Embed Size (px)
Citation preview
1
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY
MIT Science Olympiad Invitational
January 24, 2015
Instructions:
You will have 50 minutes to complete this test. Please write your answers on the answer sheet
provided to. If you mark in this test, please either erase cleanly, or let the event supervisor know.
Markings inside this booklet WILL NOT be graded!
All questions in Parts A and B are worth 2 points each. Part C questions have their point values
indicated following the question.
Ties will be broken based on scores on the following questions (in order): 135, 98, 49, 133, 94
2
INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
Part A: Multiple Choice, etc.
1. The acid mantle is
a. the slightly acidic layer of the epidermis which comprises a chemical barrier
against substances in contact with the skin
b. the secretions of the apocrine glands onto the scalp
c. fluid that regulates diffusion from capillaries
d. a very thin film on the skin secreted by sebaceous glands
e. the decrease in pH resulting from foreign particles entering the dermis
2. Cathelicidins are
a. proteins that prevent Strep A infection in wounded skin
b. proteins that regulate the dryness of skin
c. lipids that diffuse from the bloodstream into the hypodermis
d. pigments which, in excess, cause freckles
e. proteins that inhibit the uptake of lipids from the skin into the bloodstream
3. Melanin
a. is present in sparse quantities on the soles of the feet
b. is responsible for hair color
c. protects the skin from harmful UV radiation
d. is a precursor to carotene
e. carries oxygen in the capillaries of the skin
4. Melanin is synthesized from the amino acid
a. arginine
b. tyrosine
c. serine
d. methionine
e. glycine
5. Which of these about carotene is false?
a. carotene is a yellow-orange pigment
b. carotene is a precursor for vitamin A
c. carotene is found in the stratum lucidum
d. excess carotene in the skin causes carotenoderma
e. all of the above are true
6. ________ are antigen-presenting immune cells found in all layers of the epidermis
a. Ruffini cells
b. Meissner’s cells
c. Merkel cells
d. Langerhans cells
e. Pacinian cells
3
For questions 7-15, determine which of thick or thin skin…
7. …is 6 mm thick
8. …covers most of the body and the eyelids
9. …is hairless
10. …lacks the stratum lucidum
11. …has numerous dermal papillae
12. …has epidermal ridges
13. …lacks sebaceous glands
14. …has fewer sweat glands
15. …has less densely packed sense receptors
For questions 16-19, consider the following list of characteristics:
a. Are most abundant in the epidermis
b. Are least abundant in the epidermis
c. Produce melanin
d. Protect and waterproof the skin
e. Contain keratin
f. Arise from the red bone marrow
g. Participate in immune responses
h. Are easily damaged by UV light
i. Function in the sensation of touch
j. Are found in the epidermis
Determine which of the above (if any—characteristics may be used more than once) apply to…
16. Keratinocytes
17. Melanocytes
18. Langerhans cells
19. Merkel cells
20. Fair-skinned people have more __________, which is a reddish-yellow type of melanin,
while dark-skinned people have more ___________, which is a brownish-black type of
melanin.
a. pheomelanin, eumelanin
b. eumelanin, pheomelanin
c. basomelanin, andemelanin
d. andemelanin, basomelanin
e. watermelanin, honeydewmelanin
21. Goose bumps occur when the ________ contract and pulls hair in the skin taut.
a. tensor fasci
b. arrector pili
c. extensor pollicis
d. anconeous muscle
e. peroneous brevis
4
22. Sudoriferous glands produce_____. Sebaceous glands produce _____. Ceruminous
glands produce _____.
a. oil, sweat, earwax
b. earwax, sweat, oil
c. sweat, earwax, oil
d. sweat, oil, earwax
e. oil, earwax, sweat
23. The sensitivity of hair to movement results from sensory nerves in the _______ at the
base of each hair follicle.
