following agents
is to increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase to
decrease VLDL levels?
A. Niacin
B. Cholestyramine
C. Atorvastatin
D. Gemfibrozil
Key: D
454. Which of the lipoproteins listed below is
antiatherogenic?
A. VLDL
B. IDL
C. HDL
D. LDL
Key: C
455. Which of the following agents can cause the greatest
decrease in triglyceride levels?
A. Niacin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Gemfibrozil
D. Ezetimibe
Key: D
456. Which of the following agents can precipitate a
hypertensive crisis following abrupt cessation of
therapy?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Diltiazem
C. Losartan
D. Clonidine
Key: D
457. A 48-year old hypertensive man has been successfully
treated with a thiazide diuretic for the past 4 years.
Over the last 3 months his diastolic pressure has
steadily increased and he has been started on an
additional antihypertensive medication. He now
complains of sleep disturbances and he is no longer
able to complete three sets of tennis. The second
antihypertensive medication is most likely which of
the following agents?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Nifedipine
D. Losartan
Key: A
458. Adverse effects associated with the use of amiodarone
include all of the following except:
A. Cardiac depression & Increased QT interval
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Thyroid dysfunction
D. All of the above can occur
Key: D
459. A 38-year old woman who is a marathon runner is
diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following
agents would be the most suitable to treat her
hypertension and accommodate her lifestyle?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Nifedipine
D. Clonidine
Key: D
460. A 36-year old woman who is pregnant is diagnosed
with hypertension. Which of the following agents
would be the most suitable to treat her hypertension?
A. Atenolol
B. alpha-methyl dopa
C. Nifedipine
D. Clonidine
Key: B
461. Which of the following drug combinations has been
found to be very effective as a pharmacotherapy for
heart failure in Afro-Americans?
A. Hydralazine and Lisinopril
B. Isosorbide dinitrate and Hydralazine
C. Metoprolol and Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol and Hydralazine
Key: B
462. The development of tolerance is a major concern with
which of the following agents?
A. Clonidine
B. Hydralazine
C. Metoprolol
D. Nitroglycerin
Key: D
463. Which of the following agents would be appropriate
pharmacotherapy for an individual with hypertension
and benign prostrate hypertrophy?
A. Clonidine
B. Atenolol
C. Prazosin
D. Phenoxybenzamine
Key: C
464. Which of the following agents would decrease the
therapeutic action of digoxin for heart failure?
A. Dobutamine
B. Atenolol
C. Furosemide
D. Lisinopril
Key: D
465. A 54-year old woman with a history of pulmonary
embolism controlled with warfarin comes to the
physician because of bleeding gums and easy
bruising. On her last visit 2 weeks ago she was
diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and an
antiarrhythmic agent was prescribed. Which of the
following agents could account for the increased
anticoagulant action of warfarin?
A. Amiodarone
B. Quinidine
C. Flecainide
D. Sotalol
Key: A
466. Beneficial effects of ______ in CHF may include
decreased afterload, and alpha1-adrenoceptor
blocking action.
A. Milrinone
B. carvedilol
C. hydrochlorothiazide
D. isosorbide dinitrate
Key: B
467. Drug not used in H. pylori is:
A. Metronidazole
B. Omeprazole
C. Mosapride
D. Amoxicillin
Key: C
468. Which of the following drugs is not used for H. pylori
treatment?
A. Oxytetracycline
B. Bismuth compounds
C. Amoxicillin
D. Omeprazole
Key: A
469. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they
are given:
A. After meals
B. Shortly before meals
C. Along with H2 blockers
D. During prolonged fasting periods
Key: B
470. Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of:
A. Bromocriptine
B. Cimetidine
C. Famotidine
D. Levodopa
Key: B
471. Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following
respect:
A. It is less potent
B. It is shorter acting
C. It does not have anti-androgenic action
D. It produces more CNS side effects
Key: C
472. Drug of choice for the treatment of peptic ulcer
caused due to chronic use of NSAIDs is:
A. Pirenzepine
B. Loxatidine
C. Misoprostol
D. Esomeprazole
Key: D, Proton pump inhibitors are the drugs of
choice for peptic ulcer disease due to any etiology.
Misoprostol is the MOST SPECIFIC drug for the
treatment of PUD due to chronic NSAID use because
it is a PGE1 analog.
473. Most specific drug for the treatment of peptic ulcer
disease due to chronic use of aspirin is:
A. Omeprazole
B. Misoprostol
C. Pirenzipine
D. Ranitidine
Key: B
474. Choose the antiulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid
secretion, stimulates gastric mucus and bicarbonate
secretion and has cytoprotective action on gastric
mucosa:
A. Misoprostol
B. Sucralfate
C. Carbenoxolone sodium
D. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate
Key: A
475. Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of all of the
following drugs EXCEPT:
A. Phenytoin
B. Warfarin
C. Ketoconazole
D. Diazepam
Key: C
476. Drug used in the treatment of gastric ulcer due to
H.pylori is:
A. Anticholinergics
B. Carbenoxolone sodium
C. Bismuth sub citrate
D. Corticosteroid
Key: C
477. Which one of the following is not an antacid?
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Magaldrate
C. Magnesium carbonate
D. Magnesium phosphate
Key: A
478. NSAID induced ulcer are treated by:
A. Antacids
B. H2 blockers
C. Misoprostol
D. PPI (proton pump inhibitors)
Key: D
479. Esomeprazole acts by inhibiting:
A. H+K+ ATPase pump
B. H+Na+ ATPase pump
C. H+ pump
D. None of the above
Key: A
480. Anti-peptic ulcer drug that can be given in patients
with chronic renal failure
A. Aluminium Hydroxide
B. Magnesium Hydroxide
C. Sucralfate
D. None
Key: C
481. Antacid drug that typically causes diarrhea?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Calcium bicarbonate
D. Aluminium hydroxide
Key: B
482. A patient presents with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
due to gastrinoma. He has two bleeding ulcers and
diarrhoea. A drug that irreversibly inhibits the H+/K+
ATPase in gastric parietal cells is:
A. Cimetidine
B. Cisapride
C. Glycopyrrolate
D. Omeprazole
Key: D
483. Which of the following is an antagonist of a peptide
and is used to reduce chemotherapy induced nausea
and vomiting?
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide
B. Aprepitant
C. Bradykinin
D. Enalapril
Key: B
484. Drug given for metoclopramide induced dystonic
reaction is:
A. Pheniramine
B. Promethazine
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Prochlorperazin
Key: B
485. Regarding aprepitant all are true except:
A. Agonist at NK1 receptors
B. Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
C. Ameliorate nausea and vomiting induced by
chemotherapy
D. Metabolized by CYP450 enzymes
Key: A
486. An anti-emetic drug that also decreases acid secretion
due to its action on H
1 receptors is:
A. Promethazine
B. Domperidone
C. Metoclopramide
D. Ondansetron
Key: A
487. Metoclopramide
A. Inhibit cholinergic smooth muscle stimulation in
the gastrointestinal tract
B. Decrease lower esophageal sphincter pressure
C. Stimulate D2 receptor
D. Enhance colonic motility
Key: D
488. Drug implicated in prolonging QT interval is:
(a) Domperidone
(b) Metoclopramide
(c) Cisapride
(d) Omeprazole
Key: C
489. For chemotherapy induced vomiting, 5HT3 antagonist
having maximum potency is:
A. Ondansetron
B. Granisetron
C. Dolasetron
D. Palonosetron
Key: D
490. Which of the following drugs is not an antiemetic?
A. Ondansetron
B. Domperidone
C. Metoclopramide
D. Cinnarizine
Key: D
491. Anti-emetic action is produced through:
A. Decreased CTZ stimulation
B. H1 agonistic action
C. D1 antagonistic action
D. 5 HT4 agonistic action
Key: A & D
492. Ondansetron acts by:
A. Acting on CTZ & 5-HT3 antagonism
B. D1 and D2 receptor antagonism
C. Increasing GIT motility
D. Blocking cholinergic receptors
Key: A
493. In case of hill journey, antimotion sickness drugs are
best administered at:
A. Twelve hours before commencing journey
B. One hour before commencing journey
C. Immediately after commencing journey
D. At the first feeling of motion sickness
Key: B
494. Metoclopramide has the following actions EXCEPT:
A. Increase lower esophageal sphincter tone
B. Prokinetic action is blocked by atropine
C. Increase gastric peristalsis
D. Increase large intestinal peristalsis
Key: A
495. Which of the following prokinetic drugs produces
extrapyramidal side effects?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Cisapride
C. Domperidone
D. All of the above
Key: A
496. Which antiemetic drug selectively blocks levodopa
induced vomiting without blocking its anti-
Parkinsonian action?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Cisapride
C. Domperidone
D. Ondansetron
Key: C
497. The most effective antiemetic for controlling
Cisplatin induced vomiting is:
A. Prochlorperazine
B. Ondansetron
C. Metoclopramide
D. Aprepitant
Key: B
498. Which of the following prokinetic drugs has been
implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias,
particularly in patients concurrently receiving
erythromycin or ketoconazole?
A. Domperidone
B. Cisapride
C. Mosapride
D. Metoclopramide
Key: B
499. Ondansetron acts by inhibiting which of the following
receptors?
A. 5-HT1
B. 5-HT2
C. 5-HT3
D. 5-HT
Key: C
500. Drug used in irritable bowel syndrome with
constipation is:
A. Lubiprostone
B. Loperamide
C. Alosetron
D. Clonidine
Key: A
501. Which of the following agents are useful in medical
treatment of variceal bleeding?
A. Octreotide
B. Pantoprazole
C. Somatotropin
D. Dexamethasone
Key: A
502. Which of the following laxatives lowers blood
ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Bisacodyl
B. Liquid paraffin
C. Lactulose
D. Magnesium sulfate
Key: C
503. The preferred drug for controlling an acute
exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is:
A. Prednisolone
B. Sulfasalazine
C. Mesalazine
D. Vancomycin
Key: A
504. A small amount of atropine is added to diphenoxylate
in order to:
A. Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis
B. Augment the anti-motility action of
diphenoxylate
C. Block side effects of diphenoxylate
D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate
Key: D
505. Bisacodyl is:
A. Bulk forming
B. Stool softner
C. Stimulant purgative
D. Osmotic purgative
Key: C
506. Sulfa drug used in inflammatory bowel disease
includes:
A. Sulfasalazine
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Sulfinpyrazone
D. Sulphadoxine
Key: A
507. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to
offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a
patient with symptoms of reflux?
A. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide
C. Sodium citrate
D. Atropine
Key: B
508. In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance of
pregnancy increases after taking any of the following
drugs except :
A. Phenytoin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Ampicillin
D. Cimetidine
Key: D
509. A patient is taking 40mg Famotidine OD, Sucralfate
and antacid tablets TDS. This treatment is irrational,
because of:
A. Sucralfate decreases the absorption of famotidine
B. Sucralfate increases the toxicity of famotidine
C. Sucralfate decreases absorption of antacids
D. Sucralfate polymerises only when gastric pH is
less than 4
Key: D
510. Most potent anti-emetic is:
A. Ondansertron
B. Granisertron
C. Dolasetron
D. Palonosetron
Key: D
511. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the
following drugs should be stopped on the day of
surgery:
A. Atenolol
B. Amlodipine
C. Statins
D. Metformin
Key: D
512. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of
the following except:
A. Cimetidine
B. Phytonadione
C. Amiodarone
D. Phenylbutazone
Key: B
513. Granulomatous hepatitis is caused by :
A. Allopurinol
B. Methyldopa
C. Furazolidone
D. Amiodarone
Key: A
514. Drug of choice for malaria during pregnancy is :
A. Chloroquine
B. Quinine
C. Primaquine
D. Mepacrine
Key: A
515. The treatment of contacts of meningococcal
meningitis is by :
A. Rifampicin
B. Erythromycin
C. Penicillin
D. Cephalosporins
Key: A
516. Mebeverine hydrochloride is useful in:
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Irritable bowel syndrome
C. Peptic ulcers
D. Crohn’s disease
Key: B
517. Which of the following antibiotics acts by inhibiting
cell wall synthesis?
A. Cefepime
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Erythromycin
D. Doxycycline
Key: A
518. Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?
A. Cefotetan
B. Doxycycline
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Oxacillin
Key: B
519. Which of the followign drugs require dose adjustment
in renal failure?
A. Cefoperazone
B. Doxycycline
C. Streptomycin
D. Rifampicin
Key: C
520. Antimicrobial agent acting by inhibition of cell wall
synthesis is:
A. Erythromycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Lomefloxacin
D. Cefepime
Key: D
521. All of the following antibacterial agents act by
inhibiting cell wall synthesis EXCEPT:
A. Carbapenems
B. Monobactams
C. Cephalosporins
D. Nitrofurantoin
Key: D
522. A post-operative patient developed septicemia and
was empirically started on combination chemotherapy
by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient
did
not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics
treatment,
the review of the charts was done. It was found that
that the resident doctor had started the combination of
antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action.
Which of the following is the most likely combination
that was given?
A. Vancomycin and Amikacin
B. Cephalexin and Gentamicin
C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
D. Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin
Key: C
523. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane
EXCEPT:
A. Nystatin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Amphotericin B
D. Polymyxin B
Key: B
524. Bacitracin acts on:
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Nucleic acid
D. Ribosome
Key: A
525. All of the following antibiotics act by interfering with
cell wall formation EXCEPT:
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Vancomycin
C. Cycloserine
D. Clindamycin
Key: D
526. Which of the following drugs is NOT excreted in bile:
A. Erythromycin
B. Ampicillin
C. Rifampicin
D. Gentamicin
Key: D
527. Multiple drug resistance is transferred through:
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation
Key: C
528. Most common mechanism for transfer of resistance in
Staphylococcus aureus is:
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. Mutation
Key: B
529. Pneumococcal resistance to penicillin G is mainly
acquired by:
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. All of the above
Key: C
530. A bactericidal drug would be preferred over a
bacteriostatic drug in a patient with:
A. Neutropenia
B. Cirrhosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Heart disease
Key: A
531. Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting cell
wall synthesis?
A. Erythromycin
B. Cephalosporins
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Sulfonamides
Key: B
532. In Staphylococci, plasmids encoding beta-lactamase
are transmitted by:
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transposon
D. Transformation
Key: B
533. Which of the following drug is bactericidal?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Erythromycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Cotrimoxazole
Key: D
534. Superinfection is common in:
A. Narrow spectrum antibiotics
B. Immunocompromised host
C. Low spectrum antibiotics
D. Nutritional deficiency
Key: B
535. Which of the following antibiotic does not act by
inhibiting protein synthesis?
A. Vancomycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Streptomycin
D. Azithromycin
Key: A
536. Which of the following antimicrobial is effective
against an organism producing extended spectrum
beta lactamase?
A. Amoxicillin–Clavulinic acid
B. Cefepime
C. Piperacillin-Tazobactam
D. Ceftriaxone
Key: C
537. Which of the following statement about Penicillin G
is true?
A. It is commonly administered orally
B. It has a broad spectrum of antibacterial activity
C. It can be used for the treatment rate bite fever
D. Concomitant probenecid decreases its duration of
action
Key: C
538. Which of the following beta-lactam antibiotics can be
safely used in a patient with a history of allergy to
penicillins?
A. Aztreonam
B. Cefepime
C. Loracarbef
D. Ceftriaxone
Key: A
539. All of the following statements about penicillin
binding proteins are true EXCEPT:
A. Present on cell surface
B. Mutation in PBPs gives rise to resistance
C. These are target site of vancomycin
D. These are targeted by imipenem
Key: C
540. Cephalosporin that does not require dose reduction in
patient with any degree of renal impairment is:
A. Cefuroxime
B. Cefoperazone
C. Ceftazidime
D. Cefotaxime
Key: B, Ceftriaxone and cefoperazone are excreted
mainly in the bile, therefore do not require dose
reduction in any grade of renal failure.
541. Extended spectrum beta lactamases (ESBLs) are
characterized by activity against all except:
A. Penicillinases
B. Cephalosporinases
C. Oxyimino-cephalosporinases
D. Carbapenems
Key: D
542. All of the following statements about penicillin-G are
true EXCEPT
A. It is actively secreted in tubules
B. It is never administered orally
C. It is effective against gram positive as well as
some gram negative bacteria
D. It acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis
Key: B
543. All of the following are the therapeutic uses of
penicillin-G EXCEPT:
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Rickettsial infection
C. Syphilis
D. Anthrax
Key: B
544. Which one of the following drugs is an
antipseudomonal penicillin?
A. Cephalexin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Piperacillin
D. Dicloxacillin
Key: C
545. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
Key: D
546. Which of the following antimicrobials has
antipseudomonal action?
A. Cefpodoxime proxetil
B. Cephradine
C. Cefotetan
D. Cefoperazone
Key: D
547. Which of the following is a fourth generation
cephalosporin?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cefaclor
C. Cefepime
D. Cefuroxime
Key: C
548. The mechanism of antibacterial action of
cephalosporins involves:
A. Inhibition of the synthesis of precursors of
peptidoglycan
B. Interference with the synthesis of ergosterol
C. Inhibition of transpeptidation reaction
D. Inhibition of beta-lactamase
Key: C
549. Which of the following statements about imipenem is
most accurate?
A. The drug has a narrow spectrum of antibacterial
action
B. It is used in fixed dose combination with
sulbactum
C. In renal dysfunction, dosage reductions are
necessary to avoid seizures
D. Imipenem is active against methicillin-resistant
staphylococci
Key: C
550. Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to
β-lactam antibiotics because:
A. They produce a β-lactamase which destroys
methicillin and related drugs
B. They elaborate an amidase which destroys
methicillin and related drugs
C. They have acquired penicillin binding protein
which has low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics
D. They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics
Key: C
551. The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration
of action is:
A. Benzathine penicillin
B. Sodium penicillin
C. Potassium penicillin
D. Procaine penicillin
Key: A
552. Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid is active against the
following organisms EXCEPT:
A. Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus
B. Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus
C. Penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoea
D. β-lactamase producing E. coli
Key: A
553. The following is true of vancomycin EXCEPT:
A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily
against gram positive bacteria
B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis
C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal
endocarditis
D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity
Key: B
554. TRUE statement regarding vancomycin is:
A. It is bacteriostatic
B. It has the advantage of high oral bioavailability
C. It is not susceptible to penicillinases
D. Staphylococcal enterocolits occurs commonly
with its use
Key: C
555. This drug has activity against many strains of P.
aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone,
resistance has emerged during the course of treatment.
The drug should not be used in penicillin-allergic
patients. Its activity against gram-negative rods is
enhanced if it is given in combination with
tazobactam. Which of the following drugs is being
described?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Aztreonam
C. Piperacillin
D. Vancomycin
Key: C
556. A 36 years old woman recently treated for leukemia is
admitted to the hospital with malaise, chills and high
fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of
gram negative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is
bacteremia and parenteral antibiotics are indicated.
The record of the patient reveals that she had severe
urticarial rash, hypotension and respiratory difficulty
after oral pencillin V about 6 months ago. The most
appropriate drug should be:
A. Ampicillin plus sulbactum
B. Aztreonam
C. Cefazolin
D. Imipenem plus cilastatin
Key: B
557. Not true about cefepime is:
A. 4th generation cephalosporin
B. Useful in hospital acquired infection
C. Inhibits transpeptidase
D. Given twice daily orally
Key: D
558. Antipseudomonals are all, EXCEPT:
A. Cephalexin
B. Carbenicillin
C. Piperacillin
D. Ceftazidime
Key: A
559. Cilastatin is given along with:
A. Imipenem
B. Amoxicillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Ampicillin
Key: A
560. Which of the following cephalosporins is active
against
Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cephalothin
C. Ceftazidime
D. Cefotaxime
Key: C
561. Which of the following is NOT true about penicillins?
A. Penicillin V is absorbed orally
B. Benzathine penicillin is short acting penicillin
C. Cloxacillin is β-lactamase and acid resistant
D. Ampicillin is not resistant to β-lactamases
Key: B
562. Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
C. Leakage from cell membrane
D. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
Key: A
563. Carbenicillin:
A. Is effective in pseudomonas infection
B. Has no effect in Proteus infection
C. Is a macrolide antibiotic
D. Is administered orally
Key: A
564. A potent inhibitor of beta-lactamase is:
A. Carbenicillin
B. Clavulanic acid
C. Cefamandole
D. Idoxuridine
Key: B
565. All are true about cefuroxime except:
A. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
B. Third generation cephalosporin
C. Some acquired resistance with penicillin
D. More active against gram negative organisms
Key: B
566. Amoxycillin is better than ampicillin due to:
A. Better bioavailability if taken with food
B. Lesser bioavailability if taken with food
C. Incidence of diarrhea is higher
D. More active against Shigella and H. influenza
Key: A
567. Mechanism of action of penicillins and
cephalosporins is to inhibit:
A. Cell wall synthesis
B. Leakage from cell membrane
C. Protein synthesis
D. DNA gyrase
Key: A
568. The following organisms are known to develop
resistance to Penicillin except:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Treponema
Key: D
569. Ceftriaxone is:
A. IInd generation short acting cephalosporin
B. Has activity against beta lactamase producing
bacteria
C. IVth generation long acting cephalosporin
D. IIIrd generation long acting cephalosporin
Key: D
570. Acid susceptible penicillin is:
A. Methicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Cloxacillin
Key: A
571. All are first generation cephalosporins except:
A. Cefadroxil
B. Cefazolin
C. Cephalexin
D. Cefaclor
Key: D
572. Which is not a beta lactum antibiotic?
A. Penicillin
B. Carbepenem
C. Monobactum
D. Azithromycin
Key: D
573. Second generation cephalosporin that can be used
orally is:
A. Cefepime
B. Cefalothin
C. Cefaclor
D. Cefadroxil
Key: C
574. Third generation cephalosporin that can be given
orally is:
A. Cefixime
B. Cefpirome
C. Cefaclor
D. Cefadroxil
Key: A
575. Ampicillin is not given in Epstein-Bar virus (EBV)
infection due to:
A. Due to increased toxicity
B. Skin rash
C. Blindness
D. Convulsions
Key: B
576. Which among the following is not a beta lactamase
inhibitor?
A. Sulbactam
B. Calvulanic acid
C. Piperacillin
D. None
Key: C
577. Oral cephalosporin among these is:
A. Cefotaxime
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Cefaclor
D. Ceftazidime
Key: C
578. Beta lactam antibiotics act by inhibiting
A. Cell wall synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. RNA synthesis
D. DNA synthesis
Key: A
579. Which one of the following is a fourth generation
cephalosporin?
A. Cefuroxime
B. Ceftazidime
C. Cefepime
D. Cefamandole
Key: C
580. Neutropenia is associated with:
A. Nafcillin
B. Methicillin
C. Carbencillin
D. Ampicillin
Key: A
581. Which of the following mechanism is mainly
responsible for gentamicin induced ototoxicity?
A. Direct hair cell toxicity
B. Binding to and inhibition of hair cell Na+ K+
ATPase
C. Non-cumulative toxicity
D. Bind to Ca2+ channels
Key: A
582. Tetracycline is used for the prophylaxis of?
A. Cholera
B. Brucellosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Meningitis
Key: A
583. Which of the following should be monitored if
linezolid is given for more than 14 days?
A. Liver function tests
B. Kidney function test
C. Platelet count
D. Audiometry
Key: C
584. Erythromycin is given in intestinal hypomotility
because:
(a) It increases bacterial count
(b) It decreases bacterial count
(c) It binds to adenylyl cyclase
(d) It binds to motilin receptors
Key: D
585. True about aminoglycosides is all EXCEPT:
A. Are bacteriostatic
B. Distributed only extracellularly
C. Excreted unchanged in urine
D. Teratogenic
Key: A
586. Which of the following is not true regarding
tetracycline?
A. It is not teratogenic
B. It can cause tooth discoloration
C. It can result in superinfection
D. It can lead to pseudomembranous colitis
Key: A
587. The group of antibiotics that possesses additional anti-
inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is:
A. Tetracyclines
B. Polypeptide antibiotics
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Macrolides
Key: D
588. All of the following are risk factors for renal toxicity
caused by aminoglycosides EXCEPT:
A. Elderly patient
B. Hypokalemia
C. Simultaneous use of penicillin
D. Aminoglycoside administration in recent past
Key: C
589. Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis by:
A. Inhibition of initiation and misreading of mRNA
B. Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibiting the
binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to A site
C. Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity
D. Inhibiting translocation
Key: B
590. The antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis by
premature termination and which structurally
resembles amino acyl t-RNA is:
A. Tetracycline
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Puromycin
D. Erythromycin
Key: C
591. Ototoxicity of aminoglycoside is increased with
concurrent use of which of the following drug (s):
A. Cisplatin & Erythromycin
B. Furosemide & Vancomycin
C. Vincristine
D. None
Key: D
592. The following tetracycline has the potential to cause
vestibular toxicity:
A. Minocycline
B. Demeclocycline
C. Doxycycline
D. Tetracycline
Key: A
593. The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with
impaired renal function is:
A. Tetracycline
B. Demeclocycline
C. Oxytetracycline
D. Doxycycline
Key: D
594. The most important mechanism by which gram
negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is:
A. Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell
B. Acquisition of a plasmid encoded for
chloramphenicol acetyl transferase
C. Lowered affinity of the bacterial ribosome for
chloramphenicol
D. Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial
protein synthesis
Key: B
595. Bactericidal inhibitors of protein synthesis are:
A. Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Macrolides
D. Lincosamides
Key: B
596. Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most
frequently as an adverse reaction to the following
preparation of erythromycin:
A. Erythromycin base
B. Erythromycin stearate
C. Erythromycin estolate
D. Erythromycin ethyl succinate
Key: C
597. The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is:
A. Minocycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Demeclocycline
D. Oxytetracycline
Key: A
598. Which of the following drugs is most effective against
an organism producing aminoglycoside inactivating
enzymes?
A. Amikacin
B. Streptomycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Tobramycin
Key: A
599. The mechanism of action of tetracyclines involves:
A. Binding of a component of the 50S ribosomal
subunits
B. Inhibition of translocase activity
C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to
bacterial ribosomes
D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl
transferase
Key: C
600. This inhibitor of bacterial protein synthesis has a
narrow spectrum of antibacterial activity. It has been
used in the management of abdominal abscess caused
by Bacteroides fragilis, but antibiotic associated
colitis has occurred. Which of the following drugs is
being described?
A. Clarithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Minocycline
D. Ticarcillin
Key: B
601. Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting
bacterial protein synthesis?
A. Bacitracin
B. Dapsone
C. Ethambutol
D. Streptomycin
Key: D
602. Which of the following aminoglycosides has highest
nephrotoxicity?
A. Paramomycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Amikacin
D. Neomycin
Key: D
603. Auditory toxicity is maximum with:
A. Streptomycin
B. Kanamycin
C. Tobramycin
D. Amikacin
Key: D
604. Erythromycin acts by interfering with
A. Translocation of 50S ribosome
B. Translocation of 50S ribosome
C. Transcription of 50 S ribosome
D. Signal transduction of 50 S ribosome
Key: A
605. Single dose aminoglycoside administration is more
preferable than 8 hourly dose because of:
A. MIC
B. Increase perfusion of renal cortex
C. Post antibiotic effect
D. None
Key: C
606. Linezolid is best used for
A. MRSA
B. VRSA
C. K.pneumoniae
D. coli
Key: B
607. Doxycycline is used in the treatment of following
diseases EXCEPT:
A. Leptospirosis
B. Q fever
C. Borrelliosis
D. All of the above
Key: D
608. Fluoroquinolone having longest half-life is:
A. Levofloxacin
B. Lomefloxacin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Moxifloxacin
Key: D
609. Cotrimoxazole can be used for the treatment of all of
the following except:
A. Chancroid
B. Lower urinary tract infections
C. Prostatitis
D. Typhoid
Key: A
610. A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain
and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the
probable cause?
A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Kawasaki’s disease
Key: A
611. Folic acid metabolism is inhibited by:
A. Sulfonamides
B. Methotrexate
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Trimethoprim
E. 5-Flucytosine
Key: A
612. Which of the following blocks replication without
getting involved in the DNA strand?
A. Cytarabine & 6-Mercaptopurine
B. Nalidixic acid & Ciprofloxacin
C. 5-Fluorouracil
D. All
Key: B
613. In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia the risk of
kernicterus increases with the use of:
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Ampicillin
D. Sulfonamide
Key: D
614. All of the following are topically used sulfonamides
EXCEPT:
A. Sulfacetamide
B. Sulfasalazine
C. Silver sulfadiazine
D. Mafenide
Key: B
615. Which of the following statements is NOT true
regarding sulfonamides?
