Career Power - No9

8/18/2019 Career Power - No9

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1/4/2016 CAREER POWER - No.1 coaching institute for banks and SSC entrance exams

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Solution Report For IT OFFICER 09 (Update)

Q. No Question Status

Q.1

Not Attempt Correct Ans. b

Solution.

Directions (1-5): Read the following information and answer the questions.

Eight players E, F, H, M, D, J, S, & V play for three different teams CSK, RCB and KIP and like eight different colours viz. Violet, Indigo, Blue,

Green, Yellow, Orange, Red and White not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three players play for the same

team. F pays for CSK and likes Violet. H likes Green but do not play for RCB. No one from KIP likes White. The only other person in same

team with F likes Blue. D likes White and J likes Indigo. V does not like Blue and plays for the same team with D. E and S both play for KIP.

The one who plays for KIP does not like Orange. S does not like Red.

Which colour does S like?

a. Red

b. Yellow

c. Orange

d. None of these

e. Cannot be determined

Q.2

Not Attempt Correct Ans. a

Solution. -NA-




team. F pays for CSK and likes Violet. H likes Green but do not play for RCB. No one from KIP likes White. The only other person in sameteam with F likes Blue. D likes White and J likes Indigo. V does not like Blue and plays for the same team with D. E and S both play for KIP.


Who likes Blue?

a. M

b. S

c. V

d. M or S

e. None of these

Q.3

Not Attempt Correct Ans. c







Which team has only two of the eight players?

a. RCB

b. KIPc. CSK

d. KIP or RCB



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Solution. -NA-

Q.4

Not Attempt Correct Ans. d

Solution. -NA-







Which of the following group of persons play for KIP?

a. MES

b. ESJ

c. EHD

d. EHS

e. None of these

Q.5

Not Attempt Correct Ans. e

Solution. -NA-







Which of the following combinations of team, person & colour is correct?

a. KIP – E – Orange

b. CSK – F – Blue

c. RCB – V – Violet

d. RCB – S – Yellow

e. None of these

Q.6


Solution. Solutions (6-7):

The sequence in which they finished the race is Samir, Ram, Tarun, Varun, Raman.

Directions (6-7): These questions are based on the following information.

Five friends - Samir, Ram, Tarun, Varun and Raman participated in a race. Ram finished the race before Tarun but after Samir. Samir finished

the race before Raman and Varun. Varun finished the race after Tarun but before Raman.

Who finished the race in the fourth position?

a. Tarun

b. Raman

c. Varun

d. Ram


Q.7 Directions (6-7):These questions are based on the following information.

Five friends - Samir, Ram, Tarun, Varun and Raman participated in a race. Ram finished the race before Tarun but after Samir. Samir finished

the race before Raman and Varun. Varun finished the race after Tarun but before Raman.

Who was the first person to finish the race?

a. Samir

b. Varun

c. Ram

d. Raman



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Solution. -NA-

Q.8


Solution.

Directions-(8-12) Study the following information to answer the given questions

8 players A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H from two different teams X and Y (4 players each) are seated around a square table - two on each side.

Players from team X are facing towards the centre and players from team Y are facing away from the centre.

Only one player of team X has both the neighbours from team Y while none of the players from team Y has both the neighbours from team X.

Both the neighbours of A are from his own team. C and F belong to team Y and only E is sitting between them. G is facing away from the

centre and is third to the left of H. B has a player from his own team on his immediate left.

Who amongst the following is sitting third to the left of D?

a. A

b. B

c. E

d. H


Q.9


Solution. -NA-


8 players A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H from two different teams X and Y (4 players each) are seated around a square table - two on each side.Players from team X are facing towards the centre and players from team Y are facing away from the centre.




Who amongst the following cannot be a neighbour of F?

a. B

b. A

c. G

d. Both A and G

e. Both A and B

Q.10 Directions-(8-12) Study the following information to answer the given questions






Which of the following is true regarding C?

a. C sits at immediate right of E

b. C and B belong to the same team

c. C and D are neighbours

d. C is second to the left of B

e. None of these


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Solution. -NA-

Q.11


Solution. -NA-







Which of these does not belong to team X?

a. A

b. E

c. H

d. B

e. None of these

Q.12


Solution. -NA-







Who is sitting to the immediate left of B?

a. C

b. E

c. F

d. Be. H

Q.13


Solution. (1) Except option (1), both the players are from different teams

Directions-(13 -14): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group.

Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

13

a. ED

b. FH

c. BD

d. AGe. EC

Q.14


Solution. (2) Except option (2), the players are immediate neighbours.

Directions-(13 -14): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group.

Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

14

a. GD

b. EB

c. EC

d. BH

e. AD


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Q.15


Solution. -NA-

Statements:

P δ C, C $ W, W # H, H* M

Conclusions:

I. M @ W

II. H@ P

III. W δ P

IV. W # P

a. Only I is trueb. Only III is true

c. Only IV is true

d. Only either III or IV is true

e. Only either III or IV and I are true

Q.16


Solution. -NA-

Statements:

R * D, D $ J, J # M, M @ K

Conclusions:

I. K # JII. D @ M

III. R # M

IV. D@ K

a. None is true

b. Only I is true

c. Only II is true

d. only III is true

e. Only IV is true

Q.17


Solution. -NA-

Statements:

H @ T, T # F, F δ E, E * V

Conclusions:

I. V $ F

II. E @ T

III. H @ V

IV. T # V

a. Only I, II and III are true

b. Only I, II and IV are true

c. Only II, III and IV are true

d. Only I, III and IV are truee. All I, II, III and IV are true

Essay for Question No.

Directions: (15-18): In the following questions, the symbols @, $, *, # and δ used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’

‘A@B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’

‘A δ B means “A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’

‘A *B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’

Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are

definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

15


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Q.18


Solution. -NA-

Statements:

D # R, R * K, K @ F, F $ J

Conclusions:

I. J # R

II. J # K

III. R # F

IV. K @ D

a. Only II and III are true

b. Only III and IV are truec. Only I, III and IV are true

d. All I, II, III and IV are true

e. Only II and IV are true.


Q.19


Solution.

(3) If (3) is true then it means that there is a real drought problem in the area. So the Governor claim that the state faces a drought is a

genuine claim and has nothing to do with re-elections. Hence it weakens the conclusion in the given statement.

Governor claims that the state faces a drought and has implemented new water-use restrictions; but that’s just a move to get some free

publicity for his re-election campaign. So far this year we have had 3.5 inches of rain, slightly more than the average amount of rain for the

same period over the last three years.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion of the argument above?

a. The governor did not declare drought emergencies in the previous three years.

b. City officials who have the authority to mandate water-use restrictions have not done so.

c. The snow melt that usually contributes significantly to the states reservoirs is several inches below normal.

d. The amount of water the state can draw from rivers that cross state boundaries is limited by federal law.

e. Water-use restrictions are short-term measures and do little to reduce long-term water consumption.

Q.20


Solution.

(2) Clearly, nothing is mentioned about the professional nature of the job or being successful or other professions. So, (1), (3) and(4) are not

implicit. The statement hints that one rejects a thing that is easy to achieve. So, II is implicit.

If it is easy to become an engineer, I don't want to be an engineer.

Which of the following is implicit in the above statement?

a. An individual aspires to be professional.

b. One desires to achieve a thing which is hard earned.

c. Engineers are not very successful these days.

d. Other professions are better than engineering.

e. Both (2) and (3)

Q.21


Solution.

(1) The counsellor suggests that frequent arguments are a cause of marital disharmony. One way to weaken that conclusion is to show that

the disharmony came before the arguments (i.e. the disharmony caused the arguments). This is suggested in A which is the best answer.

A marriage counsellor noted that couples who have occasional violent arguments are less likely to divorce within the next six months than

those who have frequent but less violent arguments. He concluded that frequent arguing is a major factor in the causation of severe marital

disharmony.

The counsellor’s conclusion is most weakened by which of the following observations?

a. Couples who have already come to the point of divorce argue continuously over small matters.

b. People who have recently divorced are more likely to argue violently when they meet.

c. Many people in happy marriages have occasional violent arguments.

d. Recently divorced people rarely cite frequent arguments as a cause of marital disharmony

e. A significant fraction of couples close to divorce do not talk to each other.

Q.22 Directions-(22-23) Study the following information to answer the given questions.


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Solution.

(5) The researchers are testing preference for one feature: the masculinity/femininity of the faces. However, if the faces have other

differences, say race or size or age, then the subjects could be responding to that feature. In statement E, the correct answer, we have the

possibility that the subjects are responding to age, a situation that is very damaging to the conclusion.

In a recent study of responses to visual images, researchers found that women most frequently gave the rating ‘most attractive’ to images of

male faces that were more feminine in contour, and rated more masculine faces, on average, ‘less attractive’. The researchers concluded that

modern women prefer men who are less obviously masculine in their facial features.

The conclusion would be most severely weakened if which of the following were true?

a. Facial features are not the criterion that most women use to decide whether a man is attractive.

b. The visual images were computer generated composites of photographs and not pictures of actual men.

c. The rating scale was a ten point scale with most attractive scoring 1-2 and least attractive scoring 8-10.

d. Most popular male actors have the features that the study allocated to the more masculine category.e. The faces with the more masculine features were all significantly older than those with the feminine features.

Q.23


Solution.

(1) The conclusion refers to “modern women” a fact that suggests the authors think their work applies to all modern women. Hence they do

assume what is stated in A.

Directions-(22-23) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a recent study of responses to visual images, researchers found that women most frequently gave the rating ‘most attractive’ to images of

male faces that were more feminine in contour, and rated more masculine faces, on average, ‘less attractive’. The researchers concluded that

modern women prefer men who are less obviously masculine in their facial features.

