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Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist Practice Exam
Part 1: Scientific Foundations
1. Which of these muscular connective tissues are DIRECTLY continuous with the
tendon that connects the muscle to the bone
A. epimysium
B. perimysium
C. endomysium
D. myofibril
2. Which of the following is the best example of a uniaxial joint?
A. ankle
B. elbow
C. hip
D. wrist
3. Gina is a marathon runner. What amount of dietary protein would you
recommend for her?
A. 10% of total calories
B. 55% of total calories
C. >1.4 grams for every kilogram of body weight
D. 0.8 to 1.4 grams for every kilogram of body weight
4. The anatomical plane that dissects the body into front and back halves is called
which of the following
A. sagittal plane
B. transverse plane
C. frontal plane
D. movement plane
5. A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates is known as which
of the following terms?
A. motor nerve
B. motor neuron
C. motor unit
D. muscular nerve
6. Tom wants to lose 5 pounds over the next 8 weeks. In order to achieve this goal,
he will have to have a caloric deficit of how many calories each week?
A. 1,100
B. 2,200
C. 3,300
D. 4,400
7. If Bill has a greater density of mitochondria than Steve does, while performing the
same aerobic exercise Bill will likely have which of the following in his blood?
A. Less lactic acid than Steve
B. More lactic acid than Steve
C. About the same amount of lactic acid as Steve
D. Not enough information to answer the question
8. The sarcomere is stimulated to release calcium ions, which allows actin to bind to
myosin occurs during which phase of the sliding filament theory?
A. resting phase
B. excitation-contraction coupling phase
C. contraction phase
D. recharge phase
9. Which of the following processes allow for gas exchange at the alveoli during
respiration?
A. Law of mass action
B. Osmosis
C. Diffusion
D. Chance
10. Which of the following is NOT an anti-oxidant?
A. Beta carotene
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
11. Carbohydrate loading for endurance athletes in the days prior to an important
competition involves which of the following?
A. 1 to 2 days of high-carbohydrate diet matched with a high training volume
B. 1 to 3 days of reduced carbohydrate ingestion matched with high-protein diet and
no change in training volume
C. 3 days of high-protein and high-carbohydrate diet with increased training volume
D. 3 days of high-carbohydrate diet with a reduction in exercise volume
12. Jerry is using a Bowflex machine to workout on where he notices that the
resistance is harder to overcome as the “rods” bend more. What type of resistance is
Jerry experiencing?
A. elastic
B. electronic
C. fluid
D. gravity
13. Pam injured her ankle several weeks ago, the pain and swelling have gone away,
but the ankle still feels very unstable. These are signs of which of the following
phases of tissue healing?
A. inflammation
B. repair
C. remodeling
D. return
14. Which of the following events occurs in the hamstring muscles during the
concentric muscle action of the leg curl exercise?
A. chloride ions are released inside the muscle fiber
B. each sarcomere is stimulated by a motor neuron
C. the actin cross-bridges attach to the myosin filaments
D. the H-zone decreases and the Z-lines are pulled toward each other
15. Which of the following ergogenic aids has been used illegally and is associated
with gynocomastia, elevated blood lipids and liver tumors?
A. anabolic steroids
B. ephedrine
C. erythropoietin
D. growth hormone
16. Mary just finished her 1 hour cycling workout. Even though she reduced her
speed from 18mph to 10 mph, her breathing remains elevated. Which of the
following would explain this phenomenon?
A. anaerobic threshold
B. EPOC
C. lactate threshold
D. oxygen deficit
17. During the upward movement phase of the front squat exercise, which of the
following muscles acts as a synergist to the concentric movement?
A. rectus femoris
B. biceps femoris
C. erector spinae
D. pectoralis major
18. An athlete who wants to gain muscle mass and increase body weight must be in
which of the following states in order to achieve those goals?
A. caloric balance
B. negative caloric balance
C. positive caloric balance
D. neutral caloric balance
19. Which of the following is NOT and adaptation to resistance training?
A. increased activation of the agonist muscles
B. increased activation of the antagonist muscles
C. increased activation of the synergist muscles
D. increased synchronization of agonist, antagonist and synergist muscles
20. In which of the following activities is a high percentage of type I muscle fibers
the LEAST important?
A. 10,000 meter race
B. 400 meter race
C. Tour de France
D. Marathon
21. A chemical reaction in which energy is released is known as which of the
following?
A. androgenic
B. dynamic
C. endergonic
D. exergonic
22. All of the following are responses to both anaerobic and aerobic exercise
EXCEPT which of the following?
A. increased breathing rate
B. increased heart rate
C. increased a-vO2 difference
D. increased tidal volume
23. Which of the following foods contains complete proteins?
A. soy beans
B. eggs
C. peanuts
D. cucumbers
24. The blood in the chambers on which side of the heart has the greatest amount of
oxygen?
A. left
B. right
C. no difference
D. neither
25. Which of the following types of levers ALWAYS has a mechanical advantage?
A. type II
B. type III
C. type I
D. type IV
26. Which type of carbohydrate is most appropriate immediately after a workout?
A. high glycemic index
B. moderate glycemic index
C. low glycemic index
D. any carbohydrate
27. Which of the following is the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction of ADP and
creatine phosphate to ATP and creatine?
A. ATPase
B. creatine kinase
C. hydrogen
D. isocitrate hydrogenase
28. Having muscle attachments further away from the joint provides which type of
advantage?
A. speed
B. power
C. strength
D. rate of muscle firing
29. Which of the following is NOT a reason for athletes to decrease dietary fat?
A. need to increase carbohydrate intake to support training type
B. fat is not a significant source of energy
C. need to reduce total caloric intake to achieve weight loss
D. need to decrease elevated blood cholesterol
30. In an electrocardiogram, depolarization of the ventricles occurs in which phase?
A. O segment
B. P-wave
C. QRS complex
D. T-wave
31. Which molecule diffuses across the neuromuscular junction to bring an action
potential from the motor neuron to the muscle?
A. troponin
B. acetylcholine
C. calcium
D. potassium
32. Becky is one of the athletes you are training. During a workout she mentions that
she’s been really tired lately, is having trouble sleeping, and feels her heart racing
even when she is resting. When you ask her if she is training outside of the
scheduled workouts, she indicates she’s doubled her workout for the past several
months. What are you as a strength and conditioning professional likely to suspect?
