Academic Session : 2018 - 19 AITS FULL TEST (FT) : FT # 01

AITS FULL TEST (FT) : FT # 01(NEET PATTERN)

Target : NEET - 2019

Academic Session : 2018 - 19

Date : 10th March, 2019 | Duration : 3 Hours | Max. Marks : 720

Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.

COURSE : Dropper, Target, DLP., AITS

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AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19

PHYSICS AITS-FT - 01Medical

1. Two forces P and Q are in ratio P : Q = 1 :

2. If their resultant is at an angle 1 3tan2

to vector P, then angle between P and Q is

(A) 1 1tan2

(B) 45o

(C) 30o (D) 60o

2. Consider the following equation of Bernoulli's

theorem : 21P v gh2

= K(constant). The

dimension of KP

are same as which of thefollowing(A) Thrust (B) Pressure(C) Angle (D) Viscosity

3. A particle moves in xy plane with a velocitygiven by ˆ ˆv (8t 2)i 2j. If it passes throughthe point (14, 4) at t = 2s, then give equationof the path(A) x – y – y2 = 2 (B) x + y + y2 = 2(C) x + y – y2 = 2 (D) x – y + y2 = 2

4. A heavy spherical ball is constrained in aframe as shown in figure. The inclined surfaceis smooth. The maximum acceleration withwhich the frame can move without causingthe ball to leave the frame :

(A)g2

(B) 3g

(C)g3 (D)

g2

5. A small particle of mass m attached with alight inextensible thread of length is movingin a vertical circle of radius . If the particleis moving in complete verticle circle and theratio of its maximum to minimum velocity is2 : 1, then the minimum velocity of the particleis

(A)g3

(B)2g3

(C)4g3

(D) g

6. Which of the following is incorrect.(A) If centre of mass of three particles is at

rest, and it is known that two of themare moving along different lines then thethird particle must also be moving.

(B) If centre of mass remains at rest, thennet work done by the forces acting onthe system must be zero.

Dropper Batch


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19(C) If centre of mass remains at rest then

net external force must be zero.(D) None of these statement is incorrect

7. The plane of the dip circle is set in thegeographic meridian and the apparent dip is1 . It is then set in a vertical planeperpendicular to geographic meridian. Theapparent dip is 2. The declination at theplace is :-(A) = tan–1 (tan1/tan2)(B) = tan–1 (tan1.tan2)(C) = tan–1 (tan2/tan1)

(D) 11 2tan tan .tan

8. Between the plates of a parallel platecapacitor of capacity C, two parallel plates,of the same material and area same as theplate of the original capacitor, are placed. If

the thickness of these plates is equal to 15

th

of the distance between the plates of theoriginal capacitor, then the capacity of the newcapacitor is :-

(A)5 C3

(B)3 C5

(C)3 C

10(D)

10 C3

9. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 F is brokeninto eight drops of equal radius. Capacitanceof each small drop is :-

(A)1 F2 (B)

1 F4

(C)1 F8 (D)

1 F16

10. Two identical thin rings, each of radius Rmetre, are coaxially placed at a distance Rmetre apart. If Q1 and Q2 charges arerespectively the charges uniformly spread onthe two rings, the work done in moving acharge q from the centre of one ring to thatof the other is :-

(A) zero(B)(C)(D)

11. An electron starting from rest near one of theplates of a paralled plate capacitor atseparation 'd' reaches the other plate in timet. If e is the charge on the electron and m isits mass, then the surface charge density onthe plates is :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-1912. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and

R2 are placed in the same plane with theircentres coinciding. If R1 >> R2, the mutualinductance M between them will be directlyproportional to :-(A) R1/ R2 (B) R2 /R1

(C) 21 2R / R (D) 2

2 1R / R13. In a series resonant R-L-C circuit, if L is

increased by 25% and C is decreased by 20%,then the resonant frequency will :(A) Increases by 10%(B) Decreases by 10%(C) Remain unchanged(D) Increases by 2.5%

14. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across theterminals of a resistance & current will be -

(A) 400V, 2A (B) 800V, 2A(C) 100V, 2A (D) 100V, 4A

15. The wave function (in S.I.units) for anelectromagnetic wave is given as -(x, t) = 103 sin (3×106 x – 9×1014 t) Thespeed of the wave is -(A) 9 × 1014 m/s (B) 3 × 108 m/s(C) 3 × 106 m/s (D) 3 × 107 m/s

16. A uniform rod of mass M and length L liesradially on a disc rotating with angular speed in a horizontal plane about its axis. The roddoes not slip on the disc and the centre of therod is at a distance R from the centre of thedisc. Then the kinetic energy of the rod is-

(A) (B)

(C) (D) None of these

17. Two bodies of masses m and M are placed atdistance d apart. The gravitational potential(V) at the position where the gravitational fielddue to them is zero V is :–

