All India Aakash Test Series-2017 Online Test – 2aakashonline.in/ASPNET_Pages/solution/AIATSTYMED2017PT2_Solution.pdfAll India Aakash Test Series-2017 Online Test - 2 (Objective)

Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2017

1/31

TOPIC COVERED

PHYSICS

Kinematics-II: Scalar and vector quantities: general vectors, general vectors and notation, equality of vectors,

multiplication of vectors by a real number; addition and subtraction of vectors. Relative velocity. Unit vectors.

Resolution of a vector in a plane-rectangular components. Motion in a plane. Cases of uniform velocity and uniform

acceleration- projectile motion. Uniform circular motion

CHEMISTRY

Structure of Atom & Classification of Elements and Periodicity in properties

BIOLOGY

Salient Features and classification of Protista and Fungi into major groups; Lichens; Viruses and Viroids, Salient

Features and classification of animals-chordate up to classes level

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 720

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online Test – 2

Choose the correct answer :

1. The coordinate of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = t3 and y = t3. The speed of the particle at

time t is given by

(1) 2 23 t

(2) 2 2 23 t

(3) 2 2 2 t

(4) 2 2 2. If a ball is thrown vertically upward with speed u, the distance covered during last t second of its ascent is s.

Now if the speed is doubled to 2u what would be the distance travelled in last t second of its ascent?

(1) s

(2) 2s

(3) 4s

(4) 9s

3. From the top of a tower, a stone is thrown up. It reaches the ground in t1 second. A second stone thrown down

with same speed reaches the ground in t2 second. A third stone released from rest reaches the ground in t

3

second, then

(1)1 2

32

t t

t

(2)3 1 2t t t

(3)3 1 2

1 1 1 t t t

(4) t3

2 = t1

2 + t2

2

[ PHYSICS ]

All India Aakash Test Series-2017 Online Test - 2 (Objective)

2/31

4. A point moves along a circle with speed v = at. The tangential acceleration of the point at time, when it has

travelled 1th

8 of the circumference is

(1)8

v

a

(2)2

2 4 a

(3) a

(4)2

42

a

5. For a particle in uniform circular motion with speed v, the acceleration �

a at a point P(R, ) on the circle of radius

R is (Here is measured from the x-axis)

P

X

R

(1)

2 2

ˆ ˆv vi j

R R

(2)

2 2

ˆ ˆcos sin v v

i jR R

(3)

2 2

ˆ ˆsin cos v v

i jR R

(4)

2 2

ˆ ˆcos cos v v

i jR R

6. A parachutist steps from an aircraft falls freely for two second and then opens his parachute. Which of the following

acceleration-time (a - t) graph best represent his downward acceleration a during the first t second?

(1)

a

t

(2)

a

t

(3)

a

t


3/31

(4)

a

t

7. A particle is thrown with the speed u at an angle with the horizontal. When the particle makes an angle with

the horizontal, its speed will be

(1) u cos

(2) u cos sec

(3) u cos cos

(4) u sec cos

8. A car is moving at a constant speed of 40 km/h along a straight road which heads towards a large vertical wall

and makes a sharp 90º turn by the side of the wall. A fly flying at a constant speed of 100 km/h, starts from

the wall towards the car at an instant when the car is 20 km away, flies untill it reaches the glass plane of the

car and return to the wall at same speed. It continue to fly between car and the wall till the car makes 90º turn.

The total distance the fly has travelled during this period

(1) 50 km

(2) 100 km

(3) 25 km

(4) 150 km

9. Six particles situated at the corners of a regular hexagon of side a move at a constant speed v. Each particle

maintains a direction towards the particle at the next corner. The time the particle will take to meet each other

(1)v

a

(2)2a

v

(3)2

a

v

(4)3

2

a

v

10. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity u (relative to ground) from the balloon descending with a constant

velocity v. The ball will pass by the balloon after time

(1)2

u v

g

(2)2 u v

g

(3)2 2u v

g

(4)u v

g


4/31

11. Choose the correct statement related to a non- uniform circular motion.

(1) Tangential acceleration =

�

dv

dt

(2) Tangential acceleration = | |�

d v

dt

(3) Centripetal acceleration =

�

dv

dt

(4) Centripetal acceleration = 2v

12. If a car covers 2th

5 of the total distance with speed v

1 and

3th

5

distance with speed v2 then average speed is

(1) 1 2

1

2v v

(2)1 2

2

v v

(3)1 2

1 2

2

v v

v v

(4)1 2

1 2

5

3 2v v

v v

13. The graph between height and KE of particle in projectile motion is

(1) Parabolic

(2) Straight line

(3) Circle

(4) Ellipse

14. When a man walks on a straight road with speed of 5 km/h, rain appears to fall vertically downward. As he stops

the rain appears to fall at angle of 30º with vertical, the speed of rain w.r.t. ground is

(1) 10 km/h

(2) 5 km/h

(3) 5 3 km/h

(4) 10 3 km/h

15. Acceleration of a body is given by the equation a = (4 – 3v) m/s2, speed v is in m/s and t is in second. If initial

velocity is zero, then velocity of the body when acceleration becomes zero is

(1)4

3 m/s

(2)3

4m/s

(3) 4 m/s

(4) Infinite


5/31

16. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given as

2

22

xy x , the maximum height of projectile is

(1) 4 m

(2) 1 m

(3) 2 m

(4) 10 m

17. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a velocity v0. It will be moving at an angle 60º with

the horizontal after time

(1)0

3

v

g

(2)0

3v

g

(3)0

v

g

(4)0

2

v

g

18. If the instantaneous velocity of a projectile is given by ˆ ˆ( ) v ai b ct j where a, b and c are constant, the range

of the projectile will be

(1)2ab

c

(2)ab

c

(3)ac

b

(4)2

a

bc

19. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled in time

03

2

v

g is

(1)

2

0

2

v

g

(2)

2

03

8

v

g

(3)

2

05

8

v

g

(4)

2

010

3

v

g


6/31

20. A ship X moving due north with speed v observes that another ship Y is moving due west with same speed v.

The actual velocity of Y is

(1) 2v towards southwest

(2) 2v towards northwest

(3) 2v towards southeast

(4) v towards northwest

21. In CH4 molecule, there are four C–H bonds. If two adjacent bonds are in ˆ ˆ ˆ i j k and ˆ ˆ ˆ i j k direction, then

find the angle between these bonds.

(1)1 1

sin5

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(2)1 1

cos3

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(3)1 1

sin2

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(4)1 1

cos3

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

22. A pilot is to flag an aircraft with velocity v due east. Wind is blowing due south with a velocity u. Find the time

for a round trip A to B and back : (A and B are l distance away)

(1) 2 2

l

v u

(2) 2 2

2

l

v u

(3)2l

v

(4) 2 2

2

l

v u

23. A vector of magnitude a is rotated through angle . What is the magnitude of the change in the vector?

(1) 2a sin(2) 2a cos

(3) 2 sin2

a

(4) 2 cos2

a

24. The magnitude of a component of ˆ ˆ3 4 �

A i j in the direction of ˆ ˆ �

B i j is

(1) 3

(2)7

5

(3)7

2

(4) 7


7/31

25. A boy standing on a long railroad car throws a ball straight upwards, he is moving on the horizontal road with

an acceleration 1 m/s2 the vertical velocity given is 9.8 m/s. How far behind the boy the ball will fall on the railroad

car?