A. she’s getting a cold
B. she’s in a state of overloading
C. she’s experiencing overtraining syndrome
D. she’s too stressed out
33. During the upward phase of a step-up exercise, what muscle action is the gluteus
maximus of the working leg performing?
A. isometric
B. eccentric
C. concentric
D. isokinetic
34. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of erythropoietin (EPO)?
A. blood clotting
B. increased systolic blood pressure
C. dehydration
D. decreased diastolic blood pressure
35. Cam-based weight stack machines attempt to mimic free weight exercises by
altering which parameter during movement?
A. moment arm of the weight stack
B. acceleration
C. force
D. moment arm of the muscle
36. Which of the following is the performance enhancing capability of caffeine?
A. increased aerobic efficiency
B. increased time to exhaustion
C. increased buffering capacity
D. increased VO2
37. Which energy system is the main energy contribution during the last 15 seconds
of a 45 second hockey shift?
A. oxidative system
B. aerobic glycolysis
C. anaerobic glycolysis
D. phosphagen
38. Which of the following joint speeds of a concentric contraction will all the largest
amount of force production?
A. 10 degrees/second
B. 30 degrees/second
C. 90 degrees/second
D. 180 degrees/second
39. Which of the following is a good estimate of how many calories a five foot nine,
one hundred and forty pound collegiate female basketball player should consume
per day?
A. 2000
B. 2800
C. 3220
D. 2460
40. Increases in the number and size of myofibrils and improvements in tendon
integrity are most often associated with this type of training:
A. aerobic
B. combined aerobic and resistance
C. resistance
D. anaerobic intervals
41. Two trained athletes complete a training run. Athlete A performs their run at
90% of their VO2 Max and athlete B performs their run at 60% of their VO2 Max.
Assuming they exercised for the same amount of time, which athlete would have a
larger oxygen deficit and oxygen debt as a result of their training run?
A. Athlete A
B. Athlete B
C. They would be equal
D. There is not enough information to answer this question
42. Which of the following does not change during an isometric contraction?
A. Distance between the Z lines
B. A Band
C. I Band
D. All of the above
43. An athlete that previously weighed 216 pounds before a practice in the hot
humid air now weighs 211 pounds. How much water is needed for the athlete to
regain the lost body weight?
A. 5 liters
B. 2.5 pints
C. 5 pints
D. 3 liters
44. Which movement plane does a tennis forehand stroke take place in?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. anatomical
45. Which structure of the heart is responsible for sending blood toward the lungs?
A. left ventricle
B. left atrium
C. pulmonary veins
D. right ventricle
46. Which of the following is NOT a main function of cartilage?
A. act as a shock absorber for forces directed through a joint
B. provide a smooth articulating surface for joint movement
C. aid in the attachment of connective tissue to the skeleton
D. provide oxygen and nutrients to the surrounding joint
47. Which of the following supplements is currently NOT illegal and unethical to use
in most sports?
A. anabolic steroids
B. creatine
C. erythropoietin
D. ephedrine
48. Which macronutrient has the highest rate of ATP production?
A. carbohydrate
B. protein
C. fat
D. water
49. If an athlete consumes a 3000 calorie diet consisting of 55% carbohydrate, 20%
protein and 25% fat, how much of each macronutrient are they consuming?
A. 412.5 g CHO, 150 g PRO, 187.5 g Fat
B. 412.5 g CHO, 150 g PRO, 83.3 g Fat
C. 750 g CHO, 750 g PRO, 333.3 g Fat
D. 550 g CHO, 200 g PRO, 250 g Fat
50. Compared to untrained individuals, trained athletes show signs of detraining in
which of the following time periods?
A. earlier
B. later
C. at the same time
D. more research is needed
51. Which of the following would most likely affect an athlete’s performance as he
competes in an Ironman Triathalon?
A. lower pH
B. muscle and liver glycogen levels
C. creatine phosphate levels
D. fat stores
52. Which of the following muscles is the antagonist to the biceps femoris during the
flexion phase of the leg curl exercise?
A. vastus medialis
B. soleus
C. rectus abdominus
D. semitendinosus
53. An athlete is trying to deadlift 100lbs more than he has ever done before,
halfway up, he suddenly drops the bar back to the floor. Which sensory structure is
most likely to be involved in not being able to perform this action?
A. muscle spindle
B. intrafusal muscle fiber
C. Golgi tendon organ
D. pacinian corpuscle
54. Which of the following is NOT acutely affected by aerobic exercise?
A. oxygen uptake
B. tidal volume
C. maximal oxygen uptake
D. cardiac output
55. A 215 pound male athlete would like to gain 2 pounds of muscle in one week.
What should his daily caloric intake be, assuming that his estimated caloric intake
will only maintain his weight?
A. 4845 calories per day
B. 9845 calories per day
C. 5559 calories per day
D. 4914 calories per day
56. Which of the following will lengthen the I-bands of the sarcomeres within the
pectoralis major muscle?
A. downward movement phase of the bench press
B. upward movement phase of the upright row
C. downward movement phase of the triceps pushdown
D. upward movement phase of the bent-over row
57. What plane of motion does hip adduction take place in?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. none of the above
58. If an athlete who consumes a 2300 calorie diet ingests 150 grams of protein per
day, what percentage of their daily caloric intake does this represent?
A. 26%
B. 59%
C. 15%
D. 22%
59. Which of the following situations would NOT require the muscle to produce
more force in order to produce movement?
A. the perpendicular distance between the axis and the resistance is increased
B. the perpendicular distance between the axis and the tendon insertion is increased
C. the resistance is increased
D. the perpendicular distance between the axis and the tendon insertion is reduced
60. Performance in which of the following events has been shown to be MOST
enhanced by creatine supplementation?
A. marathon
B. 100m sprint
C. 5km race
D. 10km race
61. Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor that determines which energy
system that an athlete will predominantly rely on?
A. exercise mode
B. exercise intensity
C. exercise duration
D. available energy stores
62. Which of the following muscles are involved with forceful inspiration?
A. internal intercostals
B. external intercostals
C. rectus abdominus
D. biceps femoris
63. Which of the following is a neural adaptation to chronic aerobic endurance
training?