a. root bulb
b. root hair plexus
c. root tendon
d. root hair disk
e. root venule
24. ____ results from blocked and inflamed sebaceous ducts
a. acne
b. a mole
c. melanoma
d. ingrown hairs
e. freckles
25. Which of these about keratinization is true?
a. keratinization is the formation of hypodermic layers of cells filled with keratin
b. keratinization occurs on all exposed skin surfaces except the anterior surfaces of
the eyes
c. keratinization is responsible for the reconstruction of wounded skin
d. keratinization only occurs in thick skin
e. keratinization begins in the dermis
26. A victim of a house fire is an adult male whose front torso and entire left leg is burned.
Using the rule of 9’s, the percentage of his total body surface area burned is roughly
a. 9%
b. 18%
c. 27%
d. 36%
e. 45%
27. Insensible perspiration results from water from interstitial fluids penetrating across the
______ into the surface.
a. stratum lucidum
b. stratum basale
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum spinosum
e. stratum corneum
5
28. Which layer of the skin shapes fingerprints?
a. stratum lucidum of the epidermis
b. stratum corneum of the epidermis
c. papillary layer of the dermis
d. reticular layer of the dermis
e. the hypodermis
29. Albinism is caused by
a. the inability of melanocytes to produce melanin
b. absence of melanocytes
c. a mutation that causes melanin to appear white
d. presence of albumin in the epidermis
e. absence of the stratum granulosum
30. What is not one way in which moisturizers work?
a. Humectants attract water from the dermis and binds it in the stratum corneum.
b. Occlusive agents physically trap water, preventing epidermal water loss.
c. Emollients smooth flaky skin cells to increase occlusivity.
d. Antioxidants fight free radicles that can destroy collagen in the skin.
e. All of the above are ways in which moisturizers work.
31. Lines of cleavage are established by the pattern of ______ bundles in the skin
a. nerve
b. collagen
c. keratin
d. tendon
e. venule
32. ______ are extremely fine and unpigmented hairs that appear after roughly 3 months of
embryonic development
a. Club hairs
b. Lanugo hairs
c. Velus hairs
d. Sebum
e. Terminal hairs
33. _______ are the fine “peach fuzz” hairs located over much of the body surface
a. Club hairs
b. Lanugo
c. Velus hairs
d. Sebum
e. Terminal hairs
6
34. _______ are heavy, more deeply pigmented hairs, like the hair on the head and eyelashes
a. Club hairs
b. Lanugo
c. Velus hairs
d. Sebum
e. Terminal hairs
35. ______ are hairs at the end of its growth cycle, which are attached to an inactive follicle
a. Club hairs
b. Lanugo
c. Velus hairs
d. Sebum
e. Terminal hairs
36. Excessive shampooing removes the ______. This exposes the ______, which causes hair
to turn stiff and brittle.
a. hair shaft, sebum
b. sebum, keratin
c. keratin, club hair
d. sebum, follicle
e. keratin, follicle
37. Which of these about sebaceous follicles is false?
a. They are sebaceous glands associated with large terminal hair follicles.
b. They are very active during the last few months of fetal development.
c. Their secretions form a protective superficial layer called the vernix caseosa.
d. They are mostly found on the face.
e. All of the above are true.
38. Keloids are
a. moles that rise above the skin
b. growths of papillary dermis that harden and penetrate into the epidermis
c. patches of skin that are colored differently
d. thickened areas of scar tissue that begin at an injury site and grow into the
surrounding dermis.
e. areas of burned hypodermis
7
Part B: Diagrams
39. Label the following diagram of skin.
8
40. Label the following two diagrams of the layers of skin.
9
41. Label the following diagram of a nail.
10
Part C: Short Answer Bullets accepted.
42. Describe two physical characteristics of skin that make it good at protecting the body. (6)
43. Describe the mechanisms by which skin regulates body temperature. (6)
44. Describe the growth cycle of the epidermis. (6)
45. Describe four factors that determine skin color. (8)
46. Why does prolonged exposure to the sun cause tanning? What biological purpose does
this mechanism serve? (6)
47. List and describe four types of skin markings (12)
48. Describe five changes to the skin when we age. (10)
49. Describe four types of sensations the skin can register, the receptors associated with
them, and where those receptors are located. (16)
50. Identify the two types of sweat glands and describe their differences. (6)
51. List and describe the three stages of hair growth (9)
52. Compare and contrast the causes and symptoms of psoriasis and vitiligo. (6)
53. Identify the type of skin cancer shown in each picture. (6)
a.
b.
c.
11
54. Match the hair type with shaft shape. (6)
a.
b.
c.
12
IMMUNE SYSTEM
Part A: Multiple Choice, etc.