(1) 1m

(2)3

2m

(3)7

4m

(4) 2 m

26. An elevator is moving with 2.5 ms-1. A bolt in the elevator ceiling 5 m above the elevator falls. How long does it

take for the bolt to fall on the floor of elevator?

(1) 0.5 s

(2) 0.8 s

(3) 1 s

(4) 1.2 s

27. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower and cover half the height of the tower in the last second of its

journey. The time taken by the stone to reach the foot of the tower is

(1) (2 2) s

(2) 4 s

(3) (2 2) s

(4) (2 2) s

28. A particle moves along the x-axis as

x = u(t – 2s) + a(t – 2s)2

(1) Initial velocity of the particle is u

(2) The acceleration of the particle is a

(3) The acceleration of the particle is 2a

(4) At t = 2s particle is at x = 1m

29. A particle is projected upwards. The times corresponding to height h while ascending and while descending are

t1 and t

2 respectively. The velocity of projection will be

(1) gt1

(2) gt2

(3) g(t1 + t

2)

(4) 1 2( )

2

gt t

30. From a tap 10 m high water drops fall at regular intervals. When the first drop reaches the ground, the 5th drop

is about to leave the tap. Find the separation between 2nd and 3rd drops.

(1)35

m8

(2)31

m8

(3)27

8

(4)25

m8


8/31

31. A person is standing on a truck moving with 15 ms–1 on a horizontal road. He throws a ball so that if returns to

him when the truck has moved 60 m. Find the speed of the ball and angle of projection as seen by a man standing

on the road.

(1) 20 ms–1, 53º

(2) 25 ms–1, 53º

(3) 20 ms–1, Vertical

(4) 20 ms–1, Horizontal

32. A particle is thrown from ground with speed u at an angle above horizontal. Radius curvature of its path at the

highest point is

(1)

2 2cosu

g

(2)

2

cos

u

g

(3)

2

2cos

u

g

(4)

2

2

u

g

33. A helicopter is flying at 3564 m above ground. If an angle of 30º is subtended at a ground point by the helicopter

position 100 s apart. What is the speed of the helicopter?

(1) 100 ms–1

(2) 150 ms–1

(3) 20 ms–1

(4) 25 ms–1

34. A boat having a speed of 5 km/h in still water, crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in

15 minutes. The speed of the river water in km/h is

(1) 1

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 41

35. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in the nth second

to the distance covered in n seconds is given by

(1)2

2 1n n

(2)2

1 1nn

(3)2

2 1nn

(4)2

2 1n n


9/31

36. When the speed of a car is v, the minimum distance over which it can be stopped is s. If the speed becomes

nv, what will be the minimum distance over which it can be stopped by the same force?

(1)s

n

(2) ns

(3)2

s

n

(4) n2s

37. A bird flies with a speed v = | t – 2 | ms–1 along a straight line, where t is the time in seconds. The distance

travelled by the bird during first four second is equal to

(1) 2 m

(2) 4 m

(3) 6 m

(4) 8 m

38. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity at angle to the horizontal. The kinetic energy (KE) of the ball varies

with horizontal displacement (x) as

(1)

x

KE

(2)

x

KE

(3)

x

KE

(4)

x

KE


10/31

39. A body of mass 3 kg falls from the multi-storeyed building 100 m high and buries itself 2 m deep in the sand.

The time of penetration is

(1) 5 s

(2)1

5 s

(3)1

5 5 s

(4)1

5 s

40. Two stones are projected with same speed but make different angles with the horizontal. Their ranges are equal.

If the angle of projection of one is 3

and its maximum height is y

1, then the maximum height of other will be

(1) 3y1

(2) 2y1

(3)1

2

y

(4)1

3

y

41. A plane flying horizontally at 100 m/s releases an object which reaches the ground in 10 s. At what angle with

horizontal it hits the ground?

(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 45º

(2) 30º

(3) 60º

(4) 53º

42. A particle is moving along x-axis whose instantaneous speed is v = (2x + 1) m/s. The acceleration of particle at

x = 0 is

(1) 2 m/s2

(2) 4 m/s2

(3) 5 m/s2

(4) Zero

43. In figure D C��

equals

B

E

C

D

A

(1) A��

(2) A��

(3) B��

(4) B��


11/31

[ CHEMISTRY ]

46. Which of the following sets of elements would have nearly same atomic radii?

(1) Na, K, Rb, Cs

(2) Na, Mg, Al, Si

(3) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu

(4) F, Cl, Br, I

47. Which of the following is smallest in size?

(1) N3–

(2) O2–

(3) F–

(4) Na+

48. Which of the following valence shell configuration has the lowest ionization potential?

(1) 2p3

(2) 3s1

(3) 3p6

(4) 2p6

44. Two particles are simultaneously projected in opposite directions horizontally from a given point in space where

gravity g is uniform. If u1 and u

2 be their initial speeds, then the time t after which their velocities are mutually

perpendicular is given by

(1)1 2

u u

g

(2)

2 2

1 2u u

g

(3)1 1 2( )u u u

g

(4)2 1 2( )u u u

g

45. The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36t m and 2y = 96 t – 9.8 t2 m. The angle of projection is

(1)1 4

sin5

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(2)1 3

sin5

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(3)1 4

sin3

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(4)1 3

sin4

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠


12/31

49. The process requiring the absorption of energy is

(1) F F–

(2) Cl Cl–

(3) O O2–

(4) H H–

50. The correct order of second ionisation potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is

(1) C > N > O > F

(2) O > N > F > C

(3) O > F > N > C

(4) F > O > N > C

51. The general electronic configuration of coinage metals is

(1) (n–1)p6ns1

(2) (n–1)p6ns2

(3) (n–1)d6ns2

(4) (n–1)d10ns1

52. Electron affinity of nitrogen is

(1) Higher than that of phosphorus

(2) Lower than that of phosphorus

(3) Comparable to that of phosphorus

(4) Identical to that of phosphorus

53. Which of the following is/are neutral oxide?

(1) NO

(2) N2O

(3) CO

(4) All of these

54. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons?