A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
B. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide
administration
C. Sulfonamide administration to newborn may
cause kernicterus
D. Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of
infections due to Norcardia species.
Key: A
616. Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not
require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine
clearance of < 50 mg/min?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Trovafloxacin
C. Lomefloxacin
D. Sparfloxacin
Key: B
617. Sparfloxacin and astemizole can cause:
A. Ventricular arrhythmia
B. Myopathy
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Nephropathy
Key: A
618. Which of the following statements about
sulfonamides is FALSE?
A. Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate
reductase
B. Dysfunction of the basal ganglia may occur in the
newborn if sulfonamides are administered late in
pregnancy
C. Sulfonamide crystalluria is most likely to occur at
low urinary pH
D. Sulfonamides are antimetabolites
Key: A
619. Which of the following statements about the
fluoroquinolones is FALSE?
A. Gonococcal resistance to fluoroquinolones may
involve changes in DNA gyrase
B. Modification of fluoroquinolones dosage is
required in patients if creatinine clearance is less
than 50 mL/ min
C. A fluoroquinolone is the drug of choice for
treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract
infection in a 7 year-old girl
D. Fluoroquinolones inhibit relaxation of positively
supercoiled DNA
Key: C
620. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely
to occur with sulfonamides?
A. Neurologic effects including headache, dizziness,
and lethargy
B. Hematuria
C. Fanconi’s anemia
D. Skin reactions
Key: D
621. Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against
Mycobacterium leprae and is being used in alternative
multidrug therapy regimens:
A. Norfloxacin
B. Ofloxacin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Lomefloxacin
Key: B
622. Maximum incidence of phototoxicity is associated
with:
A. Norfloxacin
B. Sparfloxacin
C. Lomefloxacin
D. Cotrimoxazole
Key: B
623. Methanamine salts are used as urinary antiseptics.
The reason they lack systemic antibacterial action is
that they are:
A. Not absorbed into systemic circulation after oral
use
B. Rapidly metabolized by liver drug metabolizing
enzymes
C. Converted to formaldehyde at low urinary pH
D. Substrates for active tubular secretion
Key: C
624. A contraindication to the use of ciprofloxacin is a
history of:
A. Epilepsy
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Gout
D. G-6 PD deficiency
Key: A
625. The combination of trimethoprim and
sulphamethoxazole is effective against which of the
following opportunistic infections in the AIDS
patient?
A. Disseminated Herpes simplex
B. Cryptococcal meningitis
C. Pneumocystis jiroveci
D. Tuberculosis
Key: C
626. Ciprofloxacin should not be given to an asthmatic
using theophylline because:
A. Ciprofloxacin inhibit theophylline metabolism
B. Theophylline inhibits ciprofloxacin metabolism
C. Ciprofloxacin decreases effect of theophylline
D. Theophylline induces metabolism of
ciprofloxacin
Key: A
627. Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is:
A. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibits protein synthesis
C. Inhibits DNA gyrase
D. Interferes with intermediary metabolism
Key: C
628. Eye drops of which sulphonamide is used clinically?
(a) Sulfacetamide
(b) Sulfamethoxazole
(c) Sulfinpyrazone
(d) All
Key: A
629. Which is of the following can be used safely in renal
failure?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ofloxacin
C. Lomefloxacin
D. Pefloxacin
Key: D
630. Drug-induced colitis is most frequently associated
with:
A. Neomycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Chloramphenicol
Key: C
631. A 26 year old patient presents with suspected
pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for
antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic
should be given till culture sensitivity result come?
A. Penicillin G
B. Ceftriaxone + metronidazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Cefotaxime + vancomycin
Key: D
632. A patient develops an infection of methicillin resistant
Staphylococcus aureus. All of the following can be
used to treat this infection except:
A. Cotrimoxazole
B. Cefaclor
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Vancomycin
Key: B
633. Drug of choice for syphilis in a pregnant lady is:
A. Penicillin
B. Azithromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ceftriaxone
Key: A
634. A patient diagnosed as having ventilator associated
pneumonia, is on treatment with ceftriaxone and
amikacin. Culture and sensitivity turned out to be
positive for ESBL producing Klebsiella infection. The
most appropriate next action should be:
A. Continue same antibiotic but at higher dose
B. Replace ceftazidime for ceftriaxone
C. Remove amikacin and add quinolone
D. Change over to imipenem.
Key: D
635. Which of the following antibiotic is used in the
treatment of Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Metronidazole
C. Piperacillin
D. Clindamycin
Key: B
636. Which of the following drug should not be used to
treat
Klebsiella infection?
A. Ampicillin
B. Amikacin
C. Imipenem
D. Tigecycline
Key: A
637. Drug of choice for chlamydial infection in pregnancy
is:
A. Doxycycline
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: C
638. Which of the following drugs is effective against
Pseudomonas infection?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Colistin
D. Cefixime
Key: C
639. Drug of choice for treatment of infection caused by
methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus is:
A. Macrolides
B. Third generation cephalosporins
C. Carbapenems
D. Glycopeptides
Key: D
640. Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus is not
expected to respond to
A. Aminoglycoside
B. Lincosamide
C. Oxazolidinone
D. Carbapenem
Key: D
641. Fixed drug eruptions can be seen more frequently
with:
A. Penicillin
B. Sulfonamide
C. Cetrizine
D. Roxithromycin
Key: B
642. Which of the following penicillins is effective against
pseudomonas?
A. Piperacillin
B. Amoxycillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Oxacillin
Key: A
643. Drug of choice for prophylaxis of diphtheria is:
A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Amikacin
Key: B
644. Which of the following is least nephrotoxic?
A. Streptomycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Polymixin B
D. Doxycycline
Key: D
645. Drug commonly used against enteric fever are all
EXCEPT:
A. Amikacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Azithromycin
Key: A
646. Which of the following is an antipseudomonal
antibiotic?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Vancomycin
C. Cefaclor
D. Tetracycline
Key: A
647. Which of the following drugs is not used for MRSA?
A. Cefaclor
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Vancomycin
Key: A
648. Which of the following medications is contraindicated
in patients with allergy to sulfonamides
A. Levobunolol
B. Bimatoprost
C. Brinzolamide
D. Brimonidine
Key: C
649. A diabetic patient develops cellulitis due to
Staphylococcus aureus that was found to be
methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity
testing. All of the following antibiotics will be
appropriate EXCEPT:
A. Vancomycin
B. Imipenem
C. Teicoplanin
D. Linezolid
Key: B
650. All of the following drugs can cause renal failure
EXCEPT:
A. Cephaloridine
B. Amphotericin B
C. Cefoperazone
D. Gentamicin
Key: C
651. The treatment of contacts of meningococcal
meningitis is by:
A. Rifampicin
B. Erythromycin
C. Penicillin
D. Cephalosporin
Key: A
652. Which of the following is not an anti-pseudomonal
agent?
A. Vancomycin
B. Ticarcillin
C. Ceftazidime
D. Tobramycin
Key: A
653. A patient has hepatic encephalopathy. The drug of
choice for gut sterilization in this patient is:
A. Neomycin
B. Netilmicin
C. Bleomycin
D. None of the above
Key: A
654. Which of the following drug causes pseudotumor
cerebri?
A. Sparfloxacin
B. Tetracycline
C. Gentamicin
D. Clofazimine
Key: B
655. In a chronic alcoholic patient all of the following
drugs should be avoided EXCEPT:
A. Cefamandole
B. Metronidazole
C. Chlorpropamide
D. Beclomethasone
Key: D
656. Drugs that can be used for outpatient treatment of
community acquired pneumonia are
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Imipenem
C. Azithromycin
D. Doxycycline
Key: C & D
657. Drugs that should be avoided in a patient with seizure
disorder are:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cycloserine
C. Glucocorticoids
D. All
Key: D
658. Treatment of choice for Salmonella typhi is:
A. Cephalexin
B. Gentamicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: D
659. Drug of choice for methicillin resistant staphy-
lococcus aureus (MRSA) is
A. Amoxicillin-Clavulanate
B. Vancomycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Erythromycin
Key: B
660. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause
loss of equilibrium and auditory damage?
A. Amikacin
B. Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifabutin
Key: A
661. Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to
require dosage reduction in renal dysfunction?
A. Amikacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Clindamycin
D. Vancomycin
Key: C
662. Antimicrobials effective against anaerobic bacteria
include the following EXCEPT:
A. Tobramycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Metronidazole
Key: A
663. Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat
both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant
Staphylococcus aureus infections:
A. Clarithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Linezolid
D. Lincomycin
Key: C
664. For a 23 old pregnant female having severe
sensitivity to amoxicillin, drug used to treat
gonorrhoea in a single dose should be
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Tetracycline
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Spectinomycin
Key: D
665. The drug that should be used for prophylaxis of close
contacts of a patient suffering from meningococcal
meningitis is:
A. Rifampicin
B. Dapsone
C. Erythromycin
D. Amikacin
Key: A
666. A 14 year old boy present with headache, fever and
cough for 2 days. Sputum is scant and non-purulent
and gram stain reveals many white cells but no
organisms.
The treatment should be initiated with:
A. Cefazolin
B. Erythromycin
C. Amikacin
D. Trovafloxacin
Key: B
667. Drugs that can be used to treat infections caused by
Bacteroides fragilis are all EXCEPT:
A. Metronidazole
B. Trovafloxacin
C. Vancomycin
D. Amikacin
Key: D
668. A patient needs antibiotic treatment for artificial
valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal
endocarditis. His medical history includes severe
anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past
year. The best approach would be treatment with:
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
B. Aztreonam
C. Cefazolin plus gentamicin
D. Vancomycin
Key: D
669. In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal
endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin
because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be
effective is:
A. Clarithromycin
B. Linezolid
C. Minocycline
D. Ticarcillin
Key: B
670. Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic
associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a
component of anti H. pylori triple drug regimen:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Vancomycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clotrimazole
Key: C
671. This drug depolarizes cell membranes of aerobic gram
positive bacteria. It is effective against vancomycin
resistant enterococcal infections. It may cause
myopathy especially in patients taking statins. It is:
A. Teicoplanin
B. Daptomycin
C. Linezolid
D. Streptogramin
Key: B
672. A patient of abdominal sepsis was started on
empirical treatment with intravenous ampicillin and
gentamicin.
Regarding the treatment of this patient, which
statement is most accurate?
A. Empirical treatment of abdominal sepsis should
always include a third generation cephalosporin
B. A drug active against anaerobe should be
included in the antibiotic regimen
C. Combination of ampicillin and gentamicin
provides good coverage for all likely pathogens
D. If the patient is severely allergic to ampicillin,
then ceftriaxone should be used
Key: B
673. Red man syndrome occurs with
A. Clindamycin
B. Teicoplanin
C. Vancomycin
D. Polymyxin
Key: C
674. Which of the following antimicrobials needs dose
reduction even in mild renal failure?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Carbenicillin
C. Cefotaxime
D. Ethambutol
Key: D
675. Which of the following drug can cause cartilage
damage in children?
A. Cotrimoxazole
B. Penicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
Key: C
676. Gray baby syndrome is caused by:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Phenytoin
D. Gentamycin
Key: B
677. Macrocytic anaemia is caused by all EXCEPT:
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Methotrexate
C. Pentamidine
D. Trimethoprim
Key: C
678. Which of the following drugs is most commonly
associated with Clostridium difficile colitis?
A. Vancomycin
B. Metronidazole
C. Clindamycin
D. Erythromycin
Key: C
679. Which of the following is not nephrotoxic?
A. Tobramycin
B. Kanamycin
C. Ampicillin
D. Amphotericin B
Key: C
680. Dose of which of the following antibiotic does not
require alteration in renal failure?
A. Vancomycin
B. Ethambutol
C. Erythromycin
D. Metronidazole
Key: C
681. Drug of choice for sore throat caused by Group A
beta hemolytic streptococcus is:
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Sulfonamides
Key: B
682. Nephrotoxicity is seen with:
A. Doxycycline
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Erythromycin
D. Rifampicin
Key: B
683. Drug which should not be given in renal disease is:
A. Gentamicin
B. Nitroprusside
C. Doxycycline
D. Ceftriaxone
Key: A
684. Drug causing megaloblastic anemia is:
A. INH
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Methyldopa
Key: C
685. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is seen in syphilis with:
A. Tetracyclines
B. Penicillins
C. Co-trimoxazole
D. Sulfonamides
Key: B
686. Which of the following drug is not used against
Pseudomonas?
A. Piperacillin
B. Carbenicillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Oxacillin
Key: D
687. Red cell aplasia can be caused by:
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Penicillins
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: B
688. Which of the following drug is safe during
pregnancy?
A. Aminoglycoside
B. Ampicillin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Cotrimoxazole
Key: B
689. Which one of the following is used in the prophylaxis
of streptococcal sore throat?
A. Phenoxy methyl penicillin
B. Inj. Benzathine Penicillin
C. Crystalline penicillin
D. Both A and B are true
Key: B
690. Drug of choice for plague is:
A. Erythromycin
B. Tetracyclines
C. Ampicillin
D. Cotrimoxazole
Key: B
691. Which one of the following is primarily
bacteriostatic?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Vancomycin
D. Rifampicin
Key: B
692. Drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal
meningitis is:
A. Penicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Septran
D. Rifampicin
Key: D
693. Drug with high degree of photosensitivity is:
A. Tetracycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Minocycline
D. Methacycline
Key: B
694. Drug used for treatment of methicillin resistant
staphylococcus aureus is:
A. Teicoplanin
B. Vancomycin
C. Both
D. None
Key: C
695. Drug of choice in pertussis is
A. Penicillin
B. Doxycycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: C
696. Drug effective against pseudomonas is:
A. Penicillin G
B. Gentamicin
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloramphenicol
Key: B
697. Treatment of choice for chancroid is:
A. Penicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Tetracyclines
D. Erythromycin
Key: D
698. Pseudomembranous colitis is associated mostly with
which drug?
A. Erythromycin
B. Ampicillin
C. Vancomycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: B
699. Drug of choice for primary syphilis is:
A. Ampicillin
B. Benzathine penicillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Tetracycline
Key: B
700. Drug of choice for syphilis during pregnancy is:
A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Benzathine penicillin
D. Tetracyclines
Key: C
701. Drug that is NOT contraindicated in G-6 PD
deficiency is:
A. Primaquine
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Dapsone
D. INH
Key: D
702. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in
pregnancy?