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

18. A liquid drop of diameter D breaks into 27tiny drops. The resultant change in energy is(A) 2 TD2 (B) 4 TD2

(C) TD2 (D) None of these19. Maximum density of H2O is at the

temperature(A) 32°F (B) 39.2°F(C) 42°F (D) 4°F


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-1920. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at

temperature T1, is enclosed in a cylinder fittedwith a frictionless piston. The gas is allowedto expand adiabatically to a temperature T2by releasing the piston suddenly. If L1 and L2are the lengths of the gas column before andafter expansion respectively, then T1/T2 isgiven by

(A)2 / 3

1

2

LL

(B) 1

2

LL

(C) 2

1

LL (D)

2 / 3

2

1

LL

21. A particle executes SHM with time period Tand amplitude A. The maximum possibleaverage velocity in time T/4 is :-

(A)4AT

(B)2AT

(C)4 2A

T(D)

8AT

22. A spring mass system oscillates with afrequency n. if it is taken in an elevator slowlyaccelerating upwards the frequency will :-(A) remains same (B) increase(C) decrease (D) become zero

23. A tuning fork and a sonometer wire soundedtogether and produce 4 beats per second.When the length of sonometer wire is 95 cmor 100 cm, the frequency of the tunning forkis :-(A) 156 Hz (B) 152 Hz

(C) 148 Hz (D) 160 Hz24. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light

with mutually perpendicular planes ofpolarization are seen through a polaroid. Fromthe position when the beam A has maximumintensity (and beam B has zero intensity), arotation of polaroid through 30º makes the twobeams appear equally bright. If the initialintensitites of the two beams are IA and IB

respectively, then A

B

II equals :

(A) 1 (B)13

(C) 3 (D)32

25. In Young's double slit experiment, one of theslit is wider than other, so that the amplitudeof the light from one slit is double of thatfrom other slit. If Im be the maximum intensity,the resultant intensity I when they interfere atphase difference is given by :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

26. In a photoelectric cell, photoelectric current 'i'is measured by changing the intensity 'I' ofincident light radiations. Which one of thegraph shown here represents the measuredresults ?

(A) (B)



(C) (D)

27. Two radioactive substances A and B havetheir half-life period 1 year and 2 yearrespectively. Samples A and B initially containequal number of atoms. After 4 years theratio of the number of undecayed atoms of Ato the number of undecayed atoms of B is :-(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2(C) 2 (D) 4

28. If a nucleus is emitting e– particle, its neutronto proton ratio (n/p) will :–(A) Increase(B) Decrease(C) Remain unchanged(D) Can't be determind.

29. In the following circuits PN–junction diodesD1, D2 and D3 are ideal for the followingpotentials of A and B. The correct increasingorder of resistance between A and B will be

(i) –10 V, –5V (ii) –5V, –10 V(iii) –4V, –12 V

(A) i < ii < iii (B) iii < ii < i(C) ii = iii < i (D) i = iii < ii

30. The following configuration of gate isequivalent to :-

(A) NAND (B) XOR(C) OR (D) None of these

31. If the system is released, then the accelerationof the centre of mass of the system is :

(A) g/4 (B) g/2(C) g (D) 2g

32. Two long straight conductors with currents I1and I2 are placed along X and Y-axes. Theequation of locus of points of zero magneticinduction is :-



(A) Y = X (B)

(C) (D)

33. The value of current through 20 resistor is

(A) 1.2 A (B) 0.3 A(C) 0.6 A (D) 1.8 A

34. In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is1 : 2. A Leclanche cell (e.m.f. 1.5V) isconnected across the primary. The voltagedeveloped in the secondary would be :-(A) 3.0 V (B) 0.75 V(C) 1.5 V (D) Zero

35. In the EM wave the amplitude of magneticfield H0 and the amplitude of electric field E0at any place are related as :-

(A) H0 = E0 (B)

(C) (D)

36. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R,

a spherical portion of radius R2

is removed,as shown in the figure. Taking gravitationalpotential V = 0 at r = , the potential at thecentre of the cavity thus formed is :(G = gravitational constant)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

37. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius Ra cube of maximum possible volume is cut.Moment of inertia of cube about an axispassing through its centre and perpendicularto one of its faces is :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

38. If S is stress and Y is Young's modulus ofmaterial of a wire, the energy stored in thewire per unit volume is-

(A) 2S2Y (B)

(C) (D)

39. If the internal energy of n1 moles of He attemperature 10T is equal to the internal energyof n2 mole of hydrogen at temperature 6T.

The ratio of 1

2

nn is

(A)35

(B) 2

(C) 1 (D)53


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-1940. Energy is being emitted from the surface of a

black body at 127°C temperature at the rateof 1.0 × 106 J/s–m2. Temperature of the blackbody at which the rate of energy emission is16.0×106 J/s–m2 will be :(A) 254°C (B) 508°C(C) 527°C (D) 727°C

41. Mechanical wave (sound wave) in a gas is :-(A) Transverse(B) Longitudinal(C) Neither transverse nor longitudinal(D) Either transverse or longitudinal

42. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4Iinterfere to produce a fringe pattern on ascreen. The phase difference between thebeams is /2 at point A and at point B.Then the difference between the resultantintensities at A and B is :(A) 2I (B) 4I(C) 5I (D) 7I

43. The observer at O views two closely spacedspots on a vertical wall through an angledglass slab as shown. As seen by observer, thespots appear.