(1) Mg2+

(2) Ti3+

(3) V3+

(4) Fe2+

55. An electron is accelerated to one tenth the velocity of light. If its velocity can be measured with a precision of

1%, then the uncertainty in its position is equal to or greater than

(1) 1.93 nm

(2) 19.3 nm

(3) 19.3 pm

(4) 193 pm

56. A light whose frequency is equal to 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal whose work function is

2 eV (h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19J). The maximum energy of electrons emitted will be

(1) 2.49 eV

(2) 4.49 eV

(3) 0.49 eV

(4) 5.49 eV


13/31

57. Which among the following is correct match of A and B, in normal state?

A B

(1)

2s 2p

: Violation of Hund’s rule

(2) : Violation of Aufbau principle as well as Hund’s rule

(3) : Violation of Pauli’s exclusion principle

(4) : Violation of Aufbau principle

58. The distance between 3rd and 2nd Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is

(1) 0.529 × 10–8 cm

(2) 2.645 × 10–8 cm

(3) 2.116 × 10–8 cm

(4) 1.058 × 10–8 cm

59. Which transition will give shortest wavelength in H–spectrum?

(1) 2 1

(2) 4 2

(3) 6 3

(4) 8 4

60. Millikan’s oil drop experiment determine which property of electron?

(1) Charge

(2) Mass

(3) Size

(4) Frequency

61. The correct Schrodinger’s wave equation for an electron with E as total energy and V as potential energy is

(1)

2 2 2 2

2 2 2 2

8(E – V) 0

x y z mh

(2)

2 2 2

2 2 2 2

8 m(E – V) 0

x y z h

(3)

2 2 2 2

2 2 2 2

8 m(E – V) 0

x y z h

(4)

2 2 2 2

2 2 2

8( ) 0

hx y z

mE–V

62. What should be the ratio of energies of the fifth orbit of Li+2 and He+?

(1) 4 : 9

(2) 9 : 4

(3) 12 : 16

(4) 7 : 2


14/31

63. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of electron?

(1) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2

(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2

(3) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

(4) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

64. Out of X-rays, visible, ultraviolet rays and radiowaves the largest frequency is of

(1) X-rays

(2) Visible

(3) Ultraviolet

(4) Radiowaves

65. A 3-p orbital has

(1) Two non-spherical nodes

(2) Two spherical nodes

(3) One spherical and one non-spherical node

(4) One spherical and two non-spherical node

66. If a species has 16 protons, 18 electrons and 16 neutrons, find the species and its charge.

(1) S2–

(2) S2

–

(3) S3–

(4) S2

2–

67. The diameter of the second orbit of hydrogen atom should be

(1) 2.12 Å

(2) 4.23 Å

(3) 2.10 Å

(4) 4.01 Å

68. Which is not permissible subshell?

(1) 2 d

(2) 4 f

(3) 6 p

(4) 3 s

69. How many electrons can have the quantum numbers n = 3, l = anything, ml = 1, m

s = anything?

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 1

(4) 6

70. Number of waves produced by the complete revolution of electron in nth orbit is

(1) n

(2) n2

(3) (n +1)

(4) (2n + 1)


15/31

71. Select the wrong combination among the following.

(1)239 238

92 92U, U (Isotopes)

(2)16 14

8 6O, U (Isotones)

(3)14 14

6 7C, N (Isobar)

(4)77 78

33 34As, Se (Isoelectronic)

72. Which statement is false for cathode rays?

(1) They travel in straight line

(2) They are deflected by electric and magnetic field

(3) These rays affect photographic plate

(4) The cathode rays do not possess kinetic energy

73. Zeeman effect explains splitting of line spectrum in

(1) Magnetic field

(2) Electric field

(3) X-rays

(4) Non-magnetic field

74. Which of the following quantum number is not related to Schrodinger wave equation?

(1) n

(2) l

(3) m

(4) s

75. The hydrogen line spectrum provides evidence for the

(1) Heisenberg uncertainty principle

(2) Wave-like properties of light

(3) Diatomic nature of H2

(4) Quantized nature of atomic energy states

76. Which of the given compound cannot exist?

(1) Cl2O

(2) NCl5

(3) CCl4

(4) PCl5

77. f-block elements are

(1) Metal

(2) Non metal

(3) Semi metal

(4) Metal and semi metal

78. Valence shell electronic configuration of Nitrogen family represented as

(1) ns2 np2

(2) ns2 np3

(3) ns2 np4

(4) ns2 np5


16/31

79. Which of the following element has positive electron gain enthalpy?

(1) B

(2) Cl

(3) Xe

(4) All of these

80. The formula of oxide of an element (X) whose successive ionisation energies are 2.4 eV, 5.4 eV, 36.3eV, 50.2eV

(1) XO

(2) X2O

(3) X2O

3

(4) XO2

81. Which graph shows the energy (E) of a photon related to its wavelength ()?

(1)

E

(2)

E

(3)

E

(4)

E

82. In which of the d-orbitals lobes lies on the x-y axis?

(1) dxz

only

(2) dxy

only

(3) 2 2x y

d only

(4) dxy and 2 2

x yd

83. Assuming same velocity exactly, which particle will have lowest de Broglie wavelength?

(1) Electron

(2) Proton

(3) Neutron

(4) All of these


17/31

84. The order of basic nature of given oxides is

(1) Na2O > MgO > Al

2O

3 > CuO

(2) MgO > Al2O

3 > CuO > Na

2O

(3) Al2O

3 > MgO > CuO > Na

2O

(4) CuO > Na2O > MgO > Al

2O

3

85. The positron is as heavy as a/an

(1) Proton

(2) Neutron

(3) Electron

(4) Deutron

86. IUPAC name of element having atomic number (Z = 109)

(1) Ununnilium

(2) Unnilennium

(3) Ununbium

(4) Unniloctium

87. Which element has lowest ionization energy?

(1) Li

(2) H

(3) He

(4) Cs

88. Elements in Actinides series are according to Atomic number (Z)

(1) Z = 58 to Z = 71

(2) Z = 89 to Z = 103

(3) Z = 90 to Z = 103

(4) Z = 89 to Z = 102

89. If atomic number of an element is 33, it will be placed in the periodic table in the

(1) First group

(2) Group-14

(3) Group-15

(4) Group-17

90. Correct order of electronegativity for given elements

a. Cl

b. O

c. S

d. H

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) b > a > c > d

(3) b > a > d > c

(4) b > c > a > d


18/31

91. The kingdom where boundaries are not well defined have species or organisms which

(1) Are solely multicellular

(2) Are primarily terresterial

(3) Forms a link with other eukaryotic kingdoms

(4) Always possess a cell wall

92. Chrysophytes are mainly

(1) Zooplanktons

(2) Passive floaters

(3) Active swimmers

(4) Nektons

93. Super abundance of which of the following organism causes red tides in warm coastal water?

(1) Trichodesmium

(2) Euglena

(3) Desmids

(4) Gonyaulax

94. Amoeba differ from puffballs in which of the following characteristics?

(1) Cell type

(2) Absence of nuclear membrane

(3) Body organisation

(4) Absence of pseudopodia

95. The cell walls in Diatoms

(1) Form two thick overlapping shells

(2) Are embedded with silica

(3) Are destructible

(4) Are made of cellulose and suberin

96. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Protista

(1) The cell body lacks a well-defined nucleus

(2) Reproduces only asexually

(3) Reproduces sexually by cell fusion and zygote formation

(4) All are single celled eukaryotes and heterotrophs

97. Select the correct option with respect to the following diagram.

(1) They are obligate autotrophs

(2) They have a flexible proteinaceous cell wall

(3) They show flagellar locomotion

(4) These are exclusively marine

[ BIOLOGY ]