A. increased motor unit recruitment
B. increased motor neuron firing
C. decreased fatigue of the contractile mechanism
D. increased synchronicity of motor neurons
64. Which of the following expands during an eccentric contraction?
I. Distance between Z lines
II. I-Band
III. M-Line
IV. H-Zone
A. II and III only
B. I and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
65. Which of the following is a warning sign exclusive to bulimia?
A. Losing or gaining extreme amounts of weight
B. Pre-occupation with food, calories and weight
C. Commenting about feeling fat
D. Losing dramatic amounts of weight for no medical reason
66. Having muscle attachments closer to the joint (thus making the moment arm
shorter) provides which type of advantage?
A. speed
B. power
C. strength
D. rate of muscle firing
67. What is the appropriate carbohydrate intake for a 110 lb female cross-country
skier?
A. 250 grams
B. 1110 grams
C. 500 grams
D. 750 grams
68. What is the main reason for gender differences in aerobic power and strength?
A. menstruation
B. body size
C. toughness
D. training
69. Which of the following structures causes a pause in the electrical signal in the
heart to allow for proper timing of the contraction of the chambers?
A. SA Node
B. Purkinje fibers
C. AV Node
D. Internodal pathways
70. Which of the following occurs prior to the excitation-contraction coupling
phase?
A. calcium binds to tropomyosin
B. calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. measureable shortening of the muscle occurs
D. an action potential occurs
71. What is the definition of the distal attachment of a muscle?
A. closer to the trunk
B. further from the trunk
C. closer to the head
D. further from the head
72. Which of the following ergogenic aids would NOT be beneficial for an aerobic
endurance athlete?
A. caffeine
B. growth hormone
C. erythropoietin
D. ephedrine
73. Testosterone is an example of which of the following types of hormones?
A. catabolic hormone
B. polypeptide
C. anabolic hormone
D. adrenal hormone
74. Which of the following energy systems has the highest capacity of ATP
production?
A. phosphagen
B. fast glycolysis
C. anaerobic glycolysis
D. aerobic glycolysis
75. Which of the following is only a chronic response to aerobic training?
A. increased heart rate
B. increased left ventricle size
C. increased cardiac output
D. increased blood pressure
76. Which of the following upper leg muscle groups and types of muscle actions are associated with the upward phase of the lunge?
Primary Muscle Group Primary Muscle Action
I. flexors eccentric
II. extensors eccentric
III. flexors concentric
IV. extensors concentric
A. II and III only
B. I and IV only
C. I and III only
D. II and IV only
77. Which of the following is an adaptation of the catabolic hormones to chronic
high intensity exercise?
A. an increased response at submaximal exercise and a decreased response at
maximal exercise
B. a decreased response at submaximal exercise and an increased response at
maximal exercise
C. an increased response at both submaximal and maximal exercise
D. none of the above
78. 30 minutes or so before a training session or competition it is best to consume
which of the following amounts of carbohydrate?
A. 15-25 grams of simple carbohydrate
B. 4-6 grams of complex carbohydrate
C. 4-6 grams of mixed carbohydrate
D. 15-25 grams of mixed carbohydrate
79. In which structure is the “concentration” of oxygen in the blood the greatest?
A. pulmonary artery
B. capillary
C. mitochondrion
D. pulmonary vein
80. An twenty year old, 195 lb male collegiate lacrosse player has the following average energy intake:
700 grams of carbohydrate60 grams of protein120 grams of fatWhat nutritional information would you recommend?
A. Increase his fat content
B. Increase his carbohydrate content
C. Increase his protein content
D. Decrease his fat content
81. Which of the following types of chemical reactions best describes the phosphorylation of ADP, P and Energy to ATP?
I. endergonic II. exergonic
III. anabolic IV. catabolic
A. I and III only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only
82. Which of the following would be reasoning behind a decrease in aerobic
capabilities as a result of a 4 week absence of training?
A. decreased neural stimulation
B. decreased enzyme stimulation
C. decreased hormonal stimulation
D. decreased mechanical stimulation
83. During a sled push, which of the following is NOT a source of resistance to
muscle contraction?
A. gravity
B. friction
C. fluid resistance
D. inertia
84. Growth Hormone increases as an acute response to which of the following?
A. resistance training, but not aerobic training
B. aerobic training, but not resistance training
C. both resistance and aerobic training
D. research results are inconclusive
85. Which of the following is the rate limiting step for the glycolytic system?
A. Phosphofructokinase (PFK)
B. isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. creatine kinase
D. ATPase
86. During normal, quiet breathing what is the term for the air that does not reach
the alveoli for gas exchange?
A. anatomical dead space
B. tidal volume
C. minute ventilation
D. larynx
87. If Jennifer, who weighs 375 pounds wants to lose weight at a safe rate, what should she decrease her caloric intake by per day (assuming she is currently eating a diet that leaves her with a caloric balance)?
A. 13125 calories
B. 1875 calories
C. 1250 calories
D. 500 calories
88. Which of the following stages of tissue healing describes the stage where
collagen fiber production begins?
A. inflammation
B. pain
C. repair
D. remodeling
89. Which of the following does NOT affect the maximal force that can be produced
during a back squat?
A. genetic pennation of activated musculature
B. load of the barbell
C. speed of muscular contraction
D. genetic muscle fiber type distribution
90. Which of the following is a change at submaximal effort exercise that occurs as a result of repeated aerobic training?
A. an increased VO2
B. an increased minute ventilation
C. an increased heart rate
D. an increased stroke volume
91. How much muscle force does Hillary need to produce to MOVE the dumbbell in a
biceps curl if the dumbbell weighs 85 newtons, the perpendicular distance between
the elbow joint and the dumbbell is .17 meters and the distance from the elbow joint
to the biceps brachii insertion is .002 meters?
A. 7225 newtons
B. 1 newton
C. 7000 newtons
D. 7300 newtons
92. Which of the following is NOT a factor in increasing one’s excess post-exercise
oxygen consumption?
A. resynthesis of glycogen from lactate
B. increased body temperature
C. resynthesis of triglycerides
D. resynthesis of ATP and creatine phosphate
93. Which of the following is NOT a function of iron?
A. oxygen transport
B. contributes to bone density
C. constituent of myoglobin
D. utilization of energy
94. Which type of hormone diffuses across the cell membrane and acts directly on
the nucleus?