A. Chloroquine
B. Erythromycin
C. Ampicillin
D. Primaquine
Key: D
703. Absorption of which of the following drug increases
with food intake?
A. Tetracycline
B. Diazepam
C. Griseofulvin
D. Ampicilin
Key: C
704. Which of the following prokinetic drug acts on
motilin receptors?
A. Erythromycin
B. Metoclopramide
C. Loxiglumide
D. Cisapride
Key: A
705. The antibiotic which can be given safely in a pregnant
women is
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cefuroxime
C. Metronidazole
D. Chloramphenicol
Key: B
706. Drug of choice for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection
is:
A. Gentamicin
B. Amoxyclillin
C. Azithromycin
D. Cefotaxime
Key: C
707. Drug of choice for acute (pneumococcal) lobar
pneumonia is:
A. Amoxicillin clavulanic acid combination
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Co-trimoxazole
D. Crystalline penicillin (Pen. G)
Key: D
708. Drug of choice for acute meningococcal pyogenic
meningitis is:
A. Crystalline penicillin (Pen. G)
B. Sulphonamides
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Amoxycillin
Key: A
709. Which of the following is not given in myasthenia
gravis:
A. Clofibrate
B. Polymixin B
C. Penicillin
D. All
Key: B
710. Which of following drug’s absorption is increased in
gastric achlorhydria?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Penicillin G
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Ciprofloxacin
Key: B
711. Which does not cause pseudomembranous
enterocolitis?
A. Vancomycin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Clindamycin
D. Ceftazidime
Key: A
712. Single dose treatment for chlamydia is?
A. Doxycycline
B. Tetracycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Erythromycin
Key: C
713. Mechanism of action of quinolones is by?
A. Inhibiting DHFRase
B. Inhibiting DNA gyrase
C. Inhibiting protein synthesis
D. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
Key: B
714. Longest acting sulphonamide is –
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Sulfadoxine
C. Sulfamethoxazole
D. Sulfamethiazole
Key: B
715. Widest spectrum aminoglycoside is –
A. Streptomycin
B. Amikacin
C. Framycetin
D. Netilmicin
Key: B
716. Penicillinase resistant penicillins include all of the
following drugs except:
A. Flucloxacillin
B. Nafcillin
C. Oxacillin
D. Carbenicillin
Key: D
717. Ampicillin is used in:
A. Listeria
B. Pertussis
C. Atypical pneumonia
D. Gonococci
Key: A
718. Pseudomonas is resistant to:
A. Vancomycin
B. Aztreonam
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Polymyxin B
Key: A
719. Which of the following is contra-indicated in
pregnancy?
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Chloroquine
Key: A
720. Red man syndrome is due to:
A. Vancomycin
B. Polymyxin
C. Rifampicin
D. Teicoplanin
Key: A
721. Drug of choice for syphilis is –
A. Penicillin
B. Rifampicin
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
Key: A
722. Bleeding is a risk with the use of:
A. Cefaloridine
B. Cefazolin
C. Moxalactum
D. Ceftazidime
Key: C
723. Sulphonamides act by:
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Non-competitive inhibition
C. Allosteric inhibition
D. None of these
Key: A
724. All are true about ciprofloxacin except –
A. Contra-indicated in pregnancy
B. DNA inhibition
C. Most potent first generation fluoroquinolone
D. More active at acidic pH
Key: D
725. Drug inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis are all
except:
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Clindamycin
D. Sulfonamides
Key: D
726. Actinomycete is the source of which of the following
anti microbials?
A. Tetracycline
B. Polyene
C. Aztreonam
D. Colistin
Key: A
727. Drug that can cause hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is:
A. Tertacycline
B. Erythromycin
C. Ampicillin
D. Rifampicin
Key: B
728. Drug that inhibits cell wall synthesis is?
A. Tetracyclines
B. Penicillins
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Chloramphenicol
Key: B
729. Which of the following tetracycline can be used in
renal failure without dose adjustment?
A. Oxytetracycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Demeclocycline
D. Tetracycline
Key: B
730. Drug used in prophylaxis of meningococcal
meningitis is:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Penicillin
D. Gentamicin
Key: B
731. Mechanism of action of quinolones is:
A. DNA gyrase inhibitors
B. Bind to 30 S unit of ribosomes and inhibit protein
synthesis
C. Bind to bacterial cell membrane
D. Bind to tetra hydro folate reductase
Key: A
732. Drug of choice in pregnant women with secondary
syphills is:
A. Doxycycline
B. Benzathine Penicillin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cotrimoxazole
Key: B
733. True about imipenem is:
A. It is narrow spectrum antibiotic
B. It is easily broken by beta lactamases
C. It should be used with cilastatin
D. It is used with sulbactam
Key: C
734. Which among the following is not a beta lactamase
resistant Penicillin?
A. Methicillin
B. Carbenicillin
C. Nafcillin
D. Oxacillin
Key: B
735. Drug of choice for Treponema pallidum is:
A. Penicillin G
B. Tetracycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Doxycycline
Key: A
736. All are third generation Cephalosporins except:
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Ceftazidime
C. Cefuroxime
D. Cefoperazone
Key: C
737. Treatment for clostridial myonecrosis is:
A. Amikacin
B. Penicillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Gentamicin
Key: B
738. All of the following have beta lactam ring except:
A. Penicillin
B. Linezolid
C. Cefotaxime
D. Imipenem
Key: B
739. Drug of choice for treatment of infections caused by
MRSA is:
A. Metronidazole
B. Vancomycin
C. Imipenem
D. Clindamycin
Key: B
740. The antibiotic causing pseudomembrane colitis is:
A. Clindamycin
B. Garamycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Vancomycin
Key: A
741. An aminoglycoside that is resistant to majority of
inactivating enzymes is:
A. Gentamicin
B. Amikacin
C. Tobramycin
D. Sisomicin
Key: B
742. All of the following Beta-Lactam antibiotics possess
antipseudomonal action, except:
A. Piperacillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Ceftazidime
D. Cefoperazone
Key: B
743. All of the following are common antimicrobial agents
used in treatment of typhoid fever except:
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Quinolones
C. Clindamycin
D. Azithromycin
Key: C
744. The drug of choice in lymphogranuloma venereum is:
(a) Penicillin
(b) Ciprofloxacin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Erythromycin
Key: C
745. Antacid interfere with absorption of all of the
following except:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Azithromycin
C. Oxytetracycline
D. Ofloxacin
Key: B
746. All of the following are beta lactamase inhibitors
except:
A. Clavulanic acid
B. Sulbactam
C. Tazobactam
D. Aztreonam
Key: D
747. Which one of the following is true about the beta
lactam antibiotics:
A. All are based on the 6-amino-penicillanic acid
structure
B. Include amikacin
C. Are safe in pregnancy
D. Are uniformly ineffective against pseudomonas
aeruginosa
Key: C
748. Antibiotic which is effective as a single dose therapy
for trachoma is:
A. Doxycycline
B. Clarithromycin
C. Azithromycin
D. Erythromycin
Key: C
749. The prophylactic antibiotic indicated to prevent
infection in lymphoedema is:
A. Vancomycin
B. Penicillin
C. Amikacin
D. Quinolones
Key: A
750. Drug of choice in dermatitis herpetiformis is:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Colchicine
C. Dapsone
D. Chloroquine
Key: C
751. The preferred treatment option for primary syphilis is:
A. Injection Benzathine pencillin 2.4 million units
IM single dose
B. Injection Benzathine penicillin 2.4 million units
IM once a week for 3 weeks
C. Cap. Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice a day for
2 weeks
D. Tab. Azithromycin 2 gm single dose
Key: A
752. A diabetic patient developed cellulites due to S.
aureus, which was found to be methicillin resistant on
antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following
antibiotics would be appropriate except:
A. Linezolid
B. Vancomycin
C. Teicoplanin
D. Imipenem
Key: D
753. Which of the following antibacterial causes both
ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity:
(a) Methicillin
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Azithromycin
Key: B
754. Oral vancomycin can be used for treatment of:
A. Hepatic encephalopathy
B. Pseudomembranous colitis
C. Staphylococcal food poisoning
D. None of the above
Key: B
755. Which of the following is responsible for antibiotic
associated colitis:
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Actinomyces species
Key: C
756. All of the following drugs can cause cholestatic
jaundice except:
A. Ethambutol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Erythromycin estolate
D. Estrogens
Key: A
757. Which of the following antibiotics class is not safe in
pregnancy:
(a) Quinolones
(b) Cephalosporins
(c) Penicillins
(d) Macrolides
Key: A
758. Which of the following drugs is avoided in a patient
with high serum creatinine (> 3 mg/dl)?
A. Gentamicin
B. Azithromycin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Amlodipine
Key: A
759. Which of the following is used in the prophylactic
treatment of rheumatic heart disease:
A. Ampicillin
B. Penicillin-G
C. Bezathine penicillin
D. Phenoxy-methyl penicillin
Key: C
760. Which amongst the following antimicrobials exhibits
a long post antibiotic effect:
A. Quinolones
B. Macrolides
C. Beta-lactams
D. Oxazolidinones
Key: A
761. Which of the following is used as prophylaxis for
meningococcal meningitis?
A. Gentamicin
B. Erythromycin
C. Rifampicin
D. Chloramphenicol
Key: C
762. Which of the following drugs is most effective against
an organism producing aminoglycoside inactivating
enzymes?
A. Tobramycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Amikacin
D. Streptomycin
Key: C
763. The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that
may occur after limited exposure to some
antimicrobial drug is called?
A. Time dependent killing
B. Concentration dependent killing
C. Post antibiotic effect
D. Sequential blockade
Key: C
764. Prophylactic antibiotics to prevent surgical site
infection are best administered:
A. After commencement of surgery
B. 30 minutes before incision
C. At the end of surgery
D. With pre medication
Key: B
765. Which of the following antimicrobial agents act solely
on the gram positive bacterial cell wall:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Gentamicin
C. Tetracycline
D. Vancomycin
Key: D
766. Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial synthesis of folic acid
by:
A. Uncompetitive inhibition
B. Allosteric inhibition
C. Competitive inhibition
D. Noncompetitive inhibition
Key: C
767. Which of the following drugs is an anti-pseudomonal
penicillin?
A. Cephalexin
B. Dicloxacillin
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
Key: C
768. Which can be given safely in renal failure?
A. Tetracycline
B. Gentamicin
C. Amphotericin B
D. Doxycycline
Key: D
769. Drug of choice in pneumonia caused by P carnii is:
A. Penicillin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Kanamycin
D. Levofloxacin
Key: B
770. Which of the following drugs is a 4th generation
cephalosporin?
A. Cefixime
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Cefpirome
D. Cefazolin
Key: C
771. Which of the following drugs should not be given in
renal failure?
A. Clindamycin
B. Methicillin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Rifampicin
Key: B
772. Beta lactam antibiotics are all except:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Aztreonam
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Vancomycin
Key
773. All of the following drugs are administered orally
except:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Gentamicin
D. Amoxicillin
Key: C
774. Aplastic anemia is the adverse effect of:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Penicillin
D. Gentamicin
Key: A
775. Highest photosensitivity is seen with:
A. Pefloxacin
B. Gatifloxacin
C. Levofloxacin
D. Sparfloxacin
Key: D
776. Drug most commonly implicated in causing pseudo
membranous colitis is:
A. Clindamycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Metronidazole
Key: A
777. Which of the following is a side effect of
streptomycin?
A. Phototoxicity
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. All of the above
Key: C
778. Not true about vancomycin is:
A. 95% oral bioavailability
B. Inhibits cells wall synthesis
C. Can be used parenterally as well as orally
D. Indicated for MRSA infections
Key: A
779. Dosage of topical tobramycin eye drops:
A. 1 mg/ml
B. 2 mg/ml
C. 3 mg/ml
D. 4 mg/ml
Key: C
780. Route of administration of vancomycin in
pseudomembranous colitis is:
A. i.m.
B. oral
C. i.v.
D. s.c.
Key: B
781. Dosage of benzyl penicillin in treatment of primary
syphilis is:
A. 1.2 MU single i.m.
B. 1.2 MU single i.v.
C. 2.4 MU single i.m.
D. 4.8 MU single i.m.
Key: C
782. Treatment of non-specific urethritis is:
A. Erythromycin
B. Sulphonamides
C. Tetracycline
D. Ampicillin
Key: C
783. Hemolysis in G-6 deficiency is precipitated by all of
the following except:
A. Dapsone
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Quinine
D. Penicillin
Key: D
784. In treatment of Pseudomonas infections, carbenicillin
is frequently combined with:
A. Penicillin
B. Gentamicin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Amoxycillin
Key: B
785. All of the following are true regarding cephalosporins
except:
A. Bactericidal agents
B. Active against only gram negative bacteria
C. IIIrd Generation are resistant to β-lactamases
from gram negative bacteria
D. ceftriaxone is administered parenterally
Key: B
786. Which antimalarial drug can be safely administered in
baby with glucose-6-phosphagte dehydrogenase
deficiency?
A. Chloroquinine
B. Quinine
C. Mefloquine
D. Primaquine
Key: C
787. Drug used in the treatment of resistant gonorrhoea is:
A. Penicillin
B. Cotrimoxazone
C. Spectinomycin
D. Erythromycin
Key: C
788. Penicillinase resistant penicillin is:
A. Methicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Carbenecillin
D. Ticarcillin
Key: A
789. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be
effective against multidrug-resistant strains of M.
tuberculosis, including those resistant to
streptomycin?
A. Amikacin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Spectinomycin
Key: A
790. Slow acetylators of isoniazid are more prone to
develop:
A. Failure of therapy
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Allergic reactions
Key: B
791. Prolonged treatment with INH leads to deficiency of?
A. Pyridoxine
B. Thiamine
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Niacin
Key: A
792. Pseudojaundice is an adverse effect of:
A. Phenytoin
B. Rifabutin
C. Omeprazole
D. Chlorpromazine
Key: B
793. Commonest side effect of Dapsone is:
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Cyanosis
D. Bone marrow depression
Key: A
794. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethionamide
C. Cycloserine
D. Ethambutol
Key: B
795. Ethambutol causes:
A. Retrobulbar neuritis
B. Deafness
C. Red urine
D. Peripheral neuritis
Key: A
796. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is safe in
hepatitis?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
Key: D
797. A 30 year old pregnant woman develops tuberculosis.
Which of the following antitubercular drugs should
not be used?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol
Key: C
798. Patients suffering from multidrug resistant
tuberculosis can be treated with all the following
drugs EXCEPT:
A. Tobramycin
B. Amikacin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Clarithromycin
Key: A
799. Which anti-tubercular drug is implicated in the
causation of transient memory loss?