19/31

98. How many protistan members mentioned in the box are not photosynthetic autotrophs?

Gymnodinium, Melosira, Fuligo, Physarum, Dictyostelium,

Paramoecium, Chlamydomonas Trypanosoma, Gonyaulax ,

(1) Five

(2) Four

(3) Seven

(4) Six

99. Select the mismatch :

(1) Diatomaceous Earth : Used in polishing

(2) Dinoflagellates : Chief producers in oceans

(3) Euglenoids : Majority found in stagnant water

(4) Protozoans : Heterotrophs

100. Dinoflagellates differ from Euglenoids in having

(1) Two flagella

(2) Pigments identical to higher plants

(3) Flexible body due to protein rich pellicle

(4) A cell wall with stiff cellulosic plates

101. Which of the following statements are correct for all four organisms given in the box?

Entamoeba Trypanosoma Paramoecium Plasmodium, , ,

(a) All are heterotrophs

(b) Capture prey by putting out pseudopodia

(c) Have infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle

(d) Actively moving organisms

(e) Primitive relatives of animals

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (e)

(4) (c), (d) and (e)

102. Select the correct statement for slime moulds:

(1) Form plasmodium in unfavourable conditions

(2) Plasmodium differentiates to form fruiting bodies which bear gametes at tips

(3) Produce spores with true walls which are extremely resistant in adverse conditions

(4) Are chemo-autotrophic saprophytes

103. In Paramoecium, cilia helps in

(1) Active movement

(2) Steering water laden with food into gullet

(3) Protection from predators

(4) More than one option is correct


20/31

104. The protistian cell body

(1) Lack 80 S ribosomes

(2) Contains membrane bound organelles

(3) Lack cilia or flagella always

(4) Contains double stranded circular DNA in cytoplasm

105. Select the incorrect statement:

(1) Protozoans live as predators or chemoautotrophs

(2) Slime moulds move along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material

(3) Most Chrysophytes are photosynthetic

(4) Dinoflagellates show mesokaryotic nucleus

106. In which of the following features the protistans are similar to prokaryotes?

A. Body organisation

B. Cell wall composition

C. Cell type

D. Showing chemosynthetic autotrophic nutrition

E. Presence of nuclear membrane

Mark the correct option:

(1) A and C

(2) A, C and E

(3) Only A

(4) A and D

107. In Paramoecium, the metabolic activities and growth is controlled by

(1) Micronucleus

(2) Macronucleus

(3) Cilia

(4) Mitochondria

108. In which of the following features the saprobic protists resemble fungi?

(a) Mode of nutrition

(b) Fruiting body formation

(c) Spore formation

(d) Similar cell wall composition in vegetative stage

(1) Only (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (c) & (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

109. Select the features which is seen in majority of the fungi:

Mycelia type Cell wall Mode of

composition nutrition

(1) Coenocytic Chitin Parasitic

(2) Septate Cellulose Saprobic

(3) Coenocytic Cellulose Parasitic

(4) Septate Chitin Saprobic


21/31

110. Sexual reproduction produces resting diploid zygospore in the life cycle of

(1) Pythium, Claviceps

(2) Mucor, Rhizopus

(3) Aspergillus, Erysiphe

(4) Armillaria, Lycoperdon

111. Oospore, ascospores and basidiospores are

(1) Meiospores

(2) Exogenous asexual spores

(3) Sexual spores

(4) Diploid spores

112. In which of the following features members of Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes show similarity?

(1) Presence of perfect stage

(2) Septate and unbranched mycelium

(3) Asexual reproduction by conidia

(4) Absence of sex organs

113. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the following diagram:

A

B

(1) A – represents pileus, B – Annulus

(2) Forms exogenous meiospores

(3) Produces coenocytic mycelium

(4) The fungus is mainly parasitic

114. Which of the following organism shows hallucinating properties similar to LSD and is used by Mexican Indians

during religious ceremonies?

(1) Ustilago nuda

(2) Psilocybe mexicana

(3) Armillaria

(4) Agaricus campestris

115. Select the incorrect match

(1) Morels and Truffles : Edible Basidiocarp

(2) Agaricus : Forms fairy rings

(3) Penicillium : Ascocarp

(4) Alternaria : Early blight of potato


22/31

116. The following life-cycle pattern is associated with which of the following groups of fungi?

Heterothallic hypha (n)

PlasmogamyLong-lived dikaryotic

hypha (n + n)

Karyogamy

SynkaryonMeiosis

Haploidspores

(1) Sac fungi

(2) Club fungi

(3) Conjugation fungi

(4) Egg fungi

117. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the members of Deuteromycetes

(1) Only asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi are known

(2) Large number of them help in mineral cycling

(3) Their mycelium is septate, branched and dikaryotic

(4) They reproduce by conidia

118. How many features given in the box can be associated with fungi?

Loose tissue organisation, Eukaryotic, Multicellular,

Osmotroph, Holophytic, Gradual degeneration of sex

(1) Five

(2) Four

(3) Six

(4) Three

119. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.Neurospora.

(1) Forms endogenous sexual spores

(2) Used extensively in biochemical and genetic work

(3) Shows unorderly arrangement of ascospores

(4) Produces flask-shaped ascocarps

120. How many members in the given box produce fruiting bodies which forms exogenous meiospores?

Trichoderma Fusarium Saccharomyces Albugo Agaricus

Aspergillus Pythium Puccinia Peziza Ustilago Pleospora

, , , , ,

, , , , ,

(1) Four

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) One

121. What is the function of capsid in a virus?

(1) Makes the virus infectious

(2) Helps in the crystallisation of virus

(3) Protects the nucleic acid

(4) Significant for replication of genetic material


23/31

122. The recent pandemic Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) which killed hundreds of people in Saudi Arabia

is caused by

(1) Corona virus (2) Retro virus

(3) DNA virus (4) Hybrid virus

123. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the given figure of the virus.