Which is the following is an assumption that the researchers apparently made in this study?

a. The women who participated in the study were sufficiently representative of modern women in general.

b. Male faces are, in general, attractive to women.

c. Visual images are important to women.

d. It is impossible to predict what features an ideal face would have.

e. Women in previous ages would have preferred more masculine men.

Q.24


Solution.

Directions (24-26)- Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow-

Five friends Aman, Pawan, Naina, Vicky and Rohit each scored different marks in an examination. Vicky scored more than Rohit but less than

Aman. Naina scored more than Aman. Pawan scored less marks than Vicky but Pawan did not score the minimum marks. Aman scored 90%

marks and the one who scored minimum marks scored 65% marks.

If Vicky scored 72% marks, then which of the following can be marks scored by Pawan?

a. 69%

b. 86%

c. 75%

d. 92%

e. None of these

Q.25 Directions (24-26)- Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow-




How many persons scored more than 95% marks?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four


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Solution. -NA-


Q.26


Solution. -NA-

Directions (24-26)- Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow-




Who amongst the five friends is most likely to have scored 80% marks?

a. Naina

b. Vicky

c. Pawan

d. Rohit

e. Either Vicky or Pawan

Q.27


Solution.

Directions (Q. 27-30): These questions are based on the following informations.

In a certain code ‘Mohan is good man’ is written as ‘pa le ta hi’,

‘man always rich’ is written as ‘ne hi ki’,

‘rich is good’ is written as ‘pa ne le’ and ‘be good always’ is written as ‘ki zi pa’.

Which of the following can be coded as ‘pa ta ki le’?

a. always good rich is

b. rich is man always

c. mohan is always good

d. mohan is rich always

e. None of these

Q.28


Solution. -NA-




Which of the following is the code for ‘always’?

a. le

b. hi

c. ne

d. ki

e. zi

Q.29 Directions (Q. 27-30): These questions are based on the following informations.




How will ‘rich is man’ be written in this code?


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Solution. -NA-

a. le hi ne

b. le ta ne

c. pa ne zi

d. ki hi ne

e. ne ta zi

Q.30


Solution. -NA-





Which of the following may represent ‘be’?

a. le

b. ne

c. pa

d. ta

e. zi

Q.31


Solution.

Directions (31-37): In each of the following questions two/three statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions

numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding

commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statements:

Some mobiles are pagers.

No mobile is a laptop.

Conclusions:1. No laptop is a pager.

2. Some pagers are definitely not mobiles

a. If only 1 conclusion follows

b. If only 2 conclusion follows

c. If either 1 or 2 follows

d. If neither 1 nor 2 follows

e. If both 1 and 2 follow

Q.32 Directions (31-37): In each of the following questions two/three statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions




Statements:All tables are chairs.

All chairs are beds.

No bed is sofa.

Conclusions:

1. Some tables are definitely not beds.


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Solution.

2. No sofa is a table






Q.33


Solution. -NA-


numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding


Statements:

All tables are chairs.

All chairs are beds.

No bed is sofa.

Conclusions:

1. No chair is sofa.

2. Some tables being sofa is a possibility.






Q.34






Statements:No fan is a cooler.

Some coolers are heaters.

All tubes are fans.

Conclusions:

1. No cooler is a tube.

2. All tubes being heaters is a possibility.







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Solution.

Q.35


Solution. -NA-





Statements:

No fan is a cooler.

Some coolers are heaters.

All tubes are fans.

Conclusions:

1. No heater is a tube.

2. All fans are tubes






Q.36


Solution.





Statements:

Some digits are letters.

All digits are symbols.

No symbol is an alphabet.

Conclusions:

1. Some symbols are letters.

2. No digit is an alphabet.






Q.37 Directions (31-37): In each of the following questions two/three statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions




Statements:

All rivers are seas.

Some seas are oceans.


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Solution.

Conclusions:

1. All rivers are oceans.

2. All oceans being rivers is a possibility.






Q.38


Solution.

Directions (38-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Point S is 40 m towards the North of Point P. Point Q is 15 m towards the West of point S. Point U is 25 m towards the West of point S. Point T

is 20 m towards the South of point Q. Point R is 15 m towards the East of point T. Point V is 15 m towards the West of point P.

Which of the following points are in a straight line?

a. S, T, P

b. T, V, R

c. S, Q, V

d. T, V, Q

e. U, Q, R

Q.39


Solution. -NA-

Directions (38-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.



P is in which direction with respect to R?

a. South

b. North

c. East

d. West


Q.40 Directions (38-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.



If a person walks 10 m towards East from point U and then takes a right turn, which of the following points would he reach first?

a. V

b. S

c. T

d. P


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Solution. -NA-

e. R

Q.41


Solution.

(2)

In a country where welfare is accorded high priority, stricter rules cannot be applied. further, there is no need to make graduation the

minimum educational qualification for entry level jobs in any public sector organisation. Hence, Argument I is not strong Argument II is

logically convincing.

Directions—(Q. 41–45): In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong” arguments

and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. “Weak” arguments may not be

directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.

Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the argument and which is a “strong”

argument and which is a “weak” argument.

Should graduation be made minimum educational qualification for entry level jobs in any public sector organization?

Arguments:

I: Yes, graduates always perform better than the non graduates by virtue of their higher level of education.

II: No, there are quite a few people who cannot afford to remain un-employed till the completion of gradation and are capable of performing

equally well as the graduate candidates.

a. if only argument I is strong.

b. if only argument II is strong.

c. if either argument I or II is strong.

d. if neither argument I nor II is strong.

e. if both arguments I and II are strong.

Q.42


Solution. (1)

Only argument I seems to be strong. Any electronic device like computer can be used effectively if the concepts are clear.






Should the examination bodies for all university examination permit the use of calculators?

Arguments:

I: No, it is necessary for the students to know the methods of manual calculation to make their concepts clear.

II: Yes, manual calculations are no more required with extensive use of computers in all fields.






Q.43 Directions—(Q. 41–45): In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong” arguments





Should the knowledge of Hindi language be made compulsory for all the employees of public sector organization?

Arguments:

I: Yes, it is necessary for dealing with people from the educationally backward part of the society.II. No, it is not necessary for every employee to have the knowledge of Hindi Language.






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Solution. (4)

Neither of the arguments is strong. Argument II lacks substantial facts while argument I does not make any strong point.


Q.44


Solution.

(2)

Only Argument II is strong because in southern part of the country , work can be done without the knowledge of hindi even for

educationally backward part of the country.




Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the argument and which is a “strong”argument and which is a “weak” argument.

Should it be mad compulsory for all the private sector organization to reserve quota for socially backward classes?

Arguments:

I: No, the private sector should not be governed by the Government rules.

II: Yes, private sector organizations should also contribute in upliftment of socially backward classes.






Q.45


Solution. (1) Instead of giving advice to women, it is necessary for government to take measures to control such incidents.






Should the women be advised not to travel alone at night in view of the increasing incidences of rapes and sexual abuse?

Arguments:

I. No, instead the Government should take measures to control such incidences.

II. Yes, it is difficult even for the police department to control such cases.






Q.46


Solution. B will be 11th from the right end if all the digits are dropped.

Directions—(Q. 46–50) These questions are based on the following arrangement:

If all the digits are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be fourth to the left of seventh from the right end?

a. B

b. @

c. L

d. A

e. None of these

Q.47 Directions—(Q. 46–50) These questions are based on the following arrangement:


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Solution. -NA-

How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately followed or immediately preceded by a

consonant but not both?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

e. More than three

Q.48


Solution. (1)

Fifth to the right of 13th from the right means 8th from the right.

8th from right = %


If the position of ten elements from the right end is reversed which of the following will be fifth to the right of thirteenth from the right?

a. %

b. F

c. C

d. G

e. None of these

Q.49


Solution.


How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by vowel and also immediately

followed by another consonant?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

e. More than three

Q.50


Solution. (5) @MA


Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the above arrangement and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to

the group?

a. KL3

b. F £ J

c. R61

d.

e. @MA

Q.51 Directions—(51–55): What approximate value will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions?


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Solution.

a. 140

b. 104

c. 120

d. 110

e. 160

Q.52


Solution.

Directions—(51–55): What approximate value will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions?

40.012 % of 464.98 + 80.002 % of 279.99 = 50 % of ?

a. 250

b. 150

c. 820

d. 930

e. 550

Q.53


Solution.


3 2 ∕ 9 of 298.87 = % of 6788.89 - 2135.91

a. 45

b. 90

c. 25

d. 56

e. 11.35

Q.54


Solution.


a. 82

b. 101

c. 90

d. 85

e. 96

Q.55 Directions—(51–55): What approximate value will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions?

98543.02 + 21457.0124 - (12125 x 7.98)


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Solution. (4); 98540+21460-(1212 5×8)

=23000

a. 12000

b. 11276

c. 18840

d. 23000

e. 17256

Q.56


Solution.

Directions—(56–60): What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions?

85% of 485.60 = 50% of ?

a. 675.52

b. 915.5

c. 825.52

d. 735.5

e. None of these

Q.57


Solution.


9 3 ∕ 4 + 7 2 ∕ 17 - 9

1 ∕ 15

a. 7 (719/1020)

b. 9 (817/1020)

c. 9 (719/1020)

d. 7 (817/1020)

e. None of these

Q.58


Solution.


∛ ? = (36 x 24) ÷ 9

a. 884736

b. 854734

c. 814736d. 804036

e. None of these

Q.59



(42 x 229) ÷ (9261)1/3 = ?

a. 452

b. 458c. 4480

d. 416

e. 315


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Solution.

Q.60


Solution.


a. 5932

b. 5624

c. 5932

d. 5832

e. 5115

Q.61


Solution.

Directions (61-65): What will come in place of .question mark (?) in the following number series ?