(A) shifted upward

(B) shifted downward(C) spaced farther apart(D) spaced closer together

44. A ray of light is incident on an equilateralglass prism placed on a horizontal table. Forminimum deviation which of the following istrue ?

(A) PQ is horizontal(B) QR is horizontal(C) RS is horizontal(D) Either PQ or RS is horizontal

45. For a CE amplifier, current gain is 69. If theemitter current is 7 mA then the base currentand collector current will be -(A) 6.9 mA, 0.1 mA(B) 0.1 mA, 6.9 mA(C) 0.2 mA, 8.1 mA(D) 0.8 mA, 3.6 mA



CHEMISTRY46. 2-Hexyne can be converted into trans-2-

hexene by the action of :-(A) H2-Pd/BaSO4 (B) Na+Liq.NH3(C) NaBH4 (D) All above

47. has correct IUPAC name :-

(A) 5-Nitro-4-Methoxy-1-Pentene(B) 1-Nitro-2-Methoxy-4-Pentene(C) 4-Methoxy-5-Nitro-1-Pentene(D) 2-Methoxy-1-Nitro-4-Pentene

48. A is :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

49. d-tartaric acid & meso tartaric acid are :-(A) Diastereomer(B) Enantiomer(C) Geometrical isomer(D) Positional isomer

50. product Bis :-(A) CH3Br + C2H5I(B) CH3I + C2H5I(C) CH3Br + C2H5OH(D) CH3I + C2H5OH

Dropper Batch AITS-FT - 01Medical

51. is :-

(A) -D-(+)- Glucopyranose(B) -D-(–)- Glucopyranose(C) -D-(+)- Fructofuranose(D) -D-(–)- Fructofuranose

52. Order of rate of SN1 reactivity for followingcompound is :-

(A) I > II > III > IV(B) I > II > IV > III(C) II > I > IV > III(D) I > IV > III > II

53. Which of the following is not essential aminoacid :-(A) Valine (B) Leucine(C) Arginine (D) Aspartic acid

54. Which one of the following on reaction withlucas reagent gives white precipitate fastest:-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-1955. Monomeric units of Bakelite is :-

(A) HCHO+Ph–OH

(B)

(C)

(D) HCHO + CF2=CF256. The correct order of boiling point is :-

(A) C > A > D > B(B) A > B > C > D(C) D > A > B > C(D) A > B > D > C

57. How many compounds among following givewhite crystals when reacted with sodiumbisulphite :-

(A) 2 (B) 3(C) 4 (D) 5

58. Consider the following statementsI. In gaseous phase, the vapour pressure

of CH3COOH is less than expected.II. In benzene, acetic acid dimerises.III. CH3OH is more viscous than H2O.IV. CH3OCH3 is non-polar but soluble in

water.Select the correct set of codes using T fortrue and F for false statements in givensequence.(A) F T F T (B) F T F F(C) T F T T (D) T T F F

59. C willbe :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

60. major product will be :-(A) o–Bromo acetanilide(B) n–Bromo acetanilide(C) p–Bromo acetanilide(D) m–Bromo acetanilide

61. In NaCl the centres of two nearest like-charged ions are present at a distance of :-

(A) (B)



(C) (D)

62. Shape-selective catalysis is a reactioncatalysed by ?(A) zeolites (B) enzymes(C) platinum (D) Ziegler-natta catalyst

63. If in NH3 formation N uses its pure atomicorbital then wrong statement is :-(A) At least three bond angle are of 90o

(B) Three bond with identical strength(C) Lone pair will be in 2s orbital(D) Molecule will be T-shaped

64.Then incorrect statement is :-(A) A is NaHCO3(B) B is metal carbonate which is soluble in

H2O(C) pH of aquous solution of both A and E is 7(D) D is CaCO3

65. Which of the following statement is not correctregarding calcination ?(A) Impurities are removed in the form of

elemental vapours(B) Carbonate ores convert into their oxides(C) Temperature of the process is maintained

below the melting point of the mixture(D) Lower oxidation state oxides are oxidised

further

66. Correct order of bond angle for bond will be :(A) Ph – OH > CH3 – O – CH3 > CH3 –

OH(B) CH3 – O – CH3 > Ph – OH > CH3OH(C) CH3 – OH > CH3 – O – CH3 > Ph –

OH(D) CH3 – O – CH3 > CH3OH > Ph – OH

67. In which hybridisation angular shape is notpossible ?(A) sp (B) sp2

(C) sp3 (D) None of these68. Which of the following compounds does give

N2 on heating ?(A) NH4NO2 (B) NH4NO3(C) NaN3 (D) Both (A) and (C)

69. Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCNto give(A) CuCN (B) [Cu(CN)4]3–

(C) [Cu(CN)4]2– (D) Cu(CN)270. Which of the following complexes exhibit the

highest paramagnetic behaviour ?(A) [Co(OX)2(OH)2]–3

(B) [Ti(NH3)6]3+

(C) [V (gly) (OH)2(NH3)2]+

(D) [Fe(en) (bpy) (NH3)2]2+

Where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamineand bpy=bipyridyl moities)(At. nos. Ti =22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co= 27)


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-1971. Which one of the following ions is the most

stable in aqueous solution ?(A) Mn3+ (B) Cr3+

(C) V3+ (D) Ti3+

(At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn=25)72. Increasing value of magnetic moments of :-

(I) [Fe(CN)6]4– (II) [Fe(CN)6]3–

(III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+

is :(A) I < II < III < IV (B) IV < III < II < I(C) II < III < I < IV (D) I < II < IV < III

73. Find atomic number of that element fromwhich pairing in 4f orbital starts :-(A) 57 (B) 58(C) 64 (D) 65

74. Which of the following statements is correct?(A) [Pt(NO3)2(en)2]2+ complex ion can show

linkage isomerism(B) [Cr(CO3)(NH3)4]Br can show ionization

isomerism(C) FeCl3.6H2O can show hydrate isomerism(D) [FeCl3(NH3)3] can exhibit structural

isomerism75. What is the oxidation number of Fe and Cr in

FeCr2O4 :-(A) +2 and +3 (B) 0 and +2(C) +2 and +6 (D) +3 and +6

76. The ratio of pH of 0.1 M H2SO4 and that of0.1 N H2SO4 is :-

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1(C) 1 : 7 (D) 7 : 10

77. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relationbetween their wavelengths i.e., 1 and 2 willbe :-(A) 1 = 2 (B) 1 = 22(C) 1 = 42 (D) 1 = 1/22

78. Identify the incorrect order :-(A) HF > HCl > HBr > HI ; Acidic nature(B) Li+ (aq) < Be+2(aq.) ; hydrated radius(C) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF ; Lattice energy(D) Cl > F > Br > I ; e– affinity

79. For the redox reactionxP4 + yHNO3 H3PO4 + NO2 +H2O(A) x = 1, y = 5 (B) x = 2, y = 10(C) x = 1, y = 20 (D) x = 1, y = 15

80. 3O2 + 2N2 2N2O39 mol O2 and 14 mol N2 here allowed toreact. When 3 mol O2 remains unreacted, tillthen how many moles of N2O3 would havebeen produced ?(A) 6 (B) 3(C) 4 (D) 12

81. If the sum of (n + ) is 6 ; how many e–swould have clock wise spin associated withthis energy leval :-(A) 18 (B) 9(C) 6 (D) 32


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-1982. Anhydrous Na2CO3 is also known as :-

(A) Salt soda (B) Soda ash(C) Fusion mixture (D) Washing soda

83. The rate of diffusion of SO3, CO2, PCl3 andSO2 gases are in the following order :-(A) PCl3 > SO3 > SO2 > CO2(B) CO2 > SO2 > PCl3 > SO3(C) SO2 > SO3 > PCl3 > CO2(D) CO2 > SO2 > SO3 > PCl3

84. H2(g) + ½ O2(g) H2O(g)B.E. (H–H) = x1 ; B.E. (O = O) = x2 ;B.E. (O – H) = x3Heat of vaporisation of water = x4 then Hf[heat of formation of liquid water] is :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

85. At a certain temp. the equilibrium constant(KC) is 16 for reaction :SO2 + NO2 SO3 + NOIf we take one mole of each of four gases inone L container. What would be equilibriumconcentration of NO and NO2 respectively :-(A) 1.6, 0.4 (B) 0.4, 1.6(C) 0.4, 0.6 (D) None of these

86. Work done in vaporisation of one mole ofwater at 373 K and the pressure of 1 atm isapproximately (for ideal gas) :-(A) – 3100 Joule (B) – 3000 Joule(C) + 3200 Joule (D) + 3000 Joule

87. Which can be used to prepare pure &demineralised H2O ?(A) Calgon (B) Borax(C) Acid-Base resin (D) Washing soda

88. sp3d2 hybrid orbitals have :-(A) (B)(C) (D) dyz & dxz

89. Solubility product of silver salts are given asunderAgCl = 2 × 10–10, AgBr = 5 × 10–13,Ag2CO3 = 8 × 10–12, AgI = 8 × 10–17

Highest solubility will be shown by :-(A) AgCl (B) AgBr(C) Ag2CO3 (D) AgI

90. Lead is considered as :(A) Water pollutant(B) Soil pollutant(C) Air pollutant(D) Radioactive pollutant



91. In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonasand Chlorella have been included in

(A) Protista (B) Algae(C) Plantae (D) Monera

92. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in whichof the following groups(A) Fungi (B) Animalia(C) Monera (D) Plantae