(1) A zoophagineae with dsRNA

(2) A bacteriophage with dsRNA

(3) A plant virus with dsDNA

(4) T4 bacteriophage with dsDNA

124. Mark the mismatch :

(1) Pasteur : Coined the term virus

(2) W.M. Stanley : Crystallised virus and

found that crystals,

are largely consists of

nucleotides

(3) Beijerinck : Demonstrated that

extract of infectious

plants caused infection

in new tobacco plant

(4) Ivanowsky : Recognised that

microbes causing

mosaic disease of

tobacco are smaller

than bacteria

125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. virusoids

(1) Sometimes called satellite RNA

(2) Are packaged together with plant viruses

(3) Are pathogenic to animals

(4) Replicates within the host

126. Find the odd one w.r.t. prions.

(1) Cause degenerative neurological diseases in sheep and humans

(2) Contain ribonucleotide protein particles

(3) Are proteinaceous infectious agent

(4) Stanley B. Prusiner introduced the term and got Nobel prize for pioneering work on prions


24/31

127. Fungi grow and multiply preferentially in which of the following conditions?

(1) Cool and dry

(2) Hot and humid

(3) Dry and detritus rich

(4) Warm and dry

128. Select the incorrect statement for viroids.

(1) Discovered by T.O. Diener

(2) Have low molecular weight RNA

(3) Their free DNA lacks a protein coat

(4) Caused potato spindle tuber disease

129. Lichens are dual organisms, which show symbiotic association between

(1) Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic organisms

(2) Autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms

(3) Fungi and roots of higher plants

(4) More than one option is correct

130. In Endomycorrhizal associations

(1) Hartig Net is formed

(2) Fungal hyphae forms network in the intercellular spaces of cortex in stem of plants

(3) VAM (Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza) is formed

(4) Fungal partner is Boletus

131. Match items from column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

a. Lichen (i) Coliphage × 174

b. ss-DNA virus (ii) Usually plant viruses

c. ss-RNA virus (iii) Sub-viral particles

d. Free infectious RNA (iv) Do not grow in polluted area

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

132. Oogamous sexual reproduction is shown by

(1) Agaricus, Rhizopus

(2) Aspergillus, Colletotrichum

(3) Albugo, Pythium

(4) Saprolegnia, Rhizopus

133. In the five kingdom classification of Whitttaker there is no mention of

(1) Lichens, BGA, viroids

(2) Lichens and non-cellular microbes

(3) Mycorrhiza, BGA and viroids

(4) Prions, virus and algae


25/31

134. Select the incorrect option w.r.t site of meiosis

(1) Rhizopus : Zygospore

(2) Penicillium : Ascus

(3) Agaricus : Basidia

(4) Trichoderma : Oospore

135. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for the industrial production of

(1) Citric acid

(2) Butyric acid

(3) Ethanol

(4) Butanol

136. Given below is the diagram of a chordate. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D. Select the right option.

BA

C

D

[A]

(1)

(2)

Nerve cord Notochord Gills slits Post anal tail

[B] [C] [D]

Notochord Nerve cord Gills slits Post anal tail

(3) Notochord Nerve cord Gills slits Tail fin

Nerve cord Notochord Gills cleft(4) Regressing post anal part

137. Which of the following is the correct statement about diagram given below?

(1) Notochord is present only in larval tail

(2) Excretion by protonephridia

(3) Development direct

(4) Both (1) & (2)


26/31

138. Which of the following feature is not true for all vertebrates?

(1) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates

(2) Vertebrates have ventral heart

(3) In vertebrates, kidneys are for excretion and osmoregulation

(4) All vertebrates have paired appendages

139. Which of the following features is not true for the following diagram?

(1) It is marine but migrates for spawning to fresh water

(2) It has 7 pairs of gill slits

(3) It has a sucking and circular mouth without jaws

(4) Its body is devoid of scales and unpaired fins

140. Which of the following is correct feature for teleosts?

(1) Gills are not covered by an operculum

(2) Air bladders are absent

(3) It includes both marine and fresh water fishes

(4) Sexes are separate and fertilization internal

141. Choose the incorrect match.

(1) Scoliodon – Dog fish

(2) Trygon – Electric ray

(3) Pristis – Saw fish

(4) Carcharodon – White shark

142. Which of the following is angel fish?

(1) Pterophyllum

(2) Coelocanth

(3) Rohu

(4) Hippocampus

143. Which of the following feature is not true for the fish shown below?

(1) It has four pairs of gills

(2) Skin is covered with cycloid scales

(3) It is poikilothermous

(4) It is viviparous and shows parental care


27/31


(1) Exocoetus – Marine fish

(2) Labeo – Fresh water fish

(3) Clarius – Bhakur

(4) Betta – Fighting fish

145. Petromyzon, Pterophyllum, Psittacula, Testudo, Pteropus, Pristis, Salamandra.

How many of above animals are Poikilotherms?