21, 25, 36, 66, 151, ?

a. 397

b. 409c. 399

d. 407

e. None of these

Q.62


Solution.


62, 74, 98, 134, 182, ?

a. 232

b. 233

c. 222

d. 223

e. None of these

Q.63


Solution.


13, 67, 175, 391, 823, ?

a. 1587

b. 1687

c. 1568

d. 1677

e. None of these


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Q.64


Solution.


585, 441, 341, 277, 241, ?

a. 216

b. 225

c. 232

d. 224

e. None of these

Q.65


Solution.


447, 335, 279, 251, 237, ?

a. 230

b. 229

c. 227

d. 232

e. None of these

Q.66


Solution. (3)

Let the ten’s place = x

Then unit place = 3x

And hundreds place = x/2

Now,

x + 3x + x/2 = 9

x = 2

Hence the number is 126

The digit in the unit's place of a three digit number is thrice the digit in the ten's place and the digit in the hundred's place is half of the digit

in the ten's place. If the sum of the three digits of the number is 9, what is the three digit number?

a. 243

b. 713

c. 126

d. None of these


Q.67


Solution.

If the persons A and B have incomes in the ratio 7 : 5 and expenditures in the ratio 3 : 2 and each one of them saves Rs P, then, the income

of B is:

a. P

b. 7P

c. 7/2P

d. 5P

e. None of these


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Q.68


Solution.

A train running at 36 km/hr passes another train completely in 12 s, which is half of its length, running in the opposite direction at 54 km/hr.

If it also passes a railway platform in 1.5 min, what is the length of the platform (in metres)?

a. 700

b. 860

c. 900

d. 1000

e. None of these

Q.69


Solution.

2 rice varieties costing Rs 20 per kg and Rs 30 per kg were mixed as 2 : 3 and sold so as to gain 10%. What was the SP of the mixture

(Rs/kg)?

a. 31.2

b. 28.6

c. 30

d. 26

e. 32.6

Q.70


Solution.

A circle of radius 8 cm has its radius decreased by 2 cm. What is the approximate percentage decrease in area?

a. 25%

b. 50%

c. 38%

d. 43.75%

e. None of these

Q.71 Rs. 31,394 are divided between A and B in the ratio 5 : 6. What is the difference between thrice the share of A and twice the share of B?


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Solution.

a. Rs. 6582

b. Rs. 5862

c. Rs. 8562

d. Rs. 8652

e. Rs. 8526

Q.72


Solution.

A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 7 hours. An inlet pipe fills water at the rate of 2 litres a minute. When the tank is full

the inlet is opened and due to the leak the tank is empty in 8 hours. The capacity of the tank in litres is

a. 3450litres

b. 5460litres

c. 7620litres

d. 6720 litres

e. None of these

Q.73


Solution.

The time taken by a boat to go 2 km against the stream is 1 hour and to go 1 km along the stream is 10 minutes. What is the time taken by

boat to go 5 km in stationary water?

a. 1 h

b. 1 h 25 min

c. 1 h 15 min

d. 1 h 45 mine. 1 h 30 min

Q.74


Solution. (5)

Sum of the ages of 4 members 5 years ago = 106 years

Sum of the ages at present if there was no change in family = 106 + 5 4 = 126

Sum of the ages after the daughter is replaced by daughter-in-law = 108

difference in the age of the daughter and the daughter in law = 126 – 108 = 18

The sum of the ages of 4 members of a family 5 years ago was 106 years. Today when the daughter has been married off and replaced by a

daughter in law, the sum of their ages is 108. Assuming that there has been no other change in the family structure and all the people are

alive, what is the difference in the age of the daughter and the daughter in law?

a. 22 years

b. 11 years

c. 25 years

d. 19 years

e. 18 years

Q.75 The length and the breadth of a rectangular door are increased by 1 m each and due to this the area of the door increased by 21 sq. m. But if

the length is increased by 1 m and breadth decreased by 1 m, area is decreased by 5 sq. m. Find the perimeter of the door.

a. 25 m


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Solution.

b. 20 m

c. 40 m

d. 60 m

e. 24 m

Q.76


Solution.

A bag contains 13 white and 7 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are of the same colour?

a. 41/190

b. 21/190

c. 59/190

d. 99/190

e. 77/190

Q.77


Solution.

A and B together can complete a task in 4 days. B and C together can complete the same task in 6 days. A and C together can complete the

same task in 8 days. What is the respective ratio of the number of days taken by A when completing the same task alone to the number of

days taken by C when completing the same task alone?

a. 5 : 3

b. 5 : 1

c. 3 : 5

d. 1 : 5

e. 3 : 5

Q.78


Solution.

An article was purchased for Rs. 12450. Its price was marked up by 30 percent .It was sold at a discount of 20 percent of its marked up price.

What was the Profit Percent on the Cost Price?

a. 4

b. 2

c. 5

d. 3

e. 0

Q.79 The area of a square is 1296 square meters. The breadth of a rectangle is 1/3rd of the side of the square and the length of the rectangle is

twice the breadth. What is the difference between the area of the square and the area of the rectangle?