A. Ethionamide
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Key: B
800. All of the following are true about the therapy of
tuberculosis EXCEPT:
A. Flu like syndrome is usually seen with rifampicin
being taken on daily basis
B. Ethambutol accumulates in renal failure
C. Hyperuricemia is a recognized side effect of
pyrazinamide
D. Red green color impairment is an early sign of
ethambutol induced optic neuritis
Key: A
801. In leprosy, the best bactericidal agent is:
A. Clofazimine
B. Dapsone
C. Rifampicin
D. Ethionamide
Key: C
802. A patient suffering from AIDS is on zidovudine,
lamivudine and indinavir therapy. He develops
pulmonary tuberculosis for which treatment is started.
Which of the following should be avoided in him?
A. INH
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampicin
Key: D
803. Most effective drug against extracellular
mycobacteria is:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
Key: B
804. Hypothyroidism is caused by which of the following
anti-tubercular drug?
A. Streptomycin
B. Ethionamide
C. Thioacetazone
D. Ethambutol
Key: B
805. ATT causing orange coloured urine is:
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Streptomycin
D. Pyrazinamide
Key: A
806. Which of the following antitubercular drug is not
hepatotoxic:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethionamide
D. Streptomycin
Key: D
807. ATT most commonly implicated in causing peripheral
neuropathy is:
A. Rifampicin
B. Pyrazinamide
C. INH
D. Ethambutol
Key: C
808. Arthralgia is commonly caused by which ATT drug?
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
Key: C
809. Which of the following antitubercular drugs can be
safely used in severe renal failure:
A. Streptomycin
B. Ethambutol
C. Capreomycin
D. Rifampicin
Key: D
810. A patient of multidrug resistant tuberculosis is on
antitubercular drugs. After a few months he develops
inability to distinguish between red and green color.
Most likely drug causing these symptoms is:
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Cycloserine
D. Ethionamide
Key: B
811. Which of the following drugs is useful in the
treatment of infection by Mycobacterium avium
complex?
A. Isoniazid
B. Clarithromycin
C. Cycloserine
D. Rifampicin
Key: B
812. Which of the following antitubercular drugs can cause
psychosis?
A. Ofloxacin
B. Cycloserine
C. Capreomycin
D. Rifampicin
Key: B
813. INH induced peripheral neuropathy results from
deficiency of vitamin:
A. B1
B. B2
C. B6
D. B12
Key: C
814. Antitubercular drug which DOES NOT cross blood
brain barrier is:
A. Streptomycin
B. INH
C. Rifampicin
D. Pyrazinamide
Key: A
815. Which of the following antitubercular drugs can be
used in patients with hepatic dysfunction?
A. Streptomycin
B. INH
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampicin
Key: A
816. INH can be used safely in the presence of:
A. Jaundice
B. Chronic renal failure
C. Epilepsy
D. Coronary artery disease
Key: D
817. Which of the following antitubercular drug is
preferred in severe liver disease?
A. Streptomycin + Isoniazid
B. Streptomycin + Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
D. Rifamicin + Ethambutol
Key: B
818. Which of the following ATT has maximum CSF
penetration?
A. Streptomycin
B. INH
C. Rifampicin
D. Ethambutol
Key: B
819. Common dose dependant side effects of ethambutol
is:
A. Red-urine
B. Optic neuritis
C. Nephropathy
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Key: B
820. Most common drug used in Leprosy is:
A. Dapsone
B. Clofazimine
C. Ethionamide
D. Ofloxacin
Key: A
821. The bacterial drug resistance in tuberculosis results
from:
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Plasmid mediated
D. Mutation
Key: D
822. INH and pyridoxine are given together in
antituberculous chemotherapy:
A. To prevent peripheral neuritis
B. To prevent emergence of INH resistance
C. As a nutrient supplement
D. As a synergistic combination
Key: A
823. Dapsone is used in all except:
A. Dermatitis herpetiformis
B. Leprosy
C. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
Key: D
824. In Lepra reaction, the drug useful is:
A. Pencillins
B. Clofazimine
C. Dapsone
D. Rifampicin
Key: B
825. Antitubercular drug that can cause hyperuricemia is:
A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Key: C
826. Treatment of lepromatous leprosy is:
A. Rifampicin + Dapsone
B. Rifampicin + Clofazamine
C. Rifampicin + Dapsone + Clofazamine
D. Rifampicin + Ofloxacin + Minocycline
Key: C
827. Ethambutol should be used very cautiously in
childhood tuberculosis due to which of its side effect?
A. Ocular toxicity
B. Renal damage
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Neurotoxicity
Key: A
828. Which of the following drugs can produce dramatic
improvement in patients with Type II lepra reaction?
A. Thalidomide
B. Steroids
C. Dapsone
D. Clofazamine
Key: A
829. Mechanism of action of rifampicin is?
A. Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
B. DNA dependent RNA polymerase inhibition
C. Protein synthesis inhibition
D. Inhitits synthesis of arabinogalactone
Key: B
830. Drug that crosses placenta is:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. All
Key: D
831. Treatment of Mycobacteria avium complex include all
except:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Rifabutin
D. Pyrazinamide
Key: D
832. Which one of the following drugs is not used in the
treatment of mycobacterium avium intercellulare
infection?
A. Clarithromycin
B. Eflornithine
C. Ethambutol
D. Rifabutin
Key: B
833. Most important side effect of ethambutol is:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Renal toxicity
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Retro bulbar neuritis
Key: D
834. The following drugs are useful in the treatment of
isoniazid poisoning:
A. Pyridoxine
B. Diazepam
C. Bicarbonate
D. All of the above
Key: D
835. A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of
sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual
impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient
is:
A. Amphotericin B
B. Itraconazole
C. Ketoconazole
D. Broad spectrum antibiotics
Key: A
836. Amphotericin B causes deficiency of?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
Key: C
837. Amphotericin B toxicity can be reduced by?
A. Incorporating it in liposomal complex
B. Combining with fluconazole
C. Combining with flucytosine
D. Injecting the drug with dextrose
Key: A
838. Voriconazole is not effective against:
A. Candida albicans
B. Mucormycosis
C. Candida tropicalis
D. Aspergillosis
Key: B
839. Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and
candidal infections?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Tolnaftate
Key: A
840. Which of the following is caused by amphotericin B?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyponatremia
Key: A
841. The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol
biosynthesis is:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Amphotericin B
C. 5-Flucytosine
D. Griseofulvin
Key: A
842. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for
cryptococcal meningitis?
A. Fluconazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin B
Key: D
843. Which of the following statements about fluconazole
is most accurate?
A. It is highly effective in the treatment of
aspergillosis
B. It does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier
C. Its oral bioavailability is less than that of
ketoconazole
D. It inhibits demethylation of lanosterol
Key: D
844. Which of the following statements about terbinafine is
FALSE?
A. Its activity is restricted to dermatophytes
B. It is effective in onychomycosis
C. It inhibits squalene epoxidase
D. It is used topically only
Key: D
845. Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that:
A. It is not active by the oral route
B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism
C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis
D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side
effects
Key: D
846. Fluconazole is more effective than itraconazole in the
following systemic fungal disease:
A. Pulmonary histoplasmosis
B. Cryptococcal meningitis
C. Non-meningeal blastomycosis
D. Disseminated sporotrichosis
Key: B
847. Resistance to acyclovir is most commonly due to
mutation in a viral gene that encodes a protein that:
A. Converts viral RNA into DNA
B. Phosphorylates acyclovir
C. Transports acyclovir into the cell
D. Transports acyclovir out of the cell
Key: B
848. A fungicidal drug that can be used orally for the
treatment of onychomycosis is:
A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphotericin B
C. Clotrimazole
D. Terbinafine
Key: D
849. Dose limiting toxicity of amphotericin B is:
A. Infusion related reaction
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Myelosuppression
D. Hypotension
Key: B
850. All of the following antifungal drugs inhibit
ergosterol biosynthesis EXCEPT:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Fluconazole
C. Amphotericin B
D. None of these
Key: C
851. Griseofulvin is not useful in one of the following:
A. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea cruris
C. Tinea versicolor
D. Tinea pedis
Key: C
852. Topically used antifungal agent is:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Clotrimazole
C. Amphotericin B
D. Physostigmine
Key: B
853. Which of the following is a broad spectrum systemic
antifungal agent?
A. Econazole
B. Miconazole
C. Ketoconazole
D. Clotrimazole
Key: C
854. Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:
A. Acyclovir
B. Zidovudine
C. Indinavir
D. Ribavarin
Key: A
855. Drug of choice for chronic hepatitis –B is
A. Lamivudine
B. IFN-alpha
C. Ribavirin
D. Zidovudine
Key: A
856. Drug that can cause complete histopathological
resolution in patients with hepatitis B is
A. Cyclosporin
B. Ribavarin
C. Entercavir
D. None of the above
Key: C
857. Mechanism of action of terbinafine is?
A. Binds to ergosterol
B. Prevents formation of purine
C. Inhition of microtubule formation
D. Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis
Key: D
858. Acyclovir is indicated in:
A. Candida
B. Herpes simplex
C. Mycoplasma
D. Pneumocystis
Key: B
859. Most serious adverse effect of ketoconazole is:
A. Adrenal insufficiency
B. Pellagra like skin lesion
C. Liver injury
D. Prostate cancer
Key: A
860. Induction of treatment in serious fungal infections is
mostly done by:
A. IV amphotericin B
B. Ketoconazole
C. 5 – Flucytosine
D. Fluconazole
Key: A
861. Drug of choice for Herpes simplex encephalitis is:
A. 5-Hydroxy deoxyuridine (5-HU)
B. Acyclovir
C. Gancyclovir
D. None of the above
Key: B
862. All of the following are common adverse effects of
HAART therapy except:
A. Steatosis
B. Lipodytrophy
C. Optic neuritis
D. Increased cholesterol
Key: C
863. A person is being treated for Human
Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed
hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolem0ia.
Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects
is:
A. Ritonavir
B. Raltegravir
C. Didanosine
D. Efavirenz
Key: A
864. Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV
transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to
child?
A. Lamivudine
B. Stavudine
C. Nevirapine
D. Didanosine
Key: C
865. Which of the following drug is a reverse transcriptase
inhibitor?
A. Indinavir
B. Ritonavir
C. Nelfinavir
D. Abacavir
Key: D
866. Maximum risk of pancreatitis is present with:
A. Didanosine
B. Lamivudine
C. Zidovudine
D. Abacavir
Key: D
867. Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:
A. Zidovudine
B. Lamivudine
C. Stavudine
D. Didanosine
Key: C
868. All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors
EXCEPT:
A. Nelfinavir
B. Saquinavir
C. Abacavir
D. Ritonavir
Key: C
869. Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is:
A. Zidovudine
B. Lamivudine
C. Stavudine
D. Didanosine
Key: C
870. All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors
EXCEPT:
A. Nelfinavir
B. Saquinavir
C. Abacavir
D. Ritonavir
Key: C
871. Which of the following anti-retroviral drugs does not
cause peripheral neuropathy?
A. Lamivudine
B. Stavudine
C. Didanosine
D. Zalcitabine
Key: A
872. Which of the following is most common side effect of
zidovudine?
A. Anemia
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Lactic acidosis
D. All
Key: A
873. Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated
falciparum malaria is:
A. Chloroquine
B. Quinine
C. Artesunate
D. Artemether
Key: C
874. Which of the following drugs can be used for the
treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?
A. Chloroquine
B. Doxycycline
C. Tetracycline
D. Clindamycin
Key: D
875. Which of the following is best associated with
lumefantrine?
A. Antimycobacterial
B. Antifungal
C. Antimalarial
D. Antiamoebic
Key: C
876. Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow
acting schizonticide?
A. Artemether
B. Mefloquine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Quinine
Key: C
877. Drug of choice for treatment of malaria due to P.
vivax in a 25 year old pregnant female is:
A. Chloroquine
B. Primaquine
C. Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine
D. Quinine
Key: A
878. Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords
clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by
Chloroquine sensitive/resistant P. falciparum as well
as P. vivax:
A. Quinine
B. Mefloquine
C. Artesunate
D. Proguanil
Key: B
879. Chloroquine is useful in:
A. Discoid lupus erythematosis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. All of the above
Key: D
880. Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine resistant
falciparum malaria is:
A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Primaquine
Key: A
881. Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax
malaria is:
A. Quinine
B. Primaquine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Chloroquine
Key: B
882. Chloroquine is given in high loading dose because of:
A. High volume of distribution
B. Poor GIT absorption
C. High first pass metabolism
D. All
Key: A
883. Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a
patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment?
A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Halofantrine
D. Mefloquine
Key: A
884. Radical cure is required for malaria caused by:
A. P. falciparum and P. vivax
B. P. falciparum and P. malariae
C. P. vivax and P. malariae
D. P. vivax and P. ovale
Key: D
885. Which antimalarial drug is known to cause
neuropsychiatric adverse reaction?
A. Artesunate
B. Artimisnin
C. Quinine
D. Mefloquine
Key: D
886. Drawback of artesunate is:
A. Poor bioavailability
B. Rapid recrudescence of malaria
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hemolysis
Key: B
887. Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial
drug increases with food intake?
A. Mefloquine
B. Lumefantrine
C. Chloroquine
D. Amodiaquine
Key: B
888. Patient is being admininstered i.v. quinine following
which he developed restlessness and sweating, the
most likely cause is:
A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Cinchonism
C. Arrhythmias
D. Sweating
Key: A
889. Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe
for use in pregnancy?