(1) Three

(2) Five

(3) Four

(4) Six


(1) Bufo – Toad

(2) Alytes – Midwife toad

(3) Hyla – Flying frog

(4) Ichthyophis – Limbless amphibian

147. Select the incorrect statement about amphibians.

(1) Most of them have two pairs of limbs

(2) Body is divisible into head and trunk

(3) A tympanum represents the ear

(4) The amphibian skin is moist with scales

148. How many of the given characteristics are incorrect for amphibians?

(a) Skull is dicondylic

(b) Alimentary canal opens into cloaca

(c) Development is indirect

(d) These are homeothermous

(e) Body divided into head, neck and trunk

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Four

149. Ichthyophis differs from snake in possessing

(1) Mesonephric kidney

(2) Glandular skin

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) Metanephric kidney

150. Select the incorrect statement about Reptilia

(1) Scales are mesodermal

(2) Mostly oviparous and lay shelled eggs

(3) Heart three chambered

(4) Amnion present around embryo


28/31


(1) Chameleon – Show camouflage

(2) Calotes – Tree lizard

(3) Hemidactylus – Wall lizard

(4) Ophiosaurus – Glass snake

152. Which of the following is a non-poisonous snake?

(1) Naja

(2) Bungarus

(3) Python

(4) Viper


(1) Crocodylus – Crocodile

(2) Bungarus – Krait

(3) Chelone – Tortoise

(4) Naja – Cobra

154. Which of the following animals shed their scales as skin cast?

(1) Krait

(2) Calotes

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) Testudo

155. Choose the group of animals which show parental care.

(1) Hippocampus, Ichthyophis, Pipa

(2) Hippocampus, Pterophyllum, Ichthyophis

(3) Ichthyophis, Hyla, Pterophyllum

(4) Hippocampus, Hemidactylus, Ichthyophis

156. Pharyngeal gill slits are present only in the embryonic stage of

(1) Ichthyophis

(2) Petromyzon

(3) Carcharodon

(4) Pterophyllum

157. Which of the following is not characteristic feature of Aves?

(1) Presence of feathers

(2) Long bones with air cavity

(3) Hind limbs are modified into wings

(4) Homoiothermous

158. For members of class reptilia, how many statements are correct?

A. Scutes are epidermal

B. Alligators have four chambered heart

C. They are oviparous and development is direct

D. Fertilisation is external

(1) Three

(2) Four

(3) Two

(4) Five


29/31


(1) Columba – Pigeon

(2) Psittacula – Parrot

(3) Aptenodytes – Vulture

(4) Corvus – Crow

160. Which of the following group of animals have crop and gizzard in digestive tract?

(1) Pavo, Chelone, Columba, Corvus

(2) Corvus, Aptenodytes, Pterophyllum, Pavo

(3) Pavo, Aptenodytes, Columba, Corvus

(4) Columba, Chelone, Pavo, Pterophyllum

161. Choose the character common to mammals and reptiles

(1) Hair

(2) Seven cervical vertebrae

(3) Nucleated RBCs

(4) Number of cranial nerves

162. Choose the odd one out.

(1) Testudo

(2) Alligator

(3) Krait

(4) Salamandra

163. Which of the given animal has indirect development?

(1) Salamandra

(2) Hemidactylus

(3) Chameleon

(4) Psittacula

164. Sharks differ from skates and rays by

(1) Gill slits situated on the ventral surface of the body

(2) They are bottom feeders

(3) Pectoral fins are distinctly marked off from their cylindrical body

(4) Body is dorso-ventrally flattened and disc-like

165. Choose the odd one out.

(1) Ornithorhynchus

(2) Balaenoptera

(3) Macropus

(4) Aptenodytes

166. What is correct about the organism shown below?


30/31

(1) Fertilization external

(2) They are oviparous

(3) Mammary glands with nipples

(4) Scrotum is present in male

167. Mark the incorrect match.

(1) Platypus – Ear is devoid of pinna

(2) Macropus – Viviparous

(3) Psittacula – Preen gland present at the base of tail

(4) Ophiosaurus – Clawed digits

168. All of the following characters are correct for mammals, except

(1) Neck generally has seven cervical vertebrae

(2) Development direct

(3) Heterodent teeth present in jaws

(4) Pinna present in all mammals

169. Air sacs connected to lungs for supplementing respiration are present in

(1) Canis

(2) Psittacula

(3) Pteropus

(4) Pterophyllum

170. Which statement w.r.t. mammal is not correct?

(1) They have two pairs of limbs

(2) Skin is unique in possessing hair

(3) All are viviparous

(4) Dicondylic skull

171. What is common between Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia?

(1) They are homoiothermous

(2) Cornified scales present

(3) Heart is four chambered

(4) Paired pharyngeal gill slits present only in embryonic stage

172. Jawed vertebrates possess all the following features, except

(1) Ventral muscular heart

(2) Kidneys for osmoregulation

(3) Hollow dorsal nerve cord

(4) All are tetrapoda

173. Which of the following characters is exclusive to mammals?

(1) Middle ear with three ear ossicles

(2) Heart is 4 chambered

(3) Thecodont teeth

(4) Homoiothermy


31/31

174. Aves share with Mammalia all of the following characters, except

(1) Twelve pairs of cranial nerves

(2) Four chambered heart

(3) Scales present on hindlimbs

(4) Fertilization internal

175. Ornithorhynchus is connecting link between

(1) Reptilia and Mammalia

(2) Aves and Reptilia

(3) Amphibia and Reptila

(4) Aves and Mammalia

176. Choose the odd one out, with respect to habitat

(1) Exocoetus

(2) Labeo

(3) Clarias

(4) Pterophyllum

177. Which of the following animal is sting ray?

(1) Torpedo

(2) Trygon

(3) Pristis

(4) Carcharodon

178. Anadromous migration is shown by

(1) Petromyzon

(2) Salmon

(3) Hilsa

(4) All of these

179. Three chambered heart with direct development are characters of

(1) Naja

(2) Bufo

(3) Salamandra

(4) Hyla

180. Different types of teeth are not in the jaw of

(1) Canis

(2) Equus

(3) Panthera

(4) Hyla

� � �

1/13

Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)] All India Aakash Test Series-2017

ANSWERS

1. (2)

2. (1)

3. (2)

4. (3)

5. (4)

6. (3)

7. (2)

8. (1)

9. (2)

10. (3)

11. (2)

12. (4)

13. (2)

14. (1)

15. (1)

16. (3)

17. (2)

18. (1)

19. (3)

20. (3)

21. (4)

22. (2)

23. (3)

24. (3)

25. (4)

26. (3)

27. (3)

28. (3)

29. (4)

30. (4)

31. (2)

32. (1)

33. (3)

34. (2)

35. (1)

36. (4)

ONLINE TEST – 2

37. (2)

38. (3)

39. (3)

40. (4)

41. (1)

42. (1)

43. (1)

44. (1)

45. (1)

46. (3)

47. (4)

48. (2)

49. (3)

50. (3)

51. (4)

52. (2)

53. (4)

54. (4)

55. (4)

56. (3)

57. (3)

58. (2)

59. (1)

60. (1)

61. (3)

62. (2)

63. (2)

64. (1)

65. (3)

66. (1)

67. (2)

68. (1)

69. (2)

70. (1)

71. (4)

72. (4)

73. (1)

74. (4)

75. (4)

76. (2)

77. (1)

78. (2)

79. (3)

80. (1)

81. (4)

82. (3)

83. (3)

84. (1)

85. (3)

86. (2)

87. (4)

88. (3)

89. (3)

90. (2)

91. (3)

92. (2)

93. (4)

94. (3)

95. (2)

96. (3)

97. (3)

98. (1)

99. (2)

100. (4)

101. (3)

102. (3)

103. (4)

104. (2)

105. (1)

106. (3)

107. (2)

108. (4)

109. (4)

110. (2)

111. (3)

112. (4)

113. (2)

114. (2)

115. (1)

116. (2)

117. (3)

118. (1)

119. (3)

120. (4)

121. (3)

122. (1)

123. (4)

124. (2)

125. (3)

126. (2)

127. (2)

128. (3)

129. (4)

130. (3)

131. (1)

132. (3)

133. (2)

134. (4)

135. (3)

136. (1)

137. (1)

138. (4)

139. (4)

140. (3)

141. (2)

142. (1)

143. (4)

144. (3)

145. (2)

146 (3)

147. (4)

148. (2)

149. (3)

150. (1)

151. (2)

152. (3)

153. (3)

154. (3)

155. (1)

156. (1)

157. (3)

158. (1)

159. (3)

160. (3)

161. (4)

162. (4)

163. (1)

164. (3)

165. (4)

166. (2)

167. (4)

168. (4)

169. (2)

170. (3)

171. (4)

172. (4)

173. (1)

174. (3)

175. (1)

176. (1)

177. (2)

178. (4)

179. (1)

180. (4)

All India Aakash Test Series-2017 Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

2/17

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS ]

1. Answer (2)

x = t3

y = t3

23

x

dxv t

dt 2

3y

dyv t

dt

2 2 2 2 23

x yv v v t

2. Answer (1)

In last t second of ascent distance travelled is 21

2gt , so it is independent of speed of throw.