93. How many plants in the list given below havetap root modifications - Banyan, Vanda, Turnip,Sweet potato, Groundnut, Sugarcane, Monstera(A) Four (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Five94. Aerial roots are modified for both absorption

and assimilation in this genus(A) Vanda (B) Monstera(C) Banyan (D) Taeniophyllum

95. Identify the types of placentations in thediagrams A, B, C, D given below respectively

(A) Marginal, axile, parietal, basal(B) Marginal, axile, parietal, parietal

(C) Marginal, parietal, parietal, axile(D) Parietal, axile, parietal, marginal

96. In the following diagram of phloem identify theparts labelled as A, B, C, D

(A) A - Sieve pore, B - Sieve tube element, C-companion cell, D-Phloem parenchyma

(B) A - Sieve pore, B-sieve tube element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-Companion cell

(C) A-perforation plate, B-Sieve element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-companion cell

(D) A-Sieve pore, B-companion cell, C-sievetube element, D- Phloem parenchyma

BIOLOGYDropper Batch AITS-FT - 01Medical


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-1997. In the illustration of mass flow by Munch,

identify A, B, C, D respectively

(A) A-dilute solution, B-concentrated solution,C-sink, D-source

(B) A-dilute solution, B-concentrated solution,C-source, D-sink

(C) A-concentrated solution, B-dilute solution,C-sink, D-pure water

(D) A-dilute solution, B-concentrated solution,C-sink, D-purewater

98. The following diagram represents ATP synthesisthrough chemiosmosis. Identify A, B, C, D partslabelled in it

(A) A-Photosystem –I, B-Cytochrome b and f,C-Photosystem–II, D-ATP synthetose

(B) A-Photosystem–II, B-cytochrome b and f,C-Photosystem–I, D-CF0

(C) A-Photosystem–II, B-Cytochrome b andf, C-Photosystem–I, D-ATP synthetose

(D) A-Photosystem–II, B-ATP synthetose, C-Photosystem–I, D-CFI

99. Mendel found that the reciprocal crossesyielded identical results, from this he concludedthat(A) These is no independent assortment of traits

(B) These is no dominance of any trait(C) Gametes are always pure for a particular

trait

(D) Sex has no influence on the dominance oftraits

100. Select the correct statement from the ones givenbelow with respect to dihybrid cross(A) Tightly linked genes on the same

chromosomes show higher recombinations

(B) Genes far apart on the same chromosomeshow very few recombinations

(C) Genes loosely linked on the samechromosome show similar recombinations

(D) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomeshow very few recombinations


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19101. Which of the following is a wrong match for a

microbe and its industrial product(A) Yeast - statins(B) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid(C) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid

(D) Aspergillus niger - citric acid102. Which is wrong about Mycoplasma

(A) They are called PPLO(B) They are pleomorphic

(C) They are sensitive to penicillin(D) They cause diseases in plants

103. Which one of the following is a vascularcryptogams ?(A) Cedrus (B) Equisetum(C) Ginkgo (D) Marchantia

104. Given below is the representation of a certainevent at a particular stage of a type of celldivision. Which is this stage ?

(A) Prophase I during meiosis(B) Prophase II during meiosis(C) Prophase of mitosis(D) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis

105. A and B genes are linked. What shall begenotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab ?

(A) AAbb and aabb(B) AaBb and aabb(C) AABB and aabb(D) None of these

106. Virus particle outside the host body is called(A) Virion (B) Prion(C) Viriods (D) Bacteriophage

107. A human female with Turner’s syndrome(A) Is able to produce children with normal

husband(B) Has 45 chromosomes with XO(C) Has one addition X chromosome(D) Exhibits male characters

108. Sigmoid/logistic growth curve is represented by

(A) dN/dt = rN(B) dN/dt = rN (1 – N/K)(C) Nt = N0 + B + I – D – E(D) dN/dt = 1 – N/K

109. An inverted pyramid of number and an invertedpyramid of biomass are respectively seen in(A) Grassland Tree ecosystem(B) Sea and Tree ecosystem

(C) Tree and Sea ecosystem(D) Tree and Grassland ecosystem


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19110. Sacred groves are found in

(A) Meghalaya(B) Punjab(C) Jammu and Kashmir(D) Bihar

111. The phytoplanktons and zooplanktons absorbDDT in their(A) Fats and oils (B) Protein(C) Carbohydrates (D) None of these

112. The major source of phosphate and nitratepollution in water bodies is through(A) Detergents and fertilizers or sewage(B) Vegetable matter

(C) Acid rain(D) Faecal matter

113. Select the mismatch from the following :-(A) Vessel – Dead syncyte(B) Xylem fibre – Obliterated central lumen(C) Tracheids – Pitted(D) Companion cell – Specia lised

sclerenchymatous cell114. Select the wrong statement in the following :