A. polypeptide hormone
B. anabolic hormone
C. catabolic hormone
D. steroid hormone
95. Which of the following would involve a fibrous joint?
A. the joint between the femur and the fibula
B. the joint between two plates of the skull
C. the joint between two cervical vertebrae
D. the joint between the humerus and the shoulder girdle
Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist Practice Exam Answers
Part 1: Scientific Foundations
1. A (Module 1.1)
2. B (Module 2.1)
3. D (Module 3.3)
4. C (Module 2.2)
5. C (Module 1.1)
6. B (Module 3.5)
7. A (Module 3.2)
8. B (Module 1.2)
9. C (Module 1.4)
10. B (Module 3.3)
11. D (Module 3.3)
12. (Module 2.4)
13. B (Module 2.4)
14. D (Module 1.2)
15. A (Module 3.4)
16. B (Module 3.2)
17. C (Module 2.1)
18. C (Module 3.5)
19. B (Module 4.1)
20. B (Module 1.3)
21. D (Module 3.1)
22. C (Module 4.2)
23. B (Module 3.3)
24. A (Module 1.5)
25. A (Module 2.3)
26. A (Module 3.3)
27. B (Module 3.1)
28. C (Module 2.3)
29. B (Module 3.5)
30. C (Module 1.5)
31. B (Module 1.2)
32. C (Module 4.5)
33. C (Module 1.2)
34. D (Module 3.4)
35. A (Module 2.4)
36. B (Module 3.4)
37. C (Module 3.2)
38. A (Module 1.3)
39. B (Module 3.5)
40. C (Module 4.1)
41. A (Module 3.2)
42. D (Module 1.2)
43. C (Module 3.3)
44. C (Module 2.2)
45. D (Module 1.5)
46. D (Module 4.4)
47. B (Module 3.4)
48. A (Module 3.2)
49. B (Module 3.3)
50. A (Module 4.5)
51. B (Module 3.2)
52. A (Module 2.1)
53. C (Module 1.3)
54. C (Module 4.2)
55. C (Module 3.5)
56. A (Module 1.2)
57. B (Module 2.2)
58. A (Module 3.3)
59. B (Module 2.3)
60. B (Module 3.4)
61. B (Module 3.2)
62. B (Module 1.4)
63. C (Module 4.2)
64. D (Module 1.2)
65. A (Module 3.5)
66. A (Module 2.3)
67. C (Module 3.3)
68. B (Module 5.2)
69. C (Module 1.5)
70. D (Module 1.2)
71. B (Module 2.1)
72. B (Module 3.4)
73. C (Module 4.3)
74. D (Module 3.2)
75. B (Module 4.2)
76. B (Module 2.2)
77. D (Module 4.3)
78. D (Module 3.3)
79. D (Module 1.5)
80. C (Module 3.3)
81. A (Module 3.1)
82. B (Module 4.5)
83. C (Module 2.4)
84. C (Module 3.4)
85. A (Module 3.1)
86. A (Module 1.4)
87. B (Module 3.5)
88. C (Module 2.4)
89. B (Module 1.3)
90. D (Module 4.2)
91. D (Module 2.3)
92. C (Module 3.2)
93. B (Module 3.3)
94. D (Module 4.3)
95. B (Module 2.1)
Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist Practice Exam
Part 2: Practical/Applied
1. Which of the following training goals is the above exercise best suited for?
A. maximum strength
B. hypertrophy
C. power
D. muscular endurance
2. Which of the following grips is being utilized in the exercise pictured above?
A. overhand
B. neutral
C. pronated
D. supinated
3. If two spotters where used to ensure the safety of the above exercise, where
should they be placed?
A. both behind the lifter
B. one behind the lifter and one on the side of the barbell
C. one behind the lifter and one in front of the lifter
D. on each side of the barbell
4. Which of the following plyometric exercises would be the most appropriate for
the athlete pictured above?
A. jumps in place
B. box jumps
C. standing jumps
D. none of these
5. How long should the above stretching exercise be held in order to improve
flexibility?
A. 60 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 6 seconds
D. 15 seconds
6. Which of the following should the lifter pictured above change in order to move in
a safe and effective deadlift starting position?
A. straighten the arms
B. flatten the back and push the chest up and out
C. pull the barbell closer to the shins
D. all of the above
7. Which of the following physical abilities is being tested in the physical assessment
shown above?
A. flexibility
B. muscular endurance
C. power
D. aerobic capacity
8. Where on the body should the athlete pictured above row the barbell to in order
to perform this exercise correctly?
A. lower abdomen
B. nipples
C. navel
D. clavicle
9. Where is the proper position to spot the exercise shown above?
A. elbow
B. upper arm
C. wrist
D. none of these
10. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of obtaining the starting position
pictured above?
A. the grip width is elbow-to-elbow
B. the feet are hip width apart with feet turned slightly inward
C. the back is flat or slightly arched
D. the bar is approximately one inch in from of the shins
11. Which of the following is the correct subsequent action to complete the exercise
pictured above?
A. the athlete slowly lowers the bar down to the shoulders
B. the legs are slightly flexed and one leg is extended behind the body
C. the athlete explosively shrugs the shoulders
D. the athlete extends the hips and knees and stabilizes the barbell
12. Which of the following parts of the snatch exercise does the above picture
represent?
A. second pull
B. scoop
C. first pull
D. catch
13. Which of the following depths should the athlete pictured above lower to in
order to drive the barbell overhead?
A. 25% of their height
B. the catch position of the power clean
C. half-squat
D. any of the above
14. The plyometric drill pictured above should include which of the following rest
times between sets?
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 seconds
D. 1 minute
15. What type of grip should be used for the following exercise?
I. Pronated
II. Supinated
III. Hook
IV. Open
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I and IV only
16. Which of the following corrections does this individual need to perform in order
for the above exercise to be correct?
I. use a closed grip
II. widen the stance
III. keep the upper arms parallel to the floor
IV. push the chest out and keep the back flat
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
17. For the correct completion of the above exercise, explosion and speed is
required in which of the following movements?
A. flexion
B. extension
C. adduction
D. pronation
18. While performing the exercise pictured above, where should the bar be lowered
to?
A. the clavicle
B. the belly button
C. the eyes
D. the nipples
19. How many spotters should be used to spot the exercise shown above and where
should they be located?