55. The functioning of the immune system hinges on its ability to distinguish between
______ molecules, components of an organism’s body, and ______ molecules, or foreign
substances.
a. self, non-self
b. antigens, antibodies
c. innate, alien
d. generator, displaced
e. regular, irregular
56. Which is not considered a lymphatic organ?
a. thymus
b. spleen
c. pituitary
d. tonsils
e. all of the above are considered lymphatic organs
57. Which of the following about lymph nodes is false?
a. Lymph nodes are round structures found at points along lymphatic vessels that
have a fibrous connective tissue capsule with incoming and outgoing vessels.
b. Lymph nodes are filled with lymphocytes and macrophages.
c. Lymph nodes can occur singly or in groups of nodules.
d. Lymph nodes are typically 1-25 mm in diameter.
e. All of the above are true.
58. Plasma cells are responsible for the production and secretion of
a. antibodies
b. antigens
c. T cells
d. lymphocytes
e. cytokine
59. Which is not a type of lymphocyte?
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. M cells
d. NK cells
e. All of the above are lymphocytes
13
60. What type of cells are primarily involved in cell-mediated immunity?
a. plasma cells
b. B cells
c. NK cells
d. M cells
e. cytotoxic T cells
61. What type of cells are primarily involved in humoral immunity?
a. plasma cells
b. B cells
c. NK cells
d. M cells
e. cytotoxic T cells
62. What type of cells are involved in immunological surveillance?
a. plasma cells
b. B cells
c. NK cells
d. M cells
e. cytotoxic T cells
63. What type of cells are the precursors of plasma cells?
a. stromal cells
b. B cells
c. NK cells
d. M cells
e. cytotoxic T cells
64. Bone marrow…
a. is the site of T cell production
b. is the site of antigen production
c. is the site of erythropoiesis
d. is the site of white pulp production
e. is the site of MALT production
65. MALT can be found in all of these except
a. Peyer’s patches
b. walls of the vermiform appendix
c. aggregate lymphoid nodules
d. trabeculae of the spleen
e. MALT is found in all of the above locations
14
66. Without a spleen, a person will
a. need to take antigen supplements
b. survive without difficulty, but be more susceptible to viral infections
c. survive without difficulty, but be more susceptible to bacterial and viral infections
d. survive without difficulty, but be more susceptible to bacterial infections
e. die of circulatory shock when exposed to foreign bacteria
67. After puberty, the thymus
a. gradually diminishes in size and becomes increasingly fibrous
b. gradually increases in size and becomes decreasingly fibrous
c. gradually diminishes in size and becomes decreasingly fibrous
d. gradually increases in size and becomes increasingly fibrous
e. stays the same
68. Where is the largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body?
a. the thymus
b. the tonsils
c. the adenoid
d. the spleen
e. Peyer’s patches
For questions 69-73, match the class of antibody to their descriptions.
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgE
e. IgM
69. They provide the majority of antibody-based immunity against invading pathogens. They
are the only antibodies capable of crossing the placenta.
70. They bind to allergens and trigger histamine release from mast cells and basophils. They
are also involved in allergic reactions.
71. They mainly function as antigen receptors on B cells that have not been exposed to
antigens.
72. Dimers containing two Y shaped structures. Found in mucosal areas, saliva, tears, and
breast milk. They attack microbes and prevent colonization by pathogens before they
reach the blood stream.
73. They are expressed on the surface of B cells and in a secreted form. They eliminate
pathogens in the early stage of B cell mediated immunity.
15
74. Which of the following are not phagocytes?
a. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
c. microphages
d. macrophages
e. All of the above are phagocytes
75. Kupffer cells
a. contain microglia
b. are macrophages located in and around the liver sinusoids
c. are mobile and travel throughout the body
d. are also known as phagocytic dust cells
e. are types of neutrophils
76. Perforins are
a. Proteins embedded in lymphatic capillaries that regulate diffusion
b. Organic nitrogenous compounds involved in local immune responses
c. Antigens produced by memory B cells
d. Proteins produced in the Golgi apparatus of activated NK cells
e. Chemicals in lymph fluid which attract and repel phagocytes in a process called
chemotaxis
77. Histamines are
a. Proteins embedded in lymphatic capillaries that regulate diffusion
b. Organic nitrogenous compounds involved in local immune responses
c. Antigens produced by memory B cells
d. Proteins produced in the Golgi apparatus of activated NK cells
e. Chemicals in lymph fluid which attract and repel phagocytes in a process called
chemotaxis
78. Dendritic cells found in the skin are
a. Langerhans cells
b. Merkel cells
c. Stromal cells
d. Perforal cells
e. Alpha-interferon cells
79. Which about interferons is false?
a. They bind to surface receptors on the cell.