A. Atovaquone
B. Tetracycline
C. Proguanil
D. Primaquine
Key: C
890. Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:
A. It is rapidly absorbed
B. It is rapidly metabolized
C. It has increased tissue binding
D. It is rapidly eliminated
Key: C
891. Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in
pregnancy is:
A. Quinine
B. Mefloquine
C. Artemisinin
D. Sulphadoxine+ pyrimethamine
Key: A
892. Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:
A. Chloroquine
B. Tetracycline
C. Primaquine
D. Artesunate
Key: C
893. Potassium iodide is useful in the treatment of:
A. Sporotrichosis
B. Impetigo
C. Viral warts
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
Key: A
894. The drug most likely to be responsible for acute
pancreatitis is:
A. Didanosine
B. Ketoconazole
C. Saquinavir
D. Zidovudine
Key: A
895. The drug of choice for Kala azar is:
A. Pentamidine
B. Amphotericin B
C. Sodium stibogluconate
D. Ketoconazole
Key: B
896. What is true of ivermectin?
A. It is the most effective drug for strongyloidosis
B. It is the drug of choice for onchocerciasis
C. It can be used to treat scabies
D. All of the above
Key: D
897. Metronidazole is LEAST likely to be effective in the
treatment of:
A. Hepatic amoebiasis
B. Infection caused by Bacteroides fragilis
C. Pseudomembranous colitis
D. Pneumocystosis
Key: D
898. An antihelmenthic drug that is effective against blood
fluke, liver fluke, lung fluke and cysticercus is:
A. Albendazole
B. Praziquantal
C. Ivermectin
D. Thiabendazole
Key: B
899. Drug of choice for treatment of infestation due to
Onchocerca volvolus is:
A. Albendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Praziquantal
D. Suramin
Key: B
900. Which of the following antimalarial agents is most
commonly associated with acute hemolytic reaction in
patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
deficiency?
A. Chloroquine
B. Clindamycin
C. Mefloquine
D. Primaquine
Key: D
901. a 20 year old female developed antibiotic associated
pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium
difficile. Which of the following drugs is most likely
to be effective in the treatment of this disease?
A. Ampicillin
B. Clindamycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Chloramphenicol
Key: C
902. More than 90% of this drug is excreted in the urine in
intact form. Because its urinary solubility is low,
patients should be well hydrated to prevent
nephrotoxicity. The drug is:
A. Indinavir
B. Zidovudine
C. Acyclovir
D. Amantadine
Key: C
903. A 25 year old male was hospitalized with liver cyst
due to Echinococcus granulosus. He refused to
undergo surgery for removal of cyst. Therefore,
albendazole was used at high dose for 3 months. This
patient should be monitored for the toxicity to:
A. Gonads
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Peripheral nerves
Key: C
904. A 26-year-old male, presents to OPD complaining of
hair loss and itching on scalp. Physical examination
reveals moderate patchy hair loss from the central
portion of scalp and the lesions have ring like
configuration with central clearing. Which of the
following drugs can be used to treat this patient’s
condition?
A. Local glucocorticoids
B. Progesterone
C. Finasteride
D. Terbinafine
Key: D
905. Bull’s eye retinopathy is seen in:
A. Chloroquine
B. Methanol
C. Ethambutol
D. Steroids
Key: A
906. The drug of choice for schistosomiasis is:
A. Albendazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Praziquantel
D. Triclabendazole
Key: C
907. Hepatotoxic drugs are all EXCEPT:
A. Methotrexate
B. Isoniazid
C. Cycloserine
D. Ethionamide
Key: C
908. Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:
A. Praziquantel
B. Albendazole
C. Levamisole
D. Piperazine
Key: B
909. Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis
of
ascaris?
A. Albendazole
B. Pyrantel pamoate
C. Piperazine
D. Ivermectin
Key: C
910. DEC (Di-ethyl-carbamazine) is used for the treatment
of:
A. Filariasis
B. Dracunculiasis
C. Schistosomiasis
D. Taeniasis
Key: A
911. Which of the following drug is deposited in the
retina?
A. Isoniazid
B. Chloroquine
C. Rifampicin
D. Pyrizinamide
Key: B
912. Round worm infection is best treated with:
A. Metronidazole
B. Mebendazole
C. Albendazol
D. Pyrantel pamoate
Key: C
913. Drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis is:
A. Metronidazole
B. Ampicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Fluconazole
Key: A
914. Mebendazole cannot be used for)
A. Ascariasis
B. Entrobius vermicularis
C. Onchocercosis
D. Hydatid cyst disease
Key: C
915. Drug of choice for medical treatment of hydatid cyst
of liver is:
A. Praziquantel
B. Thiabendazole
C. Ivermectin
D. Albendazole
Key: D
916. Drug commonly used in the treatment of
echinococosis is:
A. Albendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Pyrental prermeated
D. Metronidazole
Key: A
917. Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:
A. Filariasis
B. Ascariasis
C. Teniasis
D. Hookworm infestation
Key: A
918. Drug amphotericin B is used for treatment of:
A. Sleeping sickness
B. Kala azar
C. Malaria
D. Filaria
Key: B
919. Drug that is not used in renal failure is:
A. Ethambutol
B. Rifampicin
C. Isoniazid
D. Streptomycin
Key: D
920. The antiretroviral drug which is also effective in
chronic active hepatitis-B infection is:
A. Zidovudine
B. Nelfinavir
C. Efavirenz
D. Lamivudine
Key: D
921. Drug of choice for hookworm infestation is:
A. Piperazine citrate
B. Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate
C. Mebendazole
D. Albendazole
Key: D
922. Drug of choice for ascariasis is:
A. Piperazine citrate
B. Bephenium hydroxynaphthoate
C. Mebendazole
D. Albendazole
Key: D
923. Drugs of choice for the treatment of
neurocysticercosis are:
A. Hydroquinone and metronidazole
B. Metronidazole and pyrental palmoate
C. Albendazole and praziquantal
D. Cyclophosphamide
Key: C
924. Oral contraceptive (OCP) failure by rifampicin is due
to:
A. Decreased absorption of OCPs
B. Increased binding of OCPs by rifampicin and
reduced free drug concentration
C. Increased metabolism of OCPs
D. Increased chances of ovulation due to rifampicin
Key: C
925. Drug causing icthyosis and hyperpigmentation, when
used in leprosy is:
A. Rifampicin
B. Dapsone
C. Clofazimine
D. Ethionamide
Key: C
926. Along with INH, which vitamin is given ?
A. Riboflavin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Niacin
D. Cyanocobalamin
Key: B
927. Drug of choice for acyclovir resistant herpes is:
A. Cidofovir
B. Gancyclovir
C. Valacyclovir
D. Foscarnet
Key: D
928. Drug of choice for exo-erythrocystic stage of malaria
is:
A. Chloroquine
B. Primaquine
C. Proguanil
D. Mefloquine
Key: B
929. Side effects of isoniazid are all except:
A. Hepatitis
B. Optic neuritis
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Thrombocytopenia
Key: D
930. Rifampicin acts by inhibiting:
A. DNA Dependent RNA polymerase
B. RNA dependent DNA polymerase
C. Mycolic acid inhibition
D. Mycolic acid incorporation defects
Key: A
931. Antifungal drug used for systemic fungal infection is:
A. Griseofulvin
B. Clotrimazole
C. Amphotericin B
D. Econazole
Key: C
932. Drug that can cause hyperuricemia is:
A. Pyrazinamide
B. INH
C. Rifampicin
D. None of the above
Key: A
933. Optic neuritis is caused by:
A. Ethambutol
B. INH
C. Rifampicin
D. Chlormycetin
Key: A
934. Mechanism of action of paclitaxel is:
A. Topoisomerase inhibition
B. Increases the polymerization of tubulin
C. Inhibits protein synthesis
D. Alkylation of DNA
Key: B
935. Bleomycin toxicity affects which type of cells:
A. Type-I pneumocytes
B. Type-II pneumocytes
C. Endothelial cells
D. Pulmonary alveolar macrophages
Key: A
936. Sustained neutropenia is seen with?
A. Vinblastine
B. Cisplatin
C. Carmustine
D. Cyclophosphamide
Key: C
937. Cyclophosphamide/Ifosfamide belongs to which
group of anticancer drugs?
A. Alkylating agents
B. Antimetabolites
C. Mitotic inhibitors
D. Topoisomerase inhibitor
Key: A
938. Anticancer drug causing SIADH as an adverse effect
is:
A. Vincristine
B. Paclitaxel
C. Dacarbazine
D. Cyclophosphamide
Key: A
939. Which of the following drugs is topoisomerase 1
inhibitor?
A. Doxorubicin
B. Irinotecan
C. Etoposide
D. Vincristine
Key: B
940. Which of the following drugs is associated with
untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?
A. Cisplatin
B. Streptozocin
C. Methysergide
D. Cyclophosphamide
Key: A
941. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is
associated with secondary leukemia?
A. Vinblastine
B. Paclitaxel
C. Cisplatin
D. Bleomycin
Key: C
942. Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by:
A. Busulfan
B. Ketoprofen
C. Methicillin
D. Cyclophosphamide
Key: D
943. The mechanism of anticancer action of fluorouracil is:
A. Cross linking of double stranded DNA and the
resulting inhibition of DNA replication and
transcription
B. Cytotoxicity resulting from a metabolite that
interferes with the production of dTMP
C. Irreversible inhibition of dihydrofolic acid
reductase
D. Selective action on DNA polymerase
Key: B
944. Mechanism of action of vincristine in the treatment of
ALL is:
A. Inhibition of topoisomerase II to cause breaks in
DNA strands
B. Alkylation and cross linking DNA strands
C. Inhibition of DNA mediated RNA synthesis
D. Inhibition of polymerization of tubulin to form
microtubules
Key: D
945. Hand and foot syndrome is an adverse effect of:
A. 5-Fluorouracil
B. Bleomycin
C. Etoposide
D. Actinomycin D
Key: A
946. Most common side effect of 5-fluorouracil is:
A. G.I. toxicity
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Cardiotoxicity
D. Neurotoxicity
Key: A
947. Which of the following is a common side effect of
cisplatin?
A. Diarrhea
B. Vomiting
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Alopecia
Key: B
948. Which of the following anticancer drugs can cross
blood brain barrier?
A. Cisplatin
B. Nitrosourea
C. Vincristine
D. Vinblastine
Key: B
949. Which of the following drugs produce significant
nephrotoxicity?
A. Cisplatin
B. Carboplatin
C. Vinblastine
D. Vincristine
Key: A
950. Folinic acid counteracts the toxicity of:
A. Doxorubicin
B. Methotrexate
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Fluorouracil
Key: B
951. The antimalignancy drug which is potentially
cardiotoxic is:
A. Doxorubicin
B. Bleomycin
C. Fluorouracil
D. Dacarbazine
Key: A
952. “Stocking and glove” neuropathy is seen in:
A. Vinblastine
B. Paclitaxel
C. Etoposide
D. Mitoxantrone
Key: B
953. Which of the following causes peripheral neuritis?
A. Methotrexete
B. Vincristine
C. Busulfan
D. Cyclophosphamide
Key: B
954. Mechanism of action of imatinib mesylate is:
A. Increase in metabolism of P glycoprotein
B. Blocking the action of P glycoprotein
C. Blocks the action of chimeric fusion protein of
bcrabl
D. Non-competitive inhibition of ATP binding site
Key: C
955. The drug Imatinib acts by the inhibition of:
A. Tyrosine kinase
B. Glutathione reductase
C. Thymidylate synthetase
D. Protein kinase
Key: A
956. Treatment of choice for chronic myeloid leukemia is:
A. Imatinib
B. Hydroxyl-urea
C. Interferon-alpha
D. Cytarabine
Key: A
957. Allopurinol potentiates action of:
A. Azathioprine
B. Busulfan
C. Actinomycin
D. Procarbazine
Key: A
958. Finasteride is a:
A. 5-a reductase inhibitor
B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
C. Alpha blocker
D. Androgen receptor blocker
Key: A
959. The drug of choice in choriocarcinoma is:
A. Methotrexate
B. Actinomycin-D
C. Vincristine
D. 6-Thioguanine
Key: A
960. Drug of choice for neutropenia due to cancer
chemotherapy is:
A. Vitamin B-12
B. IL-11
C. Filgrastim
D. Erythropoietin
Key: C
961. Pulmonary fibrosis is caused by
A. Methotrexate
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Mercaptopurine
D. Busulfan
Key: D
962. Thalidomide acts through:
A. Inhibiting angiogenesis
B. Inhibiting thymidylate synthase
C. Inhibition of Topo-isomerase I
D. Inhibition of Topo-isomerase II
Key: A
963. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of
growth hormone therapy?
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Intracranial hypertension
D. Slipped femoral epiphysis
Key: B
964. Which of the following is used in the treatment of
hyperprolactinemia?
A. Cimetidine
B. Methysergide
C. Bromocriptine
D. Ondansetron
Key: C
965. A 22 year old female, presented to you with
complaints of headache and vomiting since 2 months.
She is having amenorrhea but urine pregnancy test is
negative. She also complained of secretion of milk
from the breasts. A provisional diagnosis of hyper
prolactinemia was made and MRI was suggested.
MRI confirmed the presence of a large pituitary
adenoma. Patient was advised surgery, however, she
is not willing to undergo surgery. Which of the
following medications is most likely to be prescribed?
A. Sumatriptan
B. Bromocriptine
C. Ergotamine
D. Allopurinol
Key: B
966. All of the following agents are useful in acromegaly
EXCEPT:
A. Bromocriptine
B. Somatostatin
C. Octreotide
D. Nafarelin
Key: D
967. Mechanism of action of bromocriptine is:
A. Agonism at D2 receptors
B. Antagonism at D2 receptors
C. Antagonism at D1 receptors
D. Antagonism at α receptors
Key: A
968. Which of the following drugs DO NOT cause
hyperprolactinemia?
A. Bromocriptine
B. Haloperidol
C. Reserpine
D. Chlorpromazine
Key: A
969. A young female with amenorrhea, infertility and
galactorrhoea was treated with a drug that
successfully restored ovulation and menstruation.
Before being given the drug, the woman was carefully
questioned about previous mental health problems,
which she did not have. She was advised to take the
drug orally. The drug used to treat this patient was
probably:
A. Bromocriptine
B. Desmopressin
C. Human gonadotropin hormone
D. Leuprolide
Key: A
970. A 47-year old male exhibited signs and symptoms of
acromegaly. Radiologic studies showed the presence
of a large pituitary tumor. Surgical treatment of the
tumor was only partially effective in controlling the
disease. At this point, which of the following drugs is
most likely to be used as pharmacological therapy?
A. Desmopressin
B. Leuprolide
C. Octreotide
D. Somatropin
Key: C
971. A 7-year old boy underwent successful chemotherapy
and cranial radiation for the treatment of acute
lymphocytic leukemia. One month after the
completion of therapy, the patient presented with
excessive thirst and urination plus hypernatremia.