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Solution.

a. 1008 sq. mtr.

b. 1080 sq.mtr.

c. 928 sq.mtr.

d. 1216 sq.mtr.

e. None of these

Q.80


Solution.

In how many different ways can the letter of the word ‘MUMBAI’ be arranged so that no two vowels come together?

a. 144

b. 72

c. 504

d. 36e. 48

Q.81


Solution.

Directions—(81–85) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give

answer, If :

I. 3x – 2y = 29

II. y² = 121

a. x>y

b. x≥y

c. x y

b. x ≥ y

c. x < y

d. x ≤ y

e. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.


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Solution.

Q.83


Solution.


answer, If :

I.64x² - 50 = 14

II. 9y² + √121 = √225

a. x > y

b. x ≥ y

c. x < y

d. x ≤ y


Q.84


Solution.


answer, If :

I. x² + x = 56

II. y² – 18y+ 72 = 0

a. x > y

b. x ≥ y

c. x < y

d. x ≤ y


Q.85


Solution. (5)

X = 2 Y = 2

So X = Y.


answer, If :

a. x > y

b. x ≥ y

c. x < y

d. x ≤ y



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Q.86


Solution.

How many Muslim people are in Mumbai ?

a. 46128

b. 39028

c. 29532

d. 45150

e. None of these

Q.87


Solution.

What is the ratio between the total number of people in UP and the total number of Hindu in Chennai?

a. 105:931

b. 231:421

c. 1548:817

d. 119:756

e. None of these

Q.88


The number of Sikh people in Delhi is approax what percent of total number of people in Goa?

a. 80%

b. 95%

c. 70%

d. 24%e. None of these


Directions—(86–90) Study the Pie -chart carefully to answer the questions that follow—)

Total number of people in different cities/states= 860000

Percentage of people in different cities/states

Percentage of Different religion people in each of the given cities. (the percentage is same in all cities)

86


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Solution.

Q.89


Solution.

What is the average number of people in Goa, Up,and Delhi cities together?

a. 122500

b. 155000

c. 143333

d. 106344

e. 162544

Q.90


Solution.

The total number of people in Chennai is approximately what percent of total number of Christian in Goa ?

a. 940

b. 470

c. 870

d. 1050

e. 820


Q.91


Solution.

In the corporate sector, approximately how many degrees should be there in the central angle ?

a. 102

b. 117

c. 122

d. 133

e. 95

Q.92 If the investment by NRI's are Rs 4,000 crore, then the approximate investments by corporate houses and FII's together in crores is:

a. 23463


Directions—(91–95) The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors

91


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Solution.

b. 24363

c. 26433

d. 27346

e. 20150

Q.93


Solution.

What percentage of the total investment is coming from FII's and NRI's ?

a. 48%

b. 41%

c. 44%

d. 52%

e. None of these

Q.94


Solution.

If the total investment other than by FII and corporate houses is Rs 335,000 crore, then the investment by NRI's and Offshore funds will be

(approximately) ?

a. 274100

b. 285600

c. 293000

d. 325000


Q.95


Solution.

If the total investment flows from FII's were to be doubled in the next year and the investment flows from all other sources had remained

constant at their existing levels for this year, then what would be the proportion of FII investment in the total investment into India Bonds

next year (in US $ millions) ?

a. 55%

b. 50 %

c. 62%

d. 45%

e. 58%


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Q.96


Solution.

In which year was the difference between number of items of Type-I produced by company -R and number of items of Type-II produced by

company-S is second lowest ?

a. 2006

b. 2007

c. 2008

d. 2009

e. 2010

Q.97


Solution.

What was the average number of items of Type-II produced by all the companies together in the year of 2006?

a. 4985b. 4895

c. 4695

d. 4965

e. None of these

Q.98


Solution. (4)

Required ratio = 6660 : 8640 = 37 : 48

What was the respective ratio between the number of items of Type-II produced by Company-R in the year of 2010 and the number of items

of Type-I produced by Company-Q in the year of 2008?

a. 47 : 38

b. 48 : 37

c. 38 : 47

d. 37 : 48

e. None of these

Q.99 Number of items of Type-I produced by company-S in the 2009 was approximately what percentage of number of items of Type-II produced

by Company-R in the year of 2008?

a. 145

b. 150


Directions (96-100): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

The following table gives the production of two types of items by four different companies in six different years.

96


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Solution.

c. 140

d. 160

e. 155

Q.100


Solution.

What was the approximate percent decrease in number of items of Type-II that Company-P produced in the year of 2011 as compared to

previous year?

a. 30

b. 25

c. 22

d. 40

e. 35


Q.101


Solution. (1); The functioning of DNV and CEPAA

With what does the passage specifically deal?

a. The functioning of DNV and CEPAA

b. Social Accountability or SA -3000

c. Eradication of inhumane working conditionsd. Unrealistically high requirements

e. None of these

Q.102


Solution.