(A) The chloroplast are generally much largerthan mitochondria

(B) Both mitochondria and chloroplast containDNA

(C) The cilia are generally larger than flagella(D) Both mitochondria and chloroplast contain

DNA polymerase and RNA polymeraseenzyme

115. Enzyme of calvin cycle present in :(A) Outer membrane of chloroplast(B) Inner membrane of chloroplast(C) Stroma(D) Thylakoid

116. When a plant cell is placed in hypertonicsolution of NaCl, after some time cell becomeplasmolysed, in this stage in between cell walland shrunken protoplast :-(A) water is present(B) sugar solution is present(C) water and some cell cytoplasm substances

are present(D) Salted solution is present

117. Which of the following pair of elements relatedwith symbiotic N2-fixation in root nodules oflegume :-(A) Mo, K, Ca, Co, S(B) Mo, S, Cl, B, Fe(C) Mo, S, Co, Mn, Fe(D) Mo and K only

118. Choose the mismatch :(A) Peptidyl transferase – Peptide bond

formation(B) Wobble position – provides economy to

number of tRNA(C) Charged tRNA – Aminoacyl tRNA

synthetase(D) PolyU – Homopolymer of methionine


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19119. IARI has developed iron and calcium enriched:

(A) Pumpkin and carrot(B) Spinach and Bathua(C) tomato and Mustard(D) Frenchbean and Gardenpea

120. Molecular basis of organ differentiation dependson the modulation in transcription by :(A) RNA polymerase(B) Ribosome(C) Transcription factor(D) Anticodon

121. Which of the following inheritance is notpossible in given pedigree ?

(A) Autosomal recessive or X-linked recessive(B) Autosomal dominant(C) X-linked recessive(D) X-linked dominant

122. Green mufflar scheme is related to controllingof :-(A) Pesticide pollution (B) Sound pollution(C) Air pollution (D) Water pollution

123. Find out the incorrect match with respect toIndia ?(A) Biosphere reserve - 14(B) Indian hot spots - 3(C) Wild life sanctuaries - 448

(D) National parks - 85124. Ploidy level of nucellus, megaspore mother cell

and embryosac is respectively :-(A) n, n, n (B) 2n, 2n, n(C) n, 2n, 2n (D) 2n, 2n, 2n

125. Select the correct option :

126. The imperfect fungi which are decomposersof litter and help in mineral cycling belong to :-(A) Ascomycetes (B) Phycomycetes(C) Deuteromycetes (D) Basidiomycetes

127. Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobicoxidation of one acetyl CoA :-(A) 4 (B) 8(C) 10 (D) 12

128. Which of the following structure develops intofemale gametophyte ?(A) Megaspore mother cell(B) Functional microspore(C) Microspore mother cell(D) Functional megaspore


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19129. Branched lipid chain found in :-

(A) Archaebacteria (B) Mycoplasma(C) Bacteria (D) Cyanobacteria

130. Match the column :-

A B C D(A) v, viii ii, vi iii, vii i, iv(B) v, viii iii, vi iv, vii i, ii(C) v, viii iv, vi ii, iii i, vii(D) vi, vii i, viii ii, iii iv, v

131. Which one of the following is not a functionalunit of an ecosystem :-(A) Productivity (B) Stratification(C) Energy flow (D) Decomposition

132. Which one of the pair are living fossil ?(A) Cycas, Ginkgo biloba(B) Azolla, Pinus(C) Psilotum, Adiantum(D) Azolla, Ginkgo biloba

133. To obtain virus - free healthy plants from adiseased one by tissue culture technique, whichpart/parts of the diseased plant will be taken :-(A) Explant only(B) Palisade parenchyma(C) Both apical and axillary meristems(D) Epidermis only

134. Select the correct match :(a) S-phase — DNA replication(b) Zygotene — Synapsis(c) Diplotene — Crossing over(d) Meiosis division — Both haploid and diploid

cell(e) Gap-2-phase — Quiescent stage(A) a, b, c, d and e(B) a, b, d and e(C) a and b(D) a and c

135. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesisat higher temperature due to presence of :-(A) Bundle sheath(B) Pyruvic phosphate dikinase(C) Well differentiated mesophyll(D) Agrannel plastids in bundle sheath.