Number of Spotters Location
A. 1 Behind Athlete
B. 1 In Front of Athlete
C 2 Opposite Sides Of Bar
D. 3 Opposite Sides Of Bar and Behind Athlete
20. When should an athlete exhale during the resistance training exercise pictured
above?
A. middle
B. eccentric phase
C. concentric phase
D. beginning
21. Which of the following is a common mistake when performing the exercise
pictured above?
A. allowing the shoulders to rise before the hips
B. allowing the hips to rise before the shoulders
C. using an hook grip
D. keeping the torso erect
22. Which of the following is an appropriate recommendation to make regarding
proper technique of the upward movement phase of the exercise pictured above?
A. focus the eyes on the floor
B. lean the torso backward
C. drive off the floor with the trailing foot
D. push down on the top of the box with the leading foot
23. Which of the following is a common error when performing the catch phase of
the exercise pictured above?
A. catch the bar with the head in a neutral position
B. after the bar is overhead from the drive phase, press it up the rest of the way until
the elbows are fully extended
C. catch the bar with the bar slightly behind the head
D. after the bar is overhead from the drive phase, quickly reflex the hips and knees
24. Which of the following parts of the warm-up is MOST likely to include the
exercise pictured above?
A. general warm-up
B. static stretching
C. PNF stretching
D. specific warm-up
25. Which if the following does NOT describe the proper guidelines for achieving the
parallel arm position of the exercise pictured above?
A. grasp the bar with a supinated grip
B. use a hip-width grip on the bar
C. place the bar on top of the anterior deltoids
D. flex the elbows to position the upper arms parallel to the floor
26. How many experienced spotters are appropriate for spotting the exercise
pictured with the lifter performing 70% of their one rep maximum?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 2
D. 3
27. If an athlete were using the above exercise to increase the size of the agonist
muscle, which of the following repetition prescriptions would achieve this goal?
A. 2 repetitions
B. 4 repetitions
C. 8 repetitions
D. 15 repetitions
28. Approximately where in the resistance training session should the above
exercise be performed?
A. first
B. second
C. near the beginning
D. near the end
29. In the exercise pictured above where should the foot be placed on the box?
A. middle
B. front
C. back
D. either side
30. For which of the following athletes is a test of the above movement the MOST
valid?
A. football player
B. marathon runner
C. tennis player
D. swimmer
31. Which of the following types of grip is used when spotting the exercise pictured
above?
A. neutral
B. pronated
C. supinated
D. alternated
32. Which of the following is NOT part of the five point body contact position used in
the exercise pictured above?
A. right foot
B. head
C. left elbow
D. buttocks
33. Which of the following would be an incorrect technique for the exercise pictured
above?
A. keep the thighs, lower legs and feet parallel to each other
B. do not forcefully lock the knees
C. allow the buttocks to come off the pad during the downward movement phase
D. raise the roller pad by fully extending the knees
34. For the proper execution of the exercise shown above, which body part should
raise first?
A. head
B. shoulders
C. hips
D. all of the above
35. Which type of grip is used when performing the exercise pictured above?
A. neutral
B. pronated
C. supinated
D. alternated
36. At which point of the Power Clean does the bar rise just above the knees during
its upward movement?
A. First Pull
B. Transition (Scoop)
C. Second Pull
D. Catch
37. What is the heart rate reserve of a 34 year old female who has a resting heart
rate of 65 bpm?
A. 186 bpm
B. 121 bpm
C. 111 bpm
D. 167 bpm
38. If an athlete wants to increase the synchronicity of firing of the motor units,
which of the following training methods should they utilize?
A. train the movement with perfect form over and over
B. train at high velocity
C. train with high loads
D. allow lots of recovery time
39. Which of the following factors will NOT lead to an athlete’s increased anxiety
and arousal?
A. lack of self-confidence
B. fear of failure
C. feeling of personal control
D. threatened self-esteem
40. During the upward movement phase of the push press exercise, which of the
following is true?
I. knees and hips remain fully exposed
II. quadriceps muscles are agonists
III. triceps brachii and anterior deltoids are agonists
IV. shoulder joints are initially hyperextended
A. I and III only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. II and IV only
41. What would the appropriate maximum volume of lower body plyometrics be for
a beginning athlete?
A. 50-60
B. 120-140
C. 100-120
D. 80-100
42. Which of the following involves a systematic reduction in training duration and
intensity combined with increased emphasis on nutritional intervention?
A. peaking
B. tapering
C. detraining
D. cross-training
43. Which of the following is a description of good landing technique?
A. shoulders behind the knees
B. shoulders over the knees
C. knees behind the ankles
D. shoulders in front of the knees
44. Which of the following athletic abilities does the following athlete NOT need to
work on a result of fitness testing with these results: 1RM squat 250 lbs, 1RM bench
press 150lbs, 40 yard dash 4.4 seconds, 300 yard shuttle 75 seconds.
A. speed
B. high speed strength
C. low speed strength
D. anaerobic capacity
45. If the following scores were recorded for a team performing a maximum
repetition chin-up test: 2, 14, 15, 22, 15, 18, 5, 4, 6, and 9, which of the following
would represent the mean score?
A. 9
B. 15
C. 11
D. 10
46. When designing a strength and conditioning facility, how high should windows
and mirrors be placed above the ground to prevent contact with rolling items?
A. 3 feet
B. 12 inches
C. 20 inches
D. 4 feet
47. When running, which of the following contributes the most to minimizing the
braking effect of a heel foot strike?
A. eccentric hip extension
B. concentric hip extension
C. eccentric hip adduction
D. concentric hip adduction
48. Which of the following would be considered a tertiary method for developing
speed and agility?
A. form running
B. uphill running
C. high speed treadmill running
D. back squat
49. Which of the following modes of aerobic endurance exercise training promotes
increases in lactate threshold?
A. long, slow distance training
B. pace/tempo training
C. interval training
D. repetition training
50. Which of the following should be performed first during a performance training
session?
A. specific warm-up
B. PNF stretches
C. general warm-up
D. static stretches
51. Which of the following would be the LEAST applicable test to a twelve year old
athlete?
A. 1RM Squat test
B. sit and reach
C. push-up test
D. 1.5 mile run
52. Which of the following is used to maintain safety and order when athletes are
using the weight room?