b. They trigger the production of antiviral proteins.
c. They are examples of cytokine.
d. They form a functional unit called the membrane attack complex.
e. All of the above are true
16
For questions 80-89, given the description of a disease, identify the disease. (Note: not all
options will be used)
a. Lupus
b. Asthma
c. Addison’s
d. HIV
e. Celiac disease
f. Multiple sclerosis
g. Type I diabetes
h. AIDS
i. Hashimoto’s
j. Hypersensitivities
k. Allergies
l. Rheumatoid arthritis
80. An inflammatory disease thought to be caused by the immune system’s destruction of
myelin covers of nerve cells.
81. A reaction of the immune system triggered by relatively harmless environmental antigens
that it would normally ignore
82. An obstructive pulmonary disorder characterized by recurring spasms of muscle in
bronchial walls accompanied by edema and mucus production
83. With this condition, people are more susceptible to opportunistic infections and have a
CD4* T cell count below 200 cells per microliter.
84. A lentivirus which infects vital cells in the human immune system, such as helper T cells,
macrophages, and dendritic cells.
85. A disease resulting from the autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas.
86. A disorder in which the synovium becomes inflamed and develops fibrous tissue.
87. An autoimmune disease characterized by a butterfly rash on the face.
88. An autoimmune disorder in which the thyroid gland is attacked by a variety of immune
processes.
89. An autoimmune disorder of the small intestine caused by a reaction to gliadin, a gluten
protein found in wheat.
17
Part B: Diagrams
90. Label the following diagram.
91. Label the following diagram of the major organs of the immune system.
18
Part C: Short Answer
Bullets accepted.
92. Describe two types of T cells and their role in the immune system. (6)
93. Describe two types of B cells and their role in the immune system. (6)
94. Describe the process of antigen presentation. (4)
95. What are nonspecific defenses? Describe two nonspecific defense mechanisms that the
body employs. Which lines of defense are associated with nonspecific defenses? (8)
96. What are specific defenses? Describe two specific defense mechanisms that the body
employs. Which lines of defense are associated with nonspecific defenses? (8)
97. A person is exposed to an unfamiliar antigen. A week later, the person is again exposed
to the same antigen. What, if any, are the differences between the responses to the
exposures? (4)
98. Define the four types of immunity and give an example of each by completing the
following chart (reproduced on the answer sheet): (16)
Active Passive
Natural
Artificial
19
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
Part A: Multiple Choice, etc.
99. Estimate the length of blood vessels in an adult human.
a. 6,000 miles
b. 20,000 miles
c. 60,000 miles
d. 200,000 miles
e. 600,000 miles
100. What does the cardiovascular system not move?
a. red blood cells
b. platelets
c. white blood cells
d. lymph
e. the cardiovascular system moves all of the above
For questions 101-109, given a description, match it with the corresponding structure of the
heart. (Each answer will only be used once.)
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
e. Aorta
f. Superior vena cava
g. Inferior vena cava
h. Pulmonary veins
i. Pulmonary arteries
101. It carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.
102. It carries deoxygenated blood from the upper parts of the body back into the heart.
103. It’s the largest artery and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the body.
104. It carries deoxygenated blood from the lower parts of the body back into the heart.
105. It collects deoxygenated blood returning from the body and forces it through the
tricuspid valve.
106. It collects deoxygenated blood and forces it into the lungs through the pulmonary
valves.
107. It carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart.
108. It collects oxygenated blood returning form the lungs and forces it through the mitral
valve.
109. It is the largest and strongest chamber in the heart, and pushes blood into the body.
20
110. A person has a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. What does the 120 mean?
a. It is the systolic pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries when the
heart contracts
b. It is the diastolic pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries when the
heart contracts
c. It is the systolic pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries between
heartbeats
d. It is the diastolic pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries between
heartbeats
e. It is the upper bound on the blood pressure the body can withstand
111. A well-trained athlete may have a normal resting heart rate that is
a. higher than average
b. lower than average
c. closer to the systolic heart rate
d. higher than the systolic heart rate
e. louder than average
112. The pulmonary circuit
a. refers to the circulation of oxygenated blood
b. refers to the circulation of blood from the heart to the rest of the body
c. refers to the circulation of blood from the heart to the lungs
d. refers to the circulation of blood in the capillaries
e. refers to the circulation of blood within the heart
113. What does not affect the resistance of blood?
a. viscosity of blood
b. length of the blood vessel
c. radius of the blood vessel
d. temperature of blood
e. all of the above affect the resistance of blood
For questions 114-118, indicate which of the following facts are true for the blood vessel
indicated. (Letters may be used more than once or not at all.)