3. Answer (2)

2

1 1

1

2h ut gt (i)

2

2 2

1

2h ut gt (ii)

2

3

10

2h gt (iii)

Multiply equation (i) by t2 and (ii) by t

1,

2

2 1 2 1 2

2

1 1 2 2 1

1 2 1 2 1 2

14

2

14

2__________________

1( ) – ( )–

2

ht t t gt t

ht t t gt t

h t t gt t t t

1 2

1

2h gt t

Put value of h in equation (iii),

2

1 2 3

1 1

2 2gt t gt

2

3 1 2t t t

3 1 2t t t

4. Answer (3)

Speed v = at

dvat a

dt

21( )

4 2R a t


3/17

2

Rt

a

aT = a

2

2 2 2( )C

Ra

aV ata

R R R

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

2

2

2C

Ra

aaa

R

2 2

2 2 2

4T C

aa a a a

=

2

14

a

5. Answer (4)

2

sinV

R

2

cosV

R

2

1

Va

R

2 2

ˆ ˆcos sinV V

a i jR R

6. Answer (3)

7. Answer (2)

Horizontal velocity at any instant

u cos = u cos

coscos sec

cos

uV u

8. Answer (1)

Time taken by car to cover 20 km before turn,

20 1

40 2t h

Distance moved by fly

= 1

1002

50 km


4/17

9. Answer (2)

60º

V c

os 3

0º

x

a/2

2cos60º

a

x

12cos60º2

2

a ax a

2

1cos60º

2

x a at

v vv

10. Answer (3)

Initial velocity of ball w.r.t. ball

u + v

2 2( ) 2 2uv u v u vt

g g g

11. Answer (2)

| |T

d va

dt

�

12. Answer (4)

1 2

2 3

5 5l l

V V

1 2

av

2 1

1 2 1 2

51

2 3 2 3 2 3

5 5 5 5

VVlV

l l V V

V V V V

13. Answer (2)

2 22

v vV u gh

2 21 1

2 2v

mv mu mgh

K = K0

– mgh


5/17

14. Answer (1)

VRM

= VR – V

M

VR = V

RM + V

M

30º

VR

VM

VRM

VM

= VR sin 30º

VR cos 30º = V

RM

VR sin 30º = V

M

1

2R M

V V

VR

= 2VM

= 2 × 5 = 10 km/h

15. Answer (1)

F = 0, a = 0

4 – 3v = 0

4

3v m/s

16. Answer (3)

2

2 02

xx

x = 4 m

when 2

Rx y h

R 4x 2 m

2 2

2(2)2 2

2y h

4

4 2 m2

17. Answer (2)

tanV

H

V gt

V u

0

tan60ºgt

V

0

3gt

V

03V

tg


6/17

18. Answer (1)

Vertical component

b – ct = 0

Vv = 0

b – ct = 0

bt

c Time of flight

22

bt

c

R = (Horizontal component) × t

2abaT

c

19. Answer (3)

0

1

vt

g

0

22

vt

g

Time to reach maximum height

0v

tg

Distance travelled

2

0

2

v

g

in next 0

2

v

g time

Distance travelled =

2

0

2

1

2 4

vg

g

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

=

2 2

0 01

2 4 8

v v

g g

Total distance =

2 2 2

0 0 05

2 8 8

v v v

g g g

20. Answer (3)

VYX

= VY – V

X

VY = V

YX + V

X

VY

VX

VYX


7/17

21. Answer (4)

1cos

3

22. Answer (2)

v

u

A B

2v u

2 2AB

lt

v u

2 2BA

lt

v u

2 2

2lt

v u

23. Answer (3)

New vector can be written as

ˆ ˆcos sina a i a j �

original vector ˆa i

�

1Da a a ��

� �

ˆ ˆ( cos ) ( sin )Da a i ai a j ��

2 2 2 2 2 2| | cos 2 cos sinDa a a a a ��

= 2 2 22 cosa a a

= 2 22 2 cosa a

= 22 (1 cos )a

= 2 sin2

a

24. Answer (3)

. 3 4 7

2 2

AB

B

⇒

� �

25. Answer (4)

2 9.82 2

9.8 u

T sg

2 21 11 2 2 m

2 2 x at


8/17

26. Answer (3)

215

2gt , t = 1 s

27. Answer (3)

21

2gT H

21( 1)

2 2

Hg T

2

21

T

T

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

21

T

T

2 2T T

2 2T T

( 2 1) 2T

2 2 1 2 2

2 12 1 2 1

T

(2 2)T s

28. Answer (3)

29. Answer (4)

T = t1 + t

2

Time to reach maximum height

h

= 1 2

2

t t

1 2

2

t tu g

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

30. Answer (4)

2110

2gt

Time interval =2 1

4 2 2

s

2t s

2 2

2 1

1 3 2

2 2 2 2 2x x g

⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎢ ⎥ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎢ ⎥⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎣ ⎦

= 25

8m


9/17

31. Answer (2)

604s

15T

202

y

gTv m/s

2 2

x yv v v

= 25 m/s

1tan

y

x

v

v

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

= 53º

32. Answer (1)

u cos

g

u

2( cos )c

ua g

R

2 2cosu

Rg

33. Answer (3)

30º

3564 m

x

100tan30º

3564 3564 3564

x ut u s

1 100

35643

u

3564 3564 356420

1.73 100 1733 100u ⇒

m/s

34. Answer (2)

sinM

dt

V


10/17

1 1km

4 sinM

V

VM

sin = 4 (i)

VR = V

M cos

VM

sin = 4

VM

cos = VR

2 2 24

M RV V

(5)2 = 16 + VR

2

VR = 3 km/hr

35. Answer (1)

2 22

1(2 1)

2 1 2 121

2

n

a nS n

S nn nan

36. Answer (4)

S u2

37. Answer (2)

V = |t – 2|

V = t – 2 or V = 2 – t

t – 2 = 0 a = –1 m/s2

t = 2s

2

0 2

1| | 2 2 1(2) 2 m

2S

2

2 4

1| | 1 2 2m

2S

S = S0 – 2

+ S2 – 4

= 4 m

38. Answer (3)

39. Answer (3)

2 2 10 100V gh

(0)2 – 2 × 10 × 100 = 2a × 2

2 10 100

2 2a

a = – 500 m/s2

= u – at

4 2 10 100

500t

a

10 20 2 5 2 5 5

500 50 5 10 25

0.09 s


11/17

40. Answer (4)

2 2 2

1

sin 60º 3

2

u uy

g ug

2 2 2

2

sin 30º

2 4

u uy

g g

1

23

yy

41. Answer (1)

tanv

H

V gT

V u

= 10 10

1100

= 45º

42. Answer (1)

(2 1)(2) 4 2dv

a v x xdx

at h = 0

a = 2 m/s2

43. Answer (1)

lawA

C

D

44. Answer (1)

1 1ˆ ˆ

v u i gtj

2 2ˆ ˆ

v u i gtj

For 1 2

v v

1 2. 0v v

� �

1 2ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ( ).( ) 0u i gtj u i gtj

–u1u

2 + g2

t2 = 0

g2t2 = u

1u

2

1 22 1 2

2,

u uu ut t

gg


12/17

45. Answer (1)

4

5

3

x = 36 t y = 48 t – 4.9 t2

vn = 36 v

y = 48 – 9.8 t

at t = 0

48 8 4tan

36 6 3

v Y

H x

v v

v v

4sin

5

1 4sin

5

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

[ CHEMISTRY

]

46. Answer (3)

47. Answer (4)

High charge to size ratio.