(5); T he aim is to draw attention to and h elp reduce unjust and inhuman working conditions in factories and plantations worldwide, thus

ensuring a fair global workplace.

What will help reduce unjust practices in workplace on a global level?

a. A concerted effort by international consumer organizations.

b. An international standard

c. Certification of companies by DNV only

d. U.N. Declaration of Human Rights and Children’s Rights.

e. Certification of companies as per international standards of working conditions.


Directions: (101 - 109): Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you

locate them while answering some of the questions.

International consumer organizations have long been calling for a crackdown on injustices such as child labour and forced labour. With the introduction of an

international standard, it will now become possible to conduct independent verification of working conditions in line with international conventions such as the UN

Declaration Human Rights and Children’s Rights. For the first time, an international standard organization, Det Norske Veritas (DNV) has launched in India

certification according to SA 3000 – Social Accountability. DNV is one of the three companies worldwide to perform this certification. The advent of the first-ever

standard for social accountability is a landmark in international business. The aim is to draw attention to and help reduce unjust and inhuman working conditions in

factories and plantations worldwide, thus ensuring a fair global workplace. SA 3000 was created by the Council on Economic Priorities Accreditation Agency

(CEPAA) in New York in cooperation with a range of international organizations. DNV is accredited to audit for SA 3000 worldwide. It conducts third – party audits,

impartial checks on suppliers to verify that products are manufactured in accordance with the requirements of social accountability. So far about 20 companieshave been certified according with requirements has certified around 25 per cent of these. DNV is launching these services in India with a technical meet being

organized for business and management consultants and facilitators. The purpose is to make them aware of the new requirement and make them better equipped

to manage changes in industries here. The standard is designed with some leeway so that the requirements are not unduly high or unrealistic. DNV was

established in 1914 as an independent foundation with the objective of “Safeguarding life, Property and the Environment” and its vision is “to be the leading

independent international provider of services for managing risk”. DNV has been; operational in this country since 1922 and is one of the largest certification body

here and it has certified over 1,300 companies.

101


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Q.103


Solution. (3); Third option is wrong as DNV was established in 1914.

Which statement is not true in context of the passage?

a. DNV has certified about 20 companies according to SA-3000

b. SA-3000 is an advent by CEPAA

c. DNV was established in 1314

d. The DNV works in tandem with UN Declaration of Human and Children’s Rights.

e. None of these

Q.104


Solution.

(3); Hand in handcan be used in place of in line with because both the phrases means ‘in accordance with’ according to the p assage.

Which of the following can be substituted for ‘in line with’ as used in the passage?

a. Hand in glove with

b. to shoulder

c. Hand in hand

d. Close at hand

e. None of these

Q.105


Solution.

(1); DNV is accredited to audit for SA 3000 worldwide. It conducts third – party audits, impartial checks on suppliers to verify that products

are manufactured in accordance with the requirements of social accountability.

Which of the following is are true in context of the passage?

(A) DNV conducts third-party audits.(B) DNV was created by CEPAA

(C) DNV is the only international standards organization

a. Only A

b. Only B

c. Only A & C

d. A, B & C

e. None of these

Q.106


Solution. (3); Crackdown means severe measures to prevent undesirable actions

What does the term ‘crackdown’ imply?

a. solve the problem

b. reveal the mystery

c. severe measures to prevent undesirable actions.

d. Eradicate the existing evil

e. None of these

Q.107


Solution. -NA-

What is the purpose of setting up DNV?

a. to verify working conditions.

b. to certify companies according to international standards of safe working.

c. to demand social accountability form international business

d. to save life, property and environment.

e. All of the above

Q.108


What can the paragraph be best described as?

a. an analysis of working conditions

b. a mere study of DNV

c. a survey report.d. A data-based study of DNV

e. the purpose of DNV


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Solution. (4); A data-based study of DNV

Q.109


Solution.

(4); DNV is accredited to audit for SA 3000 worldwide. It conducts third – party audits, impartial checks on suppliers to verify that products

are manufactured in accordance with the requirements of social accountability.

“DNV is …………….services” implies that…………

a. Forced labour and child labour will be a thing of past

b. DNV is a component of SA-300

c. UN has intervened in the malpractices existing in work places.

d. Audits, checks, verification and certification of work places.

e. CEPAA is an ancillary unit of UNO.


Q.110


Solution. (1); effective

Effective means successful in producing a desired or intended result.

Directions (110-114): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Q- We should take …….. measures to prevent recurrence at such incidents.

a. effective

b. properly

c. casual

d. substitute

e. cumulative

Q.111


Solution. (5); set aside

Set aside means to place something in a place that is to one side or out of the way.


Q- Sarita decided to set ……. sometime every day for prayers.

a. up

b. on

c. in

d. for

e. aside

Q.112


Solution. (3); shared

Shared means to have a portion of (something) with another or others.


