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A&P II 2017 Exam 1.1 A 1) All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye except that it A) consists of the sclera, limbus, and cornea. B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye. C) produces aqueous humor. D) contributes substantial focusing power. E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert. 2) The ciliary muscle contracts to A) control the amount of light reaching the retina. B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision. C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision. D) control the production of aqueous humor. E) adjust the shape of the cornea and vitreous. 3) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order? A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → cornea C) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retina D) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid 4) The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the A) vitreous humor. B) aqueous humor. C) ora serrata. D) perilymph. E) posterior cavity. 5) What structure regulates the amount of light that passes to the photoreceptors of the eye? A) vitreous body B) cornea C) ciliary muscle D) iris E) lens 1

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A&P II 2017 Exam 1.1 A

1) All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye except that it A) consists of the sclera, limbus, and cornea. B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye. C) produces aqueous humor. D) contributes substantial focusing power. E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert.

2) The ciliary muscle contracts to A) control the amount of light reaching the retina. B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision. C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision. D) control the production of aqueous humor. E) adjust the shape of the cornea and vitreous.

3) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order?A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → corneaC) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retinaD) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid

4) The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the A) vitreous humor. B) aqueous humor. C) ora serrata. D) perilymph. E) posterior cavity.

5) What structure regulates the amount of light that passes to the photoreceptors of the eye? A) vitreous body B) cornea C) ciliary muscle D) iris E) lens

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Figure 17-1 The Sectional Anatomy of the Eye

Use Figure 17-1 to answer the following questions:

6) Identify the space labeled "1." A) posterior cavity B) posterior chamber C) pupil D) anterior chamberE) vitreous chamber

7) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) choroid B) optic disc C) sclera D) retina E) cornea

8) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) suspensory ligaments B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) pupil

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9) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) pupil B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) retina

10) Identify the structure labeled "14." A) pupil B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) suspensory ligaments

11) A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles. B) contraction of the radial pupillary muscles. C) conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal. D) a decrease in the size of the pupil. E) parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil.

12) There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated A) red, yellow, blue. B) red, green, blue. C) red, green, yellow. D) yellow, red, blue. E) red, white, blue.

13) Which of the following statements about the retina is true?A) Ganglion cells send axons to the brain as cranial nerve II.B) Axons carrying its output synapse in the thalamus.C) It has photoreceptors that do not respond to dim light.D) Cones and rods are not equally distributed across the retina.E) All of the answers are correct.

14) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane?A) moves up and down due to currents in the perilymphB) transmits movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner earC) supports the olfactory organD) tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibriumE) covers over the oval window

15) When an external force bends the stereocilia of the inner ear hair cells, A) the force is converted into mechanical energy. B) the hair cells are temporarily damaged. C) there is a change in the transmembrane potential of the hair cells. D) dizziness results. E) the cells become unresponsive.

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16) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the A) auditory ossicles. B) cochlea. C) oval window. D) round window. E) tympanic membrane.

Figure 17-2 The Ear

Use Figure 17-2 to answer the following questions:

17) Identify the structures labeled "8." A) cochlea B) auditory ossicles C) auricle D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule

18) Which structure contains the receptors for hearing? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11

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19) Which structure is known as the vestibule? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11

20) Identify the structure that is called the pinna or auricle. A) 1 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8 E) 9

21) Endocrine cells A) are a type of nerve cell.B) release their secretions onto an epithelial surface. C) release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. D) contain few vesicles.E) are modified connective-tissue cells.

22) An activated G protein can trigger A) the activation of adenyl cyclase.B) the opening of calcium ion channels in the membrane. C) the release of calcium ions from intracellular stores. D) a fall in cAMP levels. E) All of the answers are correct.

23) Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein A) calcitonin. B) calcitriol. C) calmodulin. D) calcium-binding globulin. E) calcitropin.

24) A kinase is an enzyme that performs A) phosphorylation. B) as a membrane channel. C) active transport. D) protein synthesis. E) as an antibody.

25) If the hypophyseal portal system is destroyed, the hypothalamus would no longer be able to control the secretion of which of the following hormones? A) TSH B) ACTHC) PRL D) ADH and OXTE) TSH, ACTH, PRL

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26) The main action of antidiuretic hormone isA) increased water conservation by kidneys. B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid. D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption.E) inhibition of aldosterone.

27) The pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss is A) TSH. B) FSH. C) MSH. D) STH. E) ADH.