A. strength and conditioning department mission statement
B. strength and conditioning department program objectives
C. weight room policies and procedures
D. strength and conditioning staff job descriptions
53. During the hold-relax stretching technique, how long is the active isometric
contraction preventing the partner from moving the agonist before the final passive
stretch?
A. 30 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 6 seconds
D. there is not set length as it is moved through its range of motion
54. How often should a beginning athlete resistance train per week?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
55. Which of the following factors MOST affect running speed during a 100 meter
dash?
I. stride length
II. wind resistance
III. type of running surface
IV. stride frequency
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. I and IV only
56. Which of the following exercises would be the MOST beneficial for increasing
bone mass in a young, healthy individual?
A. Leg Press
B. Seated Shoulder Press
C. Overhead Squat
D. Biceps Curl
57. Fascia, tendon and ligament strength is best increased through
A. strenuous exercise
B. non-strenuous exercise
C. exercise through a full range of motion
D. exercise through a full range of motion
58. Using the Karvonen formula, what is the target heart rate of a 45-year-old female
athlete (with a resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute) who is prescribed an
exercise training intensity of 60%?
A. 133 beats per minute
B. 145 beats per minute
C. 63 beats per minute
D. 105 beats per minute
59. Which of the following is NOT a method of reducing risk within a strength and
conditioning facility?
A. allowing experienced unlimited weight room access
B. posting any emergency procedures
C. ensuring staff maintains certifications
D. provide athletes with proper exercise technique instruction
60. Of the following tests, which would the most likely to be performed on a
separate day?
A. 1RM Squat
B. 40 yard dash
C. 300 Yard Shuttle
D. height and weight
61. Which of the following tests addresses an athlete’s high-speed strength?
A. Wingate test
B. 1RM Back Squat
C. 40 Yard Dash
D. Margaria-Kalamen Test
62. Which of the following would be an appropriate coach to athlete ratio when
coaching a group of middle school athletes?
A. 1:15
B. 1:20
C. 1:10
D. 1:50
63. Which of the following BEST describes how an athlete increases their running
speed during a 40 Yard Dash?
A. increased stride length then decreased stride frequency
B. increased stride length then increased speed endurance
C. increased stride frequency then increased stride length
D. decreased stride frequency then increased arm action
64. Jack has suffered a knee injury. In which phase of healing is it recommended that he begin balance and proprioceptive exercises?
A. inflammation phase
B. repair phase
C. remodeling phase
D. any of the above
65. Which of the following exercises has a grip that would be correct if it was the
distance from one elbow to the other?
A. Snatch
B. Power Clean
C. Deadlift
D. Bent-Over Row
66. Which of the following would be considered a compound set?
A. bench press supersetted with seated row
B. bench press supersetted with leg press
C. bench press supersetted with dumbbell shoulder press
D. bench press supersetted with push-ups
67. A runner is using repetition training to improve her final kick in a 10km (6.2
mile) race. Which of the following describes this type of training?
I. Frequency: 1x/week
II. Work:rest ratio: 1:1
III. Intensity: greater than VO2 max
IV. Work bout duration: 3-5 minutes
A. I and III only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
68. Which factor is the MOST important when prescribing resistance exercise for the purpose of bone growth?
A. exercise type
B. load
C. rest times
D. frequency
69. Which of the following types of goals should an athlete focus on the MOST in
order to improve performance?
A. outcome goals
B. long-term goals
C. process goals
D. achievement goals
70. Which of the following test sequences of a testing battery of:
1. 40 Yard Dash 2. Vertical Jump 3. Pro Agility 4. YMCA Bench Press Test
would produce the MOST reliable results?
A. 2, 3, 1, 4
B. 2, 1, 3, 4
C. 3, 1, 2, 4
D. 3, 2, 4, 1
71. Which of the following aspects of a test are needed for a test to be valid?
I. Metabolic Energy System Specificity
II. Athlete’s Experience Level
III. Inter-subject Variability
IV. Biomechanical Movement Pattern Specificity
A. I and III only
B. II and IV only
C. I and IV only
D. II and III only
72. When planning and designing a strength and conditioning facility, which of the
following phases should be given the greatest amount of time to be completed?
A. pre-design phase
B. design phase
C. construction phase
D. pre-operation phase
73. A 23 year old, 6 foot 2 inch, 250 lb collegiate football linebacker was tested with
the following results:
Standing Long Jump: 86 cm
1RM Bench Press: 370 lbs
300 Yard Shuttle Average: 53 seconds
Pro Agility: 4.40 seconds
With these results, what should his training program focus on?
A. high speed strength
B. upper body strength
C. anaerobic capacity
D. agility
74. During which phase of the physiological model of plyometrics are the muscle
spindles stimulated?
A. eccentric
B. amortization
C. concentric
D. isometric
75. What type of indicator of aerobic overtraining is the easiest to observe and
occurs in the relatively early stages of overtraining?
A. performance
B. body fat percentage
C. mood
D. sleeping patterns
76. Which of the following phases of training is LEAST applicable to female athletes?
A. anatomical adaptation
B. hypertrophy
C. maximum strength
D. power
77. Which of the following would be an appropriate rest interval for an individual
performing 5 sets of bench press with 90% of their one rep maximum?
A. 2 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 7 minutes
78. Which of the following will have the largest NEGATIVE effect on the stretch
shortening cycle during a plyometric depth jump?
A. a high intensity eccentric contraction during the landing after the depth jump
B. a small height for the depth jump
C. a moderate conscious concentric contraction after the drop
D. an extended amortization period (two to three seconds) after the drop
79. Which of the following is a trainable factor that affects muscle force production?
A. creating elastic energy through a pre-stretch
B. muscles in which all the muscle fibers are in series
C. stretch shortening cycle
D. all of the above
80. What is the TOTAL distance that an athlete will move when performing a T-Test?
A. 20 Yards
B. 30 Yards
C. 40 Yards
D. 50 Yards
81. During the supine knee flex stretch, where are the hands placed to stretch the
hip extensors?
A. on top of the knee
B. behind the thigh
C. on the shin
D. the ankle
82. Which of the following tests is the MOST valid for a cross-country runner?
A. sit and reach
B. 1.5 mile run
C. vertical jump
D. 40 yard dash
83. Which of the following are factors to consider when designing a strength and
conditioning facility?