a. Are the largest vessels
b. Are the smallest vessels
c. Carry blood away from the heart
d. Carry blood towards the heart
e. Have valves
f. Have thick muscular walls
g. Have thin muscular walls
h. Have no muscle or connective tissue
i. Are the primary site of resistance to
flow in the vascular system
j. Are the primary site of nutrient and
waste exchange
114. Arteries
115. Arterioles
116. Capillaries
117. Venules
118. Veins
21
119. Which of the following about atherosclerosis is false?
a. Atherosclerosis is the most common form of arteriosclerosis
b. Atherosclerosis results from cholesterol, lipid, and calcium deposits in the walls
of the arteries
c. Atherosclerosis may be treated with stents or angioplasty
d. Atherosclerosis causes coronary fibrillation
e. All of the above are true
120. A patient with tachycardia has
a. irregular and often rapid heartbeats
b. a rapid resting heart rate, more than 100 beats per minute
c. a slow resting heart rate, less than 60 beats per minute
d. loss of living heart muscle as a result of coronary occlusion
e. none of the above
121. A patient with bradycardia has
a. irregular and often rapid heartbeats
b. a rapid resting heart rate, more than 100 beats per minute
c. a slow resting heart rate, less than 60 beats per minute
d. loss of living heart muscle as a result of coronary occlusion
e. none of the above
122. A patient with atrial fibrillation has
a. irregular and often rapid heartbeats
b. a rapid resting heart rate, more than 100 beats per minute
c. a slow resting heart rate, less than 60 beats per minute
d. loss of living heart muscle as a result of coronary occlusion
e. none of the above
123. Which of these is not a common symptom of a stroke?
a. Numbness or weakness in the face, arm, or leg, particularly on one side
b. Confusion or trouble understanding
c. Chest pain
d. Severe headache
e. All of these are symptoms of a stroke
124. What is the pulse pressure?
a. The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressures
b. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures
c. The amount of pressure the heart exerts with one contraction
d. The maximal arterial pressure
e. The amount of force the blood pumped out by the heart has
22
125. How many human blood groups are officially recognized?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 14
d. 26
e. 33
126. What blood types cannot receive blood from a type A+ donor?
a. A+
b. AB+
c. O+
d. All of the above can receive blood from a type A+ donor
e. None of the above can receive blood from a type A+ donor
127. What blood types cannot donate blood to a type A+ receiver?
a. A+
b. AB+
c. O+
d. All of the above can donate blood to a type A+ receiver
e. None of the above can donate blood to a type A+ receiver
128. If a mother has blood type A and a father has blood type AB, what cannot be the blood
type of their child?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
e. All of these blood types are possible
23
Part B: Diagrams
129. Label the following diagram of the heart.
24
Part C: Short Answer
Bullets accepted.
130. Describe how muscle cells of the heart coordinate to contract at the same time. Please
include in your discussion the components of the electrical system of the heart. (16)
131. Describe the effects of epinephrine and vasopressin on the circulatory system. (8)
132. Name three benefits to the circulatory system as a result of exercise. (6)
133. Imagine you are holding your breath. Describe the changes to blood pH and heart rate
and explain why these changes occur. (12)
134. How does a doctor determine your heart pressure using a stethoscope and a blood
pressure cuff? (10)
135. Consider the following chart for a patient with heart rate of 72 BPM:
25
a. Estimate the stroke volume (show your reasoning) (4)
b. Calculate the cardiac output (show your reasoning) (4)
c. Calculate the pulse pressure (show your reasoning) (4)
d. Calculate the mean arterial pressure (show your reasoning) (4)
e. Which of the numbered intervals represents a systole? (2)
f. Which of the numbered intervals represents a diastole? (2)
g. Label the following diagram, an EKG of a single heartbeat (please ask if you are
unsure what a particular label is referring to) (2 each):
1
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY ANSWER SHEET
Team Name: _____________________________________ Team Number: _____________
Team Member Names: __________________________ ____________________________
INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
1. ___________
2. ___________
3. ___________
4. ___________
5. ___________
6. ___________
7. ___________
8. ___________
9. ___________
10. __________
11. __________
12. __________
13. __________
14. __________
15. __________
16. __________
17. __________
18. __________
19. __________
20. __________
21. __________
22. __________
23. __________
24. __________
25. __________
26. __________
27. __________
28. __________
29. __________
30. __________
31. __________
32. __________
33. __________
34. __________
35. __________
36. __________
37. __________
38. __________
39. A: _________________
B: _________________
C: _________________
D: _________________
E: _________________
F: _________________
G: _________________
H: _________________
I: _________________
J: _________________
K: _________________
L: _________________
40. A: _________________
B: _________________
C: _________________
D: _________________
E: _________________
F: _________________
G: _________________
H: _________________
I: _________________
J: _________________
K: _________________
L: _________________
M: _________________
N: _________________
O: _________________
P: _________________
Q: _________________
41. A: _________________
B: _________________
C: _________________
D: _________________
E: ____________________
F: ____________________
G: ____________________
H: ____________________
I: ____________________
J: ____________________
2
42.