Figure 18-1 Pituitary Hormones and Their Targets

Use Figure 18-1 to answer the following questions:

28) Identify the hormone labeled "4." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxin

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D) thyrotropin E) calcitonin

29) Identify the hormone labeled "1." A) mineralocorticoid B) cortisol C) dopamine D) ACTHE) aldosterone

30) A deficiency of which hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus? A) 3 B) 7 C) 2 D) 8 E) 14

31) Identify the hormone labeled "5." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxine D) thyrotropin E) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

32) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place?A) in lysosomesB) in rough endoplasmic reticulumC) in the lumen of the thyroid follicleD) in pinocytotic vesiclesE) in apical microvilli

33) The control of calcitonin excretion is an example of direct ________ regulation. A) endocrine B) pancreatic C) homeostatic D) hepatic E) vascular

34) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) inhibit osteoblast activity. C) build up bone. D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys. E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys.

35) The zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine.

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36) A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body is A) cortisol. B) parathormone. C) thymosin. D) somatotropin. E) aldosterone.

37) Melatonin is produced by the A) thymus. B) pineal gland. C) kidneys. D) skin. E) heart.

38) If a diabetic patient received too much insulin, the low blood sugar could be corrected by injectingA) glucagon.B) GHIH.C) thyroid hormone.D) aldosterone.E) antidiuretic hormone.

39) Which of the following statements is true about the pancreas?A) The pancreas lies over the top of the stomach.B) The sole function of the pancreas is to produce hormones.C) The pituitary gland produces stimulating hormones that control the pancreas.D) The islets contain a variety of different cells producing different hormones.E) The pancreas stores glucose, which can be released into the blood.

40) Which of the following directly regulates the secretion of insulin? A) parasympathetic nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) blood glucose concentration D) hypothalamus E) tropic hormones from the pituitary gland

41) Which of the following is a function of the blood? A) transport of nutrients and wastes B) transport of body heat C) transport of gases D) defense against toxins and pathogens E) All of the answers are correct.

42) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? A) pancreas B) heart C) kidney D) brain E) liver

43) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the A) heart. B) thymus.

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C) spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph tissue.

44) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result inA) pernicious anemia. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

45) The average life span of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) about 1 year. E) many years.

46) The function of red blood cells is to A) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. B) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells.C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide.

47) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper.

48) If bile ducts are blocked,A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. B) bilirubin appears in the saliva. C) more hemolysis takes place. D) more red blood cells are produced. E) more white blood cells are produced.

49) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia

50) The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) heme molecules plus iron. C) heme molecules lacking iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

51) The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) erythropenia.

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C) hemocytosis. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia.

52) Each hemoglobin molecule containsA) four alpha chains. B) one alpha and one beta chain.C) four iron atoms. D) one heme group. E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide.

53) The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results fromA) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma.B) extensive breakdown of RBCs.C) destruction of hemoglobin.D) the recycling of hemoglobin.E) All of the answers are correct.

54) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. What does this mean? A) Bill could receive type B-negative blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood. C) Bill is Rh positive. D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies. E) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen.

55) A person's blood type is determined by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) shape of the RBCs.

56) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive D) mother type A+, baby type O+ E) None of the answers is correct.

57) All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections.

58) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

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59) Granulocytes form in A) the intestines. B) the spleen. C) the thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow.

60) Erythropoiesis is stimulated when A) oxygen levels in the blood increase. B) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease. C) blood flow to the kidney declines. D) coagulation begins.E) blood pressure increases.

Xtra Credit (1 point each)

61) Why must accommodation occur to view objects closer than 20 feet from the eye? A) The light rays are convergent and must be bent more. B) It moves the retina into position to focus on the close object. C) The light rays are divergent instead of parallel and require more refraction. D) The iris is too dilated causing the light rays to be out of focus. E) None of the answers are correct. Accommodation occurs when looking at distant objects 20 feet or farther from the eye.

62) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps? 1. Membrane sodium channels close.2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP.3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form.4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.5. Opsin activates transducin.6. Opsin activation occurs.A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3 B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4 E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2

63) After brain surgery, a patient receiving postoperative care in an intensive care unit began to pass large volumes of very dilute urine. The ICU nurse administered a medicine that mimics one of the following hormones. Which one? A) aldosterone B) epinephrineC) reninD) ADH E) cortisol

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64) Before the discovery of these glands, thyroid surgery often led to a rapid drop in blood calcium levels, which triggered muscle contractions and cardiac arrhythmias. What glands are these and which hormone is lacking?A) thyroid glands; calcitonin B) parathyroid glands; calcitonin C) parathyroid glands; parathyroid hormone D) thyroid glands; levothyroxineE) parathyroid glands; levothyroxine

65) Consider the following results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal?A) RBCs—5.2 million/µlB) platelets—280,000/µlC) leukocytes—8600/µlD) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 mlE) hematocrit—44 percent

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