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19136. Identify the most popular contraceptive whose

features are given below :(i) They does not interfere with the act of coitus(ii) They are effective barriers for insemination(iii) They prevent the STDs(A) Condoms (B) Diaphragm(C) Vaults (D) Cervical cap

137. The processes which include concentration,separation and purification of recombinantproteins are collectively referred as :(A) Elution(B) Down stream processing(C) Up stream processing(D) Southern blotting

138. The polysaccharides made up of glucosemonomers are :(A) Sucrose, Lactose, Maltose(B) Maltose, Glycogen, Starch(C) Starch, Glycogen, Cellulose(D) Starch, Insulin, Peptidoglycan

139. Choose the option which is showing all correctinformation regarding evolution of horse.

140. Lacteals takes part in :-(A) Digestion of milk(B) Digestion of starch

(C) Absorption of fat(D) Absorption of starch

141. Which is true of muscle contraction?(A) Sarcolemma becomes permeable to Ca+2

ions.(B) Sarcolemma becomes permeable to Na+

ions.(C) Sarcolemma becomes nonpermeable to

Na+ ions.(D) Concentration of Ca+2 ion is reduced is

myoplasm.142. In Australia, animal like - Wombat, Banded

anteater, sugar glider, koala, shows :-(A) Convergent evolution(B) Adaptive radiation(C) Divergent evolution(D) B and C both

143. Gastric juice contains :-(A) Trypsin, lipase, rennin(B) Trypsin, pepsin, lipase(C) Pepsin, lipase, rennin(D) Pepsin, trypsin, rennin

144. Identify the given diagram and chooe the correctstatement about it ?

(A) A-Nerve cord, B-Alimentary canal(B) A-Notochord, C-Gill slits


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19(C) B-Notochord, C-Pharyngeal gill slits,(D) A-Nerve cord, D-Pre-anal part

145. Which is incorrect in following :(1) ABO blood groups are regulated by ‘I’ gene(2) ABO blood groups show multiple allelism(3) IA and IB produce same antigens(4) IA and IB are incomplete dominantCode :(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

146. Golden age of Amphibia was during.(A) Carboniferous (B) Holocene(C) Miocene (D) Silurian

147. Air filled dead space is :-(A) 500 ml (B) 350 ml(C) 150 ml (D) 1000 ml

148. Identify the given diagram and choose thecorrect option about cockroach.

(A) (b) is salivary part(B) Softening of food occurs in (d)(C) Six cuticular teeth are present at (f)(D) Structure (g) secretes almost all digestive

enzymes.

149. Which is caused by virus ?(A) Diptheria (B) Poliomyelitis(C) Tuberculosis (D) Syphilis

150. Muscle helps to increase the volume of thoraciccavity ?(A) Diaphragm and I.I.C.M.(B) Diaphragm and E.I.C.M(C) I.I.C.M and E.I.C.M.(D) I.I.C.M. and abdominal muscle

151. Choose the correct statement which is notcorrect about cockroach?(A) Malpighian tubules are chief excretory

organ of cockroach.(B) 13 paired alary muscles are found.(C) Haemolymph of cockroach does not help

in respiration.(D) Utriculi majores secrete the first layer of

spermatophore.152. Rejection of organ transplant is due to :-

(A) NK cells (B) B-cells(C) Killer T-cells (D) Supressor T-cells

153. Match the following :

(A) i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C(B) i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19(C) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D(D) i-B, ii-D, iii-C, iv-A

154. Which substances are completely reabsorbed:-(A) Glucose (B) Amino acid(C) Urea (D) (A) and (B) both

155. Choose the option in given below table reveals- correct match among three column

156. A gonadotropin hormone ‘X’ acts on interstitialcells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of‘Y’. Identify X and Y from the given option :(A) X = LH, Y = Androgen(B) X = FSH, Y = Testosterone(C) X = TSH, Y = Progesterone(D) X = GH, Y = Estrogen

157. Mammary glands of human female is type of :-(A) Compound tubulo saccular glands(B) Compound tubular glands(C) Simple glands(D) Compound alveolar glands

158. Restriction endonucleases are :(A) Not obtained from bacteria(B) Present in mammalian cells to protect from

viral infection

(C) Utilized to join two DNA segments(D) Utilized in genetic engineering

159. Out-crossing refers to the mating between :(A) The animals of same breed having atleast

one common ancestor upto 4-6 generations(B) The animals of same breed having no

common ancestors upto 4-6 generations oneither sides of pedigree

(C) Animals of two different breed of samespecies

(D) Animals of two different species of samegenus

160. How do thyroxine and adrenaline affect theworking of the heart :-(A) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output(B) Increase both heart rate and cardiac output(C) Heart rate decrease but cardiac output

increase(D) Heart rate increases without affecting the

cardiac output161. Lysine and arginine amino acids are :

(A) (+)ively charged(B) (–)ively charged(C) Neural(D) Lysine in (+)ively charged and Arginine is

(–)ively charged162. Which statement is not correct ?

(A) The number of cervical vertebrae are sevenin almost all mammals

(B) Number of floating ribs in human are twopairs.

(C) Number of cranial bones in human are 22.