43.
44.
3
45.
46.
47.
4
48.
49.
50
5
51.
52.
53.
a.
b.
c.
54.
a.
b.
c.
6
IMMUNE SYSTEM
55. __________
56. __________
57. __________
58. __________
59. __________
60. __________
61. __________
62. __________
63. __________
64. __________
65. __________
66. __________
67. __________
68. __________
69. __________
70. __________
71. __________
72. __________
73. __________
74. __________
75. __________
76. __________
77. __________
78. __________
79. __________
80. __________
81. __________
82. __________
83. __________
84. __________
85. __________
86. __________
87. __________
88. __________
89. __________
90. A: _________________
B: _________________
C: _________________
91. A: _________________
B: _________________
C: _________________
D: _________________
E: _________________
7
92.
93.
94.
8
95.
96.
97.
9
98.
Active Passive
Natural
Artificial
10
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
99. __________
100. _________
101. _________
102. _________
103. _________
104. _________
105. _________
106. _________
107. _________
108. _________
109. _________
110. _________
111. _________
112. _________
113. _________
114. _________
115. _________
116. _________
117. _________
118. _________
119. _________
120. _________
121. _________
122. _________
123. _________
124. _________
125. _________
126. _________
127. _________
128. _________
129. A: _________________
B: _________________
C: _________________
D: _________________
E: __________________
F: __________________
G: __________________
H: __________________
I: __________________
J: __________________
K: _________________
L: __________________
M: __________________
N: __________________
O: __________________
P: __________________
Q: __________________
11
130.
131.
132.
12
133.
134.
135.
13
136.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
vi.
vii.
viii.
ix.
x.
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY ANSWER SHEET Team Name: ____________________________________
INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
1. ____D_____
2. ____A_____
3. ____C_____
4. ____B_____
5. ____C_____
6. ____D_____
7. ____thick______
8. ____thin_______
9. ____thick_______
10. ___thin_______
11. ___thick_______
12. ___thick_______
13. ___thick_______
14. ___thin_______
15. ___thin_______
16. ___a, d, e_______
17. ___c, j_______
18. ___f, g, h, j_______
19. ___b, i, j_______
20. ___A_______
21. ___B_______
22. ___D_______
23. ___B_______
24. ___A_______
25. ___B_______
1
26. ___D_______
27. ___E_______
28. ___C_______
29. ___A_______
30. ___E_______
31. ___B_______
32. ___B_______
33. ___C_______
34. ___E_______
35. ___A_______
36. ___B_______
37. ___A_______
38. ___D_______
39. A: ____epidermis_____
B: ____dermis____
C: ____hypodermis___
D: ____hair bulb____
E: ____hair follicle_____
F: ____venule___
G: ____arteriole____
H: _sudoriferous gland___
I: _arrector pili__
J: ___sweat pore______
K: ___sebaceous gland_
L: ___hair shaft______
40. A: ___stratum corneum__
B: __stratum lucidum_
C: __stratum granulosum__
2
D: __stratum spinosum__
E: __stratum basale_
F: __papillary dermis__
G: __reticular dermis__
H: __hypodermis___
I: __stratum corneum____
J: ___stratum lucidum__
K: __stratum granulosum_
L: _stratum spinosum__
M: __stratum basale__
N: __melanocyte___
O: __ lamellar granules__
P: ___keratinocyte___
Q: __Merkel cell___
41. A: ___lunule____
B: ___lateral nail fold______
C: ___free edge of nail___
D: ___body of nail___
E: ____eponychium___
F: ____proximal nail fold__
G: ___root of nail__
H: ____nail matrix_____
I: ____nail bed______
J: ____phalanx***_____
42. 6 points Waterproof – keratin and glycolipids (3 pts) Continuity – prevents bacterial invasion (3 pts)
43. 6 points
3
Produces sweat to dissipate heat when body temperature rises, blood vessels in dermal area dilate and sweat glands are stimulated into activity, evaporation of sweat dissipates heat (3 pts)