Laboratory testing revealed pituitary diabetes
insipidus. To correct these problems, this patient is
likely to be treated with:
A. Corticotropin
B. Desmopressin
C. hCG
D. Menotropins
Key: B
972. Long acting dopamine agonist is:
A. Bromocriptine
B. Lisuride
C. Cabergoline
D. Apomorphine
Key: C
973. Bromocriptine is useful in all except:
A. Parkinsonism
B. Prolactinoma
C. Endogenous depression
D. Infertility
Key: C
974. Drugs used for treatment of acute variceal bleeding
are all except:
A. Octreotide
B. Somatostatin
C. Desmopressin
D. Terlipressin
Key: C
975. GnRH analogue used in hormonal treatment of
carcinoma prostate is?
A. Goserelin
B. Nilutamide
C. Cyproterone acetate
D. Finasteride
Key: A
976. Which of the following is given at intervals as a
pulsatile therapy?
A. GnRH
B. GH
C. FSH
D. Estrogen
Key: A
977. True regarding use of bromocriptine for suppression
of lactation includes:
A. It can cause deep vein thrombosis
B. It can cause hypotension
C. Metoclopramide potentiates the action of
bromocriptine
D. It is given for 1 week only
Key: B
978. Which of the following statements about iodine is
false?
A. Contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
B. Causes iodism
C. Inhibits the release of thyroxine
D. Inhibits the synthesis of iodo thyroxine and iodo
thyronine
Key: A
979. Conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by all except:
A. Propanolol
B. Propylthiouracil
C. Amiodarone
D. Methimazole
Key: D
980. A pregnant female is taking carbimazole. Which of
the following is not seen in the neonate ?
A. Choanal atresia
B. Scalp defects
C. Cleft lip/palate
D. Fetal goiter
Key: C
981. The drug of choice for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis
during pregnancy is:
A. Carbimazole
B. Iodine therapy
C. Propylthiouracil
D. Methimazole
Key: C
982. The antithyroid drug with the most rapid onset of
antithyroid action is:
A. Iiodine131
B. Sodium iodide
C. Methimazole
D. Propylthiouracil
Key: B
983. Triiodothyronine (T3) as compared to T4:
A. Is more plasma protein bound
B. Is shorter acting
C. Is less potent
D. Has delayed action
Key: B
984. Mechanism of action of propylthiouracil in
hyperthyroidism is:
A. Inhibition of organification of iodine
B. Inhibition of oxidation of iodine
C. Inhibition of coupling of two DIT residues
D. All of the above
Key: D
985. Which of the following drugs inhibit 5’-deiodinase?
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Lugol’s iodine
D. Radioactive iodine
Key: A
986. Carbimazole as compared to propylthiouracil:
A. Is less potent
B. Is shorter acting
C. Does not produce an active metabolite
D. Does not inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
Key: D
987. Fastest acting anti-thyroid drug is:
A. Lugol’s iodine
B. Radioactive iodine
C. Propylthiouracil
D. Sodium thiocyanate
Key: A
988. Beta blockers are used in hyperthyroidism:
A. As short term symptomatic therapy till effect of
B. carbimazole develops
C. As long term therapy after subtotal
thyroidectomy
D. In patient not responding to carbimazole
E. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine
Key: A
989. A pregnant female with thyrotoxicosis is planned for
surgery. Before surgery can be done, her gland should
be reduced in size and vascularity by administering:
A. Iodide ion
B. Propanolol
C. Propylthiouracil
D. Radioactive iodine
Key: C
990. A patient of hypothyroidism was prescribed
levothyroxine. Which of the following is the most
reliable guide for adjustment of thyroxine dose in
him?
A. Pulse rate
B. Body weight
C. Serum thyroxine level
D. Serum TSH level
Key: D
991. Which of the following is not used in the management
of thyroid storm?
A. Potassium iodide
B. Reserpine
C. Propanolol
D. Calcium channel blockers
Key: B
992. Plasma half-life of carbimazole is:
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 16 hours
D. 24 hours
Key: B
993. All are antithyroid drugs except:
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Carbimazole
D. Carbamazepine
Key: D
994. L-Thyroxine is used in:
A. Thyroid storm
B. Cretinism
C. Endemic goiter
D. Grave’s disease
Key: B
995. Safest treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnant
women is:
A. Radioactive iodine
B. Methimazole
C. Carbimazole
D. Propylthiouracil
Key: D
996. All are causing hypothyroidism except:
A. PAS
B. Captopril
C. Lithium
D. Amiodarone
Key: B
997. Conversion of T 4 to T3 inhibition is associated with:
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Ampicillin
C. Lithium
D. Carbimazole
Key: A
998. Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs can cause
vitamin B 12 deficiency?
A. Glipizide
B. Acarbose
C. Metformin
D. Pioglitazone
Key: C
999. Which of the following drugs does not cause
hypoglycemia:
A. Acarbose
B. Insulin
C. Glimepride
D. Nateglinide
Key: A
1000. A patient is receiving insulin and acarbose for
diabetes mellitus and developed hypoglycemia.
Which of the following should be used for treatment
of hypoglycemia in this patient?
A. Sucrose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Starch
Key: C
1001. True about pioglitazone are all except:
A. Metabolized in the liver by CYP3A4
B. Selective agonist for the nuclear peroxisome
profilerator activated receptor gamma
C. It causes transcription of gene for carbohydrate
and fat metabolism in the absence of insulin
D. It should be avoided in a patient with cardio-
vascular disease
Key: C
1002. Insulin causes all of the following except:
A. Glycogenesis
B. Glycolysis
C. Lipogenesis
D. Ketogenesis
Key: D
1003. What will happen if insulin alone is given rapidly in
Diabetic Ketoacidosis?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Key: A
1004. All of the following preparations of insulin are rapid
and short acting EXCEPT:
A. Lispro
B. Aspart
C. Glargine
D. NPH
Key: C
1005. Which of the following statements about biguanides is
NOT true?
A. Do not stimulate insulin release
B. Decrease hepatic glucose production
C. Renal dysfunction is not a contraindication for
their use
D. Can be combined with sulfonylureas
Key: C
1006. If a diabetic patient being treated with an oral
hypoglycemic agent develops dilutional
hyponatremia, which one of the following could be
responsible for this effect?
A. Chlorpropamide
B. Tolbutamide
C. Glyburide
D. Glimepride
Key: A
1007. All of the following are true about metformin
EXCEPT:
A. Causes little or no hypoglycemia in non-diabetic
patients
B. Acts by increased insulin secretion
C. Increases peripheral utilization of glucose and
decreases absorption of glucose from intestine
D. When given with alcohol, increases risk of lactic
acidosis
Key: B
1008. True about lispro-insulin is:
A. Action is faster and short in duration than regular
insulin
B. It is given 15 minutes prior to meal
C. Source is lamb
D. Action is faster and of longer duration than
regular insulin
Key: A
1009. Antidiabetic drugs that can be used safely in renal
failure are:
A. Metformin
B. Glimepiride
C. Phenformin
D. Rosiglitazone
Key: B
1010. The most likely complication of insulin therapy in
ketoacidosis is:
A. Dilutional hyponatremia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Increased bleeding tendency
D. Pancreatitis
Key: B
1011. Which of the following drugs promotes the release of
endogenous insulin?
A. Acarbose
B. Glipizide
C. Metformin
D. Pioglitazone
Key: B
1012. Which of the following drugs is taken during the first
part of the meal for the purpose of delaying
absorption of dietary carbohydrates?
A. Acarbose
B. Glipizide
C. Nateglinide
D. Pioglitazone
Key: A
1013. Which of the following patients is most likely to be
treated with intravenous glucagon?
A. A young man who took cocaine and has a blood
pressure of 190/110 mm Hg
B. A middle aged man with type II diabetes who
has not taken his regular dose of glipizide for
last 4 days
C. An old man with severe bradycardia and
hypotension resulting from ingestion of
overdose of atenolol
D. An old woman with lactic acidosis as a
complication of severe infection and shock
Key: C
1014. Insulin acts by stimulation of:
A. Ionotropic receptor
B. Enzymatic receptor
C. Metabotropic receptor
D. Nuclear receptor
Key: B
1015. The most common route of administration of insulin
is:
A. Intradermal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous
Key: B
1016. A 15 year old girl with type 1 diabetes is brought to
emergency complaining of dizziness. Laboratory
findings include severe hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis
and blood pH of 7.15. To achieve rapid control of
severe ketoacidosis, appropriate drug is:
A. Crystalline insulin (regular)
B. NPH insulin
C. Tolbutamide
D. Ultra lente insulin
Key: A
1017. A 54- year old obese patient with type 2 diabetes
mellitusnband a history of alcoholism probably
should not receive metformin because it can increase
the risk of:
A. Disulfiram like reaction
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Severe hepatic toxicity
Key: C
1018. Insulin causes:
A. Na+ entry into cells
B. K+ exit from cells
C. Na+ exit/K+ entry
D. K+ entry into cells
Key: D
1019. Indications of newer insulins include all EXCEPT:
A. Insulin resistance
B. Lipodystrophy
C. Pregnancy
D. Diabetic kidney disease
Key: D
1020. Which of the following is not used for the treatment
of insulin induced hypoglycemia?
A. Intravenous glucose
B. Glucagon
C. Adrenaline
D. Oral carbohydrates
Key: C
1021. Sulfonylureas act by:
A. Decreasing glucagon secretion from pancreas
B. Decreasing insulin secretion from pancreas
C. Increasing gluconeogenesis
D. Increasing insulin secretion from pancreas
Key: D
1022. Flushing is common in patient taking which of the
following oral hypoglycemic drug with alcohol:
A. Chlorprompamide
B. Phenformin
C. Glibenclamide
D. Tolazamide
Key: A
1023. Anti-diabetic effect of sulfonylureas is by reducing:
A. Glucagon production
B. Insulin secretion
C. Tissue sensitivity to insulin
D. Tissue sensitivity to glycogen
Key: A
1024. Lactic acidosis is commonly seen in:
A. Metformin
B. Repaglinide
C. Rosiglitazone
D. All
Key: A
1025. Tolbutamide acts by increasing:
A. Insulin receptors
B. Glucose entry
C. Glucose absorption
D. Insulin secretion
Key: D
1026. Adverse effects of insulin include all of the following
except:
A. Edema
B. Hyperglycaemia
C. Lipodystrophy
D. Allergy
Key: B
1027. Long acting insulin is:
A. Lente
B. Semilente
C. Ultralente
D. Lispro insulin
Key: C
1028. Monocomponent insulin has all the following
advantages except:
A. Can be used in pregnancy
B. Less hypoglycemic episodes
C. Longer duration of action
D. Less chances of lipodystrophy
Key: C
1029. Oral hypoglycemic drug that is less likely to cause
hypoglycemia is:
A. Repaglinide
B. Gliclazide
C. Rosiglitazone
D. Glimipiride
Key: C
1030. Common side effect of thiazolidinediones is:
A. Dysguesia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Water retention with weight gain
D. Anemia
Key: C
1031. Long acting insulin preparations are frequently
administered by:
A. Oral route
B. Intramuscular route
C. Intradermal route
D. Subcutaneous route
Key: D
1032. Drug of choice for pregnant female suspected of
having a baby with congenital adrenal hyperplasia is:
A. Dexamethasone
B. Betamethasone
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Predinsolone
Key: A
1033. Hyperaldosteronism causes all except:
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypertension
D. Metabolic acidosis
Key: D
1034. The most potent topical corticosteroid is:
A. Hydrocortisone butyrate cream 0.1%
B. Betamethasone valerate cream 0.5%
C. Clobetasol propionate cream 0.5%
D. Clobetasone butyrate cream 0.5%
Key: B
1035. All of the following are correct about steroids
EXCEPT:
A. Inhibit the release of arachidonic acid from
vessel wall through action on phospholipase A
B. Binds to the plasma membrane receptors and
following internalization influence nuclear
changes
C. Inhibit vascular membrane permeability
D. Increase glucose synthesis in liver
Key: B
1036. Glucocorticoids act in inflammation by:
A. ↓ Lipocortin
B. ↑ IL-2
C. ↑ Lipocortin
D. ↑ CRP
Key: C
1037. Drugs causing Addison’s disease are:
A. Ketoconazole & Aminoglutethimide
B. Cyclosporine & Glucocorticoids
C. ACTH
D. None
Key: A
1038. Glucocorticoids have proved useful in the treatment
of:
A. Chemotherapy induced vomiting
B. Hyperprolactinemia
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Type II diabetes
Key: A
1039. The drug prednisolone is known to be a powerful
antiinflammatory agent. This is true due to the action
of the drug on which of the following enzymes?
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Lipoxygenase
C. Phospholipase A
D. Phosphodiesterase
Key: C
1040. Hydrocortisone acts as an anti-inflammatory agent
because of induction of the synthesis of which of the
following protein?
A. Heat shock protein 90
B. Inhibin
C. Transcortin
D. Lipocortin
Key: D
1041. Which of the following steroids is preferred for high
dose intravenous corticosteroid pulse therapy?
A. Cortisone
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Triamcinolone
D. Methyl-prednisolone
Key: D
1042. Select the regime of corticosteroids which has the
maximum adverse effect potential?
A. Prednisolone 20 mg/day oral for one year
B. Prednisolone 60 mg/day oral for 7 days
C. Dexamethasone 4 mg intravenous daily for 3
days
D. Methyl-prednisolone 1000 mg intravenous twice
single dose
Key: A
1043. Which of the following disorders is NOT aggravated
by corticosteroid therapy?
A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hypertension
D. Peptic ulcer
Key: A
1044. Toxic effects of long term administration of a
glucocortocoid include:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Osteoporosis
C. Precocious puberty
D. Lupus like syndrome
Key: B
1045. A patient has been diagnosed to have bronchial
asthma and is maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg
daily and inhaled salbutamol as required. The patient
develops chest infection. Which of the following
measures would you like to take?
A. Stop prednisolone
B. Reduce prednisolone dose to 5 mg/day
C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose
D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonide
Key: C
1046. Salma has been diagnosed to have brain tumor. You
would prefer to give her
betamethasone/dexamethasone over hydrocortisone as
steroids to decrease her cerebral edema because:
A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention
B. They are more potent
C. They can be administered intravenously
D. They inhibit brain tumours
Key: A
1047. A 50 year old man with advanced tuberculosis has
developed signs of severe acute adrenal insufficiency.