48. Answer (2)

Groupwise alkali metals have lowest IE.

49. Answer (3)

50. Answer (3)

51. Answer (4)

Coinage metals are Cu, Ag and Au.

52. Answer (2)

Nitrogen has positive electron gain enthalpy.

53. Answer (4)

54. Answer (4)

Fe2+ have 5 unpaired electrons.

55. Answer (4)

hx . v

4 m

56. Answer (3)

h = h0 + KE

57. Answer (3)

58. Answer (2)

2

n

nr

Z

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠


13/17

59. Answer (1)

Lyman series have maximum energy.

60. Answer (1)

61. Answer (3)

62. Answer (2)

2

n 2

ZE

n

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

63. Answer (2)

64. Answer (1)

X-rays have minimum frequency in given rays.

65. Answer (3)

Non-spherical node = (n - l - 1)

Spherical node = l

66. Answer (1)

67. Answer (2)

2n

r 0.529Z

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

68. Answer (1)

2nd shell have s and p subshell.

69. Answer (2)

For n = 3, l = 0, 1, 2

70. Answer (1)

71. Answer (4)

72. Answer (4)

73. Answer (1)

74. Answer (4)

s, not related with Schrodinger equation.

75. Answer (4)

76. Answer (2)

77. Answer (1)

f-block elements are inner transition metal.

78. Answer (2)

For nitrogen family = ns2 np3

79. Answer (3)

80. Answer (1)

81. Answer (4)

1E


14/17

[ BIOLOGY]

91. Answer (3)

The boundary of protista is not well defined.

92. Answer (2)

Chrysophytes are mainly phytoplanktons.

93. Answer (4)

Gonyaulax causes red tides.

94. Answer (3)

Body organisation of protistans is cellular.

95. Answer (2)

Diatoms have silicified cell wall.

96. Answer (3)

Protists reproduce asexually and sexually by a process involving cell fusion and zygote formation.

97. Answer (3)

Figure shows Euglena.

98. Answer (1)

Fuligo, Physarum, Dictyostelium, Paramoecium and Trypanosoma.

99. Answer (2)

Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.

100. Answer (4)

Cell wall is absent in Euglenoids.

101. Answer (3)

Protozoans are heterotrophs and primitive relatives of animals.

102. Answer (3)

Slime moulds produce spores having cellulosic cell walls.

82. Answer (3)

2 2x y

d present on X and Y axis.

83. Answer (3)

84. Answer (1)

85. Answer (3)

86. Answer (2)

109 - Unnilenium

87. Answer (4)

Cs have least ionization enthalpy.

88. Answer (3)

89. Answer (3)

90. Answer (2)

Order of EN O > Cl > S > H


15/17

103. Answer (4)

Movement and food intake.

104. Answer (2)

80 S ribosomes are present.

105. Answer (1)

Protozoans live as predators or parasites.

106. Answer (3)

Both cellular.

107. Answer (2)

Micronucleus controls reproduction.

108. Answer (4)

Nutrition, fruiting body and spore formation.

109. Answer (4)

Septate, chitin cell wall and saprophytes.

110. Answer (2)

In Zygomycetes.

111. Answer (3)

They are sexual spores.

112. Answer (4)

Sex organs are absent in both and mycelia is septate and branched.

113. Answer (2)

A is Gills and B is Rhizomorph.

114. Answer (2)

Psilocybe mexicana called sacred mushroom.

115. Answer (1)

Morels and truffles are edible members of Ascomycetes.

116. Answer (2)

Basidiomycetes

117. Answer (3)

Dikaryotic mycelia is absent.

118. Answer (1)

Fungi have absorptive mode of nutrition.

119. Answer (3)

Ascospores are arranged linearly in Neurospora.

120. Answer (4)

Fruiting bodies stage is not formed in Puccinia and Ustilago.

121. Answer (3)

Protects nucleic acid from nucleases.

122. Answer (1)

Corona virus called MERS-CoV. having RNA genome.


16/17

123. Answer (4)

T4 - Bacteriophage.

124. Answer (2)

Crystal is largely protein.

125. Answer (3)

They do not cause infection generally, but can affect plants.

126. Answer (2)

They do not contain nucleic acid.

127. Answer (2)

In hot and humid conditions.

128. Answer (3)

Viroids are free RNA.

129. Answer (4)

Between algae and fungi. Algae can be BGA.

130. Answer (3)

Endomycorrhiza forms VAM.

131. Answer (1)

Plant viruses are usually RNA viruses.

132. Answer (3)

Oomycetes.

133. Answer (2)

Virus, viroids and lichens.

134. Answer (4)

Trichoderma is deuteromycete fungi.

135. Answer (3)

Ethyl alcohol.

136. Answer (1)

137. Answer (1)

138. Answer (4)

Cyclostomes are vertebrates having only unpaired fins.

139. Answer (4)

Petromyzon is devoid of paired fins.

140. Answer (3)

Teleosts are bony fish.

141. Answer (2)

Trygon is sting ray.

142. Answer (1)

143. Answer (4)

144. Answer (3)

Clarias is magur.

145. Answer (2)


17/17

� � �

146. Answer (3)

Hyla is tree frog.

147. Answer (4)

Amphibians lack scales.

148. Answer (2)

149. Answer (3)

150. Answer (1)

Reptilian scales are ectodermal.

151. Answer (2)

Calotes is garden lizard.

152. Answer (3)

153. Answer (3)

154. Answer (3)

155. Answer (1)

156. Answer (1)

In amphibians, embryonic gill slits are closed as metamorphosis completes.

157. Answer (3)

158. Answer (1)

159. Answer (3)

160. Answer (3)

161. Answer (4)

162. Answer (4)

163. Answer (1)

164. Answer (3)

165. Answer (4)

166. Answer (2)

In platypus, the testes are intra-abdominal and hence scrotum is absent.

167. Answer (4)

Ophiosaurus is limbless lizard.

168. Answer (4)

169. Answer (2)

170. Answer (3)

171. Answer (4)

172. Answer (4)

173. Answer (1)

174. Answer (3)

175. Answer (1)

176. Answer (1)

177. Answer (2)

178. Answer (4)

179. Answer (1)

180. Answer (4)

Documents

All India Aakash Test Series-2017 Online Test – 2aakashonline.in/ASPNET_Pages/solution/AIATSTYMED2017PT2_Solution.pdfAll India Aakash Test Series-2017 Online Test - 2 (Objective)