Dermal blood vessels constrict and pull blood away from skin and keeps it lcose to body core to retain heat (3 pts) 44. 6 pts
Newly formed cells in stratum basale (2 pts) Keratinization (1 pt) Apoptosis (1 pt) Slough off and are replaced (1 pt) 1 pt for all correct
45. pick 4: 2 pts each
Melanin/other skin pigments Environment (UV factors) Genetics ACTH (pituitary hormones) Hemoglobin content Volume of blood in skin capillaries
46. 6 pts
Prolonged exposure increases melanin in the skin. Melanin is a dark pigment → darkens skin. (3 pts)
This serves a biological purpose because melanin protects the skin from harmful UV radiation. (3 pts) 47. 12 pts total, 3 pts for each type of skin marking
Friction ridges: markings on fingertips (i.e. fingerprints), help manipulate objects Flexion lines: flexor surfaces (digits, palms, wrists, elbows) where skin is tightly bound
to deep fascia Freckles: flat melanized patches Moles: elevated patch of melanized skin
48. 10 pts total, 2 pts for each change
Dendritic cells decrease (reduced immune response) Vitamin D3 production declines (calcium absorption declines) Glandular activity declines (skin dries, body can overheat) Blood supply to dermis declines (tend to feel cold) Dermis thins and becomes less elastic (wrinkles) Hair follicles die or produce thinner hair Underlying fat padding begins to disappear (sagging)
49. 16 pts total, 4 per sensation (2 for sensation, 1 for receptors, 1 for location)
4
Light touch, meissner’s corpuscles, capsules of connective tissue Heavy pressure, paccinian corpuscles, deep skin (dermis) Pain, pain receptors, nerve endings in skin Tepmerature, thermoreceptors, all over body in skin
50. 6 pts
Eccrine—secretes cooling sweat directly onto skin, mainly water and salt (3 pts) Apocrine—stimulated during emotional stress/excitement, secretes into hair follicle,
lipids and proteins (consumed by bacteria on skin to produce odor) (3 pts) 51. 9 pts
Anagen – growth phase (follicle produces new cells which push older cells up) (3 pts) Catagen – transitional phase (hair follicle shrinks, lower part of hair is destroyed and
dermal papilla breaks away) (3 pts) Telogen – resting phase (hair does not grown but stays attached to follicle, hair shaft
breaks and existing hair falls out) (3 pts) 52. 6 pts
Psoriasis: chronic, noninfectious, cycle of skin cell production increases by 34x normal, dead cell accumulates → dry and scaly skin
Vitiligo: autoimmune pigmentation disorder where melanocytes in the epidermis are destroyed (e.g. Michael Jackson) 53. 6 pts total – 2 pts each
a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Melanoma
54. 6 pts total – 2 pts each
a. 3 b. 1 c. 2
5
IMMUNE SYSTEM
55. ___A_______
56. ___C_______
57. ___E_______
58. ___A_______
59. ___C_______
60. ___E_______
61. ___B_______
62. ___C_______
63. ___B_______
64. ___C_______
65. ___D_______
66. ___D_______
67. ___A_______
68. ___D_______
69. ___C_______
70. ___D_______
71. ___B_______
72. ___A_______
73. ___E_______
74. ___E_______
75. ___B_______
76. ___D_______
77. ___B_______
78. ___A_______
79. ___D_______
80. ___F_______
6
81. ___K_______
82. ___B_______
83. ___H_______
84. ___D_______
85. ___G_______
86. ___L_______
87. ___A_______
88. ___I_______
89. ___E_______
90. A: ___pharyngeal tonsil______
B: ___palatine tonsil______________
C: ___lingual tonsil______________
91. A: _____tonsils____________
B: _____lymph nodes_______
C: _____thymus gland____
D: _____bone marrow___
E: _____spleen____
7
92. 6 pts, pick 2—3 pts each Helper T cells – assist other white blood cells in the immunologic process (including
maturation of B cells into plasma cells and memory B cells and activation of T cells and macrophages)
Cytotoxic T cells – destroy virally infected cells and tumor cells and play a role in transplant rejection
Memory T cells – antigenspecific T cells that persist longterm after an infection has been resolved that will provide memory of past infection and earlier defense for new infection