The patient should be treated immediately with a
combination of:
A. Aldosterone and fludrocortisone
B. Triamcinolone and dexamethasone
C. Cortisol and fludrocortisone
D. Dexamethasone and metyrapone
Key: C
1048. Long term steroid therapy can lead to suppression of
hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. It can be
overcome by using alternate day therapy with
corticosteroids. Which of the following steroids are
unsuitable for alternate day therapy for such purpose?
A. Cortisol
B. Prednisolone
C. Betamethasone
D. Hydrocortisone
Key: C
1049. Which is not true about beclomethasone?
A. Indicated for chronic use
B. Inhalational steroid
C. Effective in acute asthma
D. Predispose to fungal infections
Key: C
1050. Most potent mineralocorticoid is:
A. Aldosterone
B. Fludrocortisone
C. Triamcinolone
D. None
Key: A
1051. All are side effects of steroids EXCEPT:
A. Skin atrophy
B. Telengectasia
C. Folliculitis
D. Photosensitivity
Key: D
1052. Systemic steroids can cause all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Hypertension
B. Glaucoma
C. Cataract
D. Osteoporosis
Key: B
1053. Compared to hydrocortisone maximum glucocorticoid
action is found in:
A. Dexamethasone
B. Prednisolone
C. Methyl prednisolone
D. Cortisone
Key: A
1054. Which of the following antifungal drug can be used in
the treatment of Cushing syndrome?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Fluconazole
C. Itraconazole
D. Miconazole
Key: A
1055. Steroids cause:
A. Increased TSH
B. Increased FSH
C. Prevent de-iodination
D. All of the above
Key: C
1056. Bisphosphonates act by:
A. Increasing the osteoid formation
B. Increasing the mineralization of osteoid
C. Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of
bone
D. Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion
Key: C
1057. Bisphosphonates are used in all EXPECT:
A. Paget's disease
B. Vitamin D excess
C. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
D. Hypercalcemia of malignancy
Key: B
1058. A child has been diagnosed to be having vitamin D
dependent rickets. The most appropriate vitamin D
preparation for him is:
A. Calciferol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. Calcifediol
D. Calcitriol
Key: D
1059. A patient began taking alendronate and she was
advised to take large amount of water and remain in
the standing position for at least half an hour till she
had the first meal of the day. These instructions were
given to reduce the risk of:
A. Cholelithiasis
B. Constipation
C. Erosive esophagitis
D. Osteonecrosis
Key: C
1060. Calcitonin causes hypocalcemia by:
A. Inhibiting bone resorption
B. Promoting osteolysis
C. Decreasing renal tubular reabsorption of
calcium
D. Decreasing absorption of phosphorus
Key: A
1061. Prevention or treatment of osteoporosis in
postmenopausal women may be achieved by all
EXCEPT:
A. Estrogen and progesterne hormone replacement
therapy
B. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
C. Bisphosphonates
D. Multivitamins
Key: D
1062. Contraceptive that should be avoided in epilepsy is:
A. Oral contraceptives
B. Condoms
C. Intrauterine contraceptive devices
D. Post-coital pills
Key: A
1063. Which of the following progesterone is used in
emergency contraception?
A. Levonorgesterol
B. Micronised Progesterone
C. Norgesterone
D. Depot Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Key: A
1064. In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance of
pregnancy increases after taking any of the following
drugs EXCEPT
A. Phenytoin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Ampicillin
D. Cimetidine
Key: D
1065. Oral contraceptives are not given with:
A. Streptomycin
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
Key: B
1066. Which of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
A. Tamoxifen
B. Letrozole
C. Danazol
D. Taxane
Key: B
1067. Diethylstilbesterol should never be used in pregnant
women because it is associated with:
A. Development of deep vein thrombosis in the
pregnant woman
B. Feminization of the external genitalia of male
offspring
C. Infertility and development of vaginal cancer in
female offspring
D. Virilization of the external genitalia of female
offspring
Key: C
1068. Dr. Anam decides to give estrogen therapy in a
postmenopausal woman. The risk of which of the
following will not be increased?
A. Gall stones
B. Osteoporosis
C. Endometrial carcinoma
D. Breast cancer
Key: B
1069. Clomiphene citrate is not known to produce which of
the following effects in a young female of 30 years of
age (child bearing age group)?
A. Hot flushes
B. Ovulation
C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion
D. Polycystic ovaries
Key: C
1070. The combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive
pill act mainly by:
A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm
penetration
B. Suppression of FSH and LH release
C. Making endometrium unsuitable for
implantation
D. Enhancing uterine contraction to dislodge the
fertilized ovum
Key: B
1071. One of the health benefits of the use of combined oral
contraceptives in pre-menopausal women is that these
contraceptives reduce the risk of:
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Migraine
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Ischemic stroke
Key: C
1072. A 23-year old woman desires a combined oral
contraceptive for pregnancy protection. A factor that
would lead a health professional to recommend an
alternative form of contraception is that the woman:
A. Has an evidence of hirsutism
B. Has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
and is currently taking omeprazole
C. Has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Has a history of migraine headache that is well
controlled by sumatriptan
Key: D
1073. A young female comes to you in the gynaecology
OPD and gives the history that she had intercourse
with her boyfriend 5 hours back. Select the drug that
can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive for
her:
A. Clomiphene citrate
B. Mifepristone
C. Danazol
D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Key: B
1074. A patient Parul gives you the history that she has
missed a single dose of her combined oral
contraceptive pill. Which of the following will you
advise her?
A. Continue with the course without regard to the
missed dose
B. Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the
course
C. Take 2 pills everyday for the remaining part of
the course
D. Discontinue the course and use alternative
method of contraception
Key: B
1075. Oral contraceptive pills can cause all except:
A. Mastalgia
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Chloasma
D. Breakthrough bleeding
Key: B
1076. Side effects of oral contraceptives are all EXCEPT:
A. Irregular bleeding
B. Headache
C. Thrombosis
D. Increased risk of ovarian cancer
Key: D
1077. All of the following are natural estrogens EXCEPT:
A. Estradiol
B. Ethinylestradiol
C. Estriol
D. Estrone
Key: B
1078. Mechanism of action of tamoxifen is:
A. Has androgenic receptor blocking action
B. Inhibits enzyme 5 α-reductase
C. Has partial agonist and antagonist action on
estrogen receptors
D. Inhibition of FSH and LH release from the
pituitary
Key: C
1079. The progestogenic emergency contraceptive pills act
by:
A. Altered cervical secretion
B. Inhibition of ovulation
C. Anti-implantation effect
D. Inhibition of LH secretion
Key: C
1080. The drug used for first trimester abortion is:
A. Oral mifepristone
B. Extra-amniotic ethacrydine lactate
C. Oxytocin infusion
D. Chloroquine
Key: A
1081. “Oral contraceptive pills” protect against:
A. Thrombosis
B. Ovarian cancer
C. Cancer cervix
D. Hepatocellular adenoma
Key: B
1082. Mifepristone is a:
A. Progesterone antagonist
B. Oestrogen antagonist
C. Intra-amniotic saline
D. None
Key: A
1083. Oral contraceptive failure occurs with:
A. Phenytoin
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Rifampicin
D. All
Key: D
1084. Clomiphene citrate is used for:
A. Mania
B. Induction of ovulation
C. Depression
D. Psychosis
Key: B
1085. All of the following are recognized effects of
combined oral contraceptive except:
A. Breakthrough bleeding
B. Decreased risk of endometrial cancer
C. Increased risk of ischemic stroke
D. Increased risk of ovarian cancer
Key: D
1086. In spider nevi, dilatation of blood vessels is due to:
A. Testosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Hepatotoxins
D. FSH
Key: B
1087. Oxytocin causes all except:
A. Lactogenesis
B. Milk ejection
C. Contraction of uterine muscle
D. Myoepithelial cell contraction
Key: A
1088. Drug of choice for polycystic ovarian disease is:
A. Metformin
B. Estrogen
C. Estrogen and progesterone combination pill
D. Dopamine antagonist
Key: A
1089. Hirsutism producing drugs include all except:
A. Methyldopa
B. Corticosteroids
C. Phenytoin
D. Minoxidil
Key: A
1090. Hypoglycemia is caused by:
A. Alcohol intoxication
B. Thiazide
C. Diazoxide
D. Metoclopramide
Key: A
1091. Mechanism of Calcitriol is:
A. Decreased calcium resorption calcium from
bone
B. Increase calcium absorption from intestine
C. Decreased calcium absorption from kidney
D. Decrease calcium absorption from intestine
Key: B
1092. Which of the following drug is a dopamine receptor
agonist ?
A. Methyl dopa
B. Bromocriptine
C. Haloperidol
D. Morphine
Key: B
1093. Which of the following is an anabolic steroid ?
A. Methyltestosterone
B. Fluoxymesterone
C. Nandrolone
D. Danazol
Key: C
1094. Tibolone is a :
A. SSRI
B. SPRM
C. STEAR
D. SERM
Key: C, "Tibolone: a selective tissue estrogenic activity
regulator (STEAR)
1095. Drug which inhibits conversion of T4 to T3 is:
A. Carbimazole
B. Methimazole
C. Propylthiouracil
D. Lugol's iodine
Key: C
1096. Which of the following agents has the least
glucocorticoid action?
A. Fludrocortisone
B. Cortisone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Betamethasone
Key: C
1097. Which is an intermediate acting insulin?
A. Insulin lispro
B. Regular insulin
C. NPH insulin
D. Insulin glargine
Key: C
1098. Side effects of oxytocin are all except:
A. Placental abruption
B. Fetal distress
C. Peripheral vascular disease
D. Water intoxication
Key: C
1099. Intranasal calcitonin is used for?
A. Paget’s disease
B. MEN Syndrome
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
Key: D
1100. Which insulin is never mixed with other insulins?
A. Lente
B. Aspart
C. Lispro
D. Glargine
Key: D
1101. Drug of choice for acute adrenal insufficiency is?
A. Oral prednisone
B. IV hydrocortisone
C. IV betamethasone
D. IV dexamethasone
Key: B
1102. Insulin release due to closure of K+ channels is seen
with:
A. Nateglinde
B. Acarbose
C. Exenatide
D. Sitagliptin
Key: A
1103. Drug used to control postprandial hyperglycemia is:
A. Acarbose
B. Biguanides
C. Sulfonylurea
D. Repaglinide
Key: D
1104. Bisphosphonate-induced osteomalacia is commonly
seen with:
A. Alendronate
B. Pamidronate
C. Zolendronate
D. Etidronate
Key: D
1105. Long term administration of glucocorticoids can
cause all of the following except:
A. Proximal myopathy
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypertension
D. Cataract
Key: B
1106. Absolute contraindication of combined oral
contraceptive pill is:
A. Epilepsy
B. Obesity
C. Smoking 10 cigars/day
D. Active liver disease
Key: D
1107. The managment of thyrotoxic crisis includes all the
following except:
A. Propanolol
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Oral I131
D. Propylthiouracil
Key: C
1108. Which one of the following is an adverse effect
associated with combined oral contraceptives:
A. Cerebral stroke
B. Aggravation of asthma
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Nephrotic syndrome
Key: A
1109. Sulphonylureas act by:
A. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the
gut
B. Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to
release insulin
C. Increasing the uptake of glucose in peripheral
tissue
D. Reducing the hepatic gluconeogenesis
Key: B
1110. Which of the following drugs used to treat type II
diabetes mellitus causes weight loss:
A. Metformin
B. Glimepiride
C. Repaglinide
D. Gliclazide
Key: A
1111. Most important step in management of diabetic
ketoacidosis is administration of:
A. Insulin
B. Intravenous fluids (saline)
C. Soda-bicarbonate
D. Potassium
Key: B
1112. Deaths from lactic acidosis in diabetes mellitus is
associated with therapy with which one of the
following:
A. Metformin
B. Tolbutamide
C. Phenformin
D. Glipizide
Key: A, Phenformin > Metformin
1113. Lugol’s iodine is given to the patient:
A. Before surgery
B. After surgery
C. During surgery
D. Adjuvant therapy
Key: A
1114. Somatostatin secreted by which type of cells in
pancreas?
A. Gamma cells
B. Delta cells
C. Alpha cells
D. Beta cells
Key: B
1115. The following insulin can be given intravenously:
A. Protamine zinc insulin
B. Ultra lente insulin
C. Semi lente insulin
D. Regular insulin
Key: D
1116. Drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices is:
A. Ethanolamine oleate
B. Octreotide
C. Propanolol
D. Phytonadione
Key: B
1117. All of the following reduce T4 absorption except:
A. Metformin
B. Iron salts
C. Raloxifene
D. Colsevelam
Key: A
1118. Drug of choice in gestational diabetes is
A. Metformin
B. Glimepiride
C. Repaglinide
D. Regular insulin
Key: D
1119. Drug of choice in diabetes in pregnancy is
A. Metformin
B. Glimepiride
C. Regular insulin
D. Gliclazide
Key: B
1120. Drug of choice of type II diabetes mellitus in obese
patient:
A. Metformin
B. Glimepiride
C. Repaglinide
D. Gliclazide
Key: A
1121. Drug of choice in patient with insulin resistance
A. Metformin
B. Glimepiride
C. Repaglinide
D. Gliclazide
Key: A
1122. Insulin secretion increase by
A. Beta blocker
B. Secretin
C. Citalopram
D. Beta agonist
Key: A
1123. Insulin secretion inhibited by
A. Epinephrine
B. B blocker
C. Somatostatin
D. Beta agonist
Key: C > B
1124. Effect of insulin on adipose tissue:
A. Stimulate hormone sensitive lipase
B. Increase Lipoprotein lipase
C. Inhibits lipoprotein lipase
D. Activate hormone sensitive lipase
Key: B
1125. A diabetic patient is suffering from upper respiratory
tract infection. Which fluoroquinolones in this patient
is contraindicated?
A. Levofloxacin
B. Moxifloxacin
C. Gatifloxacin
D. Gemifloxacin
Key: C, All above are Respiratory fluoroquinolones,
Gatifloxacin causes dysglycemia. Dysglycemia is
a broad term that refers to an abnormality in
blood sugar stability. This can include
hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or
hyperglycemia (high blood sugar). Thiazide also
causes dysglycemia