I. type of training that will occur II. number of athletes to use facility
III. size of athletes using facility IV. anticipated training schedules
A. I and II only
B. I, II and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. III and IV only
84. The preferred modes of training for aerobic endurance includes all of the
following except which of the following characteristic?
A. large muscle mass
B. maximum-intensity explosive movements
C. repetitive motion
D. sustainable movement
85. Which of the following is NOT the correct order for a testing sequence?
A. sit and reach, pro agility, 1RM back squat, wingate test
B. vertical jump, 1.5 mile run, 1RM back squat, wingate test
C. height, vertical jump, push-ups, 300 yard shuttle
D. weight, t-test, 1RM power clean, 1.5 mile run
86. A strength and conditioning facility wants to place two bench press stations
beside each other. How many linear feet of space will this require in the facility?
A. 10 feet
B. 23 feet
C. 33 feet
D. 26 feet
87. Which of the following types of lower body plyometrics would be MOST
appropriate for a group of youth athletes with little previous training experience?
A. jumps in place
B. depth jumps
C. standing jumps
D. multiple hops
88. Which of the following tests are the MOST sport-specific to women’s field
hockey?
I. T-test
II. 40-yard (37-m) sprint
III. 1RM back squat
IV. 1 RM bench press
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. III and IV only
89. Which of the following should be administered FIRST in a sequence of tests for a
javelin thrower?
A. 1RM squat
B. vertical jump
C. 20-yard (18-m) sprint
D. 300-yard (274-m) shuttle
90. The highest number of aerobic endurance training days per week (excluding
competitive events) for a cross-country runner will occur during which of the
following phases?
A. off-season
B. pre-season
C. in-season
D. post-season
91. Which of the following training modes will NOT increase serum testosterone
concentration?
A. heavy resistance
B. high volume
C. short rest intervals
D. small, specific muscle groups
92. Which of the following guidelines is the most important to follow when planning
to administer an aerobic endurance test in the heat?
A. have the athletes fill out a waiver before conducting the test
B. measure the relative humidity and air temperature before testing
C. allow the athletes to acclimatize to the heat 1 hour before testing
D. eliminate the warm-up prior to performing the test
93. During a single training session, which of the following exercise sequences is the
MOST appropriate for the hypertrophy phase of an athlete’s program?
A. front squat, leg extension, deadlift, calf (heel) raise
B. leg extension, front squat, deadlift, calf (heel) raise
C. front squat, deadlift, leg extension, calf (heel) raise
D. calf (heel) raise, leg extension, deadlift, front squat
94. Which of the following chest exercises would be MOST appropriate for a child to
begin with?
A. push-up
B. dumbbell chest press
C. bench press
D. dumbbell chest fly
95. In which of the following exercises would a weight belt be MOST appropriate?
A. lying barbell triceps press
B. bench press
C. back squat
D. biceps curl
96. Which of the following periods would MOST likely involve the least amount of
any training?
A. preparatory period
B. first transition
C. competition period
D. second transition
97. When scheduling a variety of teams within a strength and conditioning facility,
which of the following factors is the MOST important variable?
A. number of athletes on the team
B. training goal of the team
C. sport season the team is currently in
D. age of the team
98. What type of exercise is the power clean?
A. lower body, multi-joint
B. upper body, single joint
C. full body, single joint
D. full body, multi joint
99. Which of the following is a goal of an aerobic training program?
A. increase heart rate
B. increase glycogen conservation
C. decrease mitochondrial density
D. increase VO2 at submaximal intensities
100. Which of the following reasons are appropriate for choosing the back squat as
an exercise to train sprinters?
I. both occur in the sagittal plane
II. both occur at the same movement speed
III. both use similar muscle groups
IV. both use the same joint angles
A. I, II and III only
B. II and IV only
C. I and III only
D. none of the above
101. Which of the following is a test for anaerobic capacity?
A. 1RM bench press
B. 40 yard dash
C. 300 Yard Shuttle
D. T-test
102. In which of the following situations is a higher level of arousal desired?
A. during a skeet shooting competition
B. during a shot put competition
C. when the athlete is an introvert
D. during a strategy training session
103. Which of the following is NOT an area where measurement error can occur?
A. intrasubject variability
B. intersubject variability
C. intrarater variability
D. interrater variability
104. If a power clean exercise is going to use spotters where should they be placed?
A. one behind
B. one on each side of the athlete
C. on opposite sides of the bar
D. none of the above
105. Which of the following is NOT a training variable to consider when designing aerobic endurance training programs?
A. mode
B. duration
C. intensity
D. number of repetitions
106. Coach McArthur has his athletes perform three to six sets of 6 to 12 repetitions
for three or more exercises per muscle group. Which of the following training goals
does this volume target?
A. maximum endurance
B. maximum hypertrophy
C. maximum power
D. maximum strength
107. Which of the following athletes would the Wingate test be the most appropriate
assessment for?
A. shot putter
B. basketball player
C. marathon runner
D. bowler
108. Rest intervals between sets of this duration are recommended to increase serum testosterone concentrations
A. less than 10 seconds
B. 30 to 60 seconds
C. 1 to 3 minutes
D. at least 5 minutes
109. The first stage of a needs analysis for designing a resistance training program
involves which of the following?
A. movement analysis
B. physical testing of the person’s strength
C. evaluation of training status
D. evaluation of the person’s previous injuries by a physician
110. Which of the following training drills will NOT improve an athlete’s stride
length?
A. downgrade running
B. uphill running
C. flexibility training
D. partner resisted sprints
111. Which of the following positions should the trunk be during the sprint start?
A. upright
B. perpendicular to the ground
C. learned forward at a 45 degree angle to the ground
D. leaned forward at a slight angle to the ground
112. Which of the following is used to determine the specific means of attaining the
goals of the strength and conditioning program?
A. mission statement
B. program policies and procedures
C. program objectives
D. emergency plan
113. Which of the following athletic abilities should an athlete work on if they one
rep max squatted 500 pounds, one rep max bench pressed 350 pounds, vertically
jumped 30 inches and had a pro agility time of 6 seconds.