Regulatory T cells (suppressor) – maintain balance by shutting down Tcell mediated immunity towards the end of an immune reaction 93. 6 pts, 3 pts each
Plasma B cells produce antibodies Memory B cells ready for the next invasion
94. 4 pts
Antigen presentation occurs when an antigenglycoprotein combination capable of activating T cells appears in a cell membrane of a macrophage. 95. 8 pts total, 2 pts for definition, 2 pts each for each nonspecific defense, 2 pts for lines of defense
Nonspecific defenses do not distinguish one type of threat from another. Physical barriers, phagocytes, immunological surveillance, interferons, complement,
inflammatory response, fever First and second lines of defense
96. 8 pts total, same breakdown as 95
Specific defenses protect against particular threats. Cellmediated, antibodymediated immunity Third line of defense
97. 4 pts total
Primary versus secondary responses Primary: antibody titer (level of antibody activity) does not peak until 12 weeks after
initial exposure, IgM first to appear (immediate but limited defense) Secondary: memory B cells differentiate into plasma cells, respond faster,
8
98. 16 pts total, 4 pts per (2 pts definition, 2 pts example)
Active Passive Natural
Develop your own antibodies Are exposed to pathogen
Receive antibodies from another source Infants from mothers’ milk
Artificial Deliberate exposure to pathogen Injection of weakened or killed pathogen
Deliberate exposure to causative agent Injection of protective gamma globulin
9
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
99. _____C_____
100. ____E_____
101. ____I_____
102. ____F_____
103. ____E_____
104. ____G_____
105. ____A_____
106. ____C_____
107. ____H_____
108. ____B_____
109. ____D_____
110. ____A_____
111. ____B_____
112. ____C_____
113. ____E_____
114. ____a, c, f_____
115. ____c, f, i_____
116. ____b, h, j_____
117. ____d, g_____
118. ____d, e, g_____
119. ____D_____
120. ____B_____
121. ____C_____
122. ____A_____
123. ___D______
124. ___B______
10
125. ___E______
126. ___C______
127. ___B______
128. ___D______
129. A: ___superior vena cava_____
B: ___aorta____
C: ___left pulmonary arteries____
D: ___pulmonary trunk___
E: ___left pulmonary veins__
F: ___left atrium___
G: ___semilunar valves___
H: ___mitral (atrioventricular) valve_
I: ___left ventricle___
J: ___septum_____
K: ___inferior vena cava_____
L: ___right ventricle___
M: __chordae tendineae_____
N: __tricuspid (atrioventricular) valve_
O: __right atrium___
P: __right pulmonary veins___
Q: __right pulmonary arteries___
11
130. 16 pts total Action potential initiated in the SA node, spreads throughout the myocardium, passing
from cell to cell by way of gap junctions. Spread throughout right atrium → left atrium simple—rapid enough that two atria are depolarized and contract at essentially the same time. Spreads to ventricles through AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibers (allow for essentially simultaneous depolarization). 131. 8 pts total (4 for each)
Epinephrine causes vasodilation (or vasoconstriction, depending on proportion of alpha and betaadrenergic receptors in the organ)
Vasopressin causes vasoconstriction
132. 6 pts total Increase person’s maximal oxygen consumption by increasing maximal stroke volume
and hence cardiac output Decreases the risk of atherosclerosis (decreases BP or causes slower rise in BP) Decreases LDLs, decreases cholesterol, and increases HDLs
133. 12 pts total (6 for effects on blood pH, 6 for heart rate)
Blood pH goes up, heart rate goes down as a result 134. 10 pts total (5 for each of systolic/diastolic)
Korotkoff sounds 136. a. 80 mL b. 5660 mL c. 40 mmHg d. 94 mmHg e. 1, 3 f. 2 g.
i. P ii. PR interval iii. PR segment iv. QRS complex v. R vi. ST segment vii. Q viii. S ix. QT interval
12
x. T
13