Q- This year the prestigious prize was ……. by two reputed social scientists for their contribution in social science.

a. divided

b. distributed

c. shared

d. honorede. conferred

Q.113


Solution. (4); enhance


Q- Unfavorable weather conditions can ….. illness.

a. cure

b. defect

c. treat

d. enhance

e. diagnose


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Enhance means to intensify, increase, or further improve the quality, value, or extent of.

Q.114


Solution. (2); than

‘No sooner’ is always followed by ‘than’ as it is a conjunction.


Q- No sooner dial the bell ring ……. the actor started singing.

a. when

b. than

c. after

d. before

e. through

Q.115


Solution. -NA-

Directions: (115-118): Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options

which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct alternative from (A), (B), (C) and (D) which represents all

those synonyms.

RIPE

(A) Grown (B) Mature

(C) Ready (D) Unpleasant

a. Only B

b. B &Cc. A, B & C

d. B, C & D

e. All of (A) ,(B),(C) & (D)

Q.116


Solution. -NA-



those synonyms.

CONDEMN

(A) Criticize (B) Beat(C) Punish (D) Contempt

a. Only A

b. A & C

c. C & D

d. A, C & D

e. All of (A), (B), (C) & (D)

Q.117


Solution. -NA-



those synonyms.

RALLY

(A) Support (B) Gather

(C) Assemble (D) Recover

a. Only C

b. Both A & D

c. A, C & D

d. A, B & C

e. All of (A),(B),(C) & (D)

Q.118 Directions: (115-118): Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options


those synonyms.

WEATHER


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Solution. -NA-

(A) Weaken (B) Hope

(C) Face (D) Atmosphere

a. Only D

b. A &C

c. B, C & D

d. A, C & D

e. All of (A), (B), (C) &(D)

Q.119


Solution. -NA-

Directions (119-128): In each of the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed

below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one at which fits blank appropriately in the context of the passage. Find out

the appropriate words.

In the earlier days, some long distance trains were (119) more number of compartments. Thus making the train (120) than even the length of

platforms. Therefore, the last compartment usually (121) outside the platform. Once a person travelling in the last compartment of such a

train could not (122) tea, coffee, snacks or water as he failed to (123) on the platform. He remained hungry and thirsty throughout hid (124)

on reaching his destination, he (125) written complaint in which he appealed (126) long distance train should ever have any last

compartment. If at all, last compartment cannot be (127). It should be place somewhere in (128).

Q- 119

a. attaching

b. shutting

c. travellingd. manufacturing

e. having

Q.120


Solution. -NA-







on reaching his destination, he (125) written complaint in which he appealed (126) long distance train should ever have any lastcompartment. If at all, last compartment cannot be (127). It should be place somewhere in (128).

Q- 120

a. bigger

b. longer

c. heavier

d. crowded

e. shorter

Q.121


Solution. -NA-









Q- 121

a. crowded

b. vacated

c. halted

d. derailede. collapsed


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Q.122


Solution. -NA-









Q- 122

a. getb. offer

c. eat

d. drink

e. sell

Q.123


Solution. -NA-





platforms. Therefore, the last compartment usually (121) outside the platform. Once a person travelling in the last compartment of such atrain could not (122) tea, coffee, snacks or water as he failed to (123) on the platform. He remained hungry and thirsty throughout hid (124)



Q- 123

a. walk

b. run

c. wait

d. alight

e. stand

Q.124


Solution. -NA-









Q- 124

a. days

b. compartmentc. life

d. train

e. journey

Q.125 Directions (119-128): In each of the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed





train could not (122) tea, coffee, snacks or water as he failed to (123) on the platform. He remained hungry and thirsty throughout hid (124)on reaching his destination, he (125) written complaint in which he appealed (126) long distance train should ever have any last


Q- 125

a. wrote


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Solution. -NA-

b. submitted

c. alleged

d. withdrew

e. received

Q.126


Solution. -NA-



the appropriate words.In the earlier days, some long distance trains were (119) more number of compartments. Thus making the train (120) than even the length of





Q- 126

a. no

b. each

c. every

d. any

e. only

Q.127


Solution. -NA-









Q- 127

a. stopped

b. connected

c. attached

d. avoided

e. removed

Q.128


Solution. -NA-




In the earlier days, some long distance trains were (119) more number of compartments. Thus making the train (120) than even the length of platforms. Therefore, the last compartment usually (121) outside the platform. Once a person travelling in the last compartment of such a




Q- 128

a. wagon

b. station

c. middle

d. end

e. yard

Q.129 Directions (129-133): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the

sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation. If any)


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Solution. -NA-

Q- In financial matters (1)/it is important to (2)/get disinterested advice(3)/ or no advice (4) /No error (5)

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

Q.130


Solution. -NA-

Directions (129-133): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the


Q- He had been (1)/ saved of (2)/ death as if (3)/by divine intervention (4) /No error (5)

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

Q.131


Solution. (4); Replace ‘are’ with ‘is’ because ‘news’ is singular noun.

Directions (129-133): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the


Q- He was (1)/ of the belief (2)/ that the evening news (3)/ a

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