A. lower body strength
B. upper body strength
C. lower body power
D. agility
114. A strength and conditioning professional is directed by the team physician to
design a reconditioning program for the hamstrings and quadriceps of an athlete
who is 3 days post-ACL reconstruction surgery. The physician indicates that joint
movement is CONTRAINDICATED. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate
type of exercise for this athlete?
A. open-chain
B. closed-chain
C. isometric
D. dynamic
115. Which of the following tests should be completed last?
A. Vertical Jump
B. Body Fat Percentage
C. YMCA Bench Press
D. 40 yard Dash
116. During which stage of maximum velocity running does the rear thigh accelerate
forward via concentric hip flexion?
A. early support
B. toe off
C. late support
D. mid-flight
117. A college football coach wants to measure his athlete’s explosiveness. Which of
the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power?
A. 40 yard dash
B. 1RM bench press
C. pro agility
D. vertical jump
118. At which intensity should an endurance athlete exercise at during the working
phase of repetition training?
A. lactate threshold
B. above the lactate threshold
C. above VO2 Max
D. just below VO2 Max
119. A team’s test results are considered to be not reliable because the coach who
did the testing changed how he recorded the results halfway through the group.
What type of variability does the above describe?
A. intrasubject
B. intersubject
C. intrarater
D. interrater
120. Where is the best place to put a dumbbell rack in a strength and conditioning
facility?
A. in the middle of the facility
B. near the plate weight trees
C. against the wall
D. next to the squat racks
121. Which of the following is the correct starting position of the knee joints in the
starting position of the split-squat jumps?
A. extended
B. flexed at 90 degrees
C. flexed at 45 degrees
D. in a quarter squat position
122. A 140 lb female sprinter has the following testing results:
Vertical Jump: 31 inches
1RM Back Squat: 100 lbs
40 Yard Dash: 4.9 seconds
Body Fat: 12%
Which of the following attributes should this athlete work on?
A. Strength
B. Body Composition
C. Speed
D. Muscular Power
123. Which of the following tests would be considered the LEAST valid for marathon
runner?
A. Body Composition
B. 1RM Back Squat
C. Sit and Reach
D. 2 mile run
124. Athletes should use which of the following types of exercises to reduce the risk
of injury or during rehabilitation from an injury by targeting specific muscles?
A. assistance exercises
B. core exercises
C. structural exercises
D. power exercises
125. An athlete would like to improve their lactate threshold, at which intensity is
the MOST appropriate that they train at?
A. 40% VO2 Max
B. 95% VO2 Max
C. 50% VO2 Max
D. 80% VO2 Max
Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist Practice Exam Answers
Part 2: Practical/Applied
1. C (Module 5.3)
2. B (Module 6.2)
3. D (Module 6.2)
4. D (Module 6.4)
5. B (Module 6.5)
6. B (Module 6.2)
7. A (Module 6.1)
8. A (Module 6.2)
9. C (Module 6.2)
10. B (Module 6.2)
11. D (Module 6.2)
12. A (Module 6.2)
13. B (Module 6.2)
14. A (Module 6.4)
15. C (Module 6.2)
16. C (Module 6.2)
17. B (Module 6.2)
18. D (Module 6.2)
19. A (Module 6.2)
20. C (Module 6.2)
21. A (Module 6.2)
22. D (Module 6.2)
23. B (Module 6.2)
24. D (Module 6.5)
25. A (Module 6.2)
26. A (Module 6.2)
27. C (Module 5.3)
28. D (Module 5.3)
29. A (Module 6.2)
30. A (Module 6.1)
31. D (Module 6.2)
32. C (Module 6.2)
33. C (Module 6.2)
34. D (Module 6.2)
35. C (Module 6.2)
36. B (Module 6.2)
37. B (Module 5.5)
38. A (Module 1.3)
39. C (Module 7.1)
40. B (Module 6.2)
41. D (Module 6.4)
42. A (Module 5.6)
43. B (Module 6.4)
44. A (Module 6.1)
45. C (Module 6.1)
46. C (Module 7.2)
47. B (Module 6.3)
48. D (Module 6.3)
49. B (Module 5.6)
50. C (Module 6.5)
51. A (Module 6.1)
52. B (Module 7.2)
53. C (Module 6.5)
54. B (Module 5.3)
55. D (Module 6.3)
56. C (Module 4.4)
57. A (Module 4.4)
58. A (Module 5.5)
59. A (Module 7.2)
60. C (Module 6.1)
61. D (Module 6.1)
62. D (Module 7.2)
63. A (Module 6.3)
64. B (Module 2.4)
65. A (Module 6.2)
66. D (Module 5.3)
67. A (Module 6.5)
68. B (Module 4.4)
69. C (Module 7.1)
70. A (Module 6.1)
71. C (Module 6.1)
72. C (Module 7.2)
73. A (Module 6.1)
74. A (Module 6.4)
75. A (Module 4.5)
76. B (Module 5.2)
77. B (Module 5.3)
78. D (Module 6.3)
79. C (Module 1.3)
80. C (Module 6.1)
81. B (Module 6.5)
82. B (Module 6.1)
83. C (Module 7.2)
84. B (Module 5.5)
85. B (Module 6.1)
86. B (Module 7.2)
87. A (Module 6.4)
88. A (Module 6.1)
89. B (Module 6.1)
90. B (Module 5.6)
91. D (Module 4.3)
92. B (Module 6.1)
93. C (Module 5.3)
94. A (Module 5.2)
95. C (Module 6.2)
96. D (Module 5.4)
97. C (Module 7.2)
98. D (Module 6.2)
99. B (Module 5.5)
100. C (Module 5.1)
101. C (Module 6.1)
102. B (Module 7.1)
103. B (Module 6.1)
104. D (Module 6.2)
105. D (Module 5.5)
106. B (Module 5.3)
107. B (Module 6.1)
108. B (Module 4.3)
109. A (Module 5.1)
110. A (Module 6.3)
111. C (Module 6.3)
112. C (Module 7.2)
113. D (Module 6.1)
114. C (Module 2.4)
115. C (Module 6.1)
116. D (Module 6.3)
117. D (Module 6.1)
118. C (Module 5.6)
119. C (Module 6.1)
120. C (Module 7.2)
121. B (Module 6.4)
122. A (Module 6.1)
123. B (Module 6.1)
124. A (Module 5.3)
125. D (Module 3.2)