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19(D) Number of vertebro chondral ribs in human

are 3 pairs.163. Potato and sweet potato are example of

(A) Homologous organ(B) Vestigial structure(C) Analogous structure(D) Atavism

164. Diphyodont teeth in Human is :-(A) 2nd premolar (B) 2nd molar(C) 1st premolar (D) 3rd molar

165. Which of the following bone is not a part ofappendicular skeleton?(A) Humerous (B) Tibia(C) Scaphoid (D) Sternum

166. Total volume of air person can expire after anormal inspiration is :-(A) Residual volume(B) Inspiratory capacity(C) Expiratory capacity(D) Vital capacity

167. Regulatory proteins of skeletal muscle are :-(A) Actin and myosin(B) Troponin and tropomyosin(C) Actinin and troponin(D) Tropomyosin and myosin

168. Cancer of epithelial cells is called ?(A) Carcinoma (B) Sarcoma(C) Leukemia (D) Lipoma

169. ‘A’ cells start division and enter in ‘B’ stage ofmeiotic division and get temporarily ‘C’ at thisstage, called ‘D’ identify A, B, C and D :-(A) A-Oogonia, B-Metaphase-I, C-Arrested,

D-Primary oocyte(B) A-Oogonia, B-Anaphase-I, C-Peleased, D-

Secondary oocyte(C) A-Oogonia, B-Prophase I, C-Arrested, D-

Primary oocyte(D) A-Oogonia, B-Telophase-I, C-Released, D-

Secondary oocyte170. Petromyzon differs from scoliodon in having:-

(A) Jawed mouth (B) Cranium(C) Circular mouth (D) Scales

171. Which of the following statements regardingsertoli cell is correct ?(A) It is found in seminiferous tubule and secrete

testosterone hormone(B) It is a place where spermatozoa is

concentrated and stored until ejaculation(C) It secrete spermatozoa activating substance

like fructose, citrate, inositol, prostaglandinand protein

(D) It is found in seminiterous tubule andfunction as nurse cells for differentiatingspermatozoa

172. Pneumatic bones are present in :-(A) Archaeopterix (B) Chelone(C) Corvus (D) Pteropus


AITS-Full Test Series # 01 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19173. Which of the following nerve helps in

maintaining the equilibrium of body :(A) Auditory nerve(B) Abducens nerve(C) Trochlear nerve(D) Cochlear nerve

174. Immunity aquired after an infection is ?(A) Active immunity(B) Passive immunity(C) Innate immunity(D) both B and C

175. Which of the following is incorrectly matched:-(A) Gel electrophoresis – separation of charged

biomolecules(B) Competent host cell – cell ready to uptake

alien DNA(C) Biolistic method – vector mediated gene

transfer(D) DNA ligase – Molecular glue

176. In retina three layers of neural cells from outsideto inside is :-(A) Photoreceptor cells – Bipolar cells –

Ganglion cells(B) Ganglion cells – Bipolar cells –

Photoreceptor cells(C) Bipolar cells – Ganglion cells –

Photoreceptor cells(D) Photoreceptor cells – Ganglion cells –

Bipolar cells

177. Which of the following is incorrect match ?(A) Physalia – Portuguese man of war(B) Meandrina – Staghorn coral(C) Gorgonia – Sea fan(D) Pennatula – Sea pen

178. Wall of alveoli is composed of :-(A) Simple squamous epithelium(B) Simple cuboidal epithelium(C) Pseudostratified epithelium(D) Simple columnar epithelim

179. What is the effect of pCO2 on oxygen transport?(A) Low pCO2 favours the formation of

carbaminohaemoglobin(B) High pCO2 favours the dissociation of

oxygen from oxy-haemoglobin(C) Low pCO2 favours the formation of oxygen

from erythrocytes(D) High pCO2 favours the dissociation of CO2

from haemoglobin180. Smack and crack are the common names of

which of following drugs?(A) morphine and ganja respectively(B) cocaine and LSD respectively(C) heroin and cocaine respectively(D) cocaine and heroin respectively

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AITS FULL TEST : FT # 01(NEET PATTERN)

Target : NEET - 2019Date : 10 - 03 - 2019 SET - A

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Point Pen. Useof Pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. When you are directed, fill in the particulars of the Answer Sheet carefully.

3. The test is 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.

5. There are three parts in the question paper Biology having 90 questions and Physics and

Chemistry having 45 questions each.

6. For each question, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) correspondindto the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, 1 (one)marks will be deducted.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in anyquestion will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be decuctedaccordingly as per instructions 6 above.

Filling the ORS (Optical Response Sheet) :

Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel/lnk pen as it might smudgethe ORS.

8. Write your Roll no. in the books given. Also darken the corresponding bubbles with Blackball point pen only. Also fill your roll no in the space provided.

9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper.

10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/hermarks will not be displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.

11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremelycareful while darkening the bubble corresponding to your answer.

12. Neither try to erase/rub/scratch the option nor make the Cross(X) mark on the option oncefilled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks orwhitener anywhere on the ORS.

13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS thebubbled data will be taken as final.

Name of the candidate

I have read all the instructions and shall abideby them

.............................................................................Signature of the Candidate

Roll Number :

I have read all the instructions and shall abideby them

.............................................................................Signature of the Candidate

Documents

Academic Session : 2018 - 19 AITS FULL TEST (FT) : FT